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We are posting today’s 10pm Current Affairs Quiz
About 10pm Quiz - In this initiative, we post 10 MCQs daily. Questions are based on Current affairs. We at ForumIAS believe that practicing quality questions on a daily basis can boost students’ prelims preparation.
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10 PM Quiz: June 15, 2020
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Constitution of India provides for abolition of untouchability.
- The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 makes enforcement of religious and social disabilities a punishable offence.
- A person convicted for preaching untouchability cannot be nominated to the Council of States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 17 of the constitution states that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability is an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Statement 2 is correct. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 provides punishment for enforcing religious disabilities, punishment for enforcing social disabilities, punishment for refusing to admit person to hospitals, etc., punishment for refusing to sell goods or render services, punishment for other offences arising out of untouchability etc.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of People Act 1951, a person convicted under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 which provides for punishment for the preaching and practice of “untouchability”, and for the enforcement of any disability arising therefrom; is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament or of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 17 of the constitution states that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability is an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Statement 2 is correct. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 provides punishment for enforcing religious disabilities, punishment for enforcing social disabilities, punishment for refusing to admit person to hospitals, etc., punishment for refusing to sell goods or render services, punishment for other offences arising out of untouchability etc.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of People Act 1951, a person convicted under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 which provides for punishment for the preaching and practice of “untouchability”, and for the enforcement of any disability arising therefrom; is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament or of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Goods & Services Tax Council:
- It is a constitutional body.
- The GST Council is chaired by the Minister of Finance, Government of India.
- The decisions of the Goods and Services Tax Council are taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
- The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one fourth of the total votes cast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body under article 279A of the constitution for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
Statement 2 is correct. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Statement 3 is correct. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council is taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The vote of the Central Government have a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body under article 279A of the constitution for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
Statement 2 is correct. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Statement 3 is correct. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council is taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The vote of the Central Government have a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding COVID-19 disease:
- Asymptomatic patients of COVID-19 can spread infection to others.
- Transmission may occur through fomites in the immediate environment around the infected person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The SARS-COV-2 virus is spread mainly from person-to-person. Through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. These droplets can land in the mouths or noses of people who are nearby or possibly be inhaled into the lungs. COVID-19 may be spread by people who are not showing symptoms.
Statement 2 is correct. Transmission may also occur through fomites in the immediate environment around the infected person. Therefore, transmission of the COVID-19 virus can occur by direct contact with infected people and indirect contact with surfaces in the immediate environment or with objects used on the infected person.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The SARS-COV-2 virus is spread mainly from person-to-person. Through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. These droplets can land in the mouths or noses of people who are nearby or possibly be inhaled into the lungs. COVID-19 may be spread by people who are not showing symptoms.
Statement 2 is correct. Transmission may also occur through fomites in the immediate environment around the infected person. Therefore, transmission of the COVID-19 virus can occur by direct contact with infected people and indirect contact with surfaces in the immediate environment or with objects used on the infected person.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Malabar gliding frog:
- It is associated with freshwater habitats in Western Ghats of India.
- It is listed as vulnerable species in IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Malabar gliding frog (Rhacophorus malabaricus), a rare amphibian can glide in the air up to 10 to 12 meters is associated with freshwater habitats and is found in Western Ghats of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Rhacophorus malabaricus is listed as Least concern in IUCN red list with a decreasing population trend.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Malabar gliding frog (Rhacophorus malabaricus), a rare amphibian can glide in the air up to 10 to 12 meters is associated with freshwater habitats and is found in Western Ghats of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Rhacophorus malabaricus is listed as Least concern in IUCN red list with a decreasing population trend.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ELISA test:
- It is an antibody detection test.
- ELISA test is conducted on nasal or throat swab sample of the patient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a test that detects and measures antibodies in the body related to certain infectious conditions. Antibodies are proteins that your body produces in response to harmful substances called antigens.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An ELISA detects antibodies produced in patient blood. An ELISA test is of two types depending on the antibodies tested for — immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin M (IgM). IgG detects antibodies developed in later stage of infection, and IgM detects antibodies produced in early stages of infection.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a test that detects and measures antibodies in the body related to certain infectious conditions. Antibodies are proteins that your body produces in response to harmful substances called antigens.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An ELISA detects antibodies produced in patient blood. An ELISA test is of two types depending on the antibodies tested for — immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin M (IgM). IgG detects antibodies developed in later stage of infection, and IgM detects antibodies produced in early stages of infection.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Commission (IOC):
- India is an observer state to the IOC.
- India hosts the Regional Maritime Information Fusion Centre (RMIFC) coordinated by IOC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Ocean Commission is an intergovernmental organization of five member states: Madagascar, Mauritius, Seychelles, France (in respect of Réunion) and Comoros. India is the observer state to the commission since March 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Madagascar hosts the Regional Maritime Information Fusion Center (RMIFC). The Regional Agreement for the establishment of a mechanism for exchange and sharing of maritime information in the Western Indian Ocean region that establishes RMIFC was signed by the Union of Comoros, Djibouti, Madagascar, Mauritius, Seychelles, France and Kenya in 2018. It is coordinated by the Indian Ocean Commission (IOC), aims to promote and develop a regional mechanism for the exchange of maritime information.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Ocean Commission is an intergovernmental organization of five member states: Madagascar, Mauritius, Seychelles, France (in respect of Réunion) and Comoros. India is the observer state to the commission since March 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Madagascar hosts the Regional Maritime Information Fusion Center (RMIFC). The Regional Agreement for the establishment of a mechanism for exchange and sharing of maritime information in the Western Indian Ocean region that establishes RMIFC was signed by the Union of Comoros, Djibouti, Madagascar, Mauritius, Seychelles, France and Kenya in 2018. It is coordinated by the Indian Ocean Commission (IOC), aims to promote and develop a regional mechanism for the exchange of maritime information.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following river(s) flow from Nepal into India?
- Gandak
- Kosi
- Ghagra
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All rivers mentioned above flow from Nepal into India.
The Gandak River (also called Narayani and Kali Gandak) is one of the major rivers of Nepal and a left bank tributary of the Ganges in India.
Kosi River also enters India from Nepal and joins Ganga at left bank.
Ghaghra River called Karnali in Nepal joins Sharda and late Ganga at left bank.
Incorrect
All rivers mentioned above flow from Nepal into India.
The Gandak River (also called Narayani and Kali Gandak) is one of the major rivers of Nepal and a left bank tributary of the Ganges in India.
Kosi River also enters India from Nepal and joins Ganga at left bank.
Ghaghra River called Karnali in Nepal joins Sharda and late Ganga at left bank.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission:
- No qualification for the chairperson of the Finance Commission is provided by the Constitution of India.
- Constitution mandates the Commission to make recommendations regarding the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 280(2) states that the parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.
Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 provides that the Chairman of the Commission shall be selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members shall be selected from among persons who–
(a) are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
(b) have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
(c) have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
(d) have special knowledge of economics.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 280(3) provides that it shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to-
(a) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under this Chapter and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds.
(b) the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 280(2) states that the parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.
Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 provides that the Chairman of the Commission shall be selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members shall be selected from among persons who–
(a) are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
(b) have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
(c) have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
(d) have special knowledge of economics.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 280(3) provides that it shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to-
(a) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under this Chapter and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds.
(b) the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
- It is one of the accreditation boards under the Quality Council of India.
- It conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established in 1994 as an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC) with its Head Quarter in Bengaluru. The Chairperson of the UGC is the President of the Governing Council of the NAAC.
Statement 2 is correct. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) such as colleges, universities or other recognized institutions to derive an understanding of the ‘Quality Status’ of the institution.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established in 1994 as an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC) with its Head Quarter in Bengaluru. The Chairperson of the UGC is the President of the Governing Council of the NAAC.
Statement 2 is correct. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) such as colleges, universities or other recognized institutions to derive an understanding of the ‘Quality Status’ of the institution.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding disease diagnostic tests:
- RT-PCR test detects genetic material of the pathogen.
- Antibody test detects the immune response of the human body against the infection.
- Antigen test detects the surface proteins of the virus from swab sample.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
All statements are correct.
Real time Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) is a nuclear-derived method for detecting the presence of specific genetic material in any pathogen, including a virus.
Antibody tests detect the presence of proteins produced by the body in response to a infection, these are produced by the immune system to fight against viruses and other harmful pathogens that enter the body.
Antigen tests use a nasal or throat swab to detect viral proteins expressed on the outer surface of the virus. Antigens are recognized by the body to induce an immune response to fight off infection.
Incorrect
All statements are correct.
Real time Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) is a nuclear-derived method for detecting the presence of specific genetic material in any pathogen, including a virus.
Antibody tests detect the presence of proteins produced by the body in response to a infection, these are produced by the immune system to fight against viruses and other harmful pathogens that enter the body.
Antigen tests use a nasal or throat swab to detect viral proteins expressed on the outer surface of the virus. Antigens are recognized by the body to induce an immune response to fight off infection.
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