Hello Friends,
This is our new initiative. Here we will be posting our Monthly Current Affairs MCQs in a single post. All MCQs have been segregated as per relevant subjects. It will be useful for revision purposes.
Read Subject wise Factly current affairs for Prelims – Click Here
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/INITIATIVES
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/INITIATIVES I
Test-summary
0 of 25 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 25 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Goverenment Scheme & initiatives 0%
- Goverenment Scheme & initiatives 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiatives“SAMADHAN doctrine” is sometime seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
SAMADHAN doctrine is the one-stop solution for the LWE problem. It encompasses the entire strategy of government from short-term policy to long-term policy formulated at different levels. SAMADHAN stands for-
- S- Smart Leadership,
- A- Aggressive Strategy,
- M- Motivation and Training,
- A- Actionable Intelligence,
- D- Dashboard Based KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) and KRAs (Key Result Areas),
- H- Harnessing Technology,
- A- Action plan for each Theatre,
- N- No access to Financing.
Read more about Left wing extremism in India
Incorrect
SAMADHAN doctrine is the one-stop solution for the LWE problem. It encompasses the entire strategy of government from short-term policy to long-term policy formulated at different levels. SAMADHAN stands for-
- S- Smart Leadership,
- A- Aggressive Strategy,
- M- Motivation and Training,
- A- Actionable Intelligence,
- D- Dashboard Based KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) and KRAs (Key Result Areas),
- H- Harnessing Technology,
- A- Action plan for each Theatre,
- N- No access to Financing.
Read more about Left wing extremism in India
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesAIM-PRIME program, recently seen in news, it is related to
Correct
AIM-PRIME Program aims at promoting science-based, deep technology. For that, it will provide training and guidance over a period of 12 months.
NITI Aayog launches “AIM-PRIME” to support science based startups -ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
AIM-PRIME Program aims at promoting science-based, deep technology. For that, it will provide training and guidance over a period of 12 months.
NITI Aayog launches “AIM-PRIME” to support science based startups -ForumIAS Blog
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding National Knowledge Network (NKN)
- It aims to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high-speed data communication network.
- National Informatics Centre (NIC) is the implementing agency of NKN.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
- National Knowledge Network (NKN) was established in 2010. Its objective is to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high-speed data communication network. It will be helpful to facilitate knowledge sharing and collaborative research.
- Implementation: National Informatics Centre (NIC), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, is the implementing agency.
Incorrect
- National Knowledge Network (NKN) was established in 2010. Its objective is to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high-speed data communication network. It will be helpful to facilitate knowledge sharing and collaborative research.
- Implementation: National Informatics Centre (NIC), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, is the implementing agency.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G).
- The scheme aims to provide the pucca house with basic amenities.
- Gram Panchayats verifies the eligible beneficiaries based on Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Launched by: Ministry of Rural Development in 2016 launched it.
- Aim: The aim is to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families by the end of March 2022. People who are homeless or living in kutcha or dilapidated houses are eligible for benefits
- Beneficiaries: Beneficiaries are identified as per the housing deprivation parameters and exclusion criteria prescribed under Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011. Gram Sabha verifies the eligible beneficiaries. (Statement 2 is Incorrect)
- Target: The scheme had a target of construction of 2.95 crore pucca houses for eligible rural households by March 2022.
- However, the number of beneficiaries has been reduced from 2.95 crores to 2.14 crore after 81 lakhs were found ineligible as per Socio-Economic Caste Census(SECC)-2011.
- Monitoring: The programme implementation is being monitored not only electronically but also through community participation (Social Audit), Member of Parliament (DISHA Committee), Central and State Government officials, National Level Monitors, etc.
Read more:
Incorrect
- Launched by: Ministry of Rural Development in 2016 launched it.
- Aim: The aim is to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families by the end of March 2022. People who are homeless or living in kutcha or dilapidated houses are eligible for benefits
- Beneficiaries: Beneficiaries are identified as per the housing deprivation parameters and exclusion criteria prescribed under Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011. Gram Sabha verifies the eligible beneficiaries. (Statement 2 is Incorrect)
- Target: The scheme had a target of construction of 2.95 crore pucca houses for eligible rural households by March 2022.
- However, the number of beneficiaries has been reduced from 2.95 crores to 2.14 crore after 81 lakhs were found ineligible as per Socio-Economic Caste Census(SECC)-2011.
- Monitoring: The programme implementation is being monitored not only electronically but also through community participation (Social Audit), Member of Parliament (DISHA Committee), Central and State Government officials, National Level Monitors, etc.
Read more:
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWith reference to the National Policy on Electronics 2019 consider the following statements.
- This is the first National policy focused on Electronics sector in India.
- The policy aims to produce one billion mobile handsets in India by 2025.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
National Policy on Electronics 2019 envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing. The policy aims to address the shortcomings of 2012 National policy on electronics. The policy aims to produce of one billion mobile handsets in India by 2025
Key objectives of National Electronic Policy 2019
- Enable flow of investment and technology leading to higher value addition in the domestically manufactured electronic products,
- Increased electronics hardware manufacturing in the country and their export.
- Generating substantial employment opportunities. Provide support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower in the ESDM sector.
- Develop core competencies in all the sub-sectors of Electronics, including inter-alia Electronic components and Semiconductors, Telecommunication equipment, Medical electronics, Defence Electronics, Automotive electronics, Industrial Electronics, Strategic Electronics, etc., and Fabless Chip Design.
- Facilitate cost effective loans for setting up and expansion of electronics manufacturing units.
- Promote path-breaking research, grass root level innovations and early-stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas to solve real-life problems.
- Enhance understanding of cyber security issues/ concerns, risks and mitigation measures thereof pertaining to electronic products.
- Promote research, innovation and support to industry for green processes and sustainable e-Waste management, including safe disposal of e-Waste in an environment friendly manner, development of e-Waste recycling industry and adoption of best practices in e-Waste management.
- Proactive role of states in promotion of electronics manufacturing by providing conducive environment to promote investments.
Read more: National Policy on Electronics
Incorrect
National Policy on Electronics 2019 envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing. The policy aims to address the shortcomings of 2012 National policy on electronics. The policy aims to produce of one billion mobile handsets in India by 2025
Key objectives of National Electronic Policy 2019
- Enable flow of investment and technology leading to higher value addition in the domestically manufactured electronic products,
- Increased electronics hardware manufacturing in the country and their export.
- Generating substantial employment opportunities. Provide support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower in the ESDM sector.
- Develop core competencies in all the sub-sectors of Electronics, including inter-alia Electronic components and Semiconductors, Telecommunication equipment, Medical electronics, Defence Electronics, Automotive electronics, Industrial Electronics, Strategic Electronics, etc., and Fabless Chip Design.
- Facilitate cost effective loans for setting up and expansion of electronics manufacturing units.
- Promote path-breaking research, grass root level innovations and early-stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas to solve real-life problems.
- Enhance understanding of cyber security issues/ concerns, risks and mitigation measures thereof pertaining to electronic products.
- Promote research, innovation and support to industry for green processes and sustainable e-Waste management, including safe disposal of e-Waste in an environment friendly manner, development of e-Waste recycling industry and adoption of best practices in e-Waste management.
- Proactive role of states in promotion of electronics manufacturing by providing conducive environment to promote investments.
Read more: National Policy on Electronics
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following pairs with reference to the Production Linked Incentive Scheme and the concerned Ministry/Departments.
PLI Scheme sector : Concerned Ministry/Department
- Telecom & Networking Products: Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
- White Goods (ACs & LED) : Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- Automobiles & Auto Components: Department of Heavy Industries
- High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Sl. No Notified PLI Scheme Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Electronic/Technology Products Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology 2 Pharmaceutical drugs Department of Pharmaceuticals 3 Telecom & Networking Products Department of Telecom 4 Food Products Ministry of Food Processing Industries. 5 White Goods (ACs & LED) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. 6 High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sl. No Other PLI Schemes Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Automobiles & Auto Components Department of Heavy Industries 2 Advance Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery NITI Aayog and Department of Heavy Industries. 3 Textile Products (MMF segment and technical textiles) Ministry of Textiles 4 Speciality Steel Ministry of Steel Read more : PLI Scheme(Today’s 7 PM)
Incorrect
Sl. No Notified PLI Scheme Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Electronic/Technology Products Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology 2 Pharmaceutical drugs Department of Pharmaceuticals 3 Telecom & Networking Products Department of Telecom 4 Food Products Ministry of Food Processing Industries. 5 White Goods (ACs & LED) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. 6 High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sl. No Other PLI Schemes Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Automobiles & Auto Components Department of Heavy Industries 2 Advance Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery NITI Aayog and Department of Heavy Industries. 3 Textile Products (MMF segment and technical textiles) Ministry of Textiles 4 Speciality Steel Ministry of Steel Read more : PLI Scheme(Today’s 7 PM)
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesAnamaya initiative for tribal was launched recently by the government. It is associated with which one of the following areas?
Correct
Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare and Union Minister of Tribal Affairs launched the Anamaya Initiative — a Tribal Health Collaborative.
About Anamaya Initiative:
- Anamaya is a multi-stakeholder initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Piramal Foundation and Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) are supporting it.
- Objectives:
- Anamaya Initiative aims to converge efforts of various Government organizations to improve the health and nutrition status of the tribal communities of India.
- It also aims to build a sustainable health ecosystem that will address the key health challenges of the tribal population.
Read More: Anamaya Initiative
Incorrect
Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare and Union Minister of Tribal Affairs launched the Anamaya Initiative — a Tribal Health Collaborative.
About Anamaya Initiative:
- Anamaya is a multi-stakeholder initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Piramal Foundation and Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) are supporting it.
- Objectives:
- Anamaya Initiative aims to converge efforts of various Government organizations to improve the health and nutrition status of the tribal communities of India.
- It also aims to build a sustainable health ecosystem that will address the key health challenges of the tribal population.
Read More: Anamaya Initiative
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesJoint Logistics Node (JLN) has sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
Chief of Defence Staff operationalises the third Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai.
About Joint Logistics Node(JLN):
- The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
- This is the third Node to be set up. The two other logistics hub were operationalised in Guwahati and Port Blair in January 2021.
- Purpose: The JLN will provide integrated logistics cover to all three armed forces. Especially for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares, and also engineering support.
- Advantages: The JLN will also provide advantages like saving manpower, economic utilization of resources apart from financial savings.
Read more: Joint Logistics Node
Incorrect
Chief of Defence Staff operationalises the third Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai.
About Joint Logistics Node(JLN):
- The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
- This is the third Node to be set up. The two other logistics hub were operationalised in Guwahati and Port Blair in January 2021.
- Purpose: The JLN will provide integrated logistics cover to all three armed forces. Especially for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares, and also engineering support.
- Advantages: The JLN will also provide advantages like saving manpower, economic utilization of resources apart from financial savings.
Read more: Joint Logistics Node
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
- The scheme aims to provide skilled work for at least 100 days in a financial year.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment within 15 days of work application
- If Gram Panchayat failed to provide job, then worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
MGNREG Scheme:
- MGNREGS is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world.
- Launched in: The scheme was initially launched in the 200 most backward rural districts of the country in 2006-07. The scheme was later extended to the entire country from 2008-09 onward.
- Under the scheme, every rural household whose adult member volunteers to do unskilled manual work is entitled to get at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.
- Implementation: Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Government of India in association with state governments monitors the implementation of the scheme.
Key Features of the scheme:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment within 15 days of work application failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
Read More: MGREGS
Incorrect
MGNREG Scheme:
- MGNREGS is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world.
- Launched in: The scheme was initially launched in the 200 most backward rural districts of the country in 2006-07. The scheme was later extended to the entire country from 2008-09 onward.
- Under the scheme, every rural household whose adult member volunteers to do unskilled manual work is entitled to get at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.
- Implementation: Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Government of India in association with state governments monitors the implementation of the scheme.
Key Features of the scheme:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment within 15 days of work application failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
Read More: MGREGS
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the recently announced Lilavati Awards 2020:
- It is an initiative of the All-India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
- It aims torecogniseefforts by all government institutions to treat women with ‘equality and fairness’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Lilavati Award is an initiative of the technical education regulator, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and it aims to recognise efforts by AICTE-approved institutions to treat women with ‘equality and fairness’.
Based on the theme ‘Women Empowerment’, AICTE finalized the winners from a total of 456 entries who competed across 6 sub themes, which include, Women’s Health, Self-Defense, Sanitation and Hygiene, Literacy, Women Entrepreneurship, and Legal Awareness.
Incorrect
The Lilavati Award is an initiative of the technical education regulator, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and it aims to recognise efforts by AICTE-approved institutions to treat women with ‘equality and fairness’.
Based on the theme ‘Women Empowerment’, AICTE finalized the winners from a total of 456 entries who competed across 6 sub themes, which include, Women’s Health, Self-Defense, Sanitation and Hygiene, Literacy, Women Entrepreneurship, and Legal Awareness.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat is the mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
- Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
- Serving as a link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has the unique distinction of being the only grant-giving agency in the country which has been vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination, determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education.
The UGC`s mandate includes:
–Promoting and coordinating university education.
–Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
–Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
–Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges.
–Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
–Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university education.
Incorrect
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has the unique distinction of being the only grant-giving agency in the country which has been vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination, determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education.
The UGC`s mandate includes:
–Promoting and coordinating university education.
–Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
–Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
–Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges.
–Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
–Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university education.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the DIKSHA Platform:
- Itaimstoaid teachers to learn and train themselves.
- States, government bodies and even privateorganisations, can integrate DIKSHA into their respective initiatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
DIKSHA is a unique initiative which leverages existing highly scalable and flexible digital infrastructures, while keeping teachers at the center. It is built considering the whole teacher’s life cycle – from the time student teachers enroll in Teacher Education Institutes (TEIs) to after they retire as teachers.
It can be accessed after scanning the QR code provided in their NCERT books. Students having access to DIKSHA app will be able to understand concepts in easy and interactive manner.
There are features through which lessons can be revised Parents having access to DIKSHA app in their mobiles can follow classroom activities and clear doubts outside school hours. It is a comprehensive platform for hassle free interaction of all the stakeholders involved.
States, government bodies and even private organisations, can integrate DIKSHA into their respective teacher initiatives based on their goals, needs and capabilities.
Incorrect
DIKSHA is a unique initiative which leverages existing highly scalable and flexible digital infrastructures, while keeping teachers at the center. It is built considering the whole teacher’s life cycle – from the time student teachers enroll in Teacher Education Institutes (TEIs) to after they retire as teachers.
It can be accessed after scanning the QR code provided in their NCERT books. Students having access to DIKSHA app will be able to understand concepts in easy and interactive manner.
There are features through which lessons can be revised Parents having access to DIKSHA app in their mobiles can follow classroom activities and clear doubts outside school hours. It is a comprehensive platform for hassle free interaction of all the stakeholders involved.
States, government bodies and even private organisations, can integrate DIKSHA into their respective teacher initiatives based on their goals, needs and capabilities.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA):
- It is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act.
- It is empowered to regulate exports of marine products and take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) was set up by an act of Parliament during 1972.
MPEDA is given the mandate to promote the marine products industry with special reference to exports from the country. It is envisaged that this organization would take all actions to develop and augment the resources required for promoting the exports of “all varieties of fishery products known commercially as shrimp, prawn, lobster, crab, fish, shell-fish, other aquatic animals or plants or part thereof.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act empowers MPEDA to regulate exports of marine products and take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) was set up by an act of Parliament during 1972.
MPEDA is given the mandate to promote the marine products industry with special reference to exports from the country. It is envisaged that this organization would take all actions to develop and augment the resources required for promoting the exports of “all varieties of fishery products known commercially as shrimp, prawn, lobster, crab, fish, shell-fish, other aquatic animals or plants or part thereof.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act empowers MPEDA to regulate exports of marine products and take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat was the mandate of the Justice BN Srikrishna committee?
Correct
In 2017, the Government of India appointed a 10-member Committee of Experts headed by Justice B.N. Srikrishna, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India “to identify key data protection issues in India and recommend methods of addressing them”.
The terms of reference of the Committee were to “to study various issues relating to data protection in India”, and “to make specific suggestions for consideration of the Central Government on principles to be considered for data protection in India and suggest a draft data protection bill”.
The Committee submitted its report, along with a Draft Personal Data Protection Bill to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in July 2018.
Incorrect
In 2017, the Government of India appointed a 10-member Committee of Experts headed by Justice B.N. Srikrishna, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India “to identify key data protection issues in India and recommend methods of addressing them”.
The terms of reference of the Committee were to “to study various issues relating to data protection in India”, and “to make specific suggestions for consideration of the Central Government on principles to be considered for data protection in India and suggest a draft data protection bill”.
The Committee submitted its report, along with a Draft Personal Data Protection Bill to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in July 2018.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat was the mandate of the M.P. Bezbaruah Committee?
Correct
In order to deal with the concerns of persons hailing from the northeastern states and residing in different parts of the country, particularly in the metropolitan cities, the Union Government (MHA) constituted the Bezbaruah Committee on 05 February, 2014. The Committee submitted its report on 11 July, 2014.
It 4 recommended amendments to the IPC by creating new offences under Section 153C and 509A to deal with comments, gestures and acts intended to insult a member of a particular racial group. “It also suggested to make such offences as ‘gender-neutral’, ‘cognizable’ and ‘non-bailable’ with imprisonment extendable up to three years or five years with fine, respectively.
Incorrect
In order to deal with the concerns of persons hailing from the northeastern states and residing in different parts of the country, particularly in the metropolitan cities, the Union Government (MHA) constituted the Bezbaruah Committee on 05 February, 2014. The Committee submitted its report on 11 July, 2014.
It 4 recommended amendments to the IPC by creating new offences under Section 153C and 509A to deal with comments, gestures and acts intended to insult a member of a particular racial group. “It also suggested to make such offences as ‘gender-neutral’, ‘cognizable’ and ‘non-bailable’ with imprisonment extendable up to three years or five years with fine, respectively.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority:
- It implements and enforces the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO).
- It monitors the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and takes remedial steps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority was set up as an attached office of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals (now Department of Pharmaceuticals since July, 2008) on 1997. It has been entrusted inter-alia, with the following functions:
–To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995/2013 in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
–To undertake and/or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/formulations.
–To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps.
–To collect/maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, profitability of companies etc. for bulk drugs and formulations.
Incorrect
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority was set up as an attached office of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals (now Department of Pharmaceuticals since July, 2008) on 1997. It has been entrusted inter-alia, with the following functions:
–To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995/2013 in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
–To undertake and/or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/formulations.
–To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps.
–To collect/maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, profitability of companies etc. for bulk drugs and formulations.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the recently released Regulatory Pathways for foreign produced COVID-19 Vaccines:
- Vaccine shall be used as per the guidelines prescribed under National Covid-19 VaccinationProgramme.
- First 100 beneficiaries of such vaccines shall be assessed for 7 days for safety outcomes before it is rolled out for further Vaccination program.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Union Government on 13th April 2021 had approved a significant streamlining and fast tracking of regulatory system for COVID-19 vaccines approved for restricted use by US FDA, EMA, UK MHRA, PMDA Japan or which are listed in WHO Emergency Use Listing (EUL). DCGI will issue permission for Restricted Use in Emergency situation with, inter-alia, the following conditions:
–Vaccine shall be used as per the guidelines prescribed under National Covid-19 Vaccination Programme.
–First 100 beneficiaries of such vaccines shall be assessed for 7 days for safety outcomes before it is rolled out for further Vaccination program.
–Applicant shall initiate conduct of post approval bridging clinical trials within 30 days of such approval.
Incorrect
The Union Government on 13th April 2021 had approved a significant streamlining and fast tracking of regulatory system for COVID-19 vaccines approved for restricted use by US FDA, EMA, UK MHRA, PMDA Japan or which are listed in WHO Emergency Use Listing (EUL). DCGI will issue permission for Restricted Use in Emergency situation with, inter-alia, the following conditions:
–Vaccine shall be used as per the guidelines prescribed under National Covid-19 Vaccination Programme.
–First 100 beneficiaries of such vaccines shall be assessed for 7 days for safety outcomes before it is rolled out for further Vaccination program.
–Applicant shall initiate conduct of post approval bridging clinical trials within 30 days of such approval.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI):
- It is a statutory authority.
- It manages and operates the .IN country code domain for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) is a not-for-profit organization (section 8 of the Companies Act 2013).
Statement 2 is correct. It is working since 2003 for spreading the internet infrastructure to the citizens of India through the following activities:
— Internet Exchanges through which the internet data is exchanged amongst ISP’s, Data Centers and CDNs.
— .IN Registry, managing and operation of .IN country code domain and .भारत IDN domain for India.
— IRINN, managing and operating Internet protocol (IPv4/IPv6).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) is a not-for-profit organization (section 8 of the Companies Act 2013).
Statement 2 is correct. It is working since 2003 for spreading the internet infrastructure to the citizens of India through the following activities:
— Internet Exchanges through which the internet data is exchanged amongst ISP’s, Data Centers and CDNs.
— .IN Registry, managing and operation of .IN country code domain and .भारत IDN domain for India.
— IRINN, managing and operating Internet protocol (IPv4/IPv6).
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWho among the following chairs the National Startup Advisory Council?
Correct
The Central Government had notified the structure of the National Startup Advisory Council to advise the Government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities.
It is chaired by Minster for Commerce & Industry. The Council consists of the non-official members, to be nominated by Central Government, from various categories.
# Minister of Commerce & Industry Shri PiyushGoyal recently chaired the first meeting of National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC).
Incorrect
The Central Government had notified the structure of the National Startup Advisory Council to advise the Government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities.
It is chaired by Minster for Commerce & Industry. The Council consists of the non-official members, to be nominated by Central Government, from various categories.
# Minister of Commerce & Industry Shri PiyushGoyal recently chaired the first meeting of National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC).
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Eat Smart Cities Challenge:
- It aims to motivate Smart Cities to develop a plan that supports a healthy, safe and sustainable food environment.
- It has been initiated by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Eat Smart Cities Challenge aims to motivate Smart Cities to develop a plan that supports a healthy, safe and sustainable food environment supported by institutional, physical, social, and economic infrastructure along with the application of ‘smart’ solutions to combat food related issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Shri Hardeep S Puri, MoS (I/C), Housing and Urban Affairs launched the EatSmart Cities Challenge and Transport 4 All Challengeat an online event recently.
The ‘Eat Right India’ movement initiated by FSSAI under the aegis of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, has gone a long way in creating awareness amongst the people about eating safe, healthy and sustainably. The launch event of EatSmart Cities Challenge today was organized in association with Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Eat Smart Cities Challenge aims to motivate Smart Cities to develop a plan that supports a healthy, safe and sustainable food environment supported by institutional, physical, social, and economic infrastructure along with the application of ‘smart’ solutions to combat food related issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Shri Hardeep S Puri, MoS (I/C), Housing and Urban Affairs launched the EatSmart Cities Challenge and Transport 4 All Challengeat an online event recently.
The ‘Eat Right India’ movement initiated by FSSAI under the aegis of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, has gone a long way in creating awareness amongst the people about eating safe, healthy and sustainably. The launch event of EatSmart Cities Challenge today was organized in association with Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhich of the following is/are online educational platforms(s)?
- Swayam
- SwayamPrabha
- NPTEL
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an Indian Massive open online course platform. It a platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses, taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country and are available, free of cost to any learner.
Option 2 is incorrect. The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
Option 3 is correct. The National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) was initiated by seven Indian Institutes of Technology (Bombay, Delhi, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Madras, Guwahati and Roorkee) along with the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore in 2003. It is one of the largest online repositories in the world of courses in engineering, basic sciences and selected humanities and social sciences subjects.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an Indian Massive open online course platform. It a platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses, taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country and are available, free of cost to any learner.
Option 2 is incorrect. The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
Option 3 is correct. The National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) was initiated by seven Indian Institutes of Technology (Bombay, Delhi, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Madras, Guwahati and Roorkee) along with the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore in 2003. It is one of the largest online repositories in the world of courses in engineering, basic sciences and selected humanities and social sciences subjects.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesThe Women and Men in India Report, 2020 has been released by which of the following institution?
Correct
National Statistical Office produces the Women and Men in India Report annually. This is the 22nd issue in its series. The report consolidates the crucial socio-economic indicators that portray gender situations in the country.
–India’s projected population in 2021 is 136.13 Crore with a 48.65% female population.
–The projected average annual exponential growth rate of the population declined from 1.63 in 2011 to 1.27 in 2016. It is likely to further decline to 1.07 in 2021.
–The projected sex ratio is likely to increase from 943 in 2011 to 948 in 2021.
–A notable increase in the sex ratio recorded in Delhi (5.7%), Chandigarh (5.3%), and Arunachal Pradesh (5.0%). Contrary to this, Daman & Diu recorded a decline of 13% in the sex ratio.
Incorrect
National Statistical Office produces the Women and Men in India Report annually. This is the 22nd issue in its series. The report consolidates the crucial socio-economic indicators that portray gender situations in the country.
–India’s projected population in 2021 is 136.13 Crore with a 48.65% female population.
–The projected average annual exponential growth rate of the population declined from 1.63 in 2011 to 1.27 in 2016. It is likely to further decline to 1.07 in 2021.
–The projected sex ratio is likely to increase from 943 in 2011 to 948 in 2021.
–A notable increase in the sex ratio recorded in Delhi (5.7%), Chandigarh (5.3%), and Arunachal Pradesh (5.0%). Contrary to this, Daman & Diu recorded a decline of 13% in the sex ratio.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Mission `AahaarKranti’:
- It is aimed to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet
- It has been launched by the World Health Organization in India.
Which of the statements given above is/ae correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Mission `AahaarKranti’ is aimed to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet and to understand the importance of accessible to all local fruits and vegetables.
It is designed to address the peculiar problem being faced by India and the world called `hunger and diseases in abundance’. Studies estimate that India produces as much as two times the amount of calories that it consumes. However, many in the country are still malnourished. The root cause of this strange phenomenon is a lack of nutritional awareness in all sections of our society.
Statement 2 is incorrect.VijnanaBharati (Vibha) and Global Indian Scientists’ and Technocrats’ Forum (GIST) have come together to launch the mission with the motto of UttamAahaarUttamVichaar or `Good Diet-Good Cognition’.
# The United Nations has also declared 2021 as the International Year of Fruits and Vegetables.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Mission `AahaarKranti’ is aimed to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet and to understand the importance of accessible to all local fruits and vegetables.
It is designed to address the peculiar problem being faced by India and the world called `hunger and diseases in abundance’. Studies estimate that India produces as much as two times the amount of calories that it consumes. However, many in the country are still malnourished. The root cause of this strange phenomenon is a lack of nutritional awareness in all sections of our society.
Statement 2 is incorrect.VijnanaBharati (Vibha) and Global Indian Scientists’ and Technocrats’ Forum (GIST) have come together to launch the mission with the motto of UttamAahaarUttamVichaar or `Good Diet-Good Cognition’.
# The United Nations has also declared 2021 as the International Year of Fruits and Vegetables.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesThe MANAS Application was launched recently for what purpose?
Correct
Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India recently launched the “MANAS” App. MANAS stands for Mental Health and Normalcy Augmentation System. It is a comprehensive, scalable and national digital wellbeing platform developed to promote the mental well-being of Indian citizens.
–The platform integrates the health and wellness efforts of various government ministries.
–The application can be used for a person’s overall wellbeing and is supported by teleconsultation, especially for mental health-related problems.
–There will also be health tracking and all data records will be maintained. It will help users during future consultations.
Incorrect
Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India recently launched the “MANAS” App. MANAS stands for Mental Health and Normalcy Augmentation System. It is a comprehensive, scalable and national digital wellbeing platform developed to promote the mental well-being of Indian citizens.
–The platform integrates the health and wellness efforts of various government ministries.
–The application can be used for a person’s overall wellbeing and is supported by teleconsultation, especially for mental health-related problems.
–There will also be health tracking and all data records will be maintained. It will help users during future consultations.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding National Assessment and Accreditation Council:
- It has been established by All India Council for Technical Education.
- It has made it mandatory forHigher Educational Institutions (HEIs) to undergo accreditation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an autonomous institution established by the University Grants Commission (UGC), under Section 12-ccc of the UGC Act of 1956, for assessing and accrediting higher education institutions (HEIs) of the country. It is registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act of 1960, Karnataka Societies Registration Rules of 1961 and is headquartered at Bangalore.
Statement 2 is correct. The University Grants Commission (UGC) through a gazette notification dated 19th January 2013, has made it mandatory for Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) to undergo accreditation.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an autonomous institution established by the University Grants Commission (UGC), under Section 12-ccc of the UGC Act of 1956, for assessing and accrediting higher education institutions (HEIs) of the country. It is registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act of 1960, Karnataka Societies Registration Rules of 1961 and is headquartered at Bangalore.
Statement 2 is correct. The University Grants Commission (UGC) through a gazette notification dated 19th January 2013, has made it mandatory for Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) to undergo accreditation.
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/INITIATIVES II
Test-summary
0 of 15 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 15 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Goverenment Scheme & initiatives 0%
- Goverenment Scheme & initiatives 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesThe tri-services Joint Logistics Node (JLN) have been operationalised in which of the following locations?
- Mumbai
- Guwahati
- Dehradun
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
To enable our Armed Forces to conduct successful operations, it is essential that they be provided with sound logistics support during all stages of the war. Keeping these in mind, Chief of Defence Staff operationalised and dedicated to the Services 3rd Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai through video conferencing from New Delhi on April 01, 2021.
These JLNs will provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares and also engineering support in an effort to synergise their operational efforts.
Government Sanction Letter for establishment of JLNs in Mumbai, Guwahati and Port Blair was signed on October 12, 2020. The JLNs in Guwahati and Tri-Services, Andaman and Nicobar Command, Port Blair were operationalised on January 01, 2021.
Incorrect
To enable our Armed Forces to conduct successful operations, it is essential that they be provided with sound logistics support during all stages of the war. Keeping these in mind, Chief of Defence Staff operationalised and dedicated to the Services 3rd Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai through video conferencing from New Delhi on April 01, 2021.
These JLNs will provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares and also engineering support in an effort to synergise their operational efforts.
Government Sanction Letter for establishment of JLNs in Mumbai, Guwahati and Port Blair was signed on October 12, 2020. The JLNs in Guwahati and Tri-Services, Andaman and Nicobar Command, Port Blair were operationalised on January 01, 2021.
- Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat is the utility of the recently launched “MyNEP2020” Platform?
- Seeking suggestions/inputs for development of National Professional Standards for Teachers
- Seeking suggestions/inputs for development of National Mission for Mentoring Program membership
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Union Education Minister recently launched the “MyNEP2020” Platform of NCTE Web Portal. The platform seeks to invite suggestions/inputs/membership from the stakeholders for preparing draft for development of National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) and National Mission for Mentoring Program membership (NMM).
The “MyNEP2020” platform will be operational from 1st April 2021 to 15th May 2021. This exercise of digital consultation envisages the participation of teachers, education professionals, academicians, & other stakeholders in preparing the documents on teacher policy for sustainable and positive change in the Teacher’s Education Sector.
Incorrect
Union Education Minister recently launched the “MyNEP2020” Platform of NCTE Web Portal. The platform seeks to invite suggestions/inputs/membership from the stakeholders for preparing draft for development of National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) and National Mission for Mentoring Program membership (NMM).
The “MyNEP2020” platform will be operational from 1st April 2021 to 15th May 2021. This exercise of digital consultation envisages the participation of teachers, education professionals, academicians, & other stakeholders in preparing the documents on teacher policy for sustainable and positive change in the Teacher’s Education Sector.
- Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions, 2020:
- It empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
- It has explicitly excluded mines from the definition of a factory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSH&WC) Code, 2020 has been enacted after amalgamating of thirteen different labour legislations and to simplify the laws regulating the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions in establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The code empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill introduced in 2019 excluded mines from the definition of a factory. The bill passed in parliament in 2020 removed this provision.
# The Central Government has constituted Expert Committees comprising of industry and subject experts from both public and private sector across the country to review the existing rules and regulations on safety, health and working conditions standards, pertaining to factories, docks and construction work.
Incorrect
The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSH&WC) Code, 2020 has been enacted after amalgamating of thirteen different labour legislations and to simplify the laws regulating the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions in establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The code empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill introduced in 2019 excluded mines from the definition of a factory. The bill passed in parliament in 2020 removed this provision.
# The Central Government has constituted Expert Committees comprising of industry and subject experts from both public and private sector across the country to review the existing rules and regulations on safety, health and working conditions standards, pertaining to factories, docks and construction work.
- Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the ’AIM-PRIME’ initiative:
- It aims to promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
- Atal Innovation Mission has partnered with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) to launch this nationwide program.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In a major push towards deep technology and driving the country to become a digitally transformed nation, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog has launched AIM-PRIME (Program for Researchers on Innovations, Market-Readiness & Entrepreneurship), an initiative to promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
In this regard, AIM has joined hands with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) to launch this nationwide program which will be implemented by Venture Center – a non-profit technology business incubator.
The first cohort of the program is open to technology developers (early-stage deep tech start-ups, and scientists/ engineers/ clinicians) with strong science-based deep tech business ideas. The program is also open to CEOs and Senior incubation managers of AIM Funded Atal Incubation Centers that are supporting deep tech entrepreneurs.
Incorrect
In a major push towards deep technology and driving the country to become a digitally transformed nation, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog has launched AIM-PRIME (Program for Researchers on Innovations, Market-Readiness & Entrepreneurship), an initiative to promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
In this regard, AIM has joined hands with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) to launch this nationwide program which will be implemented by Venture Center – a non-profit technology business incubator.
The first cohort of the program is open to technology developers (early-stage deep tech start-ups, and scientists/ engineers/ clinicians) with strong science-based deep tech business ideas. The program is also open to CEOs and Senior incubation managers of AIM Funded Atal Incubation Centers that are supporting deep tech entrepreneurs.
- Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements with reference to the recently released “New Covid-19 vaccine policy”
- This policy aims to provide vaccination coverage to everyone aged 18 and older
- The central government will procure 100% of vaccines used in the vaccination drive.
- This is the fourth phase of India’s Covid-19 vaccination policy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Government of India has announced the fourth phase of its New Covid-19 vaccine policy. This phase expands its vaccination coverage to everyone aged 18 and older from May 1.
- Under the new rules, the Centre will automatically receive only 50% of vaccines produced by manufacturers.
- The remaining 50% can be acquired by the states directly or by private hospitals and industrial establishments at a price.
Read More: India’s “New Covid-19 vaccine policy”
Incorrect
The Government of India has announced the fourth phase of its New Covid-19 vaccine policy. This phase expands its vaccination coverage to everyone aged 18 and older from May 1.
- Under the new rules, the Centre will automatically receive only 50% of vaccines produced by manufacturers.
- The remaining 50% can be acquired by the states directly or by private hospitals and industrial establishments at a price.
Read More: India’s “New Covid-19 vaccine policy”
- Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
- It provides guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per year to each rural household.
- It is a demand driven scheme.
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
What is MGNREGA?
- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is an employment guarantee act.
- It was introduced in 2005 through the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
- In 2010, NREGA renamed as MGNREGA.
Objectives:
- To provide guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per year to each rural household
- Creation of durable rural assets
- Social inclusion of women, SCs and STs
- Strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions
Key Features:
- Demand driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment with 15 days of work application, failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
- Payment of wages within 15 days of competition of work, failing which worker is entitled to delay compensation of 0.05%/ day of wages earned
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women.
- Wages to be paid according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State
- Social Audit to be done by Gram Sabha
Incorrect
What is MGNREGA?
- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is an employment guarantee act.
- It was introduced in 2005 through the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
- In 2010, NREGA renamed as MGNREGA.
Objectives:
- To provide guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per year to each rural household
- Creation of durable rural assets
- Social inclusion of women, SCs and STs
- Strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions
Key Features:
- Demand driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment with 15 days of work application, failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
- Payment of wages within 15 days of competition of work, failing which worker is entitled to delay compensation of 0.05%/ day of wages earned
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women.
- Wages to be paid according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State
- Social Audit to be done by Gram Sabha
- Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhich of the following institution has recently released the report titled ‘Investment Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector’?
Correct
NITI Aayog recently released a report on ‘Investment Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector’ outlining the range of investment opportunities in various segments of India’s healthcare sector, including hospitals, medical devices and equipment, health insurance, telemedicine, home healthcare and medical value travel.
— India’s healthcare industry has been growing at a Compound Annual Growth Rate of around 22% since 2016. At this rate, it is expected to reach USD 372 billion in 2022.
— The expansion of private players to tier-2 and tier-3 locations, beyond metropolitan cities, offers an attractive investment opportunity.
— India can boost domestic pharmaceuticals manufacturing, supported by recent Government schemes with performance-linked incentives.
— In the medical devices and equipment segment, expansion of diagnostic and pathology centres as well as miniaturized diagnostics have high potential for growth.
— The medical value travel, especially wellness tourism, has bright prospects, given India’s inherent strengths in alternative systems of medicine.
Incorrect
NITI Aayog recently released a report on ‘Investment Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector’ outlining the range of investment opportunities in various segments of India’s healthcare sector, including hospitals, medical devices and equipment, health insurance, telemedicine, home healthcare and medical value travel.
— India’s healthcare industry has been growing at a Compound Annual Growth Rate of around 22% since 2016. At this rate, it is expected to reach USD 372 billion in 2022.
— The expansion of private players to tier-2 and tier-3 locations, beyond metropolitan cities, offers an attractive investment opportunity.
— India can boost domestic pharmaceuticals manufacturing, supported by recent Government schemes with performance-linked incentives.
— In the medical devices and equipment segment, expansion of diagnostic and pathology centres as well as miniaturized diagnostics have high potential for growth.
— The medical value travel, especially wellness tourism, has bright prospects, given India’s inherent strengths in alternative systems of medicine.
- Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the PM Yoga Awards:
- The awards recognize contribution both at the National as well asInternationallevels.
- The first ever PM Yoga Awards ceremony will be held in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The PM Yoga Awards would be given in two categories – National and International. The awards would be given to entities with impeccable track record and outstanding contribution in the promoion and development of Yoga.
Statement 2 is incorrect. PM Yoga Awards were announced first in 2016. Due to pandemic of Covid-19, the applications for the award were not invited in 2020. However, this year like previous years, the Ministry of AYUSH (MoA) will be felicitating the achievers and unsung heroes and institutions of the domain of Yoga, from different parts of the country and across the world with the Prime Minister’s Yoga Awards (PMYA). The award will be hosted on the My Gov platform.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The PM Yoga Awards would be given in two categories – National and International. The awards would be given to entities with impeccable track record and outstanding contribution in the promoion and development of Yoga.
Statement 2 is incorrect. PM Yoga Awards were announced first in 2016. Due to pandemic of Covid-19, the applications for the award were not invited in 2020. However, this year like previous years, the Ministry of AYUSH (MoA) will be felicitating the achievers and unsung heroes and institutions of the domain of Yoga, from different parts of the country and across the world with the Prime Minister’s Yoga Awards (PMYA). The award will be hosted on the My Gov platform.
- Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesJoint Logistics Node (JLN), recently seen in news, it is related to which of the following?
Correct
The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
Incorrect
The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
- Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Draft National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021
- It will replace the existing National Policy for rare diseases, 2017.
- There is no uniform definition of rare diseases around the world.
- Policy provides universal coverage to all persons suffering from rare diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Policy for rare diseases, 2017 was not implemented. It was major concern that no policy is available for rare diseases in India.
Statement 2 is correct. Definition of rare diseases is not uniform across nations. every country has its own definition for rare diseases.
The US defines rare diseases as a disease or condition that affects fewer than 200,000 patients in the country.
Likewise, the EU defines rare diseases as life-threatening or chronically debilitating (weakening) condition. It should affect no more than 5 in 10,000 people.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Policy is selective in providing financial assistance. It categorizes rare diseases into 3 categories.
Read more - Health Ministry Releases “National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021”-ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Policy for rare diseases, 2017 was not implemented. It was major concern that no policy is available for rare diseases in India.
Statement 2 is correct. Definition of rare diseases is not uniform across nations. every country has its own definition for rare diseases.
The US defines rare diseases as a disease or condition that affects fewer than 200,000 patients in the country.
Likewise, the EU defines rare diseases as life-threatening or chronically debilitating (weakening) condition. It should affect no more than 5 in 10,000 people.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Policy is selective in providing financial assistance. It categorizes rare diseases into 3 categories.
Read more - Health Ministry Releases “National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021”-ForumIAS Blog
- Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs):
- It is a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U).
- It aims to provide access to dignified affordable rental housing close to workplace to urban migrants/ poor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs), a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/ poor in Industrial Sector as well as in non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace.
The ARHC scheme will be implemented through two models:
-Utilizing existing Government funded vacant houses to convert into ARHCs through Public Private Partnership or by Public Agencies
-Construction, Operation and Maintenance of ARHCs by Public/ Private Entities on their own vacant land
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs), a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/ poor in Industrial Sector as well as in non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace.
The ARHC scheme will be implemented through two models:
-Utilizing existing Government funded vacant houses to convert into ARHCs through Public Private Partnership or by Public Agencies
-Construction, Operation and Maintenance of ARHCs by Public/ Private Entities on their own vacant land
- Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- JalyuktShibar – Maharashtra
- SujalamSufalam Abhiyan – West Bengal
- Mission Kakatiya – Telangana
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
As per the Central Water Commission (CWC) report entitled “Reassessment of Water Availability in India using Space Inputs”, the average annual water resources potential in the country is assessed as 1999.20 BCM.
Water being a State subject, initiatives on water management including conservation and water harvesting in the Country is primarily States’ responsibility.
A number of States have done notable work in the field of water conservation/harvesting. Of these, mention can be made of ‘Mukhyamantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan’ in Rajasthan, ‘Jalyukt Shibar’ in Maharashtra, ‘Sujalam Sufalam Abhiyan’ in Gujarat, ‘Mission Kakatiya’ in Telangana, Neeru Chettu’ in Andhra Pradesh, Jal Jeevan Hariyali in Bihar, ‘Jal Hi Jeevan’ in Haryana among others.
Incorrect
As per the Central Water Commission (CWC) report entitled “Reassessment of Water Availability in India using Space Inputs”, the average annual water resources potential in the country is assessed as 1999.20 BCM.
Water being a State subject, initiatives on water management including conservation and water harvesting in the Country is primarily States’ responsibility.
A number of States have done notable work in the field of water conservation/harvesting. Of these, mention can be made of ‘Mukhyamantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan’ in Rajasthan, ‘Jalyukt Shibar’ in Maharashtra, ‘Sujalam Sufalam Abhiyan’ in Gujarat, ‘Mission Kakatiya’ in Telangana, Neeru Chettu’ in Andhra Pradesh, Jal Jeevan Hariyali in Bihar, ‘Jal Hi Jeevan’ in Haryana among others.
- Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements.
- Control of the interstate spread of infectious diseases falls under the Union list.
- The CoWIN app allows Indian citizens to apply for a Covid-19 vaccine and provides a QR based Certificate after vaccination.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Control of the interstate spread of infectious diseases falls under the Entry 29 of the Concurrent List under Schedule VII of the Constitution
CoWIN App and platform: This is a digitalised platform launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It aims to help agencies to keep a track of the Covid-19 vaccination programme in real-time. Further, the app also allows Indian citizens to apply for a Covid-19 vaccine shot. Further, the app also provides a QR based Certificate once the person is vaccinated.
Read more: CoWIN App and CoWIN platform
Incorrect
Control of the interstate spread of infectious diseases falls under the Entry 29 of the Concurrent List under Schedule VII of the Constitution
CoWIN App and platform: This is a digitalised platform launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It aims to help agencies to keep a track of the Covid-19 vaccination programme in real-time. Further, the app also allows Indian citizens to apply for a Covid-19 vaccine shot. Further, the app also provides a QR based Certificate once the person is vaccinated.
Read more: CoWIN App and CoWIN platform
- Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements with regarding the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
- The worker will get an unemployment benefit if the Gram panchayat failed to provide employment within 15 days of application.
- The worker will get delay compensation if the worker did not receive his wages within 15 days of completion of work
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Key features of MGNREGS:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker will get the work whenever he demands and not when the Government has work available.
- Gram Panchayat has the mandate to provide employment within 15 days of a work application. If it fails, the worker will get an unemployment allowance.
- Payment of wages within 15 days of completion of work. In case of failure, the worker will get a delay compensation of 0.05% per day of wages earned.
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women
- Wage payment should be according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State.
- Gram Sabhas conduct social audits to enable the community to monitor the implementation of the scheme.
- Both the Center and the States share the funding of the scheme.
Incorrect
Key features of MGNREGS:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker will get the work whenever he demands and not when the Government has work available.
- Gram Panchayat has the mandate to provide employment within 15 days of a work application. If it fails, the worker will get an unemployment allowance.
- Payment of wages within 15 days of completion of work. In case of failure, the worker will get a delay compensation of 0.05% per day of wages earned.
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women
- Wage payment should be according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State.
- Gram Sabhas conduct social audits to enable the community to monitor the implementation of the scheme.
- Both the Center and the States share the funding of the scheme.
- Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Ladakh Ignited Minds Project:
- It is aimed at training disadvantaged Ladakhi youth to study in niche educational institutions of the country
- Project is being implemented under Atal Innovation Mission
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Project, launched by the Indian Army, aims to provide better training and educational facilities to disadvantaged Ladakhi students. Also, the projects aim to give them the opportunity to study in the best educational institutes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The fire and Fury Corps of the Indian Army will implement the project. They will also have a partnership with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and National Integrity and Educational Development Organization (NIEDO), an NGO.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Project, launched by the Indian Army, aims to provide better training and educational facilities to disadvantaged Ladakhi students. Also, the projects aim to give them the opportunity to study in the best educational institutes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The fire and Fury Corps of the Indian Army will implement the project. They will also have a partnership with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and National Integrity and Educational Development Organization (NIEDO), an NGO.
GEOGRAPHY AND AGRICULTURE
GEOGRAPHY AND AGRICULTURE I
Test-summary
0 of 28 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 28 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Geography 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 28
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements with regarding the Earth day
- Earth day is celebrated after signing the Rio declaration on environment and development.
- The theme of Earth day 2021 is “Restore Our Earth”
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- World Earth Day is celebrated every year on 22nd April. It was celebrated for the first time in the year 1970. (Rio Declaration is signed on 1992)
- World Earth day 2021 theme: ‘Restore Our Earth’. The theme focuses on natural processes, emerging green technologies and innovative thinking to restore the world’s ecosystems.
Read More : World Earth day
Incorrect
- World Earth Day is celebrated every year on 22nd April. It was celebrated for the first time in the year 1970. (Rio Declaration is signed on 1992)
- World Earth day 2021 theme: ‘Restore Our Earth’. The theme focuses on natural processes, emerging green technologies and innovative thinking to restore the world’s ecosystems.
Read More : World Earth day
- Question 2 of 28
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding Madhu Kranti Portal
- It is an initiative of National Bee Board (NBB) under the National Beekeeping & Honey Mission (NBHM).
- It is a portal to sell quality honey to the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Madhukranti portal is an initiative of National Bee Board. It is operated under the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission.
The main objectives of the Madhukranti portal are as follows:
- The portal has been developed to achieve the traceability source of honey and bee hive products on the digital platform.
- Also, the platform will help in checking the quality and source of adulteration of honey.
Incorrect
The Madhukranti portal is an initiative of National Bee Board. It is operated under the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission.
The main objectives of the Madhukranti portal are as follows:
- The portal has been developed to achieve the traceability source of honey and bee hive products on the digital platform.
- Also, the platform will help in checking the quality and source of adulteration of honey.
- Question 3 of 28
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding:
- The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) is an institution of national importance as declared by an Act of Parliament.
- India is the world’s largest milk producer country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Dairy Development Board — initially registered as a society under the Societies Act 1860 — was merged with the erstwhile Indian Dairy Corporation, a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by an Act of India’s Parliament – the NDDB Act 1987. The new body corporate was declared an institution of national importance by the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. India is the world’s largest milk producer, with 22 percent of global production, followed by the United States of America, China, Pakistan and Brazil.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Dairy Development Board — initially registered as a society under the Societies Act 1860 — was merged with the erstwhile Indian Dairy Corporation, a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by an Act of India’s Parliament – the NDDB Act 1987. The new body corporate was declared an institution of national importance by the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. India is the world’s largest milk producer, with 22 percent of global production, followed by the United States of America, China, Pakistan and Brazil.
- Question 4 of 28
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following states has Coal Bed Methane Resources in India
- Jharkhand
- Himachal Pradesh
- Tamil Nadu
- Karnataka
- Assam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
According to the Petroleum and Natural Resources data the following states have the Coal Bed Methane resources.
Sl. No STATE Estimated CBM Resources (BCM) 1 JHARKHAND 722.08 2 RAJASTHAN 359.62 3 GUJARAT 351.13 4 ORISSA 243.52 5 CHATTISGARH 240.69 6 MADHYA PRADESH 218.04 7 WEST BENGAL 218.04 8 TAMILNADU 104.77 9 ANDHRA PRADESH 99.11 10 MAHARASHTRA 33.98 11 NORTH EAST 8.50 Total CBM Resources 2599.48 Incorrect
According to the Petroleum and Natural Resources data the following states have the Coal Bed Methane resources.
Sl. No STATE Estimated CBM Resources (BCM) 1 JHARKHAND 722.08 2 RAJASTHAN 359.62 3 GUJARAT 351.13 4 ORISSA 243.52 5 CHATTISGARH 240.69 6 MADHYA PRADESH 218.04 7 WEST BENGAL 218.04 8 TAMILNADU 104.77 9 ANDHRA PRADESH 99.11 10 MAHARASHTRA 33.98 11 NORTH EAST 8.50 Total CBM Resources 2599.48 - Question 5 of 28
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding Oxygen:
- Themost abundant element in the Earth’s crust is oxygen.
- One of the major commercial use of oxygen gas is in the steel industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the universe after hydrogen and helium (by mass) and it’s the most abundant element (by mass) in the Earth’s crust, making up almost half of the crust’s mass. Oxygen is a gas at room temperature that glows a lovely pale blue colour when exposed to an electrical current.
The greatest commercial use of oxygen gas is in the steel industry. Large quantities are also used in the manufacture of a wide range of chemicals including nitric acid and hydrogen peroxide. It is also used to make epoxyethane (ethylene oxide), used as antifreeze and to make polyester, and chloroethene, the precursor to PVC.
Oxygen gas is used for oxy-acetylene welding and cutting of metals. A growing use is in the treatment of sewage and of effluent from industry
Incorrect
Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the universe after hydrogen and helium (by mass) and it’s the most abundant element (by mass) in the Earth’s crust, making up almost half of the crust’s mass. Oxygen is a gas at room temperature that glows a lovely pale blue colour when exposed to an electrical current.
The greatest commercial use of oxygen gas is in the steel industry. Large quantities are also used in the manufacture of a wide range of chemicals including nitric acid and hydrogen peroxide. It is also used to make epoxyethane (ethylene oxide), used as antifreeze and to make polyester, and chloroethene, the precursor to PVC.
Oxygen gas is used for oxy-acetylene welding and cutting of metals. A growing use is in the treatment of sewage and of effluent from industry
- Question 6 of 28
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following regarding Coal as a potential energy source
- India does not planned any coal based power plant after announcing its climate change targets
- Largest Coal reserves of India are found in the state of Orissa
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
According to the 2017 data, almost 94 GW of coal-based power plants are planned (announced, pre-permitted or permitted) or already under construction in India. Jharkhand has the largest coal reserves in India. This is followed by Orissa and Chattisgarh. Together these three states has 68% of total coal reserves of India
Incorrect
According to the 2017 data, almost 94 GW of coal-based power plants are planned (announced, pre-permitted or permitted) or already under construction in India. Jharkhand has the largest coal reserves in India. This is followed by Orissa and Chattisgarh. Together these three states has 68% of total coal reserves of India
- Question 7 of 28
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyMACS 1407, recently seen in news, it is a
Correct
Scientists from MACS- Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) Pune in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research(ICAR) have developed a variety of Soybean called MACS 1407
Incorrect
Scientists from MACS- Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) Pune in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research(ICAR) have developed a variety of Soybean called MACS 1407
- Question 8 of 28
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyThe Great Bitter Lake is located in which of the following Country?
Correct
The Great Bitter Lake in Egypt is one of several lakes located along the Suez Canal, which connects the eastern Mediterranean and Red Seas. As the canal is built only to allow ships to travel in a single lane, the Great Bitter Lake is a location where ships can change their position in line (like the passing lane on the highway) before proceeding to either Port Said to the north, or the port of Suez to the south. The lake also provides an intermediate harbor for ships traversing the Canal.
Incorrect
The Great Bitter Lake in Egypt is one of several lakes located along the Suez Canal, which connects the eastern Mediterranean and Red Seas. As the canal is built only to allow ships to travel in a single lane, the Great Bitter Lake is a location where ships can change their position in line (like the passing lane on the highway) before proceeding to either Port Said to the north, or the port of Suez to the south. The lake also provides an intermediate harbor for ships traversing the Canal.
- Question 9 of 28
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- Agriculture uses majority of the fresh water resources in India.
- Canal irrigation share in agriculture in India is more than that of groundwater irrigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Agriculture irrigation accounts for nearly 78% followed by domestic use 6%, industries 5% of water resources use in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only about half of India’s gross cropped area (198 million hectares) is irrigated. Groundwater contributes about 64 per cent, canals 23 per cent, tanks 2 per cent and other sources 11 per cent to irrigation.
# As per the UN’s report on Sustainable Development Goal-6 (SDG-6) on “Clean water and sanitation for all by 2030”, India achieved only 56.6 per cent of the target by 2019.
# As per the Niti Aayog’s Composite Water Management Index (2019), 75 per cent households in India do not have access to drinking water on their premises and India ranks 120th amongst 122 countries in the water quality index.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Agriculture irrigation accounts for nearly 78% followed by domestic use 6%, industries 5% of water resources use in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only about half of India’s gross cropped area (198 million hectares) is irrigated. Groundwater contributes about 64 per cent, canals 23 per cent, tanks 2 per cent and other sources 11 per cent to irrigation.
# As per the UN’s report on Sustainable Development Goal-6 (SDG-6) on “Clean water and sanitation for all by 2030”, India achieved only 56.6 per cent of the target by 2019.
# As per the Niti Aayog’s Composite Water Management Index (2019), 75 per cent households in India do not have access to drinking water on their premises and India ranks 120th amongst 122 countries in the water quality index.
- Question 10 of 28
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following state does not border either Bangladesh or Myanmar?
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Assam
- Tripura
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Four northeastern states of Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Assam share a 1,880-km border with Bangladesh, while Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh share a 1,640-km unfenced border with Myanmar.
Incorrect
Four northeastern states of Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Assam share a 1,880-km border with Bangladesh, while Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh share a 1,640-km unfenced border with Myanmar.
- Question 11 of 28
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich one among the following is the Southernmost point?
Correct
Generally, it is believed that Cape of Good Hope is the Southernmost point on African continent. However, Cape Agulhas is the southernmost point among all of the given points.
Incorrect
Generally, it is believed that Cape of Good Hope is the Southernmost point on African continent. However, Cape Agulhas is the southernmost point among all of the given points.
- Question 12 of 28
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Suez Canal:
- It connects the Mediterranean and Red Seas.
- It divides Egypt from the Sinai Peninsula.
- It has never been closed since it was built.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. The Suez Canal crosses the Suez isthmus in Egypt. It is about 193km (120 miles) long and incorporates three natural lakes. The Isthmus of Suez is the only land bridge between the African and Asian continents which used to form a single continental mass.
The canal connects the Mediterranean and Red Seas and divides Egypt from the Sinai Peninsula.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It was opened for navigation in 1869. Egypt nationalized the canal in July 1956. The Canal was closed few times; the last time was the most serious one when Egypt closed down the Suez Canal which trapped fifteen international ships in the canal for more or less eight years. The Canal was then reopened for navigation in June 1975.
# Egypt’s Suez Canal has been blocked by a large container ship. But it has been removed recently
Incorrect
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. The Suez Canal crosses the Suez isthmus in Egypt. It is about 193km (120 miles) long and incorporates three natural lakes. The Isthmus of Suez is the only land bridge between the African and Asian continents which used to form a single continental mass.
The canal connects the Mediterranean and Red Seas and divides Egypt from the Sinai Peninsula.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It was opened for navigation in 1869. Egypt nationalized the canal in July 1956. The Canal was closed few times; the last time was the most serious one when Egypt closed down the Suez Canal which trapped fifteen international ships in the canal for more or less eight years. The Canal was then reopened for navigation in June 1975.
# Egypt’s Suez Canal has been blocked by a large container ship. But it has been removed recently
- Question 13 of 28
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following state of India does not share border with Nepal?
- Jharkhand
- West Bengal
- Bihar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
With an area of 147,181 sq. km and a population of 29 million, Nepal shares a border of about 1850 km with five Indian States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. An estimated 6 million Nepalese live and work in India. As close neighbours, India and Nepal share a unique relationship of friendship and cooperation characterized by open borders and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture.
Incorrect
With an area of 147,181 sq. km and a population of 29 million, Nepal shares a border of about 1850 km with five Indian States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. An estimated 6 million Nepalese live and work in India. As close neighbours, India and Nepal share a unique relationship of friendship and cooperation characterized by open borders and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture.
- Question 14 of 28
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyA new Mango variety named ‘Sadabahar’ is in news recently, which one of the following statements is incorrect about it?
Correct
Sadabahar is a dwarf variety of mango. It can be grown regularly round the year.
The dwarf is used to describe varieties or species of plants and animals which are much smaller than the usual size for their kind.
It is resistant to most major diseases and common mango disorders.
It is deep orange with sweet taste, and the pulp has very less fiber content which differentiates it from other varieties.
Incorrect
Sadabahar is a dwarf variety of mango. It can be grown regularly round the year.
The dwarf is used to describe varieties or species of plants and animals which are much smaller than the usual size for their kind.
It is resistant to most major diseases and common mango disorders.
It is deep orange with sweet taste, and the pulp has very less fiber content which differentiates it from other varieties.
- Question 15 of 28
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following state/Union Territory shares the longest border with China?
Correct
India shares 3488 Km of border with China that runs along the States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh and UT of Ladakh.
STATE/UT LENGTH (km) Ladakh 1597 Himachal Pradesh 200 Uttarakhand 345 Sikkim 220 Arunachal Pradesh 1126 3488 Incorrect
India shares 3488 Km of border with China that runs along the States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh and UT of Ladakh.
STATE/UT LENGTH (km) Ladakh 1597 Himachal Pradesh 200 Uttarakhand 345 Sikkim 220 Arunachal Pradesh 1126 3488 - Question 16 of 28
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Chenab River:
- It is formed after the two streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge with each other.
- It meets with Sutlej River in Punjab, India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The river Chenab (or Chandra Bhaga) is formed after the two streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge with each other. The Chandra and the Bhaga originate from the south-west and north-west faces of Barelacha pass respectively in the Himalayan canton of Lahul and Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Chenab does not meet Sutlej in India. It meets with Jhelum and Ravi in Pakistan.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The river Chenab (or Chandra Bhaga) is formed after the two streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge with each other. The Chandra and the Bhaga originate from the south-west and north-west faces of Barelacha pass respectively in the Himalayan canton of Lahul and Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Chenab does not meet Sutlej in India. It meets with Jhelum and Ravi in Pakistan.
- Question 17 of 28
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Bogibeel Bridge:
- It is a rail/road bridge.
- It is built across the River Brahmaputra in the state of Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Bogibeel rail / road bridge is built across the River Brahmaputra in the Dibrugarh district, in the state of Assam in north-east India. The 4.94km bridge is one of the longest river bridges in the country. It will connect Dibrugarh in the south to Lakhimpur in the north. The River Brahmaputra runs to the north of Dibrugarh and spans 10km.
The rail-road bridge was undertaken by the Northeast Frontier Railway, which is a part of Indian Railways. It was inaugurated in 2018.
Incorrect
The Bogibeel rail / road bridge is built across the River Brahmaputra in the Dibrugarh district, in the state of Assam in north-east India. The 4.94km bridge is one of the longest river bridges in the country. It will connect Dibrugarh in the south to Lakhimpur in the north. The River Brahmaputra runs to the north of Dibrugarh and spans 10km.
The rail-road bridge was undertaken by the Northeast Frontier Railway, which is a part of Indian Railways. It was inaugurated in 2018.
- Question 18 of 28
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhere is the Thwaites Glacier located?
Correct
The Thwaites Glacier, sometimes referred to as the Doomsday Glacier, is an unusually broad and vast Antarctic glacier flowing into the Pine Island Bay.
Researchers at Sweden’s University of Gothenburg releases a new finding related to the melting of the Thwaites Glacier. They found that the melting was worse than previously thought.
Incorrect
The Thwaites Glacier, sometimes referred to as the Doomsday Glacier, is an unusually broad and vast Antarctic glacier flowing into the Pine Island Bay.
Researchers at Sweden’s University of Gothenburg releases a new finding related to the melting of the Thwaites Glacier. They found that the melting was worse than previously thought.
- Question 19 of 28
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhat is the long period average of monsoon rainfall in India as per IMD?
Correct
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a ‘normal’ monsoon for this year. In the agency’s parlance, normal implies that the country will get 96% to 104% of the 88 cm that it gets from June-September.
This quantity, called the Long Period Average (LPA), is a mean of monsoon rainfall from 1961-2010.
Incorrect
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a ‘normal’ monsoon for this year. In the agency’s parlance, normal implies that the country will get 96% to 104% of the 88 cm that it gets from June-September.
This quantity, called the Long Period Average (LPA), is a mean of monsoon rainfall from 1961-2010.
- Question 20 of 28
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyHot Springs and Gogra post have been in news recently, where are they located?
Correct
Both of these are close to the Chang Chenmo river in the Galwan sub-sector of the LAC in eastern Ladakh. While Hot Springs is just north of the Chang Chenmo river, Gogra Post is east of the point where the river takes a hairpin bend coming southeast from Galwan Valley and turning southwest.
The area lies close to Kongka Pass, one of the main passes, which, according to China marks the boundary between India and China. India’s claim of the international boundary lies significantly east, as it includes the entire Aksai Chin area as well.
Incorrect
Both of these are close to the Chang Chenmo river in the Galwan sub-sector of the LAC in eastern Ladakh. While Hot Springs is just north of the Chang Chenmo river, Gogra Post is east of the point where the river takes a hairpin bend coming southeast from Galwan Valley and turning southwest.
The area lies close to Kongka Pass, one of the main passes, which, according to China marks the boundary between India and China. India’s claim of the international boundary lies significantly east, as it includes the entire Aksai Chin area as well.
- Question 21 of 28
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Barakah - Saudi Arabia
- Fukushima - Japan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The 5,600MW Barakah nuclear power plant (NPP) in the Emirate of Abu Dhabi is the first nuclear power project in the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It is located in the Al Dhafra of the Emirate of Abu Dhabi on the Arabian Gulf.
The Fukushima Dai-Ichi Nuclear Power Station is an out of commission nuclear plant located in the towns of Futaba and Ohkuma, 250km north of Tokyo city in Japan. Units 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the nuclear complexes were damaged in a series of events after the 11 March 2011 earthquake (Tohoku-Chihou-Taiheiyou-Oki Earthquake) and tsunami that struck the nation.
Incorrect
The 5,600MW Barakah nuclear power plant (NPP) in the Emirate of Abu Dhabi is the first nuclear power project in the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It is located in the Al Dhafra of the Emirate of Abu Dhabi on the Arabian Gulf.
The Fukushima Dai-Ichi Nuclear Power Station is an out of commission nuclear plant located in the towns of Futaba and Ohkuma, 250km north of Tokyo city in Japan. Units 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the nuclear complexes were damaged in a series of events after the 11 March 2011 earthquake (Tohoku-Chihou-Taiheiyou-Oki Earthquake) and tsunami that struck the nation.
- Question 22 of 28
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following State does not border Odisha?
- Bihar
- Telangana
- Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Odisha borders the states of West Bengal and Jharkhand to the north, Chhattisgarh to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the south. It also has a coastline of 485 kilometres along the Bay of Bengal.
# Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) has accorded administrative approval for sanction of Rs 50.30 crore for developing all-weather ROPAX (Roll-on/Roll-off Passenger) Jetty and allied infrastructure connecting Kaninali in Bhadrak district &Talachua in Kendrapara district, Odisha under the Sagarmala initiative.
Incorrect
Odisha borders the states of West Bengal and Jharkhand to the north, Chhattisgarh to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the south. It also has a coastline of 485 kilometres along the Bay of Bengal.
# Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) has accorded administrative approval for sanction of Rs 50.30 crore for developing all-weather ROPAX (Roll-on/Roll-off Passenger) Jetty and allied infrastructure connecting Kaninali in Bhadrak district &Talachua in Kendrapara district, Odisha under the Sagarmala initiative.
- Question 23 of 28
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Ken-Betwa linking project:
1. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have signed a tripartite agreement with the Centre for implementation of the project.
2. It aims to transfer surplus water from the Betwa basin to the deficit Ken basin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India’s first river interlinking project, connecting the Ken and Betwa rivers in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, is finally set to be implemented. After resolving their differences over sharing of water, the chief ministers of UP and MP on March 22 signed a tripartite agreement with the Centre.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The project aims to transfer “surplus” water from the Ken basin in M.P. to the “deficit” Betwa basin in U.P.
The Ken-Betwa project is part of the national river linking project which proposes to connect 14 Himalayan and 16 peninsular rivers with 30 canals and 3,000 reservoirs in order to irrigate 87 million hectares of land. It has the status of a national project, as the Centre will contribute 90% of the cost.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India’s first river interlinking project, connecting the Ken and Betwa rivers in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, is finally set to be implemented. After resolving their differences over sharing of water, the chief ministers of UP and MP on March 22 signed a tripartite agreement with the Centre.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The project aims to transfer “surplus” water from the Ken basin in M.P. to the “deficit” Betwa basin in U.P.
The Ken-Betwa project is part of the national river linking project which proposes to connect 14 Himalayan and 16 peninsular rivers with 30 canals and 3,000 reservoirs in order to irrigate 87 million hectares of land. It has the status of a national project, as the Centre will contribute 90% of the cost.
- Question 24 of 28
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding Kopili fault zone
- Zone falls into the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
- It is located beneath Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh.
- It is the result of Indian Plate subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.
Answer using the codes given below
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. This zone is a seismically active area, so it falls into the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kopili fault zone is a 300-km northwest-southeast trending fault. It is extending from the western part of Manipur to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Statement 3 is correct. The zone is associated with collisional tectonics because of the Indian Plate subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.Subduction is a geological process in which one crustal plate is forced below the edge of another.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. This zone is a seismically active area, so it falls into the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kopili fault zone is a 300-km northwest-southeast trending fault. It is extending from the western part of Manipur to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Statement 3 is correct. The zone is associated with collisional tectonics because of the Indian Plate subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.Subduction is a geological process in which one crustal plate is forced below the edge of another.
- Question 25 of 28
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyOn which of the following rivers, World’s highest railway bridge is being built?
Correct
The Railways on Monday said it had completed the arch closure of the 1315m Chenab bridge, the world’s highest railway bridge. The Chenab bridge is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla rail link project (USBRL) and completion of the steel arch is an important construction milestone.
Incorrect
The Railways on Monday said it had completed the arch closure of the 1315m Chenab bridge, the world’s highest railway bridge. The Chenab bridge is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla rail link project (USBRL) and completion of the steel arch is an important construction milestone.
- Question 26 of 28
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements
- India’s largest freshwater lake is in Himachal Pradesh.
- India’s Largest brackish water lake is in Odisha.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake. Wular Lake is the largest lake in India. In fact, it is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia. It is situated in Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 2 is correct. Chilika is one of India’s largest brackish water coastal lakes. Located south of the mouth of the Mahanadi River in unspoilt Orissa, this lake was once a bay of the ocean until it was silted up by monsoon tides.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake. Wular Lake is the largest lake in India. In fact, it is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia. It is situated in Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 2 is correct. Chilika is one of India’s largest brackish water coastal lakes. Located south of the mouth of the Mahanadi River in unspoilt Orissa, this lake was once a bay of the ocean until it was silted up by monsoon tides.
- Question 27 of 28
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyIn which one of the following states, government has not notified tracts for Opium cultivation?
Correct
The NDPS Act empowers the Central Government to permit and regulate cultivation of opium poppy for medical and scientific purposes. The Government of India notifies the tracts where opium cultivation can be licensed as well as the General Conditions for issuance of license every year. These notifications are commonly referred to as Opium Policies. Opium cultivation is permitted in the notified tracts in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Incorrect
The NDPS Act empowers the Central Government to permit and regulate cultivation of opium poppy for medical and scientific purposes. The Government of India notifies the tracts where opium cultivation can be licensed as well as the General Conditions for issuance of license every year. These notifications are commonly referred to as Opium Policies. Opium cultivation is permitted in the notified tracts in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
- Question 28 of 28
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following are the functions of Spices Board India?
- Export promotion of all spices and assisting exporters of Spices.
- Regulation of quality of spices for exports through its quality evaluation.
- Assist farmers in Post-harvest improvement of all spices
- Research, Development and Regulation of domestic marketing of Cardamom (Small & Large).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Spices Board is one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Purpose: It is an autonomous body responsible for the export promotion of the 52 scheduled spices and development of Cardamom (Small & Large).
Functions: The main functions of the Spices Board are,
- Research, Development and Regulation of domestic marketing of Small & Large Cardamom;
- Post-harvest improvement of all spices;
- Export promotion of all spices. Further, it will assist the exporters in technology up-gradation, quality management, brand promotion, research & product development;
- Development of spices in the North East;
- Regulation of quality of spices for exports through its quality evaluation services; etc.
Incorrect
Spices Board is one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Purpose: It is an autonomous body responsible for the export promotion of the 52 scheduled spices and development of Cardamom (Small & Large).
Functions: The main functions of the Spices Board are,
- Research, Development and Regulation of domestic marketing of Small & Large Cardamom;
- Post-harvest improvement of all spices;
- Export promotion of all spices. Further, it will assist the exporters in technology up-gradation, quality management, brand promotion, research & product development;
- Development of spices in the North East;
- Regulation of quality of spices for exports through its quality evaluation services; etc.
ENVIRONMENT
ENVIRONMENT
Test-summary
0 of 22 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 22 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Environment 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 22
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statement regarding GloLitter Partnerships Project
- It was launched by was the International Maritime Organization(IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization(FAO)
- It aims to tackle marine plastic pollution.
- India is one of the participating countries in the project.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
Around 30 Countries from across the oceans have joined the GloLitter Partnerships Project to tackle marine plastic litter.
- GloLitter Partnerships Project was launched by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations(FAO). The Government of Norway provided initial funding for the project.
- Aim: The project aims to help the maritime transport and fishing sectors to adapt to a low-plastic future. To achieve this goal, this initiative will assist developing countries to apply best practices for prevention, reduction, and control of marine plastic litter from those sectors.
- Participating Countries: 30 Countries will be participating in the project. India is one of the participating countries.
Read more: GloLitter Partnerships Project
Incorrect
Around 30 Countries from across the oceans have joined the GloLitter Partnerships Project to tackle marine plastic litter.
- GloLitter Partnerships Project was launched by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations(FAO). The Government of Norway provided initial funding for the project.
- Aim: The project aims to help the maritime transport and fishing sectors to adapt to a low-plastic future. To achieve this goal, this initiative will assist developing countries to apply best practices for prevention, reduction, and control of marine plastic litter from those sectors.
- Participating Countries: 30 Countries will be participating in the project. India is one of the participating countries.
Read more: GloLitter Partnerships Project
- Question 2 of 22
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements regarding forest fires
- Ground fires are more damaging compared to surface fires.
- On hill slopes, if the fire starts middle of the hill, it spreads fast upwards and less likely to spread downwards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Ground Fires are more damaging than surface fires, as they can destroy vegetation completely. Ground fires burn underneath the surface by smoldering combustion and are more often ignited by surface fires.
Statement 2 is correct. On hill slopes, if the fire starts downhill, it spreads up fast as heated air adjacent to a slope tends to flow up the slope spreading flames along with it. If the fire starts uphill, there is less likelihood of it spreading downwards.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Ground Fires are more damaging than surface fires, as they can destroy vegetation completely. Ground fires burn underneath the surface by smoldering combustion and are more often ignited by surface fires.
Statement 2 is correct. On hill slopes, if the fire starts downhill, it spreads up fast as heated air adjacent to a slope tends to flow up the slope spreading flames along with it. If the fire starts uphill, there is less likelihood of it spreading downwards.
- Question 3 of 22
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe Pterosaurs have been in news recently, what are they?
Correct
Pterosaurs are reptiles that are close cousins of dinosaurs, the first animals after insects to evolve powered flight. Pterosaurs disappeared 66 million years ago in the asteroid collision that also doomed the dinosaurs. While starting relatively small, pterosaurs eventually achieved huge dimensions, with wingspans reaching 35 feet (10.7 meters).
Azhdarchid pterosaurs, the giant reptiles that flew in the skies nearly 65 million years ago, had necks longer than that of a giraffe (on average a giraffe’s neck is about 6 feet long). Now, researchers have reported a new finding about their long necks — that the thin neck vertebrae were supported by an intricate internal structure that is unlike anything seen before.
# The results of their study were published in the journal iScience recently.
Incorrect
Pterosaurs are reptiles that are close cousins of dinosaurs, the first animals after insects to evolve powered flight. Pterosaurs disappeared 66 million years ago in the asteroid collision that also doomed the dinosaurs. While starting relatively small, pterosaurs eventually achieved huge dimensions, with wingspans reaching 35 feet (10.7 meters).
Azhdarchid pterosaurs, the giant reptiles that flew in the skies nearly 65 million years ago, had necks longer than that of a giraffe (on average a giraffe’s neck is about 6 feet long). Now, researchers have reported a new finding about their long necks — that the thin neck vertebrae were supported by an intricate internal structure that is unlike anything seen before.
# The results of their study were published in the journal iScience recently.
- Question 4 of 22
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe ‘Monkeydactyl’ have been discovered recently, what is it?
Correct
Paleontologists have discovered the first-known fossil of a flying dinosaur with opposable thumbs. Nicknamed “Monkeydactyl”, the 160-million-year-old pterosaur likely used its dexterity to climb trees and hunt for insects and other prey. A team of international researchers unearthed the Jurassic remains in Liaoning, northeastern China.
The monkeydactyl is the earliest known animal with the ability to touch the inside of its thumbs to the inside of its index fingers, according to the paleontologists behind the discovery.
Incorrect
Paleontologists have discovered the first-known fossil of a flying dinosaur with opposable thumbs. Nicknamed “Monkeydactyl”, the 160-million-year-old pterosaur likely used its dexterity to climb trees and hunt for insects and other prey. A team of international researchers unearthed the Jurassic remains in Liaoning, northeastern China.
The monkeydactyl is the earliest known animal with the ability to touch the inside of its thumbs to the inside of its index fingers, according to the paleontologists behind the discovery.
- Question 5 of 22
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements:
- Genetic modification (GM) technology allows the transfer of genes for specific traits between species.
- GM Mustard is the only GM crop approved in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) can be defined as organisms (i.e. plants, animals or microorganisms) in which the genetic material (DNA) has been altered in a way that does not occur naturally by mating and/or natural recombination. Genetic modification (GM) technology allows the transfer of genes for specific traits between species.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bt Cotton is the only GM crop introduced in India in 2002. Bt brinjal was recommended for commercialisation in October 2009, after it completed regulatory evaluation in seven years, and is still under moratorium.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) can be defined as organisms (i.e. plants, animals or microorganisms) in which the genetic material (DNA) has been altered in a way that does not occur naturally by mating and/or natural recombination. Genetic modification (GM) technology allows the transfer of genes for specific traits between species.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bt Cotton is the only GM crop introduced in India in 2002. Bt brinjal was recommended for commercialisation in October 2009, after it completed regulatory evaluation in seven years, and is still under moratorium.
- Question 6 of 22
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of following are the reasons for Urban Fires?
- Faulty Electrical equipment
- Using older equipment
- Overloading of machines
- Lack of awareness
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
- Faulty Electrics: These are the biggest cause of workplace fires. Loose wires, overloaded plugs and machinery, old equipment etc. can all result in a fire accident.
- Flammable and Combustible Materials: Urban premises that hold any number of materials that are flammable or combustible represent a dangerous hazard.
- Human Error: When staff are not trained properly, they are at risk of making catastrophic mistakes. Accidents such as placing liquid near electrical equipment, burning food in the kitchen or spilling flammable liquids have occurred due to human error.
- Lack of awareness among people: In many accidents, it was observed that firefighting equipment was installed. But there is no knowledge training for the persons to handle the equipment.
Incorrect
- Faulty Electrics: These are the biggest cause of workplace fires. Loose wires, overloaded plugs and machinery, old equipment etc. can all result in a fire accident.
- Flammable and Combustible Materials: Urban premises that hold any number of materials that are flammable or combustible represent a dangerous hazard.
- Human Error: When staff are not trained properly, they are at risk of making catastrophic mistakes. Accidents such as placing liquid near electrical equipment, burning food in the kitchen or spilling flammable liquids have occurred due to human error.
- Lack of awareness among people: In many accidents, it was observed that firefighting equipment was installed. But there is no knowledge training for the persons to handle the equipment.
- Question 7 of 22
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe ‘Nacaduba sinhala ramaswamii Sadasivan’ has been in news recently, it is a species of:
Correct
The butterfly species Nacaduba sinhala ramaswamii Sadasivan discovered in the Agasthyamalais in the Western Ghats a decade ago has now found place in the Journal of Threatened Taxa.
Nacaduba is a genus of gossamer-winged butterflies. It contains many of the species commonly called “lineblues”. Line Blues are small butterflies belonging to the subfamily Lycaenidae and their distribution ranges from India and Sri Lanka to the whole of southeastern Asia, Australia and Samoa.
Incorrect
The butterfly species Nacaduba sinhala ramaswamii Sadasivan discovered in the Agasthyamalais in the Western Ghats a decade ago has now found place in the Journal of Threatened Taxa.
Nacaduba is a genus of gossamer-winged butterflies. It contains many of the species commonly called “lineblues”. Line Blues are small butterflies belonging to the subfamily Lycaenidae and their distribution ranges from India and Sri Lanka to the whole of southeastern Asia, Australia and Samoa.
- Question 8 of 22
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following National Park(s) is/are located in Rajasthan?
- Bandhavgarh National Park
- Ranthambore National Park
- Keoladeo National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Keoladeo National Park is in Bharatpur, Rakasthan is a former duck-hunting reserve of the Maharajas is one of the major wintering areas for large numbers of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China and Siberia.
The Ranthambore National Park is in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan is also a former royal hunting ground and home to tigers, leopards and marsh crocodiles.
Bandhavgarh National Park is spread at Vidhya hills in Madhya Pradesh.
Rajasthan Diwas is observed on March 30th every year to commemorate the formation of the state. It was formed on March 30th, 1949 when Rajputana was merged into the Dominion of India. Jaipur being the largest city was declared as the capital of the state.
Incorrect
The Keoladeo National Park is in Bharatpur, Rakasthan is a former duck-hunting reserve of the Maharajas is one of the major wintering areas for large numbers of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China and Siberia.
The Ranthambore National Park is in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan is also a former royal hunting ground and home to tigers, leopards and marsh crocodiles.
Bandhavgarh National Park is spread at Vidhya hills in Madhya Pradesh.
Rajasthan Diwas is observed on March 30th every year to commemorate the formation of the state. It was formed on March 30th, 1949 when Rajputana was merged into the Dominion of India. Jaipur being the largest city was declared as the capital of the state.
- Question 9 of 22
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following State?
Correct
Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary covers an area of around 70.13 sq km and lies on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River. It forms an integral part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori eco-system and is a notified buffer of the Kazairanga Tiger reserve.
The sanctuary is home to the great Indian-one horned rhinoceros, elephants, royal Bengal tigers, Asiatic water buffaloes and more than 225 species of birds.
Incorrect
Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary covers an area of around 70.13 sq km and lies on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River. It forms an integral part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori eco-system and is a notified buffer of the Kazairanga Tiger reserve.
The sanctuary is home to the great Indian-one horned rhinoceros, elephants, royal Bengal tigers, Asiatic water buffaloes and more than 225 species of birds.
- Question 10 of 22
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements:
- Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as Critically Endangered in IUCN Red List.
- The Indian Rhino Vision 2020 aimed to move rhinos from densely populated parks to less densely populated parks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
Statement 2 is correct. The goal of Indian Rhino Vision 2020 was to increase the rhino population in Assam to 3,000 by establishing populations in new areas. Rhinos are now found in four Protected Areas in Assam: Pabitora Wildlife Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.
Wild-to-wild translocations were an essential part of IRV2020 – moving rhinos from densely populated parks like Kaziranga NP, to ones in need of more rhinos, like Manas NP. IRV2020 was established in 2005.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
Statement 2 is correct. The goal of Indian Rhino Vision 2020 was to increase the rhino population in Assam to 3,000 by establishing populations in new areas. Rhinos are now found in four Protected Areas in Assam: Pabitora Wildlife Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.
Wild-to-wild translocations were an essential part of IRV2020 – moving rhinos from densely populated parks like Kaziranga NP, to ones in need of more rhinos, like Manas NP. IRV2020 was established in 2005.
- Question 11 of 22
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following State?
Correct
The KatarniyaGhat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai of Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh. The KatarniyaGhat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and Nepal.
The sanctuary has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands. It is home to a number of endangered species including gharial, tiger, rhino, Gangetic dolphin, Swamp deer, Hispid hare, Bengal florican, the White-backed and Long-billed vultures.
Incorrect
The KatarniyaGhat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai of Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh. The KatarniyaGhat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and Nepal.
The sanctuary has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands. It is home to a number of endangered species including gharial, tiger, rhino, Gangetic dolphin, Swamp deer, Hispid hare, Bengal florican, the White-backed and Long-billed vultures.
- Question 12 of 22
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following statements regarding ‘Net-zero emissions target’ is/are correct?
- India has adopted a net Zero target.
- Net-Zero target involves zero emission of Greenhouse gases.
- There is no fix year to achieve the net zero emission target.
Answer using the 3 codes given below
Correct
1st statement is incorrect. India has not yet adopted the net- zero emission target.
2nd statement is incorrect. It involves balancing of emission by equivalent absorption. Whereas zero emission targets at no emission at all.
3rd statement is correct. There is no fix year to achieve the net-zero emissions target. Some countries aim to achieve it by 2050, others aim to achieve it by 2045.
Read more - What is Net Zero Target? |ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
1st statement is incorrect. India has not yet adopted the net- zero emission target.
2nd statement is incorrect. It involves balancing of emission by equivalent absorption. Whereas zero emission targets at no emission at all.
3rd statement is correct. There is no fix year to achieve the net-zero emissions target. Some countries aim to achieve it by 2050, others aim to achieve it by 2045.
Read more - What is Net Zero Target? |ForumIAS Blog
- Question 13 of 22
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentPong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary was in news recently, it is also a
Correct
Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983.
- In 1994, Government of India declared Pong Dam Lake as a “Wetland of National Importance”. In 2002, it became a Ramsar Site in November 2002 by government notification.
- Vegetation: The sanctuary area is covered with tropical and subtropical forests. Thus, it shelters a great number of Indian Wildlife animals.
Read More - “Pong Dam wildlife sanctuary”-27 Migratory Birds Found Dead (forumias.com)
Incorrect
Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983.
- In 1994, Government of India declared Pong Dam Lake as a “Wetland of National Importance”. In 2002, it became a Ramsar Site in November 2002 by government notification.
- Vegetation: The sanctuary area is covered with tropical and subtropical forests. Thus, it shelters a great number of Indian Wildlife animals.
Read More - “Pong Dam wildlife sanctuary”-27 Migratory Birds Found Dead (forumias.com)
- Question 14 of 22
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich one of the following releases India State of Forest Report?
Correct
Forest Survey of India (FSI) is a premier national organization under the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is responsible for the assessment and monitoring of the forest resources of the country regularly.
FSI was established on June 1,1981. The Forest Survey of India succeeded the ”Pre Investment Survey of Forest Resources” (PISFR). PISER is a project initiated in 1965 by the Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.
FSI is headquartered at Dehradun in Uttarakhand.
It releases a biennial report called the State of Forest Report (SFR). The first ISFR released in 1987. So far, 16 biennial assessment of Forests has been done.
The last report was released in 2019. The 2019 report for the first time created a national forest inventory.
Incorrect
Forest Survey of India (FSI) is a premier national organization under the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is responsible for the assessment and monitoring of the forest resources of the country regularly.
FSI was established on June 1,1981. The Forest Survey of India succeeded the ”Pre Investment Survey of Forest Resources” (PISFR). PISER is a project initiated in 1965 by the Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.
FSI is headquartered at Dehradun in Uttarakhand.
It releases a biennial report called the State of Forest Report (SFR). The first ISFR released in 1987. So far, 16 biennial assessment of Forests has been done.
The last report was released in 2019. The 2019 report for the first time created a national forest inventory.
- Question 15 of 22
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following are the possible reasons for forest fires?
- Tourists
- Lack of soil moisture
- Slash and Burn Cultivation
- Volcanic eruption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Forest fires occurs due to both man-made and natural causes
Man-Made causes include,
- Manmade fires are high particularly in places where people visit forests. People leave burning bidis, cigarette stubs or other inflammable materials inside the forest.
- Slash and Burn Cultivation: This is one of the major reasons for the fire in India’s Northeastern region.
- In some places, people deliberately cause a fire. For example, the recent fire in Simlipal National Park in Odisha is due to deliberation. Villagers set dry leaves to fire in order to collect mahua flowers. (The local people use these flowers in preparation for a local drink).
- Other reasons include, campfires, fireworks, mining works, etc can also cause forest fires.
Natural causes include,
- Volcanic eruption: Hot magma in the earth’s crust is usually expelled out as lava during a volcanic eruption. The hot lava then flows into nearby fields or lands to start wildfires.
- Heat waves: Increased temperatures due to global warming are making the forests more vulnerable.
- Climate Change: Massive fires in the Amazon forests in Brazil and in Australia are primarily due to Climate Change.
- Lack of soil moisture: It is also seen as a key factor. For example, the recent Uttarakhand forest fires are due to this.
- Lightning strikes, Increased heat waves can also cause forest fires.
Incorrect
Forest fires occurs due to both man-made and natural causes
Man-Made causes include,
- Manmade fires are high particularly in places where people visit forests. People leave burning bidis, cigarette stubs or other inflammable materials inside the forest.
- Slash and Burn Cultivation: This is one of the major reasons for the fire in India’s Northeastern region.
- In some places, people deliberately cause a fire. For example, the recent fire in Simlipal National Park in Odisha is due to deliberation. Villagers set dry leaves to fire in order to collect mahua flowers. (The local people use these flowers in preparation for a local drink).
- Other reasons include, campfires, fireworks, mining works, etc can also cause forest fires.
Natural causes include,
- Volcanic eruption: Hot magma in the earth’s crust is usually expelled out as lava during a volcanic eruption. The hot lava then flows into nearby fields or lands to start wildfires.
- Heat waves: Increased temperatures due to global warming are making the forests more vulnerable.
- Climate Change: Massive fires in the Amazon forests in Brazil and in Australia are primarily due to Climate Change.
- Lack of soil moisture: It is also seen as a key factor. For example, the recent Uttarakhand forest fires are due to this.
- Lightning strikes, Increased heat waves can also cause forest fires.
- Question 16 of 22
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements regarding Mahendragiri Hill
- Mahendratanaya River originates from this hill.
- This hill was declared a biosphere reserve.
Answer using the codes given below
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Mahendragiri hill has many water streams and the origin of the Mahendratanaya River.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Odisha government has moved a proposal to declare is as a biosphere reserve. Also, Similipal Biosphere Reserve was Odisha’s first such reserve and was notified in 1996.
Read more -
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Mahendragiri hill has many water streams and the origin of the Mahendratanaya River.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Odisha government has moved a proposal to declare is as a biosphere reserve. Also, Similipal Biosphere Reserve was Odisha’s first such reserve and was notified in 1996.
Read more -
- Question 17 of 22
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentBlue Nature Alliance was seen in the news recently. Which of the following correctly describes it?
Correct
Blue Nature Alliance has been launched with a goal to restore 7 million square miles of ocean in five years.
- Blue Nature Alliance is a global partnership. It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility (GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation.
- Aim: To safeguard global ocean biodiversity, build resilience to climate change, promote human well-being and enhance ecosystem connectivity.
- Target Oceans: The Alliance has started by targeting seven ocean locations. This includes Antarctica, Fiji, Canada, Seychelles, Palau, the Western Indian Ocean and Tristan da Cunha, an island in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Read more: Blue Nature Alliance
Incorrect
Blue Nature Alliance has been launched with a goal to restore 7 million square miles of ocean in five years.
- Blue Nature Alliance is a global partnership. It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility (GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation.
- Aim: To safeguard global ocean biodiversity, build resilience to climate change, promote human well-being and enhance ecosystem connectivity.
- Target Oceans: The Alliance has started by targeting seven ocean locations. This includes Antarctica, Fiji, Canada, Seychelles, Palau, the Western Indian Ocean and Tristan da Cunha, an island in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Read more: Blue Nature Alliance
- Question 18 of 22
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentNet-zero emissions is a no longer an option but an undeniable necessity. Consider the statements below:
- Net-zero emissions would be achieved when all of the Carbon-Dioxide emissions are taken out from the atmosphere
- The concept of net-zero emissions is similar to climate neutrality.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: We will achieve net-zero emissions when any remaining human-caused GHG emissions (not just CO2) are balanced out by removing GHGs from the atmosphere in a process known as carbon removal.
- Statement 2 is correct: Climate Neutrality refers to the mitigation of all greenhouse gases (GHG), not just carbon dioxide. Note that carbon neutrality and climate neutrality are both different things. Climate neutrality is more inclusive while carbon neutrality only talks of carbon dioxide.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: We will achieve net-zero emissions when any remaining human-caused GHG emissions (not just CO2) are balanced out by removing GHGs from the atmosphere in a process known as carbon removal.
- Statement 2 is correct: Climate Neutrality refers to the mitigation of all greenhouse gases (GHG), not just carbon dioxide. Note that carbon neutrality and climate neutrality are both different things. Climate neutrality is more inclusive while carbon neutrality only talks of carbon dioxide.
- Question 19 of 22
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWith reference to findings of ‘the State of the Global Climate 2020’, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
- 2020 was the warmest year on record.
- La Niña induced cooling resulted in drop in sea level in 2020.
- emission of major greenhouse gases increased in 2019 and 2020
Answer using the codes given below
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. 2020 was one of the three warmest years on record, despite a cooling La Niña event. The global average temperature was about 1.2° Celsius above the pre-industrial (1850-1900) level.
Statement 2 is correct. Since record-taking started in 1993 using the satellite altimeter, sea-level has been rising. However, there was a blip in summer of 2020 that recorded a drop in sea level. The WMO report says it is due to the La Niña induced cooling.
Statement 3 is correct. Not with standing the economic slowdown due to the COVID-19 pandemic, emission of major greenhouse gases increased in 2019 and 2020. More to it, the level of greenhouse gas emission will be higher in 2021.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. 2020 was one of the three warmest years on record, despite a cooling La Niña event. The global average temperature was about 1.2° Celsius above the pre-industrial (1850-1900) level.
Statement 2 is correct. Since record-taking started in 1993 using the satellite altimeter, sea-level has been rising. However, there was a blip in summer of 2020 that recorded a drop in sea level. The WMO report says it is due to the La Niña induced cooling.
Statement 3 is correct. Not with standing the economic slowdown due to the COVID-19 pandemic, emission of major greenhouse gases increased in 2019 and 2020. More to it, the level of greenhouse gas emission will be higher in 2021.
- Question 20 of 22
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements regarding net-zero emission targets
- These are part of the Paris Climate Agreement
- It means reducing the country’s greenhouse gas emissions and bringing it to Zero.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Net-zero emission is the method of balancing the greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere by the greenhouse gas absorption from the atmosphere.
In zero-carbon emission, the country will focus on limiting carbon emission. But in Net-zero carbon the country will focus on bringing the net carbon emission to zero.(Statement 2 is incorrect)
These are not part of the Paris Climate Agreement. In fact, the developing countries are arguing that the adoption of Net-zero emissions target will dilute the commitments of Paris Agreement.
Read More: Net-Zero Emissions target
Incorrect
Net-zero emission is the method of balancing the greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere by the greenhouse gas absorption from the atmosphere.
In zero-carbon emission, the country will focus on limiting carbon emission. But in Net-zero carbon the country will focus on bringing the net carbon emission to zero.(Statement 2 is incorrect)
These are not part of the Paris Climate Agreement. In fact, the developing countries are arguing that the adoption of Net-zero emissions target will dilute the commitments of Paris Agreement.
Read More: Net-Zero Emissions target
- Question 21 of 22
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentProper fire safety management can prevent major loss of life. Consider the statements below:
- National Building Code – 2016 guidelines forming the basis of fire safety in India are only recommendatory in nature
- Fire safety, as a subject, is placed under concurrent list.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Many states have established Fire & Emergency Services through a statutory Act. These acts were based on the Model Fire Service Bill circulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Similarly, in some states, municipal corporations and local bodies are responsible for providing fire services.
- Currently, the National Building Code -2016 is the basis for fire safety norms in India. It covers the detailed guidelines for construction, maintenance and fire safety of the structures. National Building Code of India is published by Bureau of Indian Standards and it is recommendatory document. Guidelines were issued to the States to incorporate the recommendations of National Building Code into their local building bylaws making the recommendations of National Building Code of India as mandatory requirement.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Fire service is a state subject and also has been included as a municipal function in the XII schedule of the Constitution.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Many states have established Fire & Emergency Services through a statutory Act. These acts were based on the Model Fire Service Bill circulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Similarly, in some states, municipal corporations and local bodies are responsible for providing fire services.
- Currently, the National Building Code -2016 is the basis for fire safety norms in India. It covers the detailed guidelines for construction, maintenance and fire safety of the structures. National Building Code of India is published by Bureau of Indian Standards and it is recommendatory document. Guidelines were issued to the States to incorporate the recommendations of National Building Code into their local building bylaws making the recommendations of National Building Code of India as mandatory requirement.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Fire service is a state subject and also has been included as a municipal function in the XII schedule of the Constitution.
- Question 22 of 22
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following statement is correct regarding ‘Leaders Summit on Climate’?
Correct
Option d is correct. U.S. President Joe Biden announced that the U.S. would cut its greenhouse gas emissions by 50%-52% by 2030 relative to 2005 levels, in a clean break with the Trump administration policies on climate action. Mr. Biden also announced that the U.S. would double, by 2024, its annual financing commitments to developing countries, including a tripling of its adaptation finance by 2024.
- US president hosts the Leaders Summit on Climate on Earth Day.
- The summit coincides with the fifth anniversary of the opening of the Paris Agreement on climate change for signature.
Incorrect
Option d is correct. U.S. President Joe Biden announced that the U.S. would cut its greenhouse gas emissions by 50%-52% by 2030 relative to 2005 levels, in a clean break with the Trump administration policies on climate action. Mr. Biden also announced that the U.S. would double, by 2024, its annual financing commitments to developing countries, including a tripling of its adaptation finance by 2024.
- US president hosts the Leaders Summit on Climate on Earth Day.
- The summit coincides with the fifth anniversary of the opening of the Paris Agreement on climate change for signature.
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY I
Test-summary
0 of 27 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 27 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Science and Technology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 27
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to Indian Patent Act 1970.
- Indian Patent Act allow the evergreening of patents.
- The Act permit Indian government to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention under the Compulsory licensing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Indian Patent Act 1970 is the only legislation that till date that governs patents in India. It first came into force in 1972. It was amended in 2005.
The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks or CGPDTM is the body responsible for the Indian Patent Act.
Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act 1970 does not allow patents to the inventions or minor changes to the known substance unless it differs significantly in properties with regard to efficacy. This means that the Indian Patent Act does not allow the evergreening of patents. (Statement 1 is incorrect).
Compulsory Licensing (CL) is the method of granting permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent owner’s consent. The Patents Act in India deals with CL. (Statement 2 is correct)
Incorrect
Indian Patent Act 1970 is the only legislation that till date that governs patents in India. It first came into force in 1972. It was amended in 2005.
The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks or CGPDTM is the body responsible for the Indian Patent Act.
Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act 1970 does not allow patents to the inventions or minor changes to the known substance unless it differs significantly in properties with regard to efficacy. This means that the Indian Patent Act does not allow the evergreening of patents. (Statement 1 is incorrect).
Compulsory Licensing (CL) is the method of granting permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent owner’s consent. The Patents Act in India deals with CL. (Statement 2 is correct)
- Question 2 of 27
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements best describes the aim of Copyright (Amendment) Rules, 2021;
Correct
The Government of India has notified Copyright (Amendment) Rules, 2021 . In India, the copyright regime is governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 and the Copyright Rules, 2013. The Copyright Rules, 2013 were last amended in the year 2016.
It aims to ensure smooth and flawless compliance in the light of the technological advancement in digital era by adopting electronic means as primary mode of communication and working in the Copyright Office
Incorrect
The Government of India has notified Copyright (Amendment) Rules, 2021 . In India, the copyright regime is governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 and the Copyright Rules, 2013. The Copyright Rules, 2013 were last amended in the year 2016.
It aims to ensure smooth and flawless compliance in the light of the technological advancement in digital era by adopting electronic means as primary mode of communication and working in the Copyright Office
- Question 3 of 27
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RECOVERY Trials:
- It aims to identify treatments that may be beneficial for people hospitalized with COVID-19.
- It is being conducted globally by the World Health Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Randomised Evaluation of COVID-19 Therapy (RECOVERY) trials aims to identify treatments that may be beneficial for people hospitalised with suspected or confirmed COVID-19. The RECOVERY Trial is currently testing some of these suggested treatments:
–Regeneron’s antibody cocktail (a combination of monoclonal antibodies directed against coronavirus)
–Baricitinib (an immunomodulatory drug used in rheumatoid arthritis)
–Dimethyl fumarate (an immunomodulatory drug used in psoriasis and multiple sclerosis).
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a national trial being held in United Kingdom sponsored by the University of Oxford.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Randomised Evaluation of COVID-19 Therapy (RECOVERY) trials aims to identify treatments that may be beneficial for people hospitalised with suspected or confirmed COVID-19. The RECOVERY Trial is currently testing some of these suggested treatments:
–Regeneron’s antibody cocktail (a combination of monoclonal antibodies directed against coronavirus)
–Baricitinib (an immunomodulatory drug used in rheumatoid arthritis)
–Dimethyl fumarate (an immunomodulatory drug used in psoriasis and multiple sclerosis).
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a national trial being held in United Kingdom sponsored by the University of Oxford.
- Question 4 of 27
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) holds a key place in protection of Intellectual Property Rights. In this regard, consider the following statements:
- One of the key objectives of TRIPS is that intellectual property protection should contribute to technical innovation and the transfer of technology.
- It has expanded international copyright rules to cover rental rights
- TRIPS is administered by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The TRIPS Agreement plays a critical role in facilitating trade in knowledge and creativity, in resolving trade disputes over intellectual property. The TRIPS Agreement has an additional important general objective: intellectual property protection should contribute to technical innovation and the transfer of technology. Both producers and users should benefit, and economic and social welfare should be enhanced, the TRIPS Agreement says.
- Statement 2 is correct: TRIPS agreement has expanded international copyright rules to cover rental rights. Authors of computer programs and producers of sound recordings must have the right to prohibit the commercial rental of their works to the public. A similar exclusive right applies to films where commercial rental has led to widespread copying, affecting copyright-owners’ potential earnings from their film
Statement 3 is incorrect: TRIPS is administered by WTO (World Trade Organization). WIPO is a UN agency
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The TRIPS Agreement plays a critical role in facilitating trade in knowledge and creativity, in resolving trade disputes over intellectual property. The TRIPS Agreement has an additional important general objective: intellectual property protection should contribute to technical innovation and the transfer of technology. Both producers and users should benefit, and economic and social welfare should be enhanced, the TRIPS Agreement says.
- Statement 2 is correct: TRIPS agreement has expanded international copyright rules to cover rental rights. Authors of computer programs and producers of sound recordings must have the right to prohibit the commercial rental of their works to the public. A similar exclusive right applies to films where commercial rental has led to widespread copying, affecting copyright-owners’ potential earnings from their film
Statement 3 is incorrect: TRIPS is administered by WTO (World Trade Organization). WIPO is a UN agency
- Question 5 of 27
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Non-fungible tokens (NFTs):
- These are cryptographic assets on blockchain.
- Each NFT is entirely unique.
- A Bitcoin is an NFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Non-fungible tokens or NFTs are cryptographic assets on blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A bitcoin is fungible — by trading one for another bitcoin, and nothing in value changes hands. NFTs, on the other hand, are a class of cryptocurrency assets in which each item, or token, is entirely unique.
Most NFTs are part of the Ethereum blockchain. Ethereum is a cryptocurrency, like bitcoin or dogecoin, but its blockchain also supports these NFTs.
# NFTs can be anything digital (such as drawings, music, your brain downloaded and turned into an AI), but a lot of the recent trend is around using the tech to sell digital art.
Incorrect
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Non-fungible tokens or NFTs are cryptographic assets on blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A bitcoin is fungible — by trading one for another bitcoin, and nothing in value changes hands. NFTs, on the other hand, are a class of cryptocurrency assets in which each item, or token, is entirely unique.
Most NFTs are part of the Ethereum blockchain. Ethereum is a cryptocurrency, like bitcoin or dogecoin, but its blockchain also supports these NFTs.
# NFTs can be anything digital (such as drawings, music, your brain downloaded and turned into an AI), but a lot of the recent trend is around using the tech to sell digital art.
- Question 6 of 27
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the mRNA vaccines:
- It puts a weakened or inactivated germ into human bodies.
- It delivers the instructions for cells on how to make a protein to trigger an immune response inside the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The traditional vaccines consist of either killed or weakened forms of a virus or bacterium. These provoke an immune response that allows the body to fight off the actual pathogen later on.
RNA vaccines deliver genetic information that allows the body’s own cells to produce a viral protein. Synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral protein can borrow this machinery to produce many copies of the protein. These proteins stimulate the immune system to mount a response, without posing any risk of infection.
# COVID-19 mRNA vaccines give instructions for cells to make spike protein, that is found on the surface of the virus that causes COVID-19.
# The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research and Bharat Biotech International are looking at bringing the messenger RNA platform to India after seeing its successful use in quick development of covid-19 vaccines by US-based Pfizer and Moderna.
Incorrect
The traditional vaccines consist of either killed or weakened forms of a virus or bacterium. These provoke an immune response that allows the body to fight off the actual pathogen later on.
RNA vaccines deliver genetic information that allows the body’s own cells to produce a viral protein. Synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral protein can borrow this machinery to produce many copies of the protein. These proteins stimulate the immune system to mount a response, without posing any risk of infection.
# COVID-19 mRNA vaccines give instructions for cells to make spike protein, that is found on the surface of the virus that causes COVID-19.
# The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research and Bharat Biotech International are looking at bringing the messenger RNA platform to India after seeing its successful use in quick development of covid-19 vaccines by US-based Pfizer and Moderna.
- Question 7 of 27
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAccording to the giant-impact theory, which of the following protoplanet collided with Earth to result in formation of Moon?
Correct
The most widely accepted today about how the Moon was made is the giant-impact theory. It proposes that the Moon formed during a collision between the Earth and another small planet, about the size of Mars. The debris from this impact collected in an orbit around Earth to form the Moon.
Scientists have long agreed on the existence of the planet, called Theia, and its role in creating the moon. The theory goes that Theia crashed into Earth early in its life and knocked loose a chunk of rock that would later become the moon.
A new study led by Qian Yuan, a geodynamics researcher at Arizona State University (ASU), Tempe, suggests that the remnants of Theia is still inside Earth, probably located in two continent-size layers of rock beneath West Africa and the Pacific Ocean.
Incorrect
The most widely accepted today about how the Moon was made is the giant-impact theory. It proposes that the Moon formed during a collision between the Earth and another small planet, about the size of Mars. The debris from this impact collected in an orbit around Earth to form the Moon.
Scientists have long agreed on the existence of the planet, called Theia, and its role in creating the moon. The theory goes that Theia crashed into Earth early in its life and knocked loose a chunk of rock that would later become the moon.
A new study led by Qian Yuan, a geodynamics researcher at Arizona State University (ASU), Tempe, suggests that the remnants of Theia is still inside Earth, probably located in two continent-size layers of rock beneath West Africa and the Pacific Ocean.
- Question 8 of 27
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following technological developments have made Internet of Things (IoT) possible?
- Low-power sensor technology
- Cloud computing platforms
- Machine learning and analytics
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Internet of Things (IoT) describes the network of physical objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies for the purpose of connecting and exchanging data with other devices and systems over the internet. A collection of recent advances in a number of different technologies has made it practical:
— Affordable and low-power sensor technology are making IoT technology possible for more manufacturers.
— The increase in the availability of cloud platforms enables both businesses and consumers to access the infrastructure they need to scale up without actually having to manage it all.
— With advances in machine learning and analytics, along with access to varied and vast amounts of data stored in the cloud, businesses can gather insights faster and more easily. The emergence of these allied technologies continues to push the boundaries of IoT and the data produced by IoT also feeds these technologies.
— Advances in neural networks have brought natural-language processing (NLP) to IoT devices (such as digital personal assistants Alexa, Cortana, and Siri) and made them appealing, affordable, and viable for home use.
# To monitor the rural drinking water supply systems in villages, the Ministry of Jal Shakti has decided to take the digital route to uses ensor-based IoT devices to effectively monitor the implementation of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) in more than six lakh villages.
Incorrect
The Internet of Things (IoT) describes the network of physical objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies for the purpose of connecting and exchanging data with other devices and systems over the internet. A collection of recent advances in a number of different technologies has made it practical:
— Affordable and low-power sensor technology are making IoT technology possible for more manufacturers.
— The increase in the availability of cloud platforms enables both businesses and consumers to access the infrastructure they need to scale up without actually having to manage it all.
— With advances in machine learning and analytics, along with access to varied and vast amounts of data stored in the cloud, businesses can gather insights faster and more easily. The emergence of these allied technologies continues to push the boundaries of IoT and the data produced by IoT also feeds these technologies.
— Advances in neural networks have brought natural-language processing (NLP) to IoT devices (such as digital personal assistants Alexa, Cortana, and Siri) and made them appealing, affordable, and viable for home use.
# To monitor the rural drinking water supply systems in villages, the Ministry of Jal Shakti has decided to take the digital route to uses ensor-based IoT devices to effectively monitor the implementation of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) in more than six lakh villages.
- Question 9 of 27
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following diseases can be spread by the Aedes aegypti mosquito species?
- Dengue
- Yellow fever
- Zika virus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Aedes aegypti is a known vector of several viruses including yellow fever virus, dengue virus chikungunya virus and Zika virus.
The mosquito can be recognized by white markings on its legs and a marking in the form of a lyre on the upper surface of its thorax. This mosquito originated in Africa, but is now found in tropical, subtropical and temperate regions throughout the world.
Incorrect
Aedes aegypti is a known vector of several viruses including yellow fever virus, dengue virus chikungunya virus and Zika virus.
The mosquito can be recognized by white markings on its legs and a marking in the form of a lyre on the upper surface of its thorax. This mosquito originated in Africa, but is now found in tropical, subtropical and temperate regions throughout the world.
- Question 10 of 27
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs):
- These are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona.
- It can create currents that drive particles down toward Earth’s poles resulting in formation of aurora at poles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona. They can eject billions of tons of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength.
The CMEs can funnel particles into near-Earth space. A CME can jostle Earth’s magnetic fields creating currents that drive particles down toward Earth’s poles. When these react with oxygen and nitrogen, they help create the aurora, also known as the Northern and Southern Lights.
Additionally, the magnetic changes can affect a variety of human technologies. High frequency radio waves can be degraded: Radios transmit static, and GPS coordinates stray by a few yards.
# Researchers at Aryabhatta Research Institute of observational sciences (ARIES), Nainital along with their collaborators from Royal Observatory of Belgium, have led to the development of an algorithm, CMEs Identification in Inner Solar Corona (CIISCO) to detect and track the accelerating solar eruption in the lower corona.
Incorrect
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona. They can eject billions of tons of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength.
The CMEs can funnel particles into near-Earth space. A CME can jostle Earth’s magnetic fields creating currents that drive particles down toward Earth’s poles. When these react with oxygen and nitrogen, they help create the aurora, also known as the Northern and Southern Lights.
Additionally, the magnetic changes can affect a variety of human technologies. High frequency radio waves can be degraded: Radios transmit static, and GPS coordinates stray by a few yards.
# Researchers at Aryabhatta Research Institute of observational sciences (ARIES), Nainital along with their collaborators from Royal Observatory of Belgium, have led to the development of an algorithm, CMEs Identification in Inner Solar Corona (CIISCO) to detect and track the accelerating solar eruption in the lower corona.
- Question 11 of 27
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich one of the following is the first Mission, aimed at studying the deep interiors of Mars?
Correct
- InSight short for Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport is a NASA Mission.
- This Mission aims at studying the deep interiors of Mars. It is the first program to analyze the interior of the Red Planet, beneath its surface i.e. its crust, mantle, and core.
- Part of: InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992).
- Discovery Program is a series of Solar System exploration missions. NASA funds these missions through its Planetary Missions Program Office.
Incorrect
- InSight short for Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport is a NASA Mission.
- This Mission aims at studying the deep interiors of Mars. It is the first program to analyze the interior of the Red Planet, beneath its surface i.e. its crust, mantle, and core.
- Part of: InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992).
- Discovery Program is a series of Solar System exploration missions. NASA funds these missions through its Planetary Missions Program Office.
- Question 12 of 27
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly describes the “ProrIISe Software”, recently seen in the news?
Correct
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, (IISc) and Prorigo Software Pvt. Ltd. have jointly developed a software ProrIISe.
ProrIISe Software aims to automate the legal and bureaucratic part of the patent process for intellectual property developed by Indian academicians in large and small institutes.
Significance: This software is available at a lesser cost when compared to the software available outside India which was the only choice available until now.
Incorrect
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, (IISc) and Prorigo Software Pvt. Ltd. have jointly developed a software ProrIISe.
ProrIISe Software aims to automate the legal and bureaucratic part of the patent process for intellectual property developed by Indian academicians in large and small institutes.
Significance: This software is available at a lesser cost when compared to the software available outside India which was the only choice available until now.
- Question 13 of 27
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following paragraph.
It is a technology used worldwide to protect naval ships from enemy’s radar and Radio Frequency (RF) missile seekers. It is an electronic countermeasure technology. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed 3 variants of this technology recently. Under this technology, A very less quantity of material will be deployed in the air acts as a decoy. It will deflect the enemy’s missiles for the safety of the ships.
Which of the following correctly identifies the technology described above?
Correct
Advanced Chaff Technology: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an Advanced Chaff Technology. It will safeguard the naval ships against enemy missile attack. The DRDO developed three variants of this chaff technology namely:
- Short Range Chaff Rocket (SRCR)
- Medium Range Chaff Rocket (MRCR) and
- Long Range Chaff Rocket (LRCR).
Read more about Advanced Chaff Technology
Electro Magnetic Pulse (EMP) weapon technology: The HPM weapon system is a technology used against an opponent’s network. HPM weapons knock out opponent’s electrical equipment rather than people. In future, HPM weapons may be used to counter incoming anti-ship/anti-aircraft/ anti-tank missiles.
Full Authority Digital Engine Control technology: It is a technology used in aircraft engines.
Tactical UAVs: These are the UAVs, operating up to a maximum altitude of 15000 ft and having an endurance of 24 Hrs with a payload of IR/EO sensors.
Incorrect
Advanced Chaff Technology: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an Advanced Chaff Technology. It will safeguard the naval ships against enemy missile attack. The DRDO developed three variants of this chaff technology namely:
- Short Range Chaff Rocket (SRCR)
- Medium Range Chaff Rocket (MRCR) and
- Long Range Chaff Rocket (LRCR).
Read more about Advanced Chaff Technology
Electro Magnetic Pulse (EMP) weapon technology: The HPM weapon system is a technology used against an opponent’s network. HPM weapons knock out opponent’s electrical equipment rather than people. In future, HPM weapons may be used to counter incoming anti-ship/anti-aircraft/ anti-tank missiles.
Full Authority Digital Engine Control technology: It is a technology used in aircraft engines.
Tactical UAVs: These are the UAVs, operating up to a maximum altitude of 15000 ft and having an endurance of 24 Hrs with a payload of IR/EO sensors.
- Question 14 of 27
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statement with respect to Wolf–Rayet stars. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about it?
- They are one of the darkest objects in the universe.
- They have completely lost their outer hydrogen.
- The surface temperature of WR stars is lower than the Sun
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Wolf–Rayet stars are highly luminous objects. The surface temperature of WR stars is a thousand times more than the Sun.
They are massive stars. Further, they have completely lost their outer hydrogen. So the WR stares fusing helium or heavier elements in the core.
The study of certain types of massive luminous supernovae explosion can help probe these stars that remain a mystery for scientists.
Read more: Wolf–Rayet stars
Incorrect
Wolf–Rayet stars are highly luminous objects. The surface temperature of WR stars is a thousand times more than the Sun.
They are massive stars. Further, they have completely lost their outer hydrogen. So the WR stares fusing helium or heavier elements in the core.
The study of certain types of massive luminous supernovae explosion can help probe these stars that remain a mystery for scientists.
Read more: Wolf–Rayet stars
- Question 15 of 27
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology‘Culex’ is sometime seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
With the change in season and rise in temperature, culex or common house mosquitoes have made a reappearance across Delhi.
About Culex or Common House Mosquitoes:
- Culex is a genus of mosquitoes. They are known carriers of some serious diseases. They can fly up to a distance of 1-1.5 km.
- Diseases: Culex mosquitoes serve as a vector of one or more important diseases. Such as the West Nile virus, Japanese Encephalitis or St. Louis encephalitis, Cat Que Virus (CQV), filariasis and avian malaria.
- Presence of Culex Mosquitoes: They are present in hot and humid regions throughout the globe. They are not found in extreme northern latitudes.
Read More: Culex or Common House Mosquitoes
Incorrect
With the change in season and rise in temperature, culex or common house mosquitoes have made a reappearance across Delhi.
About Culex or Common House Mosquitoes:
- Culex is a genus of mosquitoes. They are known carriers of some serious diseases. They can fly up to a distance of 1-1.5 km.
- Diseases: Culex mosquitoes serve as a vector of one or more important diseases. Such as the West Nile virus, Japanese Encephalitis or St. Louis encephalitis, Cat Que Virus (CQV), filariasis and avian malaria.
- Presence of Culex Mosquitoes: They are present in hot and humid regions throughout the globe. They are not found in extreme northern latitudes.
Read More: Culex or Common House Mosquitoes
- Question 16 of 27
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding National Super Computing Mission
- Param Shakti is the first supercomputer assembled indigenously in India.
- Phase III of the mission aims to take the computing speed to around 45 Terabytes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Param Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by Param Shakti and Param Brahma at IIT-Kharagpur and IISER, Pune, respectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The network of supercomputers through the country will soon reach to around 16 Petaflops (PF). Phase III, to be initiated in January 2021, will take the computing speed to around 45 Petaflops.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Param Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by Param Shakti and Param Brahma at IIT-Kharagpur and IISER, Pune, respectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The network of supercomputers through the country will soon reach to around 16 Petaflops (PF). Phase III, to be initiated in January 2021, will take the computing speed to around 45 Petaflops.
- Question 17 of 27
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAn oxygen enrichment unit device concentrates the oxygen from the air around by selectively removing which of the following gases?
Correct
An oxygen enrichment unit is a device, which concentrates the oxygen from the air around by selectively removing nitrogen to supply an oxygen-enriched air.
Incorrect
An oxygen enrichment unit is a device, which concentrates the oxygen from the air around by selectively removing nitrogen to supply an oxygen-enriched air.
- Question 18 of 27
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Remdesivir?
Correct
Veklury (remdesivir) is a nucleotide analog invented by Gilead, building on more than a decade of the company’s antiviral research. Veklury has broad-spectrum antiviral activity both in vitro and in vivo in animal models against multiple emerging viral pathogens, including Ebola, SARS, Marburg, MERS and SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes COVID-19.
Seven Indian companies are producing Injection Remdesivirunder voluntary licensing agreement with M/s. Gilead Sciences, USA. Government of India has prohibited the exports of Injection Remdesivir and Remdesivir Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) till the COVID-19 situation improves.
#Veklury is the brand name.
Incorrect
Veklury (remdesivir) is a nucleotide analog invented by Gilead, building on more than a decade of the company’s antiviral research. Veklury has broad-spectrum antiviral activity both in vitro and in vivo in animal models against multiple emerging viral pathogens, including Ebola, SARS, Marburg, MERS and SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes COVID-19.
Seven Indian companies are producing Injection Remdesivirunder voluntary licensing agreement with M/s. Gilead Sciences, USA. Government of India has prohibited the exports of Injection Remdesivir and Remdesivir Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) till the COVID-19 situation improves.
#Veklury is the brand name.
- Question 19 of 27
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are issues considered under the One Health approach?
- Zoonotic diseases
- Antimicrobial resistance
- Environmental contamination
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health issues include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, food safety and food security, vector-borne diseases, environmental contamination, and other health threats shared by people, animals, and the environment.
# Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare chaired ICMR’s International Symposium titled ‘One Health in India: Research informing biosafety, preparedness and response’ recently.
Incorrect
One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health issues include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, food safety and food security, vector-borne diseases, environmental contamination, and other health threats shared by people, animals, and the environment.
# Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare chaired ICMR’s International Symposium titled ‘One Health in India: Research informing biosafety, preparedness and response’ recently.
- Question 20 of 27
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Pharmacovigilance?
- Assessment of drugs
- Assessment of vaccines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Pharmacovigilance is the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine/vaccine related problem.
All medicines and vaccines undergo rigorous testing for safety and efficacy through clinical trials before they are authorized for use. However, the clinical trial process involves studying these products in a relatively small number of selected individuals for a short period of time. Certain side effects may only emerge once these products have been used by a heterogenous population, including people with other concurrent diseases, and over a long period of time.
Incorrect
Pharmacovigilance is the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine/vaccine related problem.
All medicines and vaccines undergo rigorous testing for safety and efficacy through clinical trials before they are authorized for use. However, the clinical trial process involves studying these products in a relatively small number of selected individuals for a short period of time. Certain side effects may only emerge once these products have been used by a heterogenous population, including people with other concurrent diseases, and over a long period of time.
- Question 21 of 27
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following vaccine(s) have been provided with Emergency Use Listing (EULs) by the World Health Organization?
- AstraZeneca/Oxford COVID-19 vaccine
- Janssen (Johnson & Johnson) vaccine
- Sputnik V
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Sputnik V has not been provided with Emergency Use Listing (EULs) by the World Health Organization yet.
WHO issued an Emergency Use Listing (EULs) for the Pfizer COVID-19 vaccine (BNT162b2) on 31 December 2020. On 15 February 2021, WHO issued EULs for two versions of the AstraZeneca/Oxford COVID-19 vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India and SKBio. On 12 March 2021, WHO issued an EUL for the COVID-19 vaccine Ad26.COV2.S, developed by Janssen (Johnson & Johnson). WHO is on track to EUL other vaccine products through June.
Incorrect
Sputnik V has not been provided with Emergency Use Listing (EULs) by the World Health Organization yet.
WHO issued an Emergency Use Listing (EULs) for the Pfizer COVID-19 vaccine (BNT162b2) on 31 December 2020. On 15 February 2021, WHO issued EULs for two versions of the AstraZeneca/Oxford COVID-19 vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India and SKBio. On 12 March 2021, WHO issued an EUL for the COVID-19 vaccine Ad26.COV2.S, developed by Janssen (Johnson & Johnson). WHO is on track to EUL other vaccine products through June.
- Question 22 of 27
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term ‘B.1.617’ has been in news recently, what is it?
Correct
The ‘double mutant’ virus that scientists had flagged last month as having a bearing on the spread of the pandemic in India, has a formal scientific classification: B.1.617.
Sixty-one per cent of the COVID-19 samples, collected by the Pune-based National Institute of Virology from the state by the premier virology institute between January and March had the double mutation, now classified as the B.1.617 lineage.
Incorrect
The ‘double mutant’ virus that scientists had flagged last month as having a bearing on the spread of the pandemic in India, has a formal scientific classification: B.1.617.
Sixty-one per cent of the COVID-19 samples, collected by the Pune-based National Institute of Virology from the state by the premier virology institute between January and March had the double mutation, now classified as the B.1.617 lineage.
- Question 23 of 27
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RT-PCR test:
- It is a type of antibody test.
- The sample for the COVID-19 RT PCR test is collected from suspected person’s nose or throat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not an antibody test. The RT-PCR test detects the genetic material of the virus. RT-PCR (reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction) is the most sensitive technique for mRNA detection and quantitation currently available.
Statement 2 is correct. A sample is collected from the parts of the body where the COVID-19 virus gathers, such as a person’s nose or throat. The sample is treated with several chemical solutions that remove substances such as proteins and fats and that extract only the RNA present in the sample. This extracted RNA is a mix of the person’s own genetic material and, if present, the virus’s RNA.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not an antibody test. The RT-PCR test detects the genetic material of the virus. RT-PCR (reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction) is the most sensitive technique for mRNA detection and quantitation currently available.
Statement 2 is correct. A sample is collected from the parts of the body where the COVID-19 virus gathers, such as a person’s nose or throat. The sample is treated with several chemical solutions that remove substances such as proteins and fats and that extract only the RNA present in the sample. This extracted RNA is a mix of the person’s own genetic material and, if present, the virus’s RNA.
- Question 24 of 27
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- A virus is a microscopic package of genetic material surrounded by a molecular envelope.
- DNA is a two-strand molecule that is found in all organisms, such as animals, plants and viruses.
- RNA is generally a one-strand molecule that copies, transcribes and transmits parts of the genetic code to proteins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A virus is a microscopic package of genetic material surrounded by a molecular envelope. This genetic material can be either deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or ribonucleic acid (RNA).
DNA is a two-strand molecule that is found in all organisms, such as animals, plants and viruses, and which holds the genetic code, or blueprint, for how these organisms are made and develop.
RNA is generally a one-strand molecule that copies, transcribes and transmits parts of the genetic code to proteins so that they can synthetize and carry out functions that keep organisms alive and developing. Different variations of RNA are responsible for copying, transcribing and transmitting.
Incorrect
A virus is a microscopic package of genetic material surrounded by a molecular envelope. This genetic material can be either deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or ribonucleic acid (RNA).
DNA is a two-strand molecule that is found in all organisms, such as animals, plants and viruses, and which holds the genetic code, or blueprint, for how these organisms are made and develop.
RNA is generally a one-strand molecule that copies, transcribes and transmits parts of the genetic code to proteins so that they can synthetize and carry out functions that keep organisms alive and developing. Different variations of RNA are responsible for copying, transcribing and transmitting.
- Question 25 of 27
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Heparin?
Correct
Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) that prevents the formation of blood clots. Heparin is used to treat and prevent blood clots caused by certain medical conditions or medical procedures. It is also used before surgery to reduce the risk of blood clots.
It is a medication and naturally occurring glycosaminoglycan. As a medication it is used as an anticoagulant.
Incorrect
Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) that prevents the formation of blood clots. Heparin is used to treat and prevent blood clots caused by certain medical conditions or medical procedures. It is also used before surgery to reduce the risk of blood clots.
It is a medication and naturally occurring glycosaminoglycan. As a medication it is used as an anticoagulant.
- Question 26 of 27
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to COVID vaccination in India:
- In order to achieve herd immunity in India, 70-75% of the population needs to be vaccinated
- Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALY) years through vaccination of 18-plus age group would be the highest
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: ‘Herd immunity’, also known as ‘population immunity’, is the indirect protection from an infectious disease that happens when a population is immune either through vaccination or immunity developed through previous infection. WHO supports achieving ‘herd immunity’ through vaccination, not by allowing a disease to spread through any segment of the population, as this would result in unnecessary cases and deaths. India needs to vaccinate around 70-75% of its population to achieve herd immunity
- Statement 2 is correct: Mortality does not give a complete picture of the burden of disease borne by individuals in different populations. The overall burden of disease is assessed using the disability-adjusted life year (DALY), a time-based measure that combines years of life lost due to premature mortality (YLLs) and years of life lost due to time lived in states of less than full health, or years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLDs). One DALY represents the loss of the equivalent of one year of full health. Hence, DALYs saved through vaccination of 18-plus age group would be the highest.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: ‘Herd immunity’, also known as ‘population immunity’, is the indirect protection from an infectious disease that happens when a population is immune either through vaccination or immunity developed through previous infection. WHO supports achieving ‘herd immunity’ through vaccination, not by allowing a disease to spread through any segment of the population, as this would result in unnecessary cases and deaths. India needs to vaccinate around 70-75% of its population to achieve herd immunity
- Statement 2 is correct: Mortality does not give a complete picture of the burden of disease borne by individuals in different populations. The overall burden of disease is assessed using the disability-adjusted life year (DALY), a time-based measure that combines years of life lost due to premature mortality (YLLs) and years of life lost due to time lived in states of less than full health, or years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLDs). One DALY represents the loss of the equivalent of one year of full health. Hence, DALYs saved through vaccination of 18-plus age group would be the highest.
- Question 27 of 27
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWastage Multiplier Factor (WMF), often seen in news is related to:
Correct
- The wastage multiplier factor is the factor (number) that a country multiplies its estimated vaccine needs by, in order to allow for some doses being wasted.
- For example: At least 10% of Covid-19 vaccines procured by the Centre may face “programmatic wastage”, according to the vaccination plan guidelines released by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs Ministry. This means nearly 10 in every 100 vaccines purchased by the Centre may suffer damage in different phases of vaccine management.
Incorrect
- The wastage multiplier factor is the factor (number) that a country multiplies its estimated vaccine needs by, in order to allow for some doses being wasted.
- For example: At least 10% of Covid-19 vaccines procured by the Centre may face “programmatic wastage”, according to the vaccination plan guidelines released by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs Ministry. This means nearly 10 in every 100 vaccines purchased by the Centre may suffer damage in different phases of vaccine management.
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY II
Test-summary
0 of 25 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 25 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Science and Technology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Hydrogen sulfide is produced in which of the following industries?
- Oil and gas refining
- Tanning
- Pulp and paper processing
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Hydrogen sulfide is a chemical with the formula H2S. Hydrogen sulfide is a dangerous, colorless gas that occurs naturally in many petroleum products. Hydrogen sulfide is used or produced in a number of industries, such as Oil and gas refining, Mining, Tanning, Pulp and paper processing and Rayon manufacturing.
Hydrogen sulfide also occurs naturally in sewers, manure pits, well water, oil and gas wells, and volcanoes.
# Scientists from the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences(CeNS), Bangalore have developed Electronic Nose to detect Hydrogen Sulphide from swamps and sewers.
Incorrect
Hydrogen sulfide is a chemical with the formula H2S. Hydrogen sulfide is a dangerous, colorless gas that occurs naturally in many petroleum products. Hydrogen sulfide is used or produced in a number of industries, such as Oil and gas refining, Mining, Tanning, Pulp and paper processing and Rayon manufacturing.
Hydrogen sulfide also occurs naturally in sewers, manure pits, well water, oil and gas wells, and volcanoes.
# Scientists from the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences(CeNS), Bangalore have developed Electronic Nose to detect Hydrogen Sulphide from swamps and sewers.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding blood coagulation:
1. It is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured.
2. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a mostly in vein of heart.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Blood clotting, or coagulation, is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured. Platelets (a type of blood cell) and proteins in blood plasma work together to stop the bleeding by forming a clot over the injury.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a major vein of the leg or, less commonly, in the arms, pelvis, or other large veins in the body.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Blood clotting, or coagulation, is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured. Platelets (a type of blood cell) and proteins in blood plasma work together to stop the bleeding by forming a clot over the injury.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a major vein of the leg or, less commonly, in the arms, pelvis, or other large veins in the body.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Dexamethasone:
1. It is an antiviral drug.
2. It is used for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used in a wide range of conditions for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.
It was tested in hospitalized patients with COVID-19 in the United Kingdom’s national clinical trial RECOVERY and was found to have benefits for critically ill patients.
According to preliminary findings shared with WHO, for patients on ventilators, the treatment was shown to reduce mortality by about one third, and for patients requiring only oxygen, mortality was cut by about one fifth.
Incorrect
Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used in a wide range of conditions for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.
It was tested in hospitalized patients with COVID-19 in the United Kingdom’s national clinical trial RECOVERY and was found to have benefits for critically ill patients.
According to preliminary findings shared with WHO, for patients on ventilators, the treatment was shown to reduce mortality by about one third, and for patients requiring only oxygen, mortality was cut by about one fifth.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Ingenuity Helicopter:
1. It has tested powered, controlled flight on another planet for the first-time ever.
2. It landed on Mars along with the Perseverance rover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Mars Helicopter, Ingenuity, is a technology demonstration to test powered flight on another world for the first time. It hitched a ride to Mars on the Perseverance rover. Once the rover reached a suitable “helipad” location, it released Ingenuity to the surface so it could perform a series of test flights over a 30-Martian-day experimental window. The first flight was successfully performed on April 19, 2021.
For the first flight, the helicopter took off, climbed to about 10 feet (3 meters) above the ground, hovered in the air briefly, completed a turn, and then landed.
Incorrect
The Mars Helicopter, Ingenuity, is a technology demonstration to test powered flight on another world for the first time. It hitched a ride to Mars on the Perseverance rover. Once the rover reached a suitable “helipad” location, it released Ingenuity to the surface so it could perform a series of test flights over a 30-Martian-day experimental window. The first flight was successfully performed on April 19, 2021.
For the first flight, the helicopter took off, climbed to about 10 feet (3 meters) above the ground, hovered in the air briefly, completed a turn, and then landed.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Quantum dots (QDs):
- These are man-made nanoscale crystals made of semiconductors.
2. They are used as labels for imaging molecules because of their very narrow fluorescence spectra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that that can transport electrons. When UV light hits these semiconducting nanoparticles, they can emit light of various colors.
Quantum dots are particularly significant for optical applications owing to their bright, pure colors along with their ability to emit rainbow of colors coupled with their high efficiencies, longer lifetimes and high extinction coefficient.
These artificial semiconductor nanoparticles that have found applications in composites, solar cells and fluorescent biological labels. They are used as labels for imaging molecules because of their very narrow fluorescence spectra, brightness and resistance to photobleaching.
Incorrect
Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that that can transport electrons. When UV light hits these semiconducting nanoparticles, they can emit light of various colors.
Quantum dots are particularly significant for optical applications owing to their bright, pure colors along with their ability to emit rainbow of colors coupled with their high efficiencies, longer lifetimes and high extinction coefficient.
These artificial semiconductor nanoparticles that have found applications in composites, solar cells and fluorescent biological labels. They are used as labels for imaging molecules because of their very narrow fluorescence spectra, brightness and resistance to photobleaching.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following exactly describes the term Chimeras?
Correct
- Chimeras are organisms that are made up of the cells of two distinct species.
- Researchers at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies in the US have for the first time created the first monkey embryo containing human cells.
- This particular field of research is called “chimera research”.
Read more: chimera research
Incorrect
- Chimeras are organisms that are made up of the cells of two distinct species.
- Researchers at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies in the US have for the first time created the first monkey embryo containing human cells.
- This particular field of research is called “chimera research”.
Read more: chimera research
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Parosmia?
Correct
Parosmia is a medical term. It describes a condition in which affected individuals experience distortions in the sense of smell. A person with parosmia is able to detect certain odours. But they might experience the smell of certain things as different and often unpleasant. People who are recovering their sense of smell following a loss from a virus or an injury typically experience parosmia.
# Ageusia is a condition, characterized by a complete loss of taste function of the tongue.
# Anosmia is the partial or complete loss of the sense of smell. This loss may be temporary or permanent.
Incorrect
Parosmia is a medical term. It describes a condition in which affected individuals experience distortions in the sense of smell. A person with parosmia is able to detect certain odours. But they might experience the smell of certain things as different and often unpleasant. People who are recovering their sense of smell following a loss from a virus or an injury typically experience parosmia.
# Ageusia is a condition, characterized by a complete loss of taste function of the tongue.
# Anosmia is the partial or complete loss of the sense of smell. This loss may be temporary or permanent.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following benefits regarding Hydrogen as a potential energy source.
- Hydrogen can be used as fuel to transport heavy vehicles such as Railways, shipping and trucks etc
- Hydrogen can be used as a potential energy storage device.
- Unlike the solar which needs to charge frequently, Hydrogen can benefit long-distance travels.
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Correct
- It can be used as fuel for long-distance mobility. For example, Railways, shipping and trucks etc can use Hydrogen as a fuel.
- It can co-exist with the Electric vehicle in long-distance travel. As the EVs require charging of vehicle which is not feasible for long-distance travel. For example, 1KG of hydrogen can give 100KM range for a car.
Hydrogen can also act as a carrier device to store energy.
Incorrect
- It can be used as fuel for long-distance mobility. For example, Railways, shipping and trucks etc can use Hydrogen as a fuel.
- It can co-exist with the Electric vehicle in long-distance travel. As the EVs require charging of vehicle which is not feasible for long-distance travel. For example, 1KG of hydrogen can give 100KM range for a car.
Hydrogen can also act as a carrier device to store energy.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWith reference to Distributed Ledger Technology, consider the following statements:
- DLT can potentially improve access to finance for unbanked populations
- It enables recording of interactions, without a need for a centrally coordinating authority
- Blockchain is a type of DLT
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- DLT is a decentralized database managed by multiple participants, across multiple nodes. Blockchain is a type of DLT where transactions are recorded with an immutable cryptographic signature called a hash. The transactions are then grouped in blocks and each new block includes a hash of the previous one, chaining them together, hence why distributed ledgers are often called blockchains.
- Blockchain/ DLT are the building block of “internet of value,” and enable recording of interactions and transfer “value” peer-to-peer, without a need for a centrally coordinating entity. “Value” refers to any record of ownership of asset — for example, money, securities, land titles — and also ownership of specific information like identity, health information and other personal data.
- DLT could increase efficiency and lower remittance costs, and potentially improve access to finance for unbanked populations, who are currently outside the traditional financial system
Incorrect
- DLT is a decentralized database managed by multiple participants, across multiple nodes. Blockchain is a type of DLT where transactions are recorded with an immutable cryptographic signature called a hash. The transactions are then grouped in blocks and each new block includes a hash of the previous one, chaining them together, hence why distributed ledgers are often called blockchains.
- Blockchain/ DLT are the building block of “internet of value,” and enable recording of interactions and transfer “value” peer-to-peer, without a need for a centrally coordinating entity. “Value” refers to any record of ownership of asset — for example, money, securities, land titles — and also ownership of specific information like identity, health information and other personal data.
- DLT could increase efficiency and lower remittance costs, and potentially improve access to finance for unbanked populations, who are currently outside the traditional financial system
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding RESPOND program:
- Under the program, ISRO provides financial support for conducting research & development activities to further biodiversity conservation.
- Program is managed by Centre for Science & Environment
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect:
- ISRO launched the RESPOND (Research Sponsored) programme in the 1970s.
- Objective: The objective is to establish strong links with premier academic institutions through financial assistance to carry out R&D projects relevant to space. Further, ISRO will derive useful outputs of such R&D projects and use that in ISRO programmes
- Under the programme, ISRO provides financial support for conducting research and development activities. Projects related to space science, space technology and space applications in universities and academic institutions in India will get such financial support.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The programme is under the administration of the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL). PRL is an autonomous unit under the Department of Space.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect:
- ISRO launched the RESPOND (Research Sponsored) programme in the 1970s.
- Objective: The objective is to establish strong links with premier academic institutions through financial assistance to carry out R&D projects relevant to space. Further, ISRO will derive useful outputs of such R&D projects and use that in ISRO programmes
- Under the programme, ISRO provides financial support for conducting research and development activities. Projects related to space science, space technology and space applications in universities and academic institutions in India will get such financial support.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The programme is under the administration of the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL). PRL is an autonomous unit under the Department of Space.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding an Oxygen Concentrator:
- Concentrators are designed for continuous operation and can produce oxygen 24 hours a day
- Serving more than 2 persons with same concentrator carries risk of cross-infection
- Unlike Liquid Medical Oxygen (LMO) a concentrator needs no special temperature to be stored and transported
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- An oxygen concentrator is a medical device that concentrates oxygen from ambient air. Atmospheric air has about 78 per cent nitrogen and 21 per cent oxygen, with other gases making up the remaining 1 per cent. The oxygen concentrator takes in this air, filters it through a sieve, releases the nitrogen back into the air, and works on the remaining oxygen. According to a 2015 report by the WHO, concentrators are designed for continuous operation and can produce oxygen 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, for up to 5 years or more.
- While it is not as pure as LMO (99%), experts say it is good enough for mild and moderate Covid-19 patients with oxygen saturation levels of 85% or above. It is, however, not advisable for ICU patients. Concentrators can be attached with multiple tubes to serve two patients at the same time, but experts don’t recommend it since it carries risk of cross-infection.
- Concentrators are portable and unlike LMO that needs to be stored and transported in cryogenic tankers, need no special temperature. And unlike cylinders that require refilling, concentrators only need a power source to draw in ambient air.
Incorrect
- An oxygen concentrator is a medical device that concentrates oxygen from ambient air. Atmospheric air has about 78 per cent nitrogen and 21 per cent oxygen, with other gases making up the remaining 1 per cent. The oxygen concentrator takes in this air, filters it through a sieve, releases the nitrogen back into the air, and works on the remaining oxygen. According to a 2015 report by the WHO, concentrators are designed for continuous operation and can produce oxygen 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, for up to 5 years or more.
- While it is not as pure as LMO (99%), experts say it is good enough for mild and moderate Covid-19 patients with oxygen saturation levels of 85% or above. It is, however, not advisable for ICU patients. Concentrators can be attached with multiple tubes to serve two patients at the same time, but experts don’t recommend it since it carries risk of cross-infection.
- Concentrators are portable and unlike LMO that needs to be stored and transported in cryogenic tankers, need no special temperature. And unlike cylinders that require refilling, concentrators only need a power source to draw in ambient air.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term ‘Harlequin ichthyosis’ was recently seen in news, what is it?
Correct
Mutations in the ABCA 12 gene are stated to cause harlequin ichthyosis, the doctors said. The ABCA12 protein plays a major role in transporting fats in cells which make up the outermost layer of skin.
Severe mutations in the gene lead to the absence or partial production of the ABCA12 protein. This results in lack of lipid transport and as a result, the skin development is affected by varying degrees according to the severity of the mutation.
Disease is characterized by thickening of the keratin layer in the fetal human skin. The disease sees the skin form large diamond-shaped plates across the body that are separated by deep cracks (fissures). The skin is dry and scaly, almost like fish skin and hence the term ‘icthyosis’, derived from ‘ikthus’, Greek for fish.
Incorrect
Mutations in the ABCA 12 gene are stated to cause harlequin ichthyosis, the doctors said. The ABCA12 protein plays a major role in transporting fats in cells which make up the outermost layer of skin.
Severe mutations in the gene lead to the absence or partial production of the ABCA12 protein. This results in lack of lipid transport and as a result, the skin development is affected by varying degrees according to the severity of the mutation.
Disease is characterized by thickening of the keratin layer in the fetal human skin. The disease sees the skin form large diamond-shaped plates across the body that are separated by deep cracks (fissures). The skin is dry and scaly, almost like fish skin and hence the term ‘icthyosis’, derived from ‘ikthus’, Greek for fish.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement best describes the term ‘Breakthrough Infection’?
Correct
- Breakthrough infection is a case of illness in which a vaccinated individual becomes sick from the same disease for which the vaccine was administered.
- Simply, it occurs when vaccines fail to provide immunity against the pathogen they are designed to target.
Incorrect
- Breakthrough infection is a case of illness in which a vaccinated individual becomes sick from the same disease for which the vaccine was administered.
- Simply, it occurs when vaccines fail to provide immunity against the pathogen they are designed to target.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements
- Cryogenic tankers are used for the storage of liquefied gases at -150 °C or lower.
- It can be used to transport hydrogen, and helium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Cryogenic tanks are used for the storage of cryogenic liquids. Cryogenic liquids are typically liquefied gases at -150 °C or lower.
Statement 2 is correct. Common products include oxygen, argon, nitrogen, hydrogen, and helium. Cryogenic tanks are also used for storing gases at higher temperatures, examples of which include liquefied natural gas (LNG), carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Cryogenic tanks are used for the storage of cryogenic liquids. Cryogenic liquids are typically liquefied gases at -150 °C or lower.
Statement 2 is correct. Common products include oxygen, argon, nitrogen, hydrogen, and helium. Cryogenic tanks are also used for storing gases at higher temperatures, examples of which include liquefied natural gas (LNG), carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regarding Vaccines
- Covaxin is made from a weakened version of a common cold adenovirus that causes infections in chimpanzees
- Covishield is an inactivated vaccine made using the killed coronavirus thereby making them unable to infect or replicate
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Statements are interchanged
COVISHIELD:
- It is a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India based on the Oxford AstraZeneca vaccine named ChAdOx1 vaccine (also christened AZD1222)
- Type of vaccine: It is made from a weakened version of a common cold adenovirus that causes infections in chimpanzees.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine has been recommended for the approval of two full doses administered around 4-6 weeks apart. Immune response could last at least a year.
COVAXIN:
- It has been indigenously developed by Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR).
- Type of vaccine: It is an inactivated vaccine and is made by using particles of the coronavirus that were killed making them unable to infect or replicate. Injecting particular doses of these particles serves to build immunity by helping the body create antibodies against the dead virus.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine will be administered in two doses and stored at 2-8° degrees Celsius.
Read more: Covishield and Covaxin
Incorrect
Statements are interchanged
COVISHIELD:
- It is a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India based on the Oxford AstraZeneca vaccine named ChAdOx1 vaccine (also christened AZD1222)
- Type of vaccine: It is made from a weakened version of a common cold adenovirus that causes infections in chimpanzees.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine has been recommended for the approval of two full doses administered around 4-6 weeks apart. Immune response could last at least a year.
COVAXIN:
- It has been indigenously developed by Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR).
- Type of vaccine: It is an inactivated vaccine and is made by using particles of the coronavirus that were killed making them unable to infect or replicate. Injecting particular doses of these particles serves to build immunity by helping the body create antibodies against the dead virus.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine will be administered in two doses and stored at 2-8° degrees Celsius.
Read more: Covishield and Covaxin
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology‘Zhurong‘ was sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statement correctly describes it?
Correct
- Zhurong is China’s first Mars rover mission. The rover is aboard the Tianwen-1 space probe.
- Launched in: The rover was launched in the Mars orbit in February 2021 and is due to land in May.
- Named after: The rover is named after a traditional fire god. The rover’s title also fits with the Chinese name for Mars i.e. “Huo Xing” or fire star.
- Significance: China would become the third country after the former Soviet Union and the United States to put a robot rover on Mars.
Read more: Zhurong
Incorrect
- Zhurong is China’s first Mars rover mission. The rover is aboard the Tianwen-1 space probe.
- Launched in: The rover was launched in the Mars orbit in February 2021 and is due to land in May.
- Named after: The rover is named after a traditional fire god. The rover’s title also fits with the Chinese name for Mars i.e. “Huo Xing” or fire star.
- Significance: China would become the third country after the former Soviet Union and the United States to put a robot rover on Mars.
Read more: Zhurong
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAnti-Microbial Resistance (AMR) is a grave threat to the progress already achieved under Millennium Development Goals. Consider the statements below:
- In humans, antibiotics are primarily used for treating patients and they are used as growth promoters in animals too
- AMR occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes
- The Chennai Declaration aims to tackle the challenge of anti-microbial resistance from an Indian perspective
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: While in humans antibiotics are primarily used for treating patients, they are used as growth promoters in animals, often because they offer economic shortcuts that can replace hygienic practices. Globally, use of antibiotics in animals is expected to increase by 67% by 2030 from 2010 levels.
- Statement 2 is correct: Antimicrobial resistance occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes. However, the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials is accelerating this process.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Chennai Declaration is a document, prepared by representatives of various stakeholders and eminent experts in India, to tackle the challenge of anti-microbial resistance from an Indian perspective.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: While in humans antibiotics are primarily used for treating patients, they are used as growth promoters in animals, often because they offer economic shortcuts that can replace hygienic practices. Globally, use of antibiotics in animals is expected to increase by 67% by 2030 from 2010 levels.
- Statement 2 is correct: Antimicrobial resistance occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes. However, the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials is accelerating this process.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Chennai Declaration is a document, prepared by representatives of various stakeholders and eminent experts in India, to tackle the challenge of anti-microbial resistance from an Indian perspective.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Classical swine fever.
- It is a contagious bacterial disease that affect domestic and wild swine.
- It spreads from infected animals to Humans
- The disease has a 100% mortality in swine
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Classical swine fever (CSF) also known as hog cholera. It is a contagious viral disease of domestic and wild swine(pigs).
- Caused by: It is caused by a virus of the genus Pestivirus of the family Flaviviridae.
- Transmission: The most common method of transmission is through direct contact between healthy swine and those infected with the CSF virus.
- Humans are not affected by this virus. Swine are the only species known to be susceptible.
- Treatment: The disease has a 100% mortality. However, Vaccination can prevent the spread of the disease.
Incorrect
- Classical swine fever (CSF) also known as hog cholera. It is a contagious viral disease of domestic and wild swine(pigs).
- Caused by: It is caused by a virus of the genus Pestivirus of the family Flaviviridae.
- Transmission: The most common method of transmission is through direct contact between healthy swine and those infected with the CSF virus.
- Humans are not affected by this virus. Swine are the only species known to be susceptible.
- Treatment: The disease has a 100% mortality. However, Vaccination can prevent the spread of the disease.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the below microorganisms has/have the potential to develop Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)?
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Parasites
- Virus
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Correct
- AMR is a phenomenon by which bacteria, fungi, parasites and viruses evolve and become resistant to presently available antimicrobial treatment.
The infections persist in the body, increasing the risk of spread to others.
Incorrect
- AMR is a phenomenon by which bacteria, fungi, parasites and viruses evolve and become resistant to presently available antimicrobial treatment.
The infections persist in the body, increasing the risk of spread to others.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyTrachoma was recently in news. Consider the statements below:
- Disease is caused by an infection from Chlamydia Trachomatis virus
- It iscategorisedas one of the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD) by WHO
- Ghana, was the first country inWHO’sAfrican region to eliminate Trachoma as a public health problem
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: Trachoma is caused by a bacterial infection caused by the Chlamydia Trachomatis
Statement 2 is correct: Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs), are a group of diseases that occur under tropical and sub-tropical climate conditions and are intimately linked to poverty. They therefore thrive in areas where access to adequate sanitation, clean water and healthcare is limited, and people live in proximity with animals and infective disease vectors, such as in remote and rural areas, informal settlements or conflict zones. Following diseases are categorised as NTDs by WHO:
- Buruli ulcer
- Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis)
- Dengue and Chikungunya
- Dracunculiasis (Guinea-worm disease)
- Echinococcosis
- Foodborne trematode infections
- Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
- Leishmaniasis
- Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)
- Lymphatic filariasis (Elephantiasis)
- Mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses
- Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
- Rabies
- Scabies and otherectoparasitoses
- Schistosomiasis (Bilharzia)
- Soil-transmitted helminthiases
- Snakebite envenoming
- Taeniasis and cysticercosis
- Trachoma
- Yaws (Endemic treponematoses)
Statement 3 is correct: Ghana eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem in 2018
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: Trachoma is caused by a bacterial infection caused by the Chlamydia Trachomatis
Statement 2 is correct: Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs), are a group of diseases that occur under tropical and sub-tropical climate conditions and are intimately linked to poverty. They therefore thrive in areas where access to adequate sanitation, clean water and healthcare is limited, and people live in proximity with animals and infective disease vectors, such as in remote and rural areas, informal settlements or conflict zones. Following diseases are categorised as NTDs by WHO:
- Buruli ulcer
- Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis)
- Dengue and Chikungunya
- Dracunculiasis (Guinea-worm disease)
- Echinococcosis
- Foodborne trematode infections
- Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
- Leishmaniasis
- Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)
- Lymphatic filariasis (Elephantiasis)
- Mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses
- Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
- Rabies
- Scabies and otherectoparasitoses
- Schistosomiasis (Bilharzia)
- Soil-transmitted helminthiases
- Snakebite envenoming
- Taeniasis and cysticercosis
- Trachoma
- Yaws (Endemic treponematoses)
Statement 3 is correct: Ghana eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem in 2018
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements on regulating the vaccine prices under the Patents Act.
- The government without the permission of the patent holder can provide license to produce the drug
- The government has the power to authorize anyone (Including the pharma company) to use the invention for the purposes of the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Patents Act,1970: The act has two key specific provisions that could be potentially invoked to regulate the pricing of the vaccine. The two provisions are:
- Section 100: It gives the central government the power to authorise anyone (a pharma company) to use the invention for the purposes of the government. Basically, this provision enables the government to license patents of the vaccine to specific companies. This is done to speed up manufacturing and ensuring equitable pricing.
- Section 92: It deals with compulsory licensing. It says that the government without the permission of the patent holder can provide license under the following situations:
- Circumstance of national emergency; or
- Circumstance of extreme urgency; or
- Case of public non-commercial use.
Incorrect
The Patents Act,1970: The act has two key specific provisions that could be potentially invoked to regulate the pricing of the vaccine. The two provisions are:
- Section 100: It gives the central government the power to authorise anyone (a pharma company) to use the invention for the purposes of the government. Basically, this provision enables the government to license patents of the vaccine to specific companies. This is done to speed up manufacturing and ensuring equitable pricing.
- Section 92: It deals with compulsory licensing. It says that the government without the permission of the patent holder can provide license under the following situations:
- Circumstance of national emergency; or
- Circumstance of extreme urgency; or
- Case of public non-commercial use.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- The concept of Evergreening seeks to extend the term of patent protection without requiring an inventive step.
- Indian Patent Act allows grant of patent for “incremental innovations” in pharmaceutical drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The concept of evergreening seeks to extend the term of protection without requiring an inventive step.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act restricts grant of patent for “incremental innovations” in many drugs unless it provides significant therapeutic advantages to existing molecules.
Section 3(d) says that the mere discovery of a new form of a known substance which does not result in the enhancement of the known efficacy of that substance or the mere discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance or of the mere use of a known process, machine or apparatus unless such known process results in a new product or employs at least one new reactant, is not patentable.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The concept of evergreening seeks to extend the term of protection without requiring an inventive step.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act restricts grant of patent for “incremental innovations” in many drugs unless it provides significant therapeutic advantages to existing molecules.
Section 3(d) says that the mere discovery of a new form of a known substance which does not result in the enhancement of the known efficacy of that substance or the mere discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance or of the mere use of a known process, machine or apparatus unless such known process results in a new product or employs at least one new reactant, is not patentable.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following defence equipment(s) have been indigenously manufactured in India?
- Dhanush howitzer
- Akash Missile
- Hammer Missile
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Option 1 and 2 are correct. The Akash is a mid-range surface-to-air missile (SAM) system built by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Dhanush is a 155×45 Calibre indigenous gun developed by Ordinance Factory Board (OFB) for Indian Army.
Option 3 is incorrect. Hammer (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) is a precision-guided missile developed by French defence major Safran.
# Many significant projects including 155mm Artillery Gun system ‘Dhanush’, Bridge Laying Tank, Thermal Imaging Sight Mark-II for T-72 tank, Light Combat Aircraft ‘Tejas’, ‘Akash’ Surface to Air Missile system, Submarine ‘INS Kalvari’, ‘INS Chennai’, Anti-Submarine Warfare Corvette (ASWC), Arjun Armoured Repair and Recovery Vehicle, Landing craft utility, etc. have been produced in the country in last few years.
Incorrect
Option 1 and 2 are correct. The Akash is a mid-range surface-to-air missile (SAM) system built by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Dhanush is a 155×45 Calibre indigenous gun developed by Ordinance Factory Board (OFB) for Indian Army.
Option 3 is incorrect. Hammer (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) is a precision-guided missile developed by French defence major Safran.
# Many significant projects including 155mm Artillery Gun system ‘Dhanush’, Bridge Laying Tank, Thermal Imaging Sight Mark-II for T-72 tank, Light Combat Aircraft ‘Tejas’, ‘Akash’ Surface to Air Missile system, Submarine ‘INS Kalvari’, ‘INS Chennai’, Anti-Submarine Warfare Corvette (ASWC), Arjun Armoured Repair and Recovery Vehicle, Landing craft utility, etc. have been produced in the country in last few years.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology‘Deep Time Project’ was sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statement correctly describes the project?
Correct
- The Deep Time Project was led by the scientists of the Human Adaptation Institute in partnership with labs in France and Switzerland.
- Aim: The project aimed to test how people adapt to changes in living conditions and environments.
- As part of the Project, 15 participants lived in the Lombrives cave in France for 40 days with no phones, clocks or sunlight. They slept in tents, made their own electricity, and had no contact with the outside world.
Read more: Deep Time Project
Incorrect
- The Deep Time Project was led by the scientists of the Human Adaptation Institute in partnership with labs in France and Switzerland.
- Aim: The project aimed to test how people adapt to changes in living conditions and environments.
- As part of the Project, 15 participants lived in the Lombrives cave in France for 40 days with no phones, clocks or sunlight. They slept in tents, made their own electricity, and had no contact with the outside world.
Read more: Deep Time Project
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following gene editing can be done through CRISPR-Cas9 system?
- Deleting fragment of DNA
- Inserting a new gene
- Disrupting the original DNA
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information that some bacterial species use as part of an antiviral system. A CRISPR-associated (Cas) endonuclease, or enzyme, that acts as “molecular scissors” to cut DNA at a location specified by a guide RNA.
Three main categories of genetic edits can be performed with CRISPR/Cas9:
–DISRUPT: If a single cut is made, a process called non-homologous end joining can result in the addition or deletion of base pairs, disrupting the original DNA sequence and causing gene inactivation
–DELETE: A larger fragment of DNA can be deleted by using two guide RNAs that target separate sites. After cleavage at each site, non-homologous end joining unites the separate ends, deleting the intervening sequence.
–CORRECT OR INSERT: Adding a DNA template alongside the CRISPR/Cas9 machinery allows the cell to correct a gene, or even insert a new gene, using a process called homology directed repair.
Incorrect
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information that some bacterial species use as part of an antiviral system. A CRISPR-associated (Cas) endonuclease, or enzyme, that acts as “molecular scissors” to cut DNA at a location specified by a guide RNA.
Three main categories of genetic edits can be performed with CRISPR/Cas9:
–DISRUPT: If a single cut is made, a process called non-homologous end joining can result in the addition or deletion of base pairs, disrupting the original DNA sequence and causing gene inactivation
–DELETE: A larger fragment of DNA can be deleted by using two guide RNAs that target separate sites. After cleavage at each site, non-homologous end joining unites the separate ends, deleting the intervening sequence.
–CORRECT OR INSERT: Adding a DNA template alongside the CRISPR/Cas9 machinery allows the cell to correct a gene, or even insert a new gene, using a process called homology directed repair.
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ORGANISATIONS
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ORGANISATIONS I
Test-summary
0 of 25 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 25 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- International Relations 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following paragraph.
It is an informal agreement between India and Pakistan to resolve the boundary dispute. The terms and conditions of the agreement are not yet formalised. Pakistan PM announced this agreement. It is promulgated four years after Kargil and two years after the Indian Parliament got attacked.
Which of the following correctly identifies the agreement described above?
Correct
Explanation: Karachi Agreement of 1949
- This agreement was signed after the India Pakistan war of 1947 and supervised by the United Nations Commission for India and Pakistan.
- The agreement established a Ceasefire line along the disputed regions of Kashmir.
Shimla Agreement of 1972
- This agreement was signed after the Bangladesh liberation war of 1971.
- Under this agreement both the countries agreed to resolve the disputes bilaterally.
- The agreement converted the ceasefire line into a Line of Control (LoC).
Ceasefire Agreement of 2003
- This agreement came after four years of Kargil and two years after the Indian Parliament got attacked.
- Pakistan PM announced the Ceasefire on LoC on November 26, 2003. So, it is not a formalised document. But it has certain important points such as,
- Creating a buffer Zone within 500 yards of LoC.
- Proper fencing on LoC can be done by countries.
- No firing will be done by both the countries on LoC.
Read more about ceasefire violations and agreements
Border Defence cooperation Agreement of 2013
This is an agreement is between India and China. This agreement aims to reduce misunderstandings and improve communication. Article VI of the agreement prohibits either side from tailing the patrols of the other “in areas where there is no common understanding of the line of actual control”.
Incorrect
Explanation: Karachi Agreement of 1949
- This agreement was signed after the India Pakistan war of 1947 and supervised by the United Nations Commission for India and Pakistan.
- The agreement established a Ceasefire line along the disputed regions of Kashmir.
Shimla Agreement of 1972
- This agreement was signed after the Bangladesh liberation war of 1971.
- Under this agreement both the countries agreed to resolve the disputes bilaterally.
- The agreement converted the ceasefire line into a Line of Control (LoC).
Ceasefire Agreement of 2003
- This agreement came after four years of Kargil and two years after the Indian Parliament got attacked.
- Pakistan PM announced the Ceasefire on LoC on November 26, 2003. So, it is not a formalised document. But it has certain important points such as,
- Creating a buffer Zone within 500 yards of LoC.
- Proper fencing on LoC can be done by countries.
- No firing will be done by both the countries on LoC.
Read more about ceasefire violations and agreements
Border Defence cooperation Agreement of 2013
This is an agreement is between India and China. This agreement aims to reduce misunderstandings and improve communication. Article VI of the agreement prohibits either side from tailing the patrols of the other “in areas where there is no common understanding of the line of actual control”.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsThe term manzyu has sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
- The term democracy does not denote the western type of democracy in Hong Kong. They follow ‘Democracy with Chinese characteristics.
- Under this concept, democracy stands for more than electoral campaigns, voting etc.
- In Cantonese(a Sino-Tibetan language), These characters are called manzyu. Man means People and zyu means rule. In simple, People’s rule.
- Manzyu can suggest a system in which those who rule(zhu) has to listen and provide for the people(man).
- Under this, Rulers can be more responsive in different ways. Such as listening to protest slogans, reading petitions, and engaging in dialogue with representatives of social groups, etc.
Incorrect
- The term democracy does not denote the western type of democracy in Hong Kong. They follow ‘Democracy with Chinese characteristics.
- Under this concept, democracy stands for more than electoral campaigns, voting etc.
- In Cantonese(a Sino-Tibetan language), These characters are called manzyu. Man means People and zyu means rule. In simple, People’s rule.
- Manzyu can suggest a system in which those who rule(zhu) has to listen and provide for the people(man).
- Under this, Rulers can be more responsive in different ways. Such as listening to protest slogans, reading petitions, and engaging in dialogue with representatives of social groups, etc.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976:
- It defines Exclusive Economic Zone as an area two hundred nautical miles from the baseline adjacent to the territorial waters.
- All foreign ships other than warships including sub-marines and other underwater vehicles enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
As per Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, the Exclusive Economic Zone of India is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters, and the limit of such zone is two hundred nautical miles from the baseline.
India’s limit of the territorial waters is the line every point of which is at a distance of twelve nautical miles from the nearest point of the appropriate baseline.
As per the Act, all foreign ships (other than warships including sub-marines and other underwater vehicles) shall enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial waters, innocent passage being one that is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of India.
Incorrect
As per Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, the Exclusive Economic Zone of India is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters, and the limit of such zone is two hundred nautical miles from the baseline.
India’s limit of the territorial waters is the line every point of which is at a distance of twelve nautical miles from the nearest point of the appropriate baseline.
As per the Act, all foreign ships (other than warships including sub-marines and other underwater vehicles) shall enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial waters, innocent passage being one that is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of India.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsThe International Ranger Award is an initiative of which of the following institution?
Correct
The International Ranger Awards recognize the remarkable work of rangers in protected and conserved areas around the world. Hosted by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) World Commission on Protected Areas, in collaboration with the International Ranger Federation, Global Wildlife Conservation, and Conservation Allies, these awards are intended to improve rangers’ capabilities, raise awareness about the critical role they play in conservation efforts, and help share rangers’ unique stories and perspectives.
The award has been announced for 10 professionals across the globe and Mahinder Giri, a range officer who has been deployed at Rajaji Tiger Reserve (RTR) for the past few years, has become the only ranger from Asia to win the prestigious International Ranger Award.
Incorrect
The International Ranger Awards recognize the remarkable work of rangers in protected and conserved areas around the world. Hosted by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) World Commission on Protected Areas, in collaboration with the International Ranger Federation, Global Wildlife Conservation, and Conservation Allies, these awards are intended to improve rangers’ capabilities, raise awareness about the critical role they play in conservation efforts, and help share rangers’ unique stories and perspectives.
The award has been announced for 10 professionals across the globe and Mahinder Giri, a range officer who has been deployed at Rajaji Tiger Reserve (RTR) for the past few years, has become the only ranger from Asia to win the prestigious International Ranger Award.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following country(s) participated in the recently concluded Desert Flag Exercise?
- Japan
- India
- United States of America
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ex Desert Flag is an annual multi-national large force employment warfare exercise hosted by the United Arab Emirates Air Force. The Indian Air Force participated for the first time in Exercise Desert Flag-VI along with air forces of United Arab Emirates, United States of America, France, Saudi Arabia, South Korea and Bahrain. Jordan, Greece, Qatar, Egypt and South Korea participated as observer forces.
The objectives for the exercise were to expose coalition participating forces to large force employment, sharpen tactical capabilities, and enhance interoperability along with fostering closer relations between the participating forces. The aim for the participating crew and specialist observers was to expose them to operational environment in scenarios requiring multinational forces working together.
Incorrect
Ex Desert Flag is an annual multi-national large force employment warfare exercise hosted by the United Arab Emirates Air Force. The Indian Air Force participated for the first time in Exercise Desert Flag-VI along with air forces of United Arab Emirates, United States of America, France, Saudi Arabia, South Korea and Bahrain. Jordan, Greece, Qatar, Egypt and South Korea participated as observer forces.
The objectives for the exercise were to expose coalition participating forces to large force employment, sharpen tactical capabilities, and enhance interoperability along with fostering closer relations between the participating forces. The aim for the participating crew and specialist observers was to expose them to operational environment in scenarios requiring multinational forces working together.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsThe Heart of Asia – Istanbul Process Conference relates to which of the following issue?
Correct
The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process (HoA-IP) was founded on November 2nd, 2011 in Istanbul, Turkey. The Heart of Asia provides a platform for sincere and results-oriented regional cooperation by placing Afghanistan at its center, in recognition of the fact that a secure and stable Afghanistan is vital to the prosperity of the Heart of Asia region.
This platform was established to address the shared challenges and interests of Afghanistan and its neighbors and regional partners. The Heart of Asia is comprised of 15 participating countries, 17 supporting countries, and 12 supporting regional and international organizations.
# India is part of the process and External Affairs Minister reached Dushanbe on a three-day visit to Tajikistan to attend the 9th Ministerial Conference of Heart of Asia – Istanbul Process on Afghanistan.
Incorrect
The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process (HoA-IP) was founded on November 2nd, 2011 in Istanbul, Turkey. The Heart of Asia provides a platform for sincere and results-oriented regional cooperation by placing Afghanistan at its center, in recognition of the fact that a secure and stable Afghanistan is vital to the prosperity of the Heart of Asia region.
This platform was established to address the shared challenges and interests of Afghanistan and its neighbors and regional partners. The Heart of Asia is comprised of 15 participating countries, 17 supporting countries, and 12 supporting regional and international organizations.
# India is part of the process and External Affairs Minister reached Dushanbe on a three-day visit to Tajikistan to attend the 9th Ministerial Conference of Heart of Asia – Istanbul Process on Afghanistan.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the New Development Bank (NDB):
- China has the highest initial subscribed capital of NDB.
- All members of the United Nations can become members of the bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The New Development Bank has an initial subscribed capital of US$ 50 billion and an initial authorized capital of US$ 100 billion.
The initial subscribed capital is equally distributed amongst the founding members. The voting power of each member is its subscribed shares in the capital stock of the Bank.
Statement 2 is correct. Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.
# Union Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs and India’s Governor in New Development Bank (NDB), Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman attended the 6th Annual Meeting of Board of Governors of New Development Bank through video-conference recently. This year’s Annual Meeting theme was “New Development Paradigms: The Evolution of Infrastructure”.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The New Development Bank has an initial subscribed capital of US$ 50 billion and an initial authorized capital of US$ 100 billion.
The initial subscribed capital is equally distributed amongst the founding members. The voting power of each member is its subscribed shares in the capital stock of the Bank.
Statement 2 is correct. Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.
# Union Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs and India’s Governor in New Development Bank (NDB), Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman attended the 6th Annual Meeting of Board of Governors of New Development Bank through video-conference recently. This year’s Annual Meeting theme was “New Development Paradigms: The Evolution of Infrastructure”.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following is/are joint defence exercises between India and United States of America?
- Hand in Hand
- Yudh Abhyaas
- Vajra Prahaar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Yudh Abhyas is an India-US joint military exercise, the 16th edition of this annual bilateral joint exercise of both the armies was held last month in Rajasthan.
The 11th edition of Indo-US Joint Special Forces Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR 2021 was conducted at Special Forces Training School located at Bakloh, HP in March 2021. The joint exercise by the Special Forces of both the countries is conducted alternatively between India and the United States to share the best practices and experiences in areas such as joint mission planning and operational tactics as also to improve interoperability between the Special Forces of both nations.
Hand in Hand is a joint military exercise between India and China.
Incorrect
Yudh Abhyas is an India-US joint military exercise, the 16th edition of this annual bilateral joint exercise of both the armies was held last month in Rajasthan.
The 11th edition of Indo-US Joint Special Forces Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR 2021 was conducted at Special Forces Training School located at Bakloh, HP in March 2021. The joint exercise by the Special Forces of both the countries is conducted alternatively between India and the United States to share the best practices and experiences in areas such as joint mission planning and operational tactics as also to improve interoperability between the Special Forces of both nations.
Hand in Hand is a joint military exercise between India and China.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following organization is hosting the ‘World Immunisation and Logistics Summit’?
Correct
Abu Dhabi’s HOPE Consortium held the inaugural World Immunisation & Logistics Summit, a major international gathering of front runners and senior decision-makers leading the charge in the collective human effort against the COVID-19 pandemic.
The summit is organised by the HOPE Consortium, an Abu Dhabi led public-private partnership responsible for the mass distribution of COVID-19 vaccines to the global population and tool place virtually on March 29 and 30.
India’s Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare digitally participated in a panel discussion on vaccine production and distribution across Asia at the summit.
Incorrect
Abu Dhabi’s HOPE Consortium held the inaugural World Immunisation & Logistics Summit, a major international gathering of front runners and senior decision-makers leading the charge in the collective human effort against the COVID-19 pandemic.
The summit is organised by the HOPE Consortium, an Abu Dhabi led public-private partnership responsible for the mass distribution of COVID-19 vaccines to the global population and tool place virtually on March 29 and 30.
India’s Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare digitally participated in a panel discussion on vaccine production and distribution across Asia at the summit.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the India-Mauritius Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA):
- It is the first trade Agreement signed by India with a country in Africa.
- It does not cover trade in services between the two nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India and Mauritius signed the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA) on 22 February 2021. The CECPA is the first trade Agreement signed by India with a country in Africa.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Agreement is a limited agreement, which will cover Trade in Goods, Rules of Origin, Trade in Services, Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures, Dispute Settlement, Movement of Natural Persons, Telecom, Financial services, Customs Procedures and Cooperation in other Areas.
As regards trade in services, Indian service providers will have access to around 115 subsectors from the 11 broad service sectors and India has offered around 95 sub-sectors from the 11 broad services sectors.
# Both sides have completed their internal legal procedures and the India-Mauritius CECPA will enter into force on Thursday, 01 April 2021.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India and Mauritius signed the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA) on 22 February 2021. The CECPA is the first trade Agreement signed by India with a country in Africa.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Agreement is a limited agreement, which will cover Trade in Goods, Rules of Origin, Trade in Services, Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures, Dispute Settlement, Movement of Natural Persons, Telecom, Financial services, Customs Procedures and Cooperation in other Areas.
As regards trade in services, Indian service providers will have access to around 115 subsectors from the 11 broad service sectors and India has offered around 95 sub-sectors from the 11 broad services sectors.
# Both sides have completed their internal legal procedures and the India-Mauritius CECPA will enter into force on Thursday, 01 April 2021.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements:
- The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process is a regional initiative of Afghanistan and Turkey.
- India is not a part of the Istanbul Process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process is a regional initiative of Afghanistan and the Republic of Turkey, which was launched in 2011 in Istanbul, with the motto “İSTANBUL PROCESS ON REGIONAL SECURITY AND COOPERATION FOR A SECURE AND STABLE AFGHANISTAN”. The process aims to promote regional security, economic and political cooperation centered on Afghanistan through dialogue and confidence building measures.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India is a participant in the HoA-Istanbul process and took part at recent 9th Heart of Asia Conference in Tajikistan.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process is a regional initiative of Afghanistan and the Republic of Turkey, which was launched in 2011 in Istanbul, with the motto “İSTANBUL PROCESS ON REGIONAL SECURITY AND COOPERATION FOR A SECURE AND STABLE AFGHANISTAN”. The process aims to promote regional security, economic and political cooperation centered on Afghanistan through dialogue and confidence building measures.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India is a participant in the HoA-Istanbul process and took part at recent 9th Heart of Asia Conference in Tajikistan.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation)
- It represents more than 1/5th of the global population.
- 17th ministerial meeting of BIMSTEC was chaired by Bangladesh
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The BIMSTEC region is home to around 1.5 billion people which constitute around 22% of the global population with a combined gross domestic product (GDP) of 2.7 trillion economy.
Statement 2 is incorrect. 17th ministerial meeting of BIMSTEC held recently and it was chaired by Sri Lanka.
Read more - “BIMSTEC” 17th Ministerial Meeting -ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The BIMSTEC region is home to around 1.5 billion people which constitute around 22% of the global population with a combined gross domestic product (GDP) of 2.7 trillion economy.
Statement 2 is incorrect. 17th ministerial meeting of BIMSTEC held recently and it was chaired by Sri Lanka.
Read more - “BIMSTEC” 17th Ministerial Meeting -ForumIAS Blog
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following Military Exercises
- Shantir Ogroshena
- Exercise Sampriti
- Maitree Exercise
- Mitra Shakti
Which of the above exercise(s) do(es) not take place between India and Bagladesh?
Correct
Indian Army will participate in a Multinational Military Exercise “Shantir Ogroshena-2021” in Bangladesh.
The Exercise Sampriti is an annual exercise held alternately in India and Bangladesh.It was held for the first time in 2011.
Option 3 and 4 are incorrect. Mitra Shakti takes place between India & Sri Lanka. Exercise Maitree takes place between India & Thailand.
Read More - Indian Army will participate in Exercise “Shantir Ogroshena-2021” -ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
Indian Army will participate in a Multinational Military Exercise “Shantir Ogroshena-2021” in Bangladesh.
The Exercise Sampriti is an annual exercise held alternately in India and Bangladesh.It was held for the first time in 2011.
Option 3 and 4 are incorrect. Mitra Shakti takes place between India & Sri Lanka. Exercise Maitree takes place between India & Thailand.
Read More - Indian Army will participate in Exercise “Shantir Ogroshena-2021” -ForumIAS Blog
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsIf a country does not accept the UNHRC Resolutions, which of the following can be the possible implication?
Correct
UNHRC does not have the power to impose sanctions. Only the UN Security Council has that kind of power and that is an entirely different process. individual countries or groups such as EU may impose targeted sanctions such as travel bans on certain persons.
Read more - The Issues of UNHRC Resolution against Sri Lanka and India’s Stand – Explained, Pointwise -ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
UNHRC does not have the power to impose sanctions. Only the UN Security Council has that kind of power and that is an entirely different process. individual countries or groups such as EU may impose targeted sanctions such as travel bans on certain persons.
Read more - The Issues of UNHRC Resolution against Sri Lanka and India’s Stand – Explained, Pointwise -ForumIAS Blog
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding BIMSTEC:
- All members of the group share their border with the Indian Ocean.
- BIMSTEC has a Permanent Secretariat in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying
in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional
unity.
Statement 1 is incorrect. It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South
Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia,
including Myanmar and Thailand.
Bhutan and Nepal are land-locked countries.
Statement 2 is correct. After a span of 17 years of the founding of BIMSTEC, Permanent
Secretariat was established in Dhaka, Bangladesh in 2014 to serve the BIMSTEC Member
States.
Incorrect
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying
in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional
unity.
Statement 1 is incorrect. It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South
Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia,
including Myanmar and Thailand.
Bhutan and Nepal are land-locked countries.
Statement 2 is correct. After a span of 17 years of the founding of BIMSTEC, Permanent
Secretariat was established in Dhaka, Bangladesh in 2014 to serve the BIMSTEC Member
States.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements:
- Indo-Nepal border is open border with visa free regime.
- Indo-Myanmar border is an open border with free movement regime (FMR) within 200 kms on both sides of the border.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders are open borders with visa free regime.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India and Myanmar have an arrangement called Free Movement Regime (FMR), which allows locals on both sides to go upto 16 km across the other side and stay up to 14 days.
# India sealed all entry points along the border with following the February 1 coup when the Myanmar military overthrew the democratically elected government.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders are open borders with visa free regime.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India and Myanmar have an arrangement called Free Movement Regime (FMR), which allows locals on both sides to go upto 16 km across the other side and stay up to 14 days.
# India sealed all entry points along the border with following the February 1 coup when the Myanmar military overthrew the democratically elected government.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC):
- The Council is made of all the Member States of the United Nations.
- The Universal Periodic Review under the auspices of the UNHRC is a State-driven process to review of the human rights records of all UN Member States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the globe and for addressing situations of human rights violations and make recommendations on them. It has the ability to discuss all thematic human rights issues and situations that require its attention throughout the year. It meets at the UN Office at Geneva.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council is made of 47 Member States, which are elected by the majority of members of the General Assembly of the United Nations through direct and secret ballot.
Statement 2 is correct. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a unique process which involves a review of the human rights records of all UN Member States. The UPR is a State-driven process, under the auspices of the Human Rights Council, which provides the opportunity for each State to declare what actions they have taken to improve the human rights situations in their countries and to fulfil their human rights obligations.
Incorrect
The Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the globe and for addressing situations of human rights violations and make recommendations on them. It has the ability to discuss all thematic human rights issues and situations that require its attention throughout the year. It meets at the UN Office at Geneva.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council is made of 47 Member States, which are elected by the majority of members of the General Assembly of the United Nations through direct and secret ballot.
Statement 2 is correct. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a unique process which involves a review of the human rights records of all UN Member States. The UPR is a State-driven process, under the auspices of the Human Rights Council, which provides the opportunity for each State to declare what actions they have taken to improve the human rights situations in their countries and to fulfil their human rights obligations.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements Shantir Ogroshena military exercise:
- 2021 edition of this exercise held in Sri Lanka.
- Indian Army is participated in the Exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Shantir Ogroshena is a Multinational Military Exercise. The 2021 edition of the Exercise held in Bangladesh. (Statement 1 is incorrect.)
It is held there to commemorate the birth centenary of Bangladesh’s ‘Father of the Nation’ Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman.
The DOGRA Regiment of the Indian Army is participating in the exercise.
Incorrect
Shantir Ogroshena is a Multinational Military Exercise. The 2021 edition of the Exercise held in Bangladesh. (Statement 1 is incorrect.)
It is held there to commemorate the birth centenary of Bangladesh’s ‘Father of the Nation’ Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman.
The DOGRA Regiment of the Indian Army is participating in the exercise.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsThe E9 Initiative, recently seen in news, it is associated with which of the following fields?
Correct
- A consultation meeting is scheduled under E-9 Initiative. This consultation meeting will be the 1st of the 3-phase process to co-create a Digital Learning initiative. The target population will be marginalized children and youth especially girls.
Read More – “E9 Initiative” to Accelerate Digital Learning
Incorrect
- A consultation meeting is scheduled under E-9 Initiative. This consultation meeting will be the 1st of the 3-phase process to co-create a Digital Learning initiative. The target population will be marginalized children and youth especially girls.
Read More – “E9 Initiative” to Accelerate Digital Learning
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization).
- It is an intergovernmental military alliance between North American and European countries
- The members of NATO follow a system of collective defense.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- North Atlantic Treaty Organization also called North Atlantic Alliance is an intergovernmental military alliance.
- It was formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty. It consists of 30 countries from North America and Europe. It is headquartered at Brussels, Belgium. (Statement 1 is correct)
- The goal of NATO is to safeguard the Allies freedom and security by political and military means.
- The members of NATO follow a system of collective defence. Under this, if one member of the alliance is attacked, then it is considered as an attack on all members. (Statement 2 is correct).
Incorrect
- North Atlantic Treaty Organization also called North Atlantic Alliance is an intergovernmental military alliance.
- It was formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty. It consists of 30 countries from North America and Europe. It is headquartered at Brussels, Belgium. (Statement 1 is correct)
- The goal of NATO is to safeguard the Allies freedom and security by political and military means.
- The members of NATO follow a system of collective defence. Under this, if one member of the alliance is attacked, then it is considered as an attack on all members. (Statement 2 is correct).
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following organizations collectively considered as International Bill of Human Rights?
- Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
- International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
- International Covenant on Economic Social and Cultural Rights(ICESCR)
- United Nation Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and its two Optional Protocols.
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
- This includes 30 civil and political rights and freedoms. These 30 rights cover a wide gamut of Human rights including the social, economic and cultural rights to the individual.
- India took active participation during the formation of UDHR.
- UDHR is not a treaty. So, there is no legal obligation for signatory countries to follow the provisions of UDHR.
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
- The ICCPR is a key international human rights treaty. The ICCPR also covers a wide range of civil and political rights.
- The countries ratifying the ICCPR have to take the necessary steps to protect and preserve basic human rights.
- The UN Human Rights Committee is tasked with monitoring the implementation of ICCPR
- The Covenant was adopted by the UNGA in 1966. It came into force in 1976.
- 173 countries including India have ratified the ICCPR.
International Covenant on Economic Social and Cultural Rights(ICESCR)
- It is a multilateral treaty adopted by UNGA(UN General Assembly)
- It commits its parties to work toward the granting of economic, social, and cultural rights (ESCR) to the Non-Self-Governing and Trust Territories and individuals. This includes labour rights, Right to Health, Right to Education, etc.
- The Covenant is monitored by the UN Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
- 171 countries including India have ratified the ICESCR.
United Nation Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
- It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system. Further, It is made up of 47 United Nations Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly.
- It conducts a Universal Periodic Review of all the UN members once in four years.
- The OHCHR (Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights) is the secretariat of UNHRC.
Incorrect
The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and its two Optional Protocols.
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
- This includes 30 civil and political rights and freedoms. These 30 rights cover a wide gamut of Human rights including the social, economic and cultural rights to the individual.
- India took active participation during the formation of UDHR.
- UDHR is not a treaty. So, there is no legal obligation for signatory countries to follow the provisions of UDHR.
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
- The ICCPR is a key international human rights treaty. The ICCPR also covers a wide range of civil and political rights.
- The countries ratifying the ICCPR have to take the necessary steps to protect and preserve basic human rights.
- The UN Human Rights Committee is tasked with monitoring the implementation of ICCPR
- The Covenant was adopted by the UNGA in 1966. It came into force in 1976.
- 173 countries including India have ratified the ICCPR.
International Covenant on Economic Social and Cultural Rights(ICESCR)
- It is a multilateral treaty adopted by UNGA(UN General Assembly)
- It commits its parties to work toward the granting of economic, social, and cultural rights (ESCR) to the Non-Self-Governing and Trust Territories and individuals. This includes labour rights, Right to Health, Right to Education, etc.
- The Covenant is monitored by the UN Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
- 171 countries including India have ratified the ICESCR.
United Nation Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
- It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system. Further, It is made up of 47 United Nations Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly.
- It conducts a Universal Periodic Review of all the UN members once in four years.
- The OHCHR (Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights) is the secretariat of UNHRC.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements with respect to World Cities Cultural Forum.
- Delhi is participating in the upcoming World Cities Cultural Forum
- Delhi is a member city in the World Cities Cultural Forum
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The World Cities Culture Forum was established in London in 2012. Eight cities as its member (London, New York City, Tokyo, Shanghai, Paris, Istanbul, Sydney and Johannesburg).
Organized by: It is an initiative of the Mayor of London. It is organised and coordinated by BOP Consulting, a specialist consulting firm.
Member Cities: The forum now has 43 participating member cities. Delhi is invited this year, but it is not a part of member cities.
Read more: World Cities Cultural Forum
It is going to benefit more to international player
Incorrect
The World Cities Culture Forum was established in London in 2012. Eight cities as its member (London, New York City, Tokyo, Shanghai, Paris, Istanbul, Sydney and Johannesburg).
Organized by: It is an initiative of the Mayor of London. It is organised and coordinated by BOP Consulting, a specialist consulting firm.
Member Cities: The forum now has 43 participating member cities. Delhi is invited this year, but it is not a part of member cities.
Read more: World Cities Cultural Forum
It is going to benefit more to international player
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWashington Treaty is related to which of the following international Organizations?
Correct
Organization Founding Agreement World Trade Organization(WTO) Marrakesh Agreement North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Washington Treaty International Labour Organization Versailles Peace Treaty the European Union Maastricht Treaty Incorrect
Organization Founding Agreement World Trade Organization(WTO) Marrakesh Agreement North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Washington Treaty International Labour Organization Versailles Peace Treaty the European Union Maastricht Treaty - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following has been created through the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
- International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea
- International Seabed Authority
- Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is an international treaty which was adopted and signed in 1982. It lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world’s oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources.
It replaced the four Geneva Conventions of April, 1958, which respectively concerned the territorial sea and the contiguous zone, the continental shelf, the high seas, fishing and conservation of living resources on the high seas.
The Convention has created three new institutions on the international scene:
– the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea,
– the International Seabed Authority,
– the Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf.
Incorrect
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is an international treaty which was adopted and signed in 1982. It lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world’s oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources.
It replaced the four Geneva Conventions of April, 1958, which respectively concerned the territorial sea and the contiguous zone, the continental shelf, the high seas, fishing and conservation of living resources on the high seas.
The Convention has created three new institutions on the international scene:
– the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea,
– the International Seabed Authority,
– the Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following is/are among the country(s) that originally signed the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)?
- Germany
- China
- Saudi Arabia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is a detailed agreement with five annexes reached by Iran and the P5+1 (China France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) on July 14, 2015. The nuclear deal was endorsed by UN Security Council Resolution 2231, adopted on July 20, 2015. Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related provisions of the JCPOA is verified by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) according to certain requirements set forth in the agreement.
# Former US President Donald Trump unilaterally withdrew the U.S. in May 2018.
# The Vienna talks between the remaining members of the Iran nuclear deal — China, Russia, the U.K., France, Germany and Iran are being held.
Incorrect
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is a detailed agreement with five annexes reached by Iran and the P5+1 (China France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) on July 14, 2015. The nuclear deal was endorsed by UN Security Council Resolution 2231, adopted on July 20, 2015. Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related provisions of the JCPOA is verified by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) according to certain requirements set forth in the agreement.
# Former US President Donald Trump unilaterally withdrew the U.S. in May 2018.
# The Vienna talks between the remaining members of the Iran nuclear deal — China, Russia, the U.K., France, Germany and Iran are being held.
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ORGANISATIONS II
Test-summary
0 of 25 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 25 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- International Relations 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State has the exclusive right to construct artificial islands.
- It explicitly provides for freedom of navigation to military vessels and warships of other States in the exclusive economic zone of a country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 60 of the convention states that in the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State shall have the exclusive right to construct and to authorize and regulate the construction, operation and use of:
— artificial islands;
— installations and structures for the purposes provided for in article 56 and other economic purposes;
— installations and structures which may interfere with the exercise of the rights of the coastal State in the zone.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not explicitly provide for the military vessels and warships movement in EEZs. Article 58 providing for the Rights and duties of other States in the exclusive economic zone provide that;
— In the exclusive economic zone, all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy, subject to the relevant provisions of this Convention, the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to these freedoms, such as those associated with the operation of ships, aircraft and submarine cables and pipelines, and compatible with the other provisions of this Convention.
# When India ratified the convention in 1995, New Delhi stated, “India understands that the provisions of the Convention do not authorize other States to carry out in the exclusive economic zone and on the continental shelf military exercises or manoeuvres, in particular those involving the use of weapons or explosives without the consent of the coastal State.”
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 60 of the convention states that in the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State shall have the exclusive right to construct and to authorize and regulate the construction, operation and use of:
— artificial islands;
— installations and structures for the purposes provided for in article 56 and other economic purposes;
— installations and structures which may interfere with the exercise of the rights of the coastal State in the zone.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not explicitly provide for the military vessels and warships movement in EEZs. Article 58 providing for the Rights and duties of other States in the exclusive economic zone provide that;
— In the exclusive economic zone, all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy, subject to the relevant provisions of this Convention, the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to these freedoms, such as those associated with the operation of ships, aircraft and submarine cables and pipelines, and compatible with the other provisions of this Convention.
# When India ratified the convention in 1995, New Delhi stated, “India understands that the provisions of the Convention do not authorize other States to carry out in the exclusive economic zone and on the continental shelf military exercises or manoeuvres, in particular those involving the use of weapons or explosives without the consent of the coastal State.”
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the 1951 Refugee Convention:
- Its core principleis thata refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom.
- The UN Human Rights Council serves as the ‘guardian’ of the 1951 Convention.
- India is not a signatory to this 1951 UN Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The 1951 Refugee Convention is the key legal document governing international standards for refugee work. The convention defines the term “refugee” and outlines the rights of the displaced, as well as the legal obligations of nations and states to protect them.
Statement 1 is correct. The core principle is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. This is now considered a rule of customary international law.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is administered by the United Nations High Commission on Refugees (UNHCR), established in 1950 to handle the millions of people displaced in the aftermath of World War II. UNHCR serves as the ‘guardian’ of the 1951 Convention and its 1967 Protocol and works with States to ensure that the rights of refugees are respected and protected.
Statement 3 is correct. India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention or the 1967 Protocol.
Incorrect
The 1951 Refugee Convention is the key legal document governing international standards for refugee work. The convention defines the term “refugee” and outlines the rights of the displaced, as well as the legal obligations of nations and states to protect them.
Statement 1 is correct. The core principle is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. This is now considered a rule of customary international law.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is administered by the United Nations High Commission on Refugees (UNHCR), established in 1950 to handle the millions of people displaced in the aftermath of World War II. UNHCR serves as the ‘guardian’ of the 1951 Convention and its 1967 Protocol and works with States to ensure that the rights of refugees are respected and protected.
Statement 3 is correct. India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention or the 1967 Protocol.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following is/are defense exercise(s) involving India and Bangladesh?
- Sampriti
- Ajeya Warrior
- ShantirOgrosena
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Exercise AJEYA WARRIOR with United Kingdom is an important exercise in terms of the security challenges faced by both the nations in the realm of changing facets of global terrorism. The exercise is conducted alternatively in United Kingdom and India.
SAMPRITI is a series of the joint exercise between India and Bangladesh, it is a very important military & diplomatic initiative between both countries.
Multinational Military Exercise SHANTIR OGROSHENA 2021 (Front Runner of the Peace) was recently held at Bangladesh to commemorate the birth centenary of Bangladesh ‘Father of the Nation’ Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and mark glorious 50 years of liberation. India, Bhutan and Sri Lanka were the participating countries along with observers from the U.S., the U.K., Russia, Turkey, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait and Singapore.
Incorrect
Exercise AJEYA WARRIOR with United Kingdom is an important exercise in terms of the security challenges faced by both the nations in the realm of changing facets of global terrorism. The exercise is conducted alternatively in United Kingdom and India.
SAMPRITI is a series of the joint exercise between India and Bangladesh, it is a very important military & diplomatic initiative between both countries.
Multinational Military Exercise SHANTIR OGROSHENA 2021 (Front Runner of the Peace) was recently held at Bangladesh to commemorate the birth centenary of Bangladesh ‘Father of the Nation’ Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and mark glorious 50 years of liberation. India, Bhutan and Sri Lanka were the participating countries along with observers from the U.S., the U.K., Russia, Turkey, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait and Singapore.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the BIMSTEC:
- Theorganisationcame into being in 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’ by Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand.
- Permanent Secretariat of BIMSTEC is in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
- Thailand is the only country in BIMSTEC that is not a member of SAARC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States around the Bay of Bengal region.
Statement 2 is correct. The organisation came into being on 6 June 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’. Initially, the economic bloc was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).
Statement 3 is incorrect. BIMSTEC is a grouping of seven countries in South Asia and South East Asia: India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
Myanmar and Thailand are not part of SAARC grouping.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States around the Bay of Bengal region.
Statement 2 is correct. The organisation came into being on 6 June 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’. Initially, the economic bloc was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).
Statement 3 is incorrect. BIMSTEC is a grouping of seven countries in South Asia and South East Asia: India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
Myanmar and Thailand are not part of SAARC grouping.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following country is set to host the Leaders’ Summit on Climate 2021?
Correct
The United States will convene a Leaders’ Climate Summit on Earth Day to bring together leaders of major economies.
The summit will be held on 22 April 2021, which is the fifth anniversary of the opening of the Paris Agreement on climate change for signature. The Leaders’ Summit on Climate will underscore the urgency – and the economic benefits – of stronger climate action. It will be a key milestone on the road to the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) this November in Glasgow.
Incorrect
The United States will convene a Leaders’ Climate Summit on Earth Day to bring together leaders of major economies.
The summit will be held on 22 April 2021, which is the fifth anniversary of the opening of the Paris Agreement on climate change for signature. The Leaders’ Summit on Climate will underscore the urgency – and the economic benefits – of stronger climate action. It will be a key milestone on the road to the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) this November in Glasgow.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following institution has published the Global Wind Report, 2021?
Correct
The Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) has recently released the report Global Wind Report, 2021.
— The world’s capacity to generate electricity from wind jumped 53% in 2020.
— China and the United States accounted for 75% of the new installations and over half the world’s wind power capacity.
— The world currently has a total wind energy capacity of 743 GW. This has helped avoid an annual CO2 emission of over 1.1 billion tonnes which is equivalent to the volume of carbon South America emits in a year.
— India’s total installed wind power capacity was 38GW, the fourth largest installed wind power capacity in the world.
Incorrect
The Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) has recently released the report Global Wind Report, 2021.
— The world’s capacity to generate electricity from wind jumped 53% in 2020.
— China and the United States accounted for 75% of the new installations and over half the world’s wind power capacity.
— The world currently has a total wind energy capacity of 743 GW. This has helped avoid an annual CO2 emission of over 1.1 billion tonnes which is equivalent to the volume of carbon South America emits in a year.
— India’s total installed wind power capacity was 38GW, the fourth largest installed wind power capacity in the world.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the Food Systems Summit 2021:
- It is being organized by the United Nations.
- It is the first ever Food Systems Summit to be organized.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The United Nations Secretary General has called for the first ever UN Food Systems Summit to be held in September 2021 to strategize the actions for positive change in Agri-food systems in the Worldto realize the vision of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The Summit will focus on levers and pathways to shape food systems nationally and globally to accelerate progress in the SDGs.
# The term “food system” refers to the constellation of activities involved in producing, processing, transporting and consuming food.
Incorrect
The United Nations Secretary General has called for the first ever UN Food Systems Summit to be held in September 2021 to strategize the actions for positive change in Agri-food systems in the Worldto realize the vision of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The Summit will focus on levers and pathways to shape food systems nationally and globally to accelerate progress in the SDGs.
# The term “food system” refers to the constellation of activities involved in producing, processing, transporting and consuming food.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following institution has published the ‘State of World Population Report 2021’?
Correct
UNFPA’s 2021 flagship State of World Population report has been released recently. The report shows that in countries where data are available:
–Only 55 per cent of women are fully empowered to make choices over health care, contraception and the ability to say yes or no to sex.
–Only 71 per cent of countries guarantee access to overall maternity care.
–Only 75 per cent of countries legally ensure full, equal access to contraception.
–Only about 80 per cent of countries have laws supporting sexual health and well-being.
–Only about 56 per cent of countries have laws and policies supporting comprehensive sexuality education.
Incorrect
UNFPA’s 2021 flagship State of World Population report has been released recently. The report shows that in countries where data are available:
–Only 55 per cent of women are fully empowered to make choices over health care, contraception and the ability to say yes or no to sex.
–Only 71 per cent of countries guarantee access to overall maternity care.
–Only 75 per cent of countries legally ensure full, equal access to contraception.
–Only about 80 per cent of countries have laws supporting sexual health and well-being.
–Only about 56 per cent of countries have laws and policies supporting comprehensive sexuality education.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements:
- India and United Kingdom have signed extradition treaty with each other.
- There have been no successful extradition from UK to India so far.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Extradition is an action wherein one jurisdiction delivers a person accused or convicted of committing a crime in another jurisdiction, over to the other’s law enforcement. India and the UK signed an extradition treaty in 1992.
Statement 2 is incorrect. There have been successful extraditions from UK to India. Kishan Singh, accused of operating an international drugs cartel, has been extradited to India recently to face charges of supplying illegal drugs.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Extradition is an action wherein one jurisdiction delivers a person accused or convicted of committing a crime in another jurisdiction, over to the other’s law enforcement. India and the UK signed an extradition treaty in 1992.
Statement 2 is incorrect. There have been successful extraditions from UK to India. Kishan Singh, accused of operating an international drugs cartel, has been extradited to India recently to face charges of supplying illegal drugs.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the COVAX Facility:
- It is the diagnosis pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT).
- It is co-led by the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI), Gavi and the World Health Organization (WHO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and vaccines.
Statement 2 is correct. COVAX is co-led by the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI), Gavi and the World Health Organization (WHO), alongside key delivery partner UNICEF. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the world.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and vaccines.
Statement 2 is correct. COVAX is co-led by the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI), Gavi and the World Health Organization (WHO), alongside key delivery partner UNICEF. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the world.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsArrange the following event(s) in chronological order:
- Bandung Conference
- North Atlantic Treaty signed
- The Suez Crisis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Washington Treaty – or North Atlantic Treaty – forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization – or NATO. The Treaty was signed in Washington D.C. on 4 April 1949 by 12 founding members.
In April, 1955, representatives from twenty-nine governments of Asian and African nations gathered in Bandung, Indonesia to discuss peace and the role of the Third World in the Cold War, economic development, and decolonization.
The Suez Crisis began on July 26, 1956, when Egyptian president, Gamal Abdel Nasser, nationalized the Suez Canal.
Incorrect
The Washington Treaty – or North Atlantic Treaty – forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization – or NATO. The Treaty was signed in Washington D.C. on 4 April 1949 by 12 founding members.
In April, 1955, representatives from twenty-nine governments of Asian and African nations gathered in Bandung, Indonesia to discuss peace and the role of the Third World in the Cold War, economic development, and decolonization.
The Suez Crisis began on July 26, 1956, when Egyptian president, Gamal Abdel Nasser, nationalized the Suez Canal.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the Rohingyas:
- The Rohingya people are an ethnic group from Myanmar.
- The United Nations has described the Rohingya “as the most persecuted minority in the world.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Rohingya are mostly Muslim minority who have traditionally lived in Myanmar. Hundreds of thousands were forced to flee their homes in August 2017 when violence broke out in Myanmar’s Rakhine State, including the burning of entire Rohingya villages.
The United Nations has described the Rohingya “as the most persecuted minority in the world.” Eighty percent of Rohingya refugees reaching Bangladesh are women and children, including newborns.
Incorrect
The Rohingya are mostly Muslim minority who have traditionally lived in Myanmar. Hundreds of thousands were forced to flee their homes in August 2017 when violence broke out in Myanmar’s Rakhine State, including the burning of entire Rohingya villages.
The United Nations has described the Rohingya “as the most persecuted minority in the world.” Eighty percent of Rohingya refugees reaching Bangladesh are women and children, including newborns.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ):
- It extends no more than 200 nautical miles from the territorial sea baseline.
- In EEZ all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As per United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) the exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State has:
— sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting, conserving and managing the natural resources, whether living or non-living, of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and its subsoil, and with regard to other activities for the economic exploitation and exploration of the zone, such as the production of energy from the water, currents and winds;
— jurisdiction as provided for in the relevant provisions of this Convention with regard to:
— the establishment and use of artificial islands, installations and structures; marine scientific research;
— the protection and preservation of the marine environment;
Statement 2 is correct. In the exclusive economic zone, all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy, subject to the relevant provisions of this Convention, the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to these freedoms, such as those associated with the operation of ships, aircraft and submarine cables and pipelines, and compatible with the other provisions of this Convention.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As per United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) the exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State has:
— sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting, conserving and managing the natural resources, whether living or non-living, of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and its subsoil, and with regard to other activities for the economic exploitation and exploration of the zone, such as the production of energy from the water, currents and winds;
— jurisdiction as provided for in the relevant provisions of this Convention with regard to:
— the establishment and use of artificial islands, installations and structures; marine scientific research;
— the protection and preservation of the marine environment;
Statement 2 is correct. In the exclusive economic zone, all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy, subject to the relevant provisions of this Convention, the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to these freedoms, such as those associated with the operation of ships, aircraft and submarine cables and pipelines, and compatible with the other provisions of this Convention.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following institution has released the Global Food Policy Report, 2021?
Correct
The International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) has released the Global Food Policy Report, 2021 with theme of “Transforming Food Systems After COVID-19”.
–The outbreak of the Covid-19 pandemic and the pandemic restrictions resulted in half of India’s poor people deprived of nutritious food.
–The midday meal program of India that covers 80% of primary-school-age children in the country, was affected due to the COVID-19 lockdown.
–About 50% of households in India reported that women spent more time fetching firewood and water in comparison with the previous year.
–The efforts of India to incorporate migrant workers into social protection programs were a huge success.
Incorrect
The International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) has released the Global Food Policy Report, 2021 with theme of “Transforming Food Systems After COVID-19”.
–The outbreak of the Covid-19 pandemic and the pandemic restrictions resulted in half of India’s poor people deprived of nutritious food.
–The midday meal program of India that covers 80% of primary-school-age children in the country, was affected due to the COVID-19 lockdown.
–About 50% of households in India reported that women spent more time fetching firewood and water in comparison with the previous year.
–The efforts of India to incorporate migrant workers into social protection programs were a huge success.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements:
1. India is a signatory to the 1972 World Heritage Convention.
2. The theme of the International Day for Monuments and Sites 2021 is “Complex Pasts: Diverse Futures”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India is a signatory to the 1972 World Heritage Convention and ratified it on 14 November 1977.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1982, UNESCO’s General Conference established 18 April as the International Day for Monuments and Sites, in many countries also celebrated as World Heritage Day. The day is promoted by ICOMOS globally, and the theme for 2021 is “Complex Pasts: Diverse Futures”.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India is a signatory to the 1972 World Heritage Convention and ratified it on 14 November 1977.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1982, UNESCO’s General Conference established 18 April as the International Day for Monuments and Sites, in many countries also celebrated as World Heritage Day. The day is promoted by ICOMOS globally, and the theme for 2021 is “Complex Pasts: Diverse Futures”.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsIndia and Russia both are members to which of the following groups?
- G20
- Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
- Collective Security Treaty Organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The G20 comprises 19 countries and the European Union. The 19 countries are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, Germany, France, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom and the United States. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation. The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).
The Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) is an intergovernmental military alliance in Eurasia that consists of selected post-Soviet states: Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan.
Incorrect
The G20 comprises 19 countries and the European Union. The 19 countries are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, Germany, France, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom and the United States. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation. The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).
The Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) is an intergovernmental military alliance in Eurasia that consists of selected post-Soviet states: Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the European Council:
- The members of the European Council are the heads of state or government of the 27 EU member states.
- It is one of the EU’s legislating institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The members of the European Council are the heads of state or government of the 27 EU member states, the European Council President and the President of the European Commission.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The European Council defines the EU’s overall political direction and priorities. It is not one of the EU’s legislating institutions, so does not negotiate or adopt EU laws. Instead, it sets the EU’s policy agenda, traditionally by adopting ‘conclusions’ during European Council meetings which identify issues of concern and actions to take.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The members of the European Council are the heads of state or government of the 27 EU member states, the European Council President and the President of the European Commission.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The European Council defines the EU’s overall political direction and priorities. It is not one of the EU’s legislating institutions, so does not negotiate or adopt EU laws. Instead, it sets the EU’s policy agenda, traditionally by adopting ‘conclusions’ during European Council meetings which identify issues of concern and actions to take.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following institution has published the Global Wind Report, 2021?
Correct
The Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) has recently released the report Global Wind Report, 2021.
— The world’s capacity to generate electricity from wind jumped 53% in 2020.
— China and the United States accounted for 75% of the new installations and over half the world’s wind power capacity.
— The world currently has a total wind energy capacity of 743 GW. This has helped avoid an annual CO2 emission of over 1.1 billion tonnes which is equivalent to the volume of carbon South America emits in a year.
— India’s total installed wind power capacity was 38GW, the fourth largest installed wind power capacity in the world.
Incorrect
The Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) has recently released the report Global Wind Report, 2021.
— The world’s capacity to generate electricity from wind jumped 53% in 2020.
— China and the United States accounted for 75% of the new installations and over half the world’s wind power capacity.
— The world currently has a total wind energy capacity of 743 GW. This has helped avoid an annual CO2 emission of over 1.1 billion tonnes which is equivalent to the volume of carbon South America emits in a year.
— India’s total installed wind power capacity was 38GW, the fourth largest installed wind power capacity in the world.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following is/are the participating nations in the Heart of Asia – Istanbul Process (HoA-IP)?
- Pakistan
- Russia
- China
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Heart of Asia provides a platform for sincere and results-oriented regional cooperation by placing Afghanistan at its center, in recognition of the fact that a secure and stable Afghanistan is vital to the prosperity of the Heart of Asia region.
This platform was established to address the shared challenges and interests of Afghanistan and its neighbors and regional partners. The Heart of Asia is comprised of 15 participating countries, 17 supporting countries, and 12 supporting regional and international organizations.
The participating countries are Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Uzbekistan, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, Turkey, Turkmenistan, United Arab Emirates.
Incorrect
The Heart of Asia provides a platform for sincere and results-oriented regional cooperation by placing Afghanistan at its center, in recognition of the fact that a secure and stable Afghanistan is vital to the prosperity of the Heart of Asia region.
This platform was established to address the shared challenges and interests of Afghanistan and its neighbors and regional partners. The Heart of Asia is comprised of 15 participating countries, 17 supporting countries, and 12 supporting regional and international organizations.
The participating countries are Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Uzbekistan, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, Turkey, Turkmenistan, United Arab Emirates.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements with reference to the USCIRF Recommendation of “Country of Particular Concern” on India
- The report classify countries with worst violations of religious freedom
- The recommendations are binding on the US government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The USCIRF (US Commission on International Religious Freedom) has recommended classifying India as a Country of Particular Concern (CPC). It is due to the worst violations of religious freedom in India in 2020.
Recommendation by USCIRF:
- The US administration should impose targeted sanctions on Indian individuals and entities for ‘severe violations of religious freedom’.
- The US administration should promote interfaith dialogue and the rights of all communities at forums such as Quadrilateral [the Quad].
- The US Congress should raise issues in the U.S-India bilateral space by hosting hearings, writing letters, and constituting Congressional delegations.
But the recommendations given by the USCIRF are non-binding on the US Government.
Read more: USCIRF Recommends “Country of Particular Concern” Tag for India
Incorrect
The USCIRF (US Commission on International Religious Freedom) has recommended classifying India as a Country of Particular Concern (CPC). It is due to the worst violations of religious freedom in India in 2020.
Recommendation by USCIRF:
- The US administration should impose targeted sanctions on Indian individuals and entities for ‘severe violations of religious freedom’.
- The US administration should promote interfaith dialogue and the rights of all communities at forums such as Quadrilateral [the Quad].
- The US Congress should raise issues in the U.S-India bilateral space by hosting hearings, writing letters, and constituting Congressional delegations.
But the recommendations given by the USCIRF are non-binding on the US Government.
Read more: USCIRF Recommends “Country of Particular Concern” Tag for India
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding Exercise Khanjar
- It is a Military Exercise between India and Turkmenistan.
- It is conducted for the first time this year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Exercise Khanjar is a Joint Special Forces Military Exercise between India and Kyrgyzstan.
- Initiated in: The exercise was started in the year 2011. This is the Eighth Edition of the Exercise.
- Aim: The exercise aims to boost the strategic partnership between India and Kyrgyzstan. It also focuses on high-altitude, mountains and counter-extremism drills.
Read more: “Exercise Khanjar” – A military exercise between India and Kyrgyzstan
Incorrect
- Exercise Khanjar is a Joint Special Forces Military Exercise between India and Kyrgyzstan.
- Initiated in: The exercise was started in the year 2011. This is the Eighth Edition of the Exercise.
- Aim: The exercise aims to boost the strategic partnership between India and Kyrgyzstan. It also focuses on high-altitude, mountains and counter-extremism drills.
Read more: “Exercise Khanjar” – A military exercise between India and Kyrgyzstan
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhat is the Kafala system?
Correct
The kafala, or sponsorship, system defines the relationship between foreign workers and their local sponsor, or kafeel, which is usually their employer. It is found in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries—Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates—as well as Jordan and Lebanon.
Under this system, the state gives local individuals or companies sponsorship permits to employ foreign laborers. It was created to supply cheap, plentiful labor in an era of booming economic growth, and its defenders argue that it benefits local businesses and helps drive development.
The system has become increasingly controversial, and there is growing recognition that it is rife with exploitation. The lack of regulations and protections for migrant workers’ rights often results in low wages, poor working conditions, and employee abuse.
Incorrect
The kafala, or sponsorship, system defines the relationship between foreign workers and their local sponsor, or kafeel, which is usually their employer. It is found in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries—Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates—as well as Jordan and Lebanon.
Under this system, the state gives local individuals or companies sponsorship permits to employ foreign laborers. It was created to supply cheap, plentiful labor in an era of booming economic growth, and its defenders argue that it benefits local businesses and helps drive development.
The system has become increasingly controversial, and there is growing recognition that it is rife with exploitation. The lack of regulations and protections for migrant workers’ rights often results in low wages, poor working conditions, and employee abuse.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding Boao Forum for Asia
- It is aimed to promote regional economic integration in Asia
- The forum is modelled based on the World Economic Forum
- It is called Davos of the East.
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Boao Forum for Asia(BFA):
- Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) is a non-profit international organization founded in the year 2001.
- Purpose: The Forum is committed to promoting regional economic integration in Asia. It also aims at bringing Asian countries even closer to their development goals.
- Significance: Boao Forum is modelled on the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos, Switzerland. So it also called Davos of the East.
Read more: Boao Forum for Asia(BFA)
Incorrect
Boao Forum for Asia(BFA):
- Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) is a non-profit international organization founded in the year 2001.
- Purpose: The Forum is committed to promoting regional economic integration in Asia. It also aims at bringing Asian countries even closer to their development goals.
- Significance: Boao Forum is modelled on the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos, Switzerland. So it also called Davos of the East.
Read more: Boao Forum for Asia(BFA)
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich one of the following organization releases Energy Transition Index 2021?
Correct
The World Economic Forum (WEF) has released the Energy Transition Index, 2021.
About Energy Transition Index (ETI), 2021:
Energy Transition Index is an annual report by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It prepares the report in collaboration with Accenture.
Purpose: The ranking aims to enable policy-makers and businesses to plan for a successful energy transition.
Incorrect
The World Economic Forum (WEF) has released the Energy Transition Index, 2021.
About Energy Transition Index (ETI), 2021:
Energy Transition Index is an annual report by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It prepares the report in collaboration with Accenture.
Purpose: The ranking aims to enable policy-makers and businesses to plan for a successful energy transition.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC).
- It was established jointly by the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the World Health Organisation (WHO)
- Member country of CAC will form a National Codex Committee
- Ministry Of Food Processing Industries act as a National Codex Contact Point of India (NCCP)
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) was established in 1963. It is an intergovernmental body established jointly by the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the World Health Organisation (WHO). It was established within the framework of the Joint Food Standards Programme.
- Every member of CAC will form a National Codex Committee
- FSSAI is the National Codex Contact Point of India (NCCP), which maintains Codex Alimentarius Commission‘s (CAC) standard in India.
- In India National Codex Committee was constituted by FSSAI
Read more: Codex Alimentarius Commission(CAC)
Incorrect
- Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) was established in 1963. It is an intergovernmental body established jointly by the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the World Health Organisation (WHO). It was established within the framework of the Joint Food Standards Programme.
- Every member of CAC will form a National Codex Committee
- FSSAI is the National Codex Contact Point of India (NCCP), which maintains Codex Alimentarius Commission‘s (CAC) standard in India.
- In India National Codex Committee was constituted by FSSAI
Read more: Codex Alimentarius Commission(CAC)
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ORGANISATIONS III
Test-summary
0 of 19 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 19 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- International Relations 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 19
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding World Food Programme(WFP)
- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) established the WFP
- It won Nobel Peace Prize in 2020
- It is headquartered in Rome, Italy
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) founded the WFP in 1961.
- Aim: To eradicate hunger and malnutrition with the ultimate goal of eliminating the need for food aid itself.
- WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.
- It is headquartered in Rome, Italy
Read more: World Food Programme(WFP)
Incorrect
- The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) founded the WFP in 1961.
- Aim: To eradicate hunger and malnutrition with the ultimate goal of eliminating the need for food aid itself.
- WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.
- It is headquartered in Rome, Italy
Read more: World Food Programme(WFP)
- Question 2 of 19
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements
- US’s Defence Production Act requires domestic manufacturers to priorities production of defense equipment for government over any other good.
- US Vaccine manufacturing firms import bio-reactor bags from India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Recently the US administration invoked their Defence Production Act. This emergency law requires domestic manufacturers to prioritize federal(central) government purchase orders. The American companies have no option but to produce Coronavirus vaccines and Personal Protective Equipment for the US only. This resulted in restricting the global exports. This is like an outright ban on the export of such materials.
The ‘Covishield’ vaccine produced in India requires bio-reactor bags from U.S. firms as a primary raw material. These bags are used to grow cells for vaccine manufacturing. Apart from that, Indian firms also use filters, microcarrier beads and cell culture media from US companies.
However, in the most recent event, the US has lifted this ban and promised to cooperate with India.
Incorrect
Recently the US administration invoked their Defence Production Act. This emergency law requires domestic manufacturers to prioritize federal(central) government purchase orders. The American companies have no option but to produce Coronavirus vaccines and Personal Protective Equipment for the US only. This resulted in restricting the global exports. This is like an outright ban on the export of such materials.
The ‘Covishield’ vaccine produced in India requires bio-reactor bags from U.S. firms as a primary raw material. These bags are used to grow cells for vaccine manufacturing. Apart from that, Indian firms also use filters, microcarrier beads and cell culture media from US companies.
However, in the most recent event, the US has lifted this ban and promised to cooperate with India.
- Question 3 of 19
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsGlobal Food Policy Report is released by
Correct
Global Food Policy Report is released by IFPRI (International Food Policy Research Institute)
- International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) is a non-profit international research center founded in 1976.
- Mandate: To provide research-based policy solutions that sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition
- Headquarters: Washington, USA.
Incorrect
Global Food Policy Report is released by IFPRI (International Food Policy Research Institute)
- International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) is a non-profit international research center founded in 1976.
- Mandate: To provide research-based policy solutions that sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition
- Headquarters: Washington, USA.
- Question 4 of 19
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following military exercises conducted between India and France?
- Exercise Varuna
- Exercise Garuda
- Exercise SHAKTI
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
- Exercise Varuna 2021 is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France. The exercise was initiated in 1993. Since 2001, the exercises are called ‘VARUNA’.
- Exercise Garuda: It is a bilateral exercise between the Indian and French Air Force. The first edition of the exercise was held in 2003.
- Exercise SHAKTI: It is a biennial military exercise conducted between India and France. It was first conducted in the year 2011.
Read more: India-France military excercises
Incorrect
- Exercise Varuna 2021 is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France. The exercise was initiated in 1993. Since 2001, the exercises are called ‘VARUNA’.
- Exercise Garuda: It is a bilateral exercise between the Indian and French Air Force. The first edition of the exercise was held in 2003.
- Exercise SHAKTI: It is a biennial military exercise conducted between India and France. It was first conducted in the year 2011.
Read more: India-France military excercises
- Question 5 of 19
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsMARPOL Convention was sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the convention?
Correct
- International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is one of the main international conventions. It aims at the prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes.
- Adopted in: The Convention was adopted by the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) on 2nd November 1973.
- India is a signatory to the MARPOL Convention.
Read more: MARPOL Convention
Incorrect
- International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is one of the main international conventions. It aims at the prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes.
- Adopted in: The Convention was adopted by the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) on 2nd November 1973.
- India is a signatory to the MARPOL Convention.
Read more: MARPOL Convention
- Question 6 of 19
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsProject DANTAK was established between India and which of the following countries?
Correct
- Project DANTAK was established in 1961 under the leadership of the Third King of Bhutan and then Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru.
- Objective: It was established with the objective of developing roads, telecommunication networks and other such landmark infrastructure-related projects in Bhutan.
- Nodal Agency: Border Roads Organisation(BRO)
Read more: Project DANTAK
Incorrect
- Project DANTAK was established in 1961 under the leadership of the Third King of Bhutan and then Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru.
- Objective: It was established with the objective of developing roads, telecommunication networks and other such landmark infrastructure-related projects in Bhutan.
- Nodal Agency: Border Roads Organisation(BRO)
Read more: Project DANTAK
- Question 7 of 19
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsGlobal Gender Gap Index is released by
Correct
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The index benchmarks the evolution of gender-based gaps among four key dimensions –
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival, and
- Political Empowerment
Index also tracks progress towards closing these gaps over time. The latest annual Global Gender Gap Index released by the World Economic Forum places India 17th from the bottom, with Afghanistan being the lowest
- India is ranked 140th in latest Global Gender Gap Report
- Iceland is at the top
Incorrect
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The index benchmarks the evolution of gender-based gaps among four key dimensions –
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival, and
- Political Empowerment
Index also tracks progress towards closing these gaps over time. The latest annual Global Gender Gap Index released by the World Economic Forum places India 17th from the bottom, with Afghanistan being the lowest
- India is ranked 140th in latest Global Gender Gap Report
- Iceland is at the top
- Question 8 of 19
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding Agreement on Consular Access b/w India and Pakistan
- Nationals of one country under arrest, detention or imprisonment are to be repatriated within a month of the completion of their sentences
- After the imprisonment of the nationals of the other country, confirmation of their nationality is to be done immediately
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: India and Pakistan signed the Agreement on Consular Access in 2008.
- Each government shall provide consular access within three months to nationals of one country, under arrest, detention or imprisonment in the other country. Further, Section 5 of the agreement stated, “Both governments agree to release and repatriate persons within one month of confirmation of their national status and completion of sentences.”
- Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no time limit mentioned in the agreement regarding when the confirmation of the nationality is to be done. Due to this, there are numerous instances in which both countries have not confirmed nationality for as long as 18 months, during which the arrested men languish in jails.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: India and Pakistan signed the Agreement on Consular Access in 2008.
- Each government shall provide consular access within three months to nationals of one country, under arrest, detention or imprisonment in the other country. Further, Section 5 of the agreement stated, “Both governments agree to release and repatriate persons within one month of confirmation of their national status and completion of sentences.”
- Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no time limit mentioned in the agreement regarding when the confirmation of the nationality is to be done. Due to this, there are numerous instances in which both countries have not confirmed nationality for as long as 18 months, during which the arrested men languish in jails.
- Question 9 of 19
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements
- Stockholm International Peace Research Institute has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2020
- India is the third largest spender in terms of military expenditure in the world in 2020
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Nobel peace Prize for 2020 has been awarded to World Food Program (WFP)
- Statement 2 is correct: As per “Trends in World Military Expenditure Report, 2020” by SIPRI, India has been 3rd largest spender in terms of military expenditure after US and China
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Nobel peace Prize for 2020 has been awarded to World Food Program (WFP)
- Statement 2 is correct: As per “Trends in World Military Expenditure Report, 2020” by SIPRI, India has been 3rd largest spender in terms of military expenditure after US and China
- Question 10 of 19
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
- OPCW is the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention
- India is not a member of the OPCW
- OPCW is not a United Nations (UN) organization.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
- OPCW is an intergovernmental organisation and the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention. This convention is in force since 1997 and 193 members.
- Members: It has 193 members including India.
- Headquarters: The Hague, Netherlands.
- Significance: The OPCW was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2013.
- Relations with UN: OPCW is not a United Nations (UN) organization. However, by the 2001 Relationship Agreement between the OPCW and the UN, the OPCW reports on its inspections and other activities to the UN through the office of the Secretary-General.
- Relevance: India’s Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) GC Murmu selected as an external auditor to the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW). His term will be for 3 years, starting in 2021.
Read more: OPCW
Incorrect
- OPCW is an intergovernmental organisation and the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention. This convention is in force since 1997 and 193 members.
- Members: It has 193 members including India.
- Headquarters: The Hague, Netherlands.
- Significance: The OPCW was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2013.
- Relations with UN: OPCW is not a United Nations (UN) organization. However, by the 2001 Relationship Agreement between the OPCW and the UN, the OPCW reports on its inspections and other activities to the UN through the office of the Secretary-General.
- Relevance: India’s Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) GC Murmu selected as an external auditor to the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW). His term will be for 3 years, starting in 2021.
Read more: OPCW
- Question 11 of 19
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding Supply Chain Resilience Initiative or SCRI?
1) It has been launched by India, US and Japan.
2) Supply Chain Resilience can be achieved by establishing trade relations with lesser no. of strong countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. India, Japan, and Australia have launched the SCRI or Supply Chain Resilience Initiative in a virtual Trilateral Ministerial Meeting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is the capability of the supply chain of a country to handle any kind of disruption and function normally in difficult times. One approach is diversifying the source of supply across a group of supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. India, Japan, and Australia have launched the SCRI or Supply Chain Resilience Initiative in a virtual Trilateral Ministerial Meeting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is the capability of the supply chain of a country to handle any kind of disruption and function normally in difficult times. One approach is diversifying the source of supply across a group of supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few.
- Question 12 of 19
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWorld Economic Outlook report is released by
Correct
World Economic Outlook report is released by International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Incorrect
World Economic Outlook report is released by International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- Question 13 of 19
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements
- It is a multilateral maritime exercise led by the French Navy.
- French Navy, Indian Navy, Royal Australian Navy (RAN), Japan Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF), and the United States Navy (USN) are participating in the exercise.
- Indian Navy is participating in the exercise for the first time.
Which one of the following Exercise is described in the statements above?
Correct
- Exercise La Pérouse is a multilateral maritime exercise led by the French Navy.
- Location: The Eastern Indian Ocean Region.
- Participants: French Navy, Indian Navy, Royal Australian Navy (RAN), Japan Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF), and the United States Navy (USN) are participating in the exercise.
- Indian Navy is participating in the exercise for the first time.
Incorrect
- Exercise La Pérouse is a multilateral maritime exercise led by the French Navy.
- Location: The Eastern Indian Ocean Region.
- Participants: French Navy, Indian Navy, Royal Australian Navy (RAN), Japan Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF), and the United States Navy (USN) are participating in the exercise.
- Indian Navy is participating in the exercise for the first time.
- Question 14 of 19
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements with respect to the Food Waste Index Report, 2021
- Households waste more food than the food service and retail sector.
- It was released by FAO (Food and Agricultural Organization)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) releases the Food Waste Index Report 2021. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
The report found few major observations. Such as,
- Food Waste: An estimated 17% (931 million tonnes) of total global food production was wasted in 2019. Among them, 61% of the global waste came from households, 26% from food service and 13% from retail.
- Food Wastes across income groups: Household per capita food waste generation is broadly similar across country income groups. It suggests that action on food waste is equally relevant in high, upper‐middle and lower-middle-income countries.
- Hunger Across the World: In 2019, some 690 million people were impacted by hunger and three billion were unable to afford a healthy diet.
Incorrect
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) releases the Food Waste Index Report 2021. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
The report found few major observations. Such as,
- Food Waste: An estimated 17% (931 million tonnes) of total global food production was wasted in 2019. Among them, 61% of the global waste came from households, 26% from food service and 13% from retail.
- Food Wastes across income groups: Household per capita food waste generation is broadly similar across country income groups. It suggests that action on food waste is equally relevant in high, upper‐middle and lower-middle-income countries.
- Hunger Across the World: In 2019, some 690 million people were impacted by hunger and three billion were unable to afford a healthy diet.
- Question 15 of 19
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsConsider the following statements regarding Global Gender Gap Report 2021.
- India’s rank improved in the 2021 index.
- It is published by World Economic Forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
WEF releases the Global Gender Gap Report 2021.
- The World Economic Forum(WEF) publishes the Global Gender Gap Report annually since 2006.
- Parameters: The report ranks 156 countries on their progress towards gender parity in four dimensions. Namely,
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival
- Political Empowerment.
- India’s ranking on the Index drops 28 places to 140 amongst the 156 nations. In 2020, India was ranked at 112th place in the report.
- India is the third-worst performer in the South Asia region. Only Pakistan and Afghanistan rank below India in this region.
Read More: Global Gender Gap Report
Incorrect
WEF releases the Global Gender Gap Report 2021.
- The World Economic Forum(WEF) publishes the Global Gender Gap Report annually since 2006.
- Parameters: The report ranks 156 countries on their progress towards gender parity in four dimensions. Namely,
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival
- Political Empowerment.
- India’s ranking on the Index drops 28 places to 140 amongst the 156 nations. In 2020, India was ranked at 112th place in the report.
- India is the third-worst performer in the South Asia region. Only Pakistan and Afghanistan rank below India in this region.
Read More: Global Gender Gap Report
- Question 16 of 19
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhat does the Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 relate to?
Correct
The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 emerged as a major milestone of the twentieth century in the field of public health, and it identified primary health care as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All. It stated:
— Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
— The people have a right and duty to participate individually and collectively in the planning and implementation of their health care.
— Primary health care is essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound, and socially acceptable methods and technology made universally accessible to individuals and families.
Incorrect
The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 emerged as a major milestone of the twentieth century in the field of public health, and it identified primary health care as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All. It stated:
— Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
— The people have a right and duty to participate individually and collectively in the planning and implementation of their health care.
— Primary health care is essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound, and socially acceptable methods and technology made universally accessible to individuals and families.
- Question 17 of 19
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following statements is correct regarding the Global Gender Gap Index?
Correct
Statement 3 is correct.
- The World Economic Forum(WEF) publishes the Global Gender Gap Report annually since 2006.
- Parameters: The report ranks 156 countries on their progress towards gender parity in four dimensions. Namely,
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival
- Political Empowerment.
India’s ranking on the Index drops 28 places to 140 amongst the 156 nations. In 2020, India was ranked at 112th place in the report.
Read more - WEF released “Global Gender Gap Report 2021”-ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
Statement 3 is correct.
- The World Economic Forum(WEF) publishes the Global Gender Gap Report annually since 2006.
- Parameters: The report ranks 156 countries on their progress towards gender parity in four dimensions. Namely,
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival
- Political Empowerment.
India’s ranking on the Index drops 28 places to 140 amongst the 156 nations. In 2020, India was ranked at 112th place in the report.
Read more - WEF released “Global Gender Gap Report 2021”-ForumIAS Blog
- Question 18 of 19
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsE-2025 initiative was seen in the news recently. Which of the following correctly describes the initiative?
Correct
- Building on the successes of the E-2020, WHO has launched the E-2025 initiative.
- As part of this initiative, WHO has identified 25 countries that have the potential to eliminate malaria within a 5-year timeline.
- The countries will receive technical and on-the-ground support by WHO and its partners, in their work towards the target of zero malaria.
- In return, the countries will audit their elimination programs annually, participate in elimination forums, conduct surveillance assessments, and share malaria case data periodically.
Read More: E-2025 initiative.
Incorrect
- Building on the successes of the E-2020, WHO has launched the E-2025 initiative.
- As part of this initiative, WHO has identified 25 countries that have the potential to eliminate malaria within a 5-year timeline.
- The countries will receive technical and on-the-ground support by WHO and its partners, in their work towards the target of zero malaria.
- In return, the countries will audit their elimination programs annually, participate in elimination forums, conduct surveillance assessments, and share malaria case data periodically.
Read More: E-2025 initiative.
- Question 19 of 19
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: International RelationsWhich of the following statements regarding the concept of Triage are correct?
Correct
- Concept of triage: The process of sorting people based on their need for immediate medical treatment as compared to their chance of benefiting from such care. Triage is done in emergency rooms, disasters, and wars, when limited medical resources must be allocated to maximize the number of survivors.
When there are a large number of people needing urgent care and there are limited resources, the victims are divided into multiple categories based on severity of disease. The most severe are treated first as any delay will cost lives. The rest are treated later as per their level of severity. This idea was first introduced by Napoleon’s military surgeons to treat battlefield injuries and showed immediate impact. It is now standard practice in many countries when treating mass casualties. It has also been used effectively during COVID-19.
Incorrect
- Concept of triage: The process of sorting people based on their need for immediate medical treatment as compared to their chance of benefiting from such care. Triage is done in emergency rooms, disasters, and wars, when limited medical resources must be allocated to maximize the number of survivors.
When there are a large number of people needing urgent care and there are limited resources, the victims are divided into multiple categories based on severity of disease. The most severe are treated first as any delay will cost lives. The rest are treated later as per their level of severity. This idea was first introduced by Napoleon’s military surgeons to treat battlefield injuries and showed immediate impact. It is now standard practice in many countries when treating mass casualties. It has also been used effectively during COVID-19.
POLITY
POLITY I
Test-summary
0 of 26 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 26 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Polity 0%
- polity 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 26
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityRight to Education Act provides for 25 per cent reservation to students from economically weaker sections in schools. Which of the following category of schools are exempt from the purview of act?
Correct
THE PROVISIONS OF THE RTE ACT provides for the 25 per cent reservation to students from economically weaker sections
However, the exemption was granted to the following schools:
i) Schools in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
ii) Madrassas, Vedic Patshalas and educational institutions primarily imparting religious instruction
iii) Unaided minority schools are excluded from the Act, according to the 2012 Supreme Court JudgementIncorrect
THE PROVISIONS OF THE RTE ACT provides for the 25 per cent reservation to students from economically weaker sections
However, the exemption was granted to the following schools:
i) Schools in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
ii) Madrassas, Vedic Patshalas and educational institutions primarily imparting religious instruction
iii) Unaided minority schools are excluded from the Act, according to the 2012 Supreme Court Judgement - Question 2 of 26
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021:
- It empowers the Parliament to make Rules to regulate the procedure and conduct of business in the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
- It requires the Lieutenant Governor to reserve those Bills for the President which incidentally cover any of the matters outside the purview of the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021 have been passed in both houses of the Parliament recently.
Statement 1 is incorrect. While the original Act allows the Legislative Assembly to make Rules to regulate the procedure and conduct of business in the Assembly. The Bill provides that such Rules must be consistent with the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act requires the LG to reserve certain Bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for the consideration of the President. These Bills are those: (i) which may diminish the powers of the High Court of Delhi, (ii) which the President may direct to be reserved, (iii) dealing with the salaries and allowances of the Speaker, Deputy Speaker, and members of the Assembly and the Ministers, or (iv) relating to official languages of the Assembly or the NCT of Delhi.
The Amendment Bill requires the LG to also reserve those Bills for the President which incidentally cover any of the matters outside the purview of the powers of the Legislative Assembly
Incorrect
The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021 have been passed in both houses of the Parliament recently.
Statement 1 is incorrect. While the original Act allows the Legislative Assembly to make Rules to regulate the procedure and conduct of business in the Assembly. The Bill provides that such Rules must be consistent with the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act requires the LG to reserve certain Bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for the consideration of the President. These Bills are those: (i) which may diminish the powers of the High Court of Delhi, (ii) which the President may direct to be reserved, (iii) dealing with the salaries and allowances of the Speaker, Deputy Speaker, and members of the Assembly and the Ministers, or (iv) relating to official languages of the Assembly or the NCT of Delhi.
The Amendment Bill requires the LG to also reserve those Bills for the President which incidentally cover any of the matters outside the purview of the powers of the Legislative Assembly
- Question 3 of 26
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Horizontally enforceable Fundamental Right means that the Right is enforceable against the State only.
- Vertically enforceable Fundamental Right means that the Right is enforceable against the State and Individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Horizontally enforceable Fundamental Right means that the Right is enforceable against the State and Individuals.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Vertically enforceable Fundamental Right means that the Right is enforceable against the State only.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Horizontally enforceable Fundamental Right means that the Right is enforceable against the State and Individuals.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Vertically enforceable Fundamental Right means that the Right is enforceable against the State only.
- Question 4 of 26
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following correctly describes the term ”honourable acquittal“, recently seen in news?
Correct
An honourable acquittal is when the accused is acquitted after full consideration of the evidence. In this acquittal, the prosecution fails miserably to prove the charges levelled against the accused. So the accused is completely free from the charges framed against him.
However, if this parameter is not met, the acquittal can be based on the benefit of the doubt.
Recently the Supreme Court held that acquittal in a criminal case does not automatically qualify a candidate for appointment to the public post. Furthermore, the court also held that,
- A public employer can reject a candidate if the candidate is unsuitable.
- The government can consider acquittals under the benefit of the doubt as a reason for unsuitability.
- The court also held that the honourable acquitted persons are suitable for public employment.
Incorrect
An honourable acquittal is when the accused is acquitted after full consideration of the evidence. In this acquittal, the prosecution fails miserably to prove the charges levelled against the accused. So the accused is completely free from the charges framed against him.
However, if this parameter is not met, the acquittal can be based on the benefit of the doubt.
Recently the Supreme Court held that acquittal in a criminal case does not automatically qualify a candidate for appointment to the public post. Furthermore, the court also held that,
- A public employer can reject a candidate if the candidate is unsuitable.
- The government can consider acquittals under the benefit of the doubt as a reason for unsuitability.
- The court also held that the honourable acquitted persons are suitable for public employment.
- Question 5 of 26
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to the Chief Justice of India (CJI)
- The procedure to appoint the CJI is not clearly mentioned anywhere in the Constitution.
- Salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of his/her terms and conditions cannot be altered even during emergencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The Constitution of India does not have any specific provision for criteria and procedure for appointing the CJI.
- The closest mention is in Article 126. It deals with the appointment of an acting CJI.
- The procedure to appoint the next CJI is laid out in the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) between the government and the judiciary.
- The Constitution of India given the power to the Parliament to decide the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges. This includes both the Judges and CJI of the Supreme Court.
- However, his terms and conditions cannot alter to their disadvantage after they get appointed. It can be altered only when there is a financial emergency.
Incorrect
- The Constitution of India does not have any specific provision for criteria and procedure for appointing the CJI.
- The closest mention is in Article 126. It deals with the appointment of an acting CJI.
- The procedure to appoint the next CJI is laid out in the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) between the government and the judiciary.
- The Constitution of India given the power to the Parliament to decide the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges. This includes both the Judges and CJI of the Supreme Court.
- However, his terms and conditions cannot alter to their disadvantage after they get appointed. It can be altered only when there is a financial emergency.
- Question 6 of 26
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich one of the following statements is incorrect about Tribunals Reforms Ordinance 2021
Correct
President of India promulgated Tribunal Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance 2021.
Purpose of the Ordinance:
- It dissolves at least eight existing appellate tribunals. Now, High Courts and certain other bodies will be the appellate bodies under 9 acts.
- Further, it also amends the Finance Act 2017.
The above-mentioned nine laws where the existing appellate authorities have been replaced are:
- The Cinematograph Act, 1952.
- The Trade Marks Act, 1999.
- The Copyright Act, 1957.
- The Customs Act, 1962.
- The Patents Act, 1970.
- The Airports Authority of India Act, 1994.
- The Control of National Highways (Land and Traffic) Act, 2002.
- The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
- Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act,2001.
Incorrect
President of India promulgated Tribunal Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance 2021.
Purpose of the Ordinance:
- It dissolves at least eight existing appellate tribunals. Now, High Courts and certain other bodies will be the appellate bodies under 9 acts.
- Further, it also amends the Finance Act 2017.
The above-mentioned nine laws where the existing appellate authorities have been replaced are:
- The Cinematograph Act, 1952.
- The Trade Marks Act, 1999.
- The Copyright Act, 1957.
- The Customs Act, 1962.
- The Patents Act, 1970.
- The Airports Authority of India Act, 1994.
- The Control of National Highways (Land and Traffic) Act, 2002.
- The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
- Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act,2001.
- Question 7 of 26
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Lok Adalats
- Lok Adalats are judicial Bodies.
- Any case pending before the Court cannot be referred to the Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Nature of Cases to be Referred to Lok Adalat
- Any case pending before any court.
- Any dispute which has not been brought before any court and is likely to be filed before the court.
Provided that any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under the law shall not be settled in Lok Adalat.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Nature of Cases to be Referred to Lok Adalat
- Any case pending before any court.
- Any dispute which has not been brought before any court and is likely to be filed before the court.
Provided that any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under the law shall not be settled in Lok Adalat.
- Question 8 of 26
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Tribunals in India.
- Tribunals are part of the Constitution since the enactment of Constitution
- Article 323 provides for two types of tribunals. Namely, Administrative Tribunals and Tribunals for other matters.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Tribunal is a quasi-judicial institution. They were set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes.
Initially, Tribunals were not a part of the Constitution. Swaran Singh Committee recommended including Tribunals as a part of the Constitution.
Based on that, the Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976 provided constitutional status to Tribunals. Tribunals are placed under Part XIV-A. This part has only two articles:
- Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals. These tribunals resolve disputes related to the recruitment and service conditions of persons engaged in public service.
- Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters. These tribunals resolve disputes related to Taxation, Foreign exchange, Industrial and labour, Land reforms, import and export, Food, Ceiling on urban property, etc.
Incorrect
The Tribunal is a quasi-judicial institution. They were set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes.
Initially, Tribunals were not a part of the Constitution. Swaran Singh Committee recommended including Tribunals as a part of the Constitution.
Based on that, the Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976 provided constitutional status to Tribunals. Tribunals are placed under Part XIV-A. This part has only two articles:
- Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals. These tribunals resolve disputes related to the recruitment and service conditions of persons engaged in public service.
- Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters. These tribunals resolve disputes related to Taxation, Foreign exchange, Industrial and labour, Land reforms, import and export, Food, Ceiling on urban property, etc.
- Question 9 of 26
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals and Tribunals for other matters
- Parliament alone can establish tribunals for other matters. But the Administrative tribunals can be established by both Parliament or State legislatures
- Parliament can establish hierarchy of administrative tribunals at central, state and district level
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976 provided two types of Tribunals
- Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals.
- Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.
- Few differences between these tribunals are
Article 323-A (Administrative Tribunals) Article 323-B (Tribunals for other matters) Parliament alone can establish these tribunals Both Parliament and State Legislatures can establish these tribunals Only one tribunal at the centre level and Only one for each state (or two or more states) Government can establish hierarchy of Tribunals at each level. Incorrect
The Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976 provided two types of Tribunals
- Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals.
- Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.
- Few differences between these tribunals are
Article 323-A (Administrative Tribunals) Article 323-B (Tribunals for other matters) Parliament alone can establish these tribunals Both Parliament and State Legislatures can establish these tribunals Only one tribunal at the centre level and Only one for each state (or two or more states) Government can establish hierarchy of Tribunals at each level. - Question 10 of 26
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Constitution under Article 324 mandates the Election Commission, to conduct elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and Local Bodies.
- Election Commission has mandated the election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution under Article 324 mandates the Election Commission, to conduct elections inter alia to the Parliament and the State Legislatures.
Local Body elections are conducted by the State Election Commissions.
Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court in its judgment dated 5th July 2013 in S. SubramaniamBalaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others directed the Election Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties.
After consultation with the Political Parties, the Commission, in the interest of free and fair elections, hereby directs that Political Parties and Candidates while releasing election manifestos for any election to the Parliament or State Legislatures, shall adhere to the following guidelines:
— The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
— The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution enjoin upon the State to frame various welfare measures for the citizens and therefore there can be no objection to the promise of such welfare measures in election manifestos. However, political parties should avoid making those promises which are likely to vitiate the purity of the election process or exert undue influence on the voters in exercising their franchise.
— In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it. Trust of voters should be sought only on those promises which are possible to be fulfilled.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution under Article 324 mandates the Election Commission, to conduct elections inter alia to the Parliament and the State Legislatures.
Local Body elections are conducted by the State Election Commissions.
Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court in its judgment dated 5th July 2013 in S. SubramaniamBalaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others directed the Election Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in consultation with all the recognized political parties.
After consultation with the Political Parties, the Commission, in the interest of free and fair elections, hereby directs that Political Parties and Candidates while releasing election manifestos for any election to the Parliament or State Legislatures, shall adhere to the following guidelines:
— The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
— The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution enjoin upon the State to frame various welfare measures for the citizens and therefore there can be no objection to the promise of such welfare measures in election manifestos. However, political parties should avoid making those promises which are likely to vitiate the purity of the election process or exert undue influence on the voters in exercising their franchise.
— In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it. Trust of voters should be sought only on those promises which are possible to be fulfilled.
- Question 11 of 26
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Foreigners Act, 1946:
- It is not applicable to the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
- The onus of proving whether a person is a foreigner or not, lies upon such person in question.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Foreigners Act, 1946 is applicable to whole of India and states that a “foreigner” means a person who is not a citizen of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 9 of the act, whether any person is or is not a foreigner or is or is not a foreigner of a particular class or description the onus of proving that such person is not a foreigner or is not a foreigner of such particular class, shall notwithstanding anything contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 lie upon such person.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Foreigners Act, 1946 is applicable to whole of India and states that a “foreigner” means a person who is not a citizen of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 9 of the act, whether any person is or is not a foreigner or is or is not a foreigner of a particular class or description the onus of proving that such person is not a foreigner or is not a foreigner of such particular class, shall notwithstanding anything contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 lie upon such person.
- Question 12 of 26
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC):
- Grounds for removal of the CEC are same as for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- Any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
Which of the statements given above s/are correct?
Correct
As per article 324 of the Constitution; subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine:
Provided that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:
Provided further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
# The President appointed Shri Sushil Chandra the senior-most Election Commissioner, as the Chief Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India.
Incorrect
As per article 324 of the Constitution; subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine:
Provided that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:
Provided further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
# The President appointed Shri Sushil Chandra the senior-most Election Commissioner, as the Chief Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India.
- Question 13 of 26
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Right to higher education to students above fourteen years is a fundamental right under the Constitution.
- Providing early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years is a Directive Principle under the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 21A added by the e Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 provides that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 45 provides for provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years; the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 21A added by the e Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 provides that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 45 provides for provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years; the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
- Question 14 of 26
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Places of Worship Act, 1991:
- It was enacted to freeze the status of any place of worship as it existed on August 15, 1947.
- It kept the disputed structure at Ayodhya out of its purview.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 was enacted to freeze the status of places of worship as they were on August 15, 1947. It says no person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination into one of a different denomination or section.
Anyone who defies the bar on conversion of the status of a place of worship is liable to be prosecuted. The Act provides for imprisonment up to three years and a fine for anyone contravening the prohibition.
The law kept the disputed structure at Ayodhya out of its purview, mainly because it was the subject of prolonged litigation. It was also aimed at providing scope for a possible negotiated settlement.
Incorrect
The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 was enacted to freeze the status of places of worship as they were on August 15, 1947. It says no person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination into one of a different denomination or section.
Anyone who defies the bar on conversion of the status of a place of worship is liable to be prosecuted. The Act provides for imprisonment up to three years and a fine for anyone contravening the prohibition.
The law kept the disputed structure at Ayodhya out of its purview, mainly because it was the subject of prolonged litigation. It was also aimed at providing scope for a possible negotiated settlement.
- Question 15 of 26
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are eligibility conditions provided under the Constitution to be appointed as a Judge in Supreme Court?
- Must have born in India
- One who has been for at least five years a Judge of a HighCourt
- A distinguished jurist in opinion of the President
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Provisions also exist for the appointment of a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc Judge of the Supreme Court and for retired Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as Judges of that Court.
Incorrect
Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Provisions also exist for the appointment of a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc Judge of the Supreme Court and for retired Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as Judges of that Court.
- Question 16 of 26
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is provided for by the article 324 of the constitution of India?
- Governor of a State, shall, when so requested by the Election Commission, make available to the Election Commission such staff as may be necessary.
- The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for all elections to Parliament shall be vested in Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Article 324 providing for powers of the Election Commission of India states:
–The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President held under this Constitution shall be vested in a Commission.
–The President, or the Governor of a State, shall, when so requested by the Election Commission, make available to the Election Commission or to a Regional Commissioner such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the Election Commission.
Incorrect
Article 324 providing for powers of the Election Commission of India states:
–The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President held under this Constitution shall be vested in a Commission.
–The President, or the Governor of a State, shall, when so requested by the Election Commission, make available to the Election Commission or to a Regional Commissioner such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the Election Commission.
- Question 17 of 26
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Power of President to promulgate Ordinances:
- It has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
- It may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct. The Article 123 of the Constitution states that;
— If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.
— An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, but every such Ordinance—
–shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those resolutions; and
–may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct. The Article 123 of the Constitution states that;
— If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.
— An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, but every such Ordinance—
–shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those resolutions; and
–may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
- Question 18 of 26
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Concept of ‘Principled Distance’ is seen in news recently, it is used in reference to
Correct
The concept of principled distance entails a state to maintain equal distance from all religion. It meant peaceful coexistence of all religions or inter-religious toleration and also meant equal feeling of respect towards all established religions and their practices. Indian secularism allows for principled state intervention in all religions. Such intervention betrays disrespect to some aspects of every religion.
Incorrect
The concept of principled distance entails a state to maintain equal distance from all religion. It meant peaceful coexistence of all religions or inter-religious toleration and also meant equal feeling of respect towards all established religions and their practices. Indian secularism allows for principled state intervention in all religions. Such intervention betrays disrespect to some aspects of every religion.
- Question 19 of 26
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Parliament is empowered to prescribe the number of Judges constituting the Supreme Court of India.
- Judges of the Supreme Court hold office until they attain the age of sixty-five year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Article 124 of the Constitution states that there shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
Parliament last year passed the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill to increases the number of judges in Supreme Court number from 30 to 33.
The Judges remain in office until they reach the retirement age — 65 for Supreme Court judges and 62 for high court judges.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Article 124 of the Constitution states that there shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
Parliament last year passed the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill to increases the number of judges in Supreme Court number from 30 to 33.
The Judges remain in office until they reach the retirement age — 65 for Supreme Court judges and 62 for high court judges.
- Question 20 of 26
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding oath mentioned in the Constitution of India
- The President of India and the Governor of a state will swear an oath to uphold the constitution and the laws.
- The Judges of the Supreme court and High Court will swear an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The President of India and the Governor of a state will swear an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution.
- The Judges of the Supreme court and High Court will swear an oath to uphold the constitution and the laws.
Incorrect
- The President of India and the Governor of a state will swear an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution.
- The Judges of the Supreme court and High Court will swear an oath to uphold the constitution and the laws.
- Question 21 of 26
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityEquity & equality are both required to usher well-being of a nation. Consider the statements below:
- Equality can be achieved through equity
- In an equitable approach, people will be treated fairly but differently
- Arranging extra classes only for academically weak students is an example of equality
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Equity means treating people based on their respective circumstances. So, every individual shall be helped as per their need and brought to the same level of development resulting in equality.
- Statement 2 is correct: Under principles of equity, only those individuals are helped who require that help. This means people are treated fairly as per their conditions, but differently.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Everyone in the class will not be in the need of extra classes. So, only those students who are weak shall be given help. This ensures that only those students are given assistance who actually need it. Hence, this is a case of equity, not equality. Under equality, all students would be given extra classes.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Equity means treating people based on their respective circumstances. So, every individual shall be helped as per their need and brought to the same level of development resulting in equality.
- Statement 2 is correct: Under principles of equity, only those individuals are helped who require that help. This means people are treated fairly as per their conditions, but differently.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Everyone in the class will not be in the need of extra classes. So, only those students who are weak shall be given help. This ensures that only those students are given assistance who actually need it. Hence, this is a case of equity, not equality. Under equality, all students would be given extra classes.
- Question 22 of 26
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements
- To be truly secular, state must not only refuse to be theocratic but also have no legal alliance with any religion
- American model of secularism is based on mutual exclusion of state and religion
- The expression ‘Equal respect for all religions’ captures the true essence of Indian mode of secularism
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: To be truly secular, a state must not only refuse to be theocratic but also have no formal, legal alliance with any religion. The separation of religion-state is, however, a necessary but not a sufficient ingredient of a secular state. A secular state must be committed to principles and goals which are at least partly derived from non-religious sources. These ends should include peace, religious freedom, freedom from religiously grounded oppression, discrimination and exclusion, as also inter-religious and intra-religious equality
- Statement 2 is correct: Inspired mainly by the American model, separation of religion and state is understood as mutual exclusion: the state will not intervene in the affairs of religion and, in the same manner, religion will not interfere in the affairs of the state
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The complexity of Indian secularism cannot be captured by the phrase “equal respect for all religions”. If by this phrase is meant peaceful coexistence of all religions or interreligious toleration, then this will not be enough because secularism is much more than mere peaceful coexistence or toleration.
- Also, Indian secularism allows for principled state intervention in all religions. Such intervention involves disrespect to some aspects of every religion. For example, religiously sanctioned caste-hierarchies are not acceptable within Indian secularism. The secular state does not have to treat every aspect of every religion with equal respect. It allows equal disrespect for some aspects of organised religions.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: To be truly secular, a state must not only refuse to be theocratic but also have no formal, legal alliance with any religion. The separation of religion-state is, however, a necessary but not a sufficient ingredient of a secular state. A secular state must be committed to principles and goals which are at least partly derived from non-religious sources. These ends should include peace, religious freedom, freedom from religiously grounded oppression, discrimination and exclusion, as also inter-religious and intra-religious equality
- Statement 2 is correct: Inspired mainly by the American model, separation of religion and state is understood as mutual exclusion: the state will not intervene in the affairs of religion and, in the same manner, religion will not interfere in the affairs of the state
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The complexity of Indian secularism cannot be captured by the phrase “equal respect for all religions”. If by this phrase is meant peaceful coexistence of all religions or interreligious toleration, then this will not be enough because secularism is much more than mere peaceful coexistence or toleration.
- Also, Indian secularism allows for principled state intervention in all religions. Such intervention involves disrespect to some aspects of every religion. For example, religiously sanctioned caste-hierarchies are not acceptable within Indian secularism. The secular state does not have to treat every aspect of every religion with equal respect. It allows equal disrespect for some aspects of organised religions.
- Question 23 of 26
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe term Civil society is often heard in the news. Consider the following statements:
- It is the non-state and non-market part of the public domain
- Media institutions, political parties and trade unions can be a part of civil society
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Civil society is the non-state and non-market part of the public domain
in which individuals get together voluntarily to create institutions and organizations.
Statement 2 is correct: It consists of voluntary associations, organizations or institutions formed by groups of citizens. It includes political parties, media institutions, trade unions, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), religious organizations, and other kinds of collective entities. The main criteria for inclusion in civil society are that the organization should not be state-controlled, and it should not be a purely commercial profit-making entity.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Civil society is the non-state and non-market part of the public domain
in which individuals get together voluntarily to create institutions and organizations.
Statement 2 is correct: It consists of voluntary associations, organizations or institutions formed by groups of citizens. It includes political parties, media institutions, trade unions, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), religious organizations, and other kinds of collective entities. The main criteria for inclusion in civil society are that the organization should not be state-controlled, and it should not be a purely commercial profit-making entity.
- Question 24 of 26
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the recommendations of the Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC):
- It has proposed performance-based grants for incubation of new cities.
- For Million-Plus population cities, 100 per cent of the grants are performance-linked through the Million-Plus Cities Challenge Fund (MCF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
As per the Report of the Fifteenth Finance Commission:
— The total size of the grant to local governments should be Rs. 4,36,361 crores for the period 2021-26.
— Of these total grants, Rs. 8,000 crores are performance-based grants for incubation of new cities and Rs. 450 crores are for shared municipal services. A sum of Rs. 2,36,805 crores are earmarked for rural local bodies, Rs.1,21,055 crore for urban local bodies and Rs. 70,051 crores for health grants through local governments.
— Urban local bodies have been categorised into two groups, based on population, and different norms have been used for flow of grants to each, based on their specific needs and aspirations. Basic grants are proposed only for cities/towns having a population of less than a million. For Million-Plus cities, 100 per cent of the grants are performance-linked through the Million-Plus Cities Challenge Fund (MCF).
Incorrect
As per the Report of the Fifteenth Finance Commission:
— The total size of the grant to local governments should be Rs. 4,36,361 crores for the period 2021-26.
— Of these total grants, Rs. 8,000 crores are performance-based grants for incubation of new cities and Rs. 450 crores are for shared municipal services. A sum of Rs. 2,36,805 crores are earmarked for rural local bodies, Rs.1,21,055 crore for urban local bodies and Rs. 70,051 crores for health grants through local governments.
— Urban local bodies have been categorised into two groups, based on population, and different norms have been used for flow of grants to each, based on their specific needs and aspirations. Basic grants are proposed only for cities/towns having a population of less than a million. For Million-Plus cities, 100 per cent of the grants are performance-linked through the Million-Plus Cities Challenge Fund (MCF).
- Question 25 of 26
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019:
- It empowers State governments to order for recall of vehicles if a defect in it may cause damage to the environment.
- It provides protection to a Good Samaritan from civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of an accident victim.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users.
Statement 2 is correct. It defines a good samaritan as a person who renders emergency medical or non-medical assistance to a victim at the scene of an accident. The assistance must have been in good faith, voluntary, and without the expectation of any reward. Such a person will not be liable for any civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of an accident victim, caused due to their negligence in providing assistance to the victim.
# Supreme Court has ordered the Centre to launch a national online platform, which could be operated and accessed across the country for submission of accident reports, claims and responses to claims, etc.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users.
Statement 2 is correct. It defines a good samaritan as a person who renders emergency medical or non-medical assistance to a victim at the scene of an accident. The assistance must have been in good faith, voluntary, and without the expectation of any reward. Such a person will not be liable for any civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of an accident victim, caused due to their negligence in providing assistance to the victim.
# Supreme Court has ordered the Centre to launch a national online platform, which could be operated and accessed across the country for submission of accident reports, claims and responses to claims, etc.
- Question 26 of 26
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityPlaces of Worship Act, 1991 was recently seen in news. It was enacted towards which of the following aim?
Correct
Places of Worship Act, 1991 was passed in 1991 by the P V Narasimha Rao-led government.
The law seeks to maintain the “religious character” of places of worship as it was in 1947 — except in the case of the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute, which was already in court.
Read more - Why the Places of Worship Act, 1991 has been challenged? -ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
Places of Worship Act, 1991 was passed in 1991 by the P V Narasimha Rao-led government.
The law seeks to maintain the “religious character” of places of worship as it was in 1947 — except in the case of the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute, which was already in court.
Read more - Why the Places of Worship Act, 1991 has been challenged? -ForumIAS Blog
POLITY II
Test-summary
0 of 7 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 7 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Polity 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 7
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021:
- Opinion of two doctors will be required up to 20 weeks of gestation for termination of pregnancy.
- It enhances the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for termination of pregnancy for special categories of women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Rajya Sabha has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021 to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 on 16th March 2021. The Bill was approved in Lok Sabha on 17th March 2020.
Salient features of amendments:
— Currently, abortion requires the opinion of one doctor if it is done within 12 weeks of conception and two doctors if it is done between 12 and 20 weeks. The Bill allows abortion to be done on the advice of one doctor up to 20 weeks, and two doctors in the case of certain categories of women between 20 and 24 weeks. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
–Enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women which will be defined in the amendments to the MTP Rules and would include survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, minors) etc. (Statement 2 is correct)
–Upper gestation limit not to apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by Medical Board. The composition, functions and other details of Medical Board to be prescribed subsequently in Rules under the Act.
–Name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall not be revealed except to a person authorized in any law for the time being in force.
Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021 to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 on 16th March 2021. The Bill was approved in Lok Sabha on 17th March 2020.
Salient features of amendments:
— Currently, abortion requires the opinion of one doctor if it is done within 12 weeks of conception and two doctors if it is done between 12 and 20 weeks. The Bill allows abortion to be done on the advice of one doctor up to 20 weeks, and two doctors in the case of certain categories of women between 20 and 24 weeks. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
–Enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women which will be defined in the amendments to the MTP Rules and would include survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, minors) etc. (Statement 2 is correct)
–Upper gestation limit not to apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by Medical Board. The composition, functions and other details of Medical Board to be prescribed subsequently in Rules under the Act.
–Name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall not be revealed except to a person authorized in any law for the time being in force.
- Question 2 of 7
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityShantilal H. Shah Committee has sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the committee?
Correct
Committee Mandate Justice Rohini Panel committee for sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes in India Shantilal H. Shah Committee The committee stated that abortion and reproductive rights need to be regulated by law in 1966 Following that, the Government enacted the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act in 1971.
Justice Madan B. Lokur Committee It is a single member committee recommended steps to prevent stubble burning in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh Rangarajan Committee computerization of Banking Industry and Public Sector Disinvestment Incorrect
Committee Mandate Justice Rohini Panel committee for sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes in India Shantilal H. Shah Committee The committee stated that abortion and reproductive rights need to be regulated by law in 1966 Following that, the Government enacted the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act in 1971.
Justice Madan B. Lokur Committee It is a single member committee recommended steps to prevent stubble burning in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh Rangarajan Committee computerization of Banking Industry and Public Sector Disinvestment - Question 3 of 7
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019:
- The central government may direct data fiduciaries to provide it with any anonymized personal data for better targeting of services.
- Under no circumstances can the Sensitive personal data may be transferred outside India for processing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, now under scrutiny by a Joint Parliamentary Committee governs the processing of personal data bygovernment, companies incorporated in India, and foreign companies dealing with personal data of individuals in India.
Statement 1 is correct. The central government may direct data fiduciaries to provide it with any non-personal data and anonymised personal data (where it is not possible to identify data principal) for better targeting of services.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Sensitive personal data may be transferred outside India for processing if explicitly consented to by the individual, and subject to certain additional conditions. However, such sensitive personal data should continue to be stored in India. Certain personal data notified as critical personal data by the government can only be processed in India.
Incorrect
The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, now under scrutiny by a Joint Parliamentary Committee governs the processing of personal data bygovernment, companies incorporated in India, and foreign companies dealing with personal data of individuals in India.
Statement 1 is correct. The central government may direct data fiduciaries to provide it with any non-personal data and anonymised personal data (where it is not possible to identify data principal) for better targeting of services.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Sensitive personal data may be transferred outside India for processing if explicitly consented to by the individual, and subject to certain additional conditions. However, such sensitive personal data should continue to be stored in India. Certain personal data notified as critical personal data by the government can only be processed in India.
- Question 4 of 7
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the recently amended Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act:
- Approval of two registered medical practitioners will be required for termination of pregnancies between 20 to 24 weeks.
- The upper limit of termination of pregnancy will not apply in cases where it is necessary due to substantialfoetal abnormalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 was recently passed in Parliament to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 which provides for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners.
–A pregnancy may be terminated within 20 weeks, with the opinion of a registered medical practitioner. Approval of two registered medical practitioners will be required for termination of pregnancies between 20 to 24 weeks.
–The upper limit of termination of pregnancy will not apply in cases where such termination is necessary due to the diagnosis of substantial foetal abnormalities. These abnormalities will be diagnosed by a Medical Board. Under the Bill, every state government is required to constitute a Medical Board.
Incorrect
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 was recently passed in Parliament to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 which provides for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners.
–A pregnancy may be terminated within 20 weeks, with the opinion of a registered medical practitioner. Approval of two registered medical practitioners will be required for termination of pregnancies between 20 to 24 weeks.
–The upper limit of termination of pregnancy will not apply in cases where such termination is necessary due to the diagnosis of substantial foetal abnormalities. These abnormalities will be diagnosed by a Medical Board. Under the Bill, every state government is required to constitute a Medical Board.
- Question 5 of 7
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the Following Statements
- Covid-19 is notified disaster under disaster management act, 2005
- Epidemics Disease act allows the use of fund from National disaster Response Fund
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In 2020, Ministry of Home Affairs decided to treat COVID-19 as a notified disaster for the purpose of providing assistance under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Though the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, gives the Central and State Governments overarching powers, it lacks provisions enabling them to speedily set up management systems required for a coordinated and concerted response. Also, it does not provide for use of funds from NDRF, for that enforcement of NDMA 2005 is required.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In 2020, Ministry of Home Affairs decided to treat COVID-19 as a notified disaster for the purpose of providing assistance under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Though the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, gives the Central and State Governments overarching powers, it lacks provisions enabling them to speedily set up management systems required for a coordinated and concerted response. Also, it does not provide for use of funds from NDRF, for that enforcement of NDMA 2005 is required.
- Question 6 of 7
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityRecently, Chief Justice of India launched the Supreme Court’s ‘SUPACE Portal’. Consider the following statements in this regard
- It is an artificial intelligence-based portal
- The portal will provide the judges with all possible decisions of a case on the basis of inputs.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. SUPACE is an artificial intelligence-based portal. It will make the research work easier for judges, thereby easing their workload.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The portal is not designed to make decisions. It only processes facts and makes them available to judges, looking for input for a decision.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. SUPACE is an artificial intelligence-based portal. It will make the research work easier for judges, thereby easing their workload.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The portal is not designed to make decisions. It only processes facts and makes them available to judges, looking for input for a decision.
- Question 7 of 7
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB) consider the following statements
- It is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide
- Election Commission of India is present Chair of the A-WEB
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Association of World Election Bodies(A-WEB) was established in 2013 in South Korea. It is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
- Purpose: achieving sustainable democracy around the world.
- Chaired by: A-WEB is currently chaired by India for the 2019-21 term.
- Members: At present A-WEB has 115 EMBs as Members & 16 Regional Associations/Organisations as Associate Members.
- ECI is very closely associated with the process of formation of A-WEB since 2011.
- Secretariat: Seoul, South Korea.
- Programmes: A-WEB undertakes Election Visitor and Observation Programmes in various countries. These programs aim to study various election management practices and share knowledge with other Member of EMBs.
Incorrect
- Association of World Election Bodies(A-WEB) was established in 2013 in South Korea. It is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
- Purpose: achieving sustainable democracy around the world.
- Chaired by: A-WEB is currently chaired by India for the 2019-21 term.
- Members: At present A-WEB has 115 EMBs as Members & 16 Regional Associations/Organisations as Associate Members.
- ECI is very closely associated with the process of formation of A-WEB since 2011.
- Secretariat: Seoul, South Korea.
- Programmes: A-WEB undertakes Election Visitor and Observation Programmes in various countries. These programs aim to study various election management practices and share knowledge with other Member of EMBs.
ECONOMICS
ECONOMICS
Test-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Economy 0%
- Economy 0%
- Economy 0%
- Economy 0%
- Economy 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding base erosion and profit shifting?
- It refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational enterprises that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules.
- The developing suffer disproportionately due to BEPS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational enterprises that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to avoid paying tax. Developing countries’ higher reliance on corporate income tax means they suffer from BEPS disproportionately.
BEPS practices cost countries USD 100-240 billion in lost revenue annually. Working together within OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework on BEPS, over 135 countries and jurisdictions are collaborating on the implementation of 15 measures to tackle tax avoidance, improve the coherence of international tax rules and ensure a more transparent tax environment.
Incorrect
Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational enterprises that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to avoid paying tax. Developing countries’ higher reliance on corporate income tax means they suffer from BEPS disproportionately.
BEPS practices cost countries USD 100-240 billion in lost revenue annually. Working together within OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework on BEPS, over 135 countries and jurisdictions are collaborating on the implementation of 15 measures to tackle tax avoidance, improve the coherence of international tax rules and ensure a more transparent tax environment.
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding the recently launched Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) Scheme?
- Land identification number will same as aadhaar no. of the land owner.
- Every plot of land in the country will be covered under the scheme.
- The government will use the longitude and latitude of a land parcel for land identification
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Recently the Department of Land Resources informs the Standing Committee on Rural Development about the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) Scheme.
The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) scheme was launched in 10 States in 2021. It will roll out across the country by March 2022.
Key Features of the Scheme:
- Under the scheme, authorities issue a 14-digit identification number to every plot of land in the country.
- Also known as “the Aadhaar for land”, It is a unique number to identify every surveyed parcel of land. It will prevent land fraud, especially in rural India where proper land records are not available.
- The longitude and latitude of a land parcel will be the basis for its identification. It will depend on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.
- The land records database will gradually integrate with the records of revenue courts and bank on a voluntary basis.
Incorrect
Recently the Department of Land Resources informs the Standing Committee on Rural Development about the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) Scheme.
The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) scheme was launched in 10 States in 2021. It will roll out across the country by March 2022.
Key Features of the Scheme:
- Under the scheme, authorities issue a 14-digit identification number to every plot of land in the country.
- Also known as “the Aadhaar for land”, It is a unique number to identify every surveyed parcel of land. It will prevent land fraud, especially in rural India where proper land records are not available.
- The longitude and latitude of a land parcel will be the basis for its identification. It will depend on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.
- The land records database will gradually integrate with the records of revenue courts and bank on a voluntary basis.
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyHSN Code was recently seen in the news. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the HSN Code?
Correct
The Harmonized System of Nomenculture is a six-digit identification code. It was introduced in 1988 by World Customs Organization(WCO).
Purpose: It is an international nomenclature for the classification of products. It allows participating countries to classify traded goods on a common basis for customs purposes.
The code is also called the universal economic language for goods. It is a multipurpose international product nomenclature.
The HSN code currently comprises around 5,000 commodity groups. Each Code is a unique six-digit code that has numbers arranged in a legal and logical structure. There are well-defined rules to achieve uniform classification.
- Of the six digits, the first two denote the HS Chapter, the next two give the HS heading, and the last two give the HS subheading.
Significance: HSN Code helps in harmonizing customs and trade procedures. Thus, it reduces the costs of international trade.
Recently, Indian Government made the 6 digit HSN (Harmonized System of Nomenclature) code a mandatory for a GST taxpayer having a turnover of more than Rs 5 crore in a financial year. This rule comes into effect from April 1,2021.
Incorrect
The Harmonized System of Nomenculture is a six-digit identification code. It was introduced in 1988 by World Customs Organization(WCO).
Purpose: It is an international nomenclature for the classification of products. It allows participating countries to classify traded goods on a common basis for customs purposes.
The code is also called the universal economic language for goods. It is a multipurpose international product nomenclature.
The HSN code currently comprises around 5,000 commodity groups. Each Code is a unique six-digit code that has numbers arranged in a legal and logical structure. There are well-defined rules to achieve uniform classification.
- Of the six digits, the first two denote the HS Chapter, the next two give the HS heading, and the last two give the HS subheading.
Significance: HSN Code helps in harmonizing customs and trade procedures. Thus, it reduces the costs of international trade.
Recently, Indian Government made the 6 digit HSN (Harmonized System of Nomenclature) code a mandatory for a GST taxpayer having a turnover of more than Rs 5 crore in a financial year. This rule comes into effect from April 1,2021.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM):
- It is an application for acknowledgment of winding up of an industrial unit.
- Every industryhaveto mandatorily file an IEM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM) is an application for acknowledgment of setting up of industrial unit.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The large-scale industry having investment more than Rs. 10 crores in manufacturing sector and more than Rs. 5 crores in service sector are primarily which is outside the purview of the licensing provisions and for the items (s) not exclusively reserved for manufacture by SSI sector have to file an application for Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum means IEM.
# With a view to enhancing ease of doing business and transparency, the DPIIT has revamped its Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM) portal.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM) is an application for acknowledgment of setting up of industrial unit.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The large-scale industry having investment more than Rs. 10 crores in manufacturing sector and more than Rs. 5 crores in service sector are primarily which is outside the purview of the licensing provisions and for the items (s) not exclusively reserved for manufacture by SSI sector have to file an application for Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum means IEM.
# With a view to enhancing ease of doing business and transparency, the DPIIT has revamped its Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM) portal.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the monetary policy framework of India:
- Reserve Bank of India has the legislative mandate to operate the monetary policy framework of the country.
- The inflation target to be set by the Reserve Bank in consultation with Scheduled Commercial Banks, once in every five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act explicitly provides the legislative mandate to the Reserve Bank to operate the monetary policy framework of the country.
The framework aims at setting the policy (repo) rate based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation; and modulation of liquidity conditions to anchor money market rates at or around the repo rate. Repo rate changes transmit through the money market to the entire the financial system, which, in turn, influences aggregate demand – a key determinant of inflation and growth.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years.
# The Centre has decided to retain the inflation target of 4%, with a tolerance band of +/- 2 percentage points for the Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI for the coming five years; April 1, 2021, to March 31, 2026.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act explicitly provides the legislative mandate to the Reserve Bank to operate the monetary policy framework of the country.
The framework aims at setting the policy (repo) rate based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation; and modulation of liquidity conditions to anchor money market rates at or around the repo rate. Repo rate changes transmit through the money market to the entire the financial system, which, in turn, influences aggregate demand – a key determinant of inflation and growth.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years.
# The Centre has decided to retain the inflation target of 4%, with a tolerance band of +/- 2 percentage points for the Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI for the coming five years; April 1, 2021, to March 31, 2026.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are direct or indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy?
- Repo Rate
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
- Open Market Operations (OMOs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to the maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy:
— Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
— Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
— Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
— Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
Other instruments include Bank Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS).
Incorrect
Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to the maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy:
— Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
— Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
— Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
— Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
Other instruments include Bank Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS).
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economyonsider the following statements regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS)?
- It is launched as a part of the Covid-19 relief package called the Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
- The aim of the scheme is to provide collateral-free loans to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
- RBI will provide the guarantee for the persons taking loan under the scheme
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme(ECLGS) was launched as part of the Covid-19 relief package called the Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
Aim: To provide Rs 3 lakh crore worth of collateral-free, government guaranteed loans to micro, small and medium enterprises(MSMEs) across India. It aimed to mitigate the distress caused by the coronavirus-induced lockdown.
National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) is the guarantee provider under the ECLGS scheme.
Recently the government extends the Rs. 3-lakh-crore Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) until 30th June 2021. It also widens its scope to new sectors, including hospitality, travel and tourism.
Incorrect
Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme(ECLGS) was launched as part of the Covid-19 relief package called the Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
Aim: To provide Rs 3 lakh crore worth of collateral-free, government guaranteed loans to micro, small and medium enterprises(MSMEs) across India. It aimed to mitigate the distress caused by the coronavirus-induced lockdown.
National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) is the guarantee provider under the ECLGS scheme.
Recently the government extends the Rs. 3-lakh-crore Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) until 30th June 2021. It also widens its scope to new sectors, including hospitality, travel and tourism.
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding the KV Kamath Committee constituted by the RBI?
- The committee was formed to identify the sectors to be considered for the one-time restructuring of loans.
- The RBI rejected the committee report as it recommended nearly 26 sectors for restructuring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
RBI had formed a five-member committee under the chairmanship of KV Kamath to make recommendations on the financial parameters and the sectors to be considered for the one-time restructuring of loans impacted by the Covid 19 pandemic.
What did the committee recommend? The committee has recommended five financial ratios for 26 sectors which could be factored by lending institutions while finalizing a resolution plan for a borrower.
Reserve Bank of India has broadly accepted its recommendations and implemented it.
Incorrect
RBI had formed a five-member committee under the chairmanship of KV Kamath to make recommendations on the financial parameters and the sectors to be considered for the one-time restructuring of loans impacted by the Covid 19 pandemic.
What did the committee recommend? The committee has recommended five financial ratios for 26 sectors which could be factored by lending institutions while finalizing a resolution plan for a borrower.
Reserve Bank of India has broadly accepted its recommendations and implemented it.
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following regarding to Foreign Direct Investments.
- Reinvested earning of an FDI holder is not considered as an FDI.
- Intra-company debt transactions between direct investors and affiliate enterprises are considered as FDI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
FDI is the category of international investment. It reflects the objective of obtaining a lasting interest from a resident entity in one economy to an enterprise in another economy.
FDI consists of three components:
- Equity capital: It is the FDI purchase of shares of an enterprise in a country other than its own.
- Reinvested earnings: It comprises the direct investors’ share (in proportion to direct equity participation) of earnings not distributed. Such retained profits by affiliates are reinvested.
- Note: The earnings of the share are distributed to the investor in the form of dividends by affiliates, or earnings not remitted.
- Intra-company loans or intra-company debt transactions: It refers to short- or long-term borrowing and lending of funds between direct investors (or enterprises) and affiliate enterprises.
Read more: Foreign Direct Investment inflows in India
Incorrect
FDI is the category of international investment. It reflects the objective of obtaining a lasting interest from a resident entity in one economy to an enterprise in another economy.
FDI consists of three components:
- Equity capital: It is the FDI purchase of shares of an enterprise in a country other than its own.
- Reinvested earnings: It comprises the direct investors’ share (in proportion to direct equity participation) of earnings not distributed. Such retained profits by affiliates are reinvested.
- Note: The earnings of the share are distributed to the investor in the form of dividends by affiliates, or earnings not remitted.
- Intra-company loans or intra-company debt transactions: It refers to short- or long-term borrowing and lending of funds between direct investors (or enterprises) and affiliate enterprises.
Read more: Foreign Direct Investment inflows in India
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements with reference to Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC).
- It buys the Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) from banks only.
- ARCs are constituted under The RBI Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) is a specialized financial institution. They will buy the Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) from banks and financial institutions. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
They will clean up the balance sheets of banks and financial institutions. This helps banks to concentrate on normal banking activities.
Legal Basis: Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 provides the legal basis for the setting up of ARCs in India. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
Regulated by: ARCs function under the supervision and control of the Reserve Bank of India.
Incorrect
Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) is a specialized financial institution. They will buy the Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) from banks and financial institutions. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
They will clean up the balance sheets of banks and financial institutions. This helps banks to concentrate on normal banking activities.
Legal Basis: Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 provides the legal basis for the setting up of ARCs in India. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
Regulated by: ARCs function under the supervision and control of the Reserve Bank of India.
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Priority Sector lending (PSL)
- Foreign banks are exempted from PSL targets
- Bank lending to NBFCs is not considered as PSL by RBI
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- Priority Sector lending (PSL): It means those sectors which the Government and RBI consider as important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors with adequate and timely credit.
- Under this, Commercial banks including foreign banks are required to mandatorily earmark 40% of the adjusted net bank credit for priority sector lending. (Statement 1 is incorrect.)
- Regional rural banks and small finance banks will have to allocate 75% of adjusted net bank credit to PSL.
Categories: a) Agriculture b) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises c) Export Credit d) Education e) Housing f) Social Infrastructure g) Renewable Energy and h) Others
Recently RBI released a Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies. Under the new RBI policy, Bank lending to NBFCs (other than microfinance institutions) for the sectors that contribute significantly to the economy in terms of export and employment. This will continue as priority sector lending (PSL) till September 30, 2021. (Statement 2 is incorrect.)
Incorrect
- Priority Sector lending (PSL): It means those sectors which the Government and RBI consider as important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors with adequate and timely credit.
- Under this, Commercial banks including foreign banks are required to mandatorily earmark 40% of the adjusted net bank credit for priority sector lending. (Statement 1 is incorrect.)
- Regional rural banks and small finance banks will have to allocate 75% of adjusted net bank credit to PSL.
Categories: a) Agriculture b) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises c) Export Credit d) Education e) Housing f) Social Infrastructure g) Renewable Energy and h) Others
Recently RBI released a Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies. Under the new RBI policy, Bank lending to NBFCs (other than microfinance institutions) for the sectors that contribute significantly to the economy in terms of export and employment. This will continue as priority sector lending (PSL) till September 30, 2021. (Statement 2 is incorrect.)
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Pre-Pack Insolvency Resolution’?
Correct
- IBC Amendment Ordinance 2021 amends the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
- The Amendment allows the use of Pre-Packaged insolvency resolution as an alternative resolution mechanism for MSMEs. The threshold limit to trigger the Pre-Packaged insolvency resolution is between Rs 10 lakh to 1 Crore.
- A pre-pack resolution is a form of restructuring that allows creditors and debtors to work on an informal plan and then submit it for approval.
Under this system, financial creditors will agree to the terms of a potential investor. Further, they will seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Incorrect
- IBC Amendment Ordinance 2021 amends the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
- The Amendment allows the use of Pre-Packaged insolvency resolution as an alternative resolution mechanism for MSMEs. The threshold limit to trigger the Pre-Packaged insolvency resolution is between Rs 10 lakh to 1 Crore.
- A pre-pack resolution is a form of restructuring that allows creditors and debtors to work on an informal plan and then submit it for approval.
Under this system, financial creditors will agree to the terms of a potential investor. Further, they will seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are potential impacts of the Universal Basic Income?
- Support to unpaid care workers
- Enable workers to wait for a better job or negotiate better wages
- It may not incentivize people to get jobs, and could make work seem optional
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Universal basic income is a program where every citizen receives a periodic payment, regardless of whether they’re working and earning an income or not. It has several pros and cons to it:
Pros:
–Workers could afford to wait for a better job or better wages and people would have the freedom to return to school or stay home to care for a relative
–May help remove the “poverty trap” from traditional welfare programs
–Citizens could have simple, straightforward financial assistance that minimizes bureaucracy
Cons:
–Inflation could be triggered because of the increase in demand for goods and services
–Free income may not incentivize people to get jobs, and could make work seem optional
–Free income could perpetuate the falling labor force participation rate
Incorrect
Universal basic income is a program where every citizen receives a periodic payment, regardless of whether they’re working and earning an income or not. It has several pros and cons to it:
Pros:
–Workers could afford to wait for a better job or better wages and people would have the freedom to return to school or stay home to care for a relative
–May help remove the “poverty trap” from traditional welfare programs
–Citizens could have simple, straightforward financial assistance that minimizes bureaucracy
Cons:
–Inflation could be triggered because of the increase in demand for goods and services
–Free income may not incentivize people to get jobs, and could make work seem optional
–Free income could perpetuate the falling labor force participation rate
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat Are the Effects of Inflation on the Economy?
- Erodes Purchasing Power
- Beneficiary for debtors
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Inflation is an economic term describing the sustained increase in prices of goods and services within a period.
— Inflation is a decrease in the purchasing power of currency due to a rise in prices across the economy. The effect of inflation on savers and investors is that they lose purchasing power.
— The effect of inflation on debtors is positive because debtors can pay their debts with money that is less valuable.
Incorrect
Inflation is an economic term describing the sustained increase in prices of goods and services within a period.
— Inflation is a decrease in the purchasing power of currency due to a rise in prices across the economy. The effect of inflation on savers and investors is that they lose purchasing power.
— The effect of inflation on debtors is positive because debtors can pay their debts with money that is less valuable.
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Managed floating Exchange rate System:
- The country’s central bank may occasionally intervene in order to direct the country’s currency value into a certain direction.
- India is having this type of exchange rate system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A managed or dirty float is a flexible exchange rate system in which the government or the country’s central bank may occasionally intervene in order to direct the country’s currency value into a certain direction. This is generally done in order to act as a buffer against economic shocks and hence soften its effect in the economy.
A managed float is halfway between a fixed exchange rate and a flexible one as a country can obtain the benefits of a free-floating system but still has the option to intervene and minimize the risks associated with a free-floating currency.
Statement 2 is correct. India is having this type of exchange rate system. In this hybrid exchange rate system, the exchange rate is generally determined in the foreign exchange market through the operation of market forces.
But during extreme fluctuations, the central bank under a managed floating exchange rate system (like the RBI) intervenes in the foreign exchange market.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A managed or dirty float is a flexible exchange rate system in which the government or the country’s central bank may occasionally intervene in order to direct the country’s currency value into a certain direction. This is generally done in order to act as a buffer against economic shocks and hence soften its effect in the economy.
A managed float is halfway between a fixed exchange rate and a flexible one as a country can obtain the benefits of a free-floating system but still has the option to intervene and minimize the risks associated with a free-floating currency.
Statement 2 is correct. India is having this type of exchange rate system. In this hybrid exchange rate system, the exchange rate is generally determined in the foreign exchange market through the operation of market forces.
But during extreme fluctuations, the central bank under a managed floating exchange rate system (like the RBI) intervenes in the foreign exchange market.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are powers of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
- inspectthe bank and its books and accounts
- directthe bank to initiate insolvency resolution process in respect of a default
- inspectfor compliance with the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates and supervises Public Sector And Private Sector Banks. Under the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, it can:
–inspect the bank and its books and accounts;
–examine on oath any director or other officer of the bank;
–cause a scrutiny to be made of the affairs of the bank;
–give directions to secure the proper management of the bank;
–call for any information of account details;
–direct the bank to initiate insolvency resolution process in respect of a default, under the provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
RBI has powers under other laws as well, which include, inter alia, the power under section 12 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 to inspect for compliance with the Act and rules etc. made there under.
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates and supervises Public Sector And Private Sector Banks. Under the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, it can:
–inspect the bank and its books and accounts;
–examine on oath any director or other officer of the bank;
–cause a scrutiny to be made of the affairs of the bank;
–give directions to secure the proper management of the bank;
–call for any information of account details;
–direct the bank to initiate insolvency resolution process in respect of a default, under the provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
RBI has powers under other laws as well, which include, inter alia, the power under section 12 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 to inspect for compliance with the Act and rules etc. made there under.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Sudarshan Sen Committee has been set up by Reserve Bank of India for what purpose?
Correct
The RBI recently set up a committee headed by Sudarshan Sen, former executive director, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to undertake a comprehensive review of the working of asset reconstruction companies (ARCs) in the financial sector ecosystem and recommend suitable measures for enabling them to meet the growing requirements. The panel will:
–review the existing legal and regulatory framework applicable to ARCs and recommend measures to improve efficacy of ARCs.
–review the role of ARCs in the resolution of stressed assets, including under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), and give suggestions for improving liquidity in and trading of security receipts.
–review the business models of ARCs.
Incorrect
The RBI recently set up a committee headed by Sudarshan Sen, former executive director, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to undertake a comprehensive review of the working of asset reconstruction companies (ARCs) in the financial sector ecosystem and recommend suitable measures for enabling them to meet the growing requirements. The panel will:
–review the existing legal and regulatory framework applicable to ARCs and recommend measures to improve efficacy of ARCs.
–review the role of ARCs in the resolution of stressed assets, including under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), and give suggestions for improving liquidity in and trading of security receipts.
–review the business models of ARCs.
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1. Revaluation is an official rise of the value of the currency in relation to a foreign currency in a fixed exchange rate system.
2. Currency depreciation is the loss of value of a country’s currency, typically in a floating exchange rate system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Revaluation is a change in a price of a good or product, or especially of a currency, in which case it is specifically an official rise of the value of the currency in relation to a foreign currency in a fixed exchange rate system.
Statement 2 is correct. Currency depreciation is the loss of value of a country’s currency with respect to one or more foreign reference currencies, typically in a floating exchange rate system in which no official currency value is maintained.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Revaluation is a change in a price of a good or product, or especially of a currency, in which case it is specifically an official rise of the value of the currency in relation to a foreign currency in a fixed exchange rate system.
Statement 2 is correct. Currency depreciation is the loss of value of a country’s currency with respect to one or more foreign reference currencies, typically in a floating exchange rate system in which no official currency value is maintained.
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyBitcoin has seen almost a 10-fold increase in its price since the last year. Which of the following factors has contributed to this surge?
- Increased institutional exposure to Bitcoin
- Global progress in fostering a friendlier legislative environment for cryptocurrencies
- Large supply reduction
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Private Cryptocurrencies are too volatile and pose a threat to India’s financial stability. For instance, Bitcoin’s price has risen more than 10-fold over the last year due to:
- Increased institutional exposure to Bitcoin
- Global progress in fostering a friendlier legislative environment for cryptocurrencies
- Large supply reduction coupled with increasing demand.
Incorrect
Private Cryptocurrencies are too volatile and pose a threat to India’s financial stability. For instance, Bitcoin’s price has risen more than 10-fold over the last year due to:
- Increased institutional exposure to Bitcoin
- Global progress in fostering a friendlier legislative environment for cryptocurrencies
- Large supply reduction coupled with increasing demand.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statement on digital currency.
- Cryptocurrencies alone is considered as a digital currency
- The digital transaction of money under net banking, UPI transfers is considered as a digitization of currency.
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Digital currencies include cryptocurrency, virtual currency and central bank digital currency
On the other hand, digital transaction of money under measures such as net banking, UPI transfer, NEFT etc are not considered as digitization of currency. This is because this money is the liability of banks and banks have to maintain reserves and deposits for such transactions.
Read more: Central Bank Digital Currency
Incorrect
Digital currencies include cryptocurrency, virtual currency and central bank digital currency
On the other hand, digital transaction of money under measures such as net banking, UPI transfer, NEFT etc are not considered as digitization of currency. This is because this money is the liability of banks and banks have to maintain reserves and deposits for such transactions.
Read more: Central Bank Digital Currency
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomySC Garg Committee was sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following exactly describes the committee?
Correct
- With the growth of digital currencies worldwide, various start-ups dealing with cryptocurrency have come up in India, such as Unocoin in 2013 and Zebpay in 2014. Further, their volatility is a cause of concern for India.
- The committee suggested a ban on private digital currencies, but it favors RBI backed National Digital Currency or central bank digital currency (CBDC). Further, the committee also drafted a bill Banning of Cryptocurrency & Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill.
Incorrect
- With the growth of digital currencies worldwide, various start-ups dealing with cryptocurrency have come up in India, such as Unocoin in 2013 and Zebpay in 2014. Further, their volatility is a cause of concern for India.
- The committee suggested a ban on private digital currencies, but it favors RBI backed National Digital Currency or central bank digital currency (CBDC). Further, the committee also drafted a bill Banning of Cryptocurrency & Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following pairs
- Sweden : Krona
- UAE : Sand Dollar
- China : e-RMB
Which of the above pair of cryptocurrencies are in correct?
Correct
- Sweden is conducting real-world trials of their digital currency (krona)
- The Bahamas already issued their digital currency “Sand Dollar” to all citizens
- China started a trial run of their digital currency e- RMB amid pandemic. They plan to implement pan-china in 2022. This is the first national digital currency operated by a major economy
Incorrect
- Sweden is conducting real-world trials of their digital currency (krona)
- The Bahamas already issued their digital currency “Sand Dollar” to all citizens
- China started a trial run of their digital currency e- RMB amid pandemic. They plan to implement pan-china in 2022. This is the first national digital currency operated by a major economy
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is a potential impact of weakening of rupee against the dollar?
- Imports will be costlier
- Increased inflation
- Reduction in cost of external borrowing
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Correct
- A weak rupee against the dollar makes imports costlier (Same commodity will cost more in dollars now). Some imports cannot be cut down such as oil, which can negatively affect India’s current account deficit.
- This also poses an inflationary risk given that imports are costlier when the currency depreciates. Costlier oil means costlier vegetables and groceries since transportation costs go up.
- The external borrowing costs for Indian firms also moves up due to rupee weakening. This may dampen industry borrowing and slower economic growth
Incorrect
- A weak rupee against the dollar makes imports costlier (Same commodity will cost more in dollars now). Some imports cannot be cut down such as oil, which can negatively affect India’s current account deficit.
- This also poses an inflationary risk given that imports are costlier when the currency depreciates. Costlier oil means costlier vegetables and groceries since transportation costs go up.
- The external borrowing costs for Indian firms also moves up due to rupee weakening. This may dampen industry borrowing and slower economic growth
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS):
- It involves tax avoidance by exploiting loopholes in taxation system of the countries
- BEPS has been deemed illegal globally
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: BEPS refers to “tax planning strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to make profits ‘disappear’ for tax purposes or to shift profits to locations where there is little or no real activity but the taxes are low resulting in little or no overall corporate tax being paid
- Statement 2 is incorrect: As per OECD, in most cases BEPS strategies are not illegal. Largely they just take advantage of current rules that are still grounded in a bricks and mortar economic environment rather than today’s environment of global players which is characterized by the increasing importance of intangibles and risk management. That said, some of the schemes used are illegal and tax administrations are fighting them.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: BEPS refers to “tax planning strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to make profits ‘disappear’ for tax purposes or to shift profits to locations where there is little or no real activity but the taxes are low resulting in little or no overall corporate tax being paid
- Statement 2 is incorrect: As per OECD, in most cases BEPS strategies are not illegal. Largely they just take advantage of current rules that are still grounded in a bricks and mortar economic environment rather than today’s environment of global players which is characterized by the increasing importance of intangibles and risk management. That said, some of the schemes used are illegal and tax administrations are fighting them.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following payment mode is/are the initiative of the National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI)?
- RuPay
- National Common Mobility Card
- Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
- Bharat Bill Payment System
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
Products of NPCI:
- RuPay: It is a domestic card scheme of India that has a magnetic stripe along with an EMV chip. The card is now accepted at all ATMs and has been issued cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India.
- National Common Mobility Card: It enables customers to make use of their existing Debit/Credit card for payments across all segments including metro, bus, suburban railways, toll, parking, smart city and retail. The service area feature of this card supports operator specific applications e.g. monthly passes, season tickets, etc
- Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM): Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a mobile payments application based on NPCI’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI). It provides the facility to easily send or receive money from other customers using the UPI.
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI): Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was introduced on 2016 as an instant inter-bank payment system. This payment system was developed to provide a mobile platform for instant transfer of funds between two bank accounts.
- Bharat Bill Payment System: The Bharat Bill Payment System is an initiative taken by NPCI along with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for payment of all bills. It will provide an interoperable and accessible bill payment service to its customers
Incorrect
Products of NPCI:
- RuPay: It is a domestic card scheme of India that has a magnetic stripe along with an EMV chip. The card is now accepted at all ATMs and has been issued cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India.
- National Common Mobility Card: It enables customers to make use of their existing Debit/Credit card for payments across all segments including metro, bus, suburban railways, toll, parking, smart city and retail. The service area feature of this card supports operator specific applications e.g. monthly passes, season tickets, etc
- Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM): Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a mobile payments application based on NPCI’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI). It provides the facility to easily send or receive money from other customers using the UPI.
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI): Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was introduced on 2016 as an instant inter-bank payment system. This payment system was developed to provide a mobile platform for instant transfer of funds between two bank accounts.
- Bharat Bill Payment System: The Bharat Bill Payment System is an initiative taken by NPCI along with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for payment of all bills. It will provide an interoperable and accessible bill payment service to its customers
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRBI has proposed creation of New Umbrella Entities, these entities are related to which one of the following areas?
Correct
The pan-India new umbrella entity(NUE) or entities will focus on retail payment systems with a minimum paid-up capital of Rs 500 crore.
However, the RBI will not permit any single promoter or group to hold more than 40% investment in the NUE. Also, the NUE should maintain a minimum net worth of Rs. 300 crore at all times.
Incorrect
The pan-India new umbrella entity(NUE) or entities will focus on retail payment systems with a minimum paid-up capital of Rs 500 crore.
However, the RBI will not permit any single promoter or group to hold more than 40% investment in the NUE. Also, the NUE should maintain a minimum net worth of Rs. 300 crore at all times.
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyDebt to GDP ratio is a key indicator of the economic situation of a country. Consider the statements below:
- Increase in public spending shall lead to a jump in Debt to GDP ratio
- The debt contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India is defined as public debt
- Government of India’s debt is managed by Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: The debt-to-GDP ratio is the metric comparing a country’s public debt to its gross domestic product (GDP). By comparing what a country owes with what it produces, the debt-to-GDP ratio reliably indicates that particular country’s ability to pay back its debts.
Statement 2 is correct: The Union government broadly classifies its liabilities into two broad categories. The debt contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India is defined as public debt and includes all other funds received outside Consolidated Fund of India under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution, where the government merely acts as a banker or custodian. The second type of liabilities is called public account.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934, the Reserve Bank is both the banker and public debt manager for the Union government. However, of late, there is a demand for creating a specialized agency for managing public debt as exists in some advanced economies. For instance, the NITI Aayog has advocated the creation of a separate public debt management agency (PDMA).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The debt-to-GDP ratio is the metric comparing a country’s public debt to its gross domestic product (GDP). By comparing what a country owes with what it produces, the debt-to-GDP ratio reliably indicates that particular country’s ability to pay back its debts.
Statement 2 is correct: The Union government broadly classifies its liabilities into two broad categories. The debt contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India is defined as public debt and includes all other funds received outside Consolidated Fund of India under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution, where the government merely acts as a banker or custodian. The second type of liabilities is called public account.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934, the Reserve Bank is both the banker and public debt manager for the Union government. However, of late, there is a demand for creating a specialized agency for managing public debt as exists in some advanced economies. For instance, the NITI Aayog has advocated the creation of a separate public debt management agency (PDMA).
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Currency Chests:
- These are branches of selected banksauthorisedby the RBI to stock rupee notes and coins.
- The money present in the currency chest belongs to the respective banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Currency chests are branches of selected banks authorised by the RBI to stock rupee notes and coins. The responsibility for managing the currency in circulation is vested in the RBI. The central bank advises the Centre on the number of notes to be printed, the currency denominations, security features and so on.
Statement 2 is incorrect. These chests are usually situated on the premises of different banks but administrated by the RBI. Representatives of the RBI inspect currency chests time-to-time, and update their senior officers about it. The money present in the currency chest belongs to the RBI and the money, kept in the strong room outside the currency chest belongs to the bank.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Currency chests are branches of selected banks authorised by the RBI to stock rupee notes and coins. The responsibility for managing the currency in circulation is vested in the RBI. The central bank advises the Centre on the number of notes to be printed, the currency denominations, security features and so on.
Statement 2 is incorrect. These chests are usually situated on the premises of different banks but administrated by the RBI. Representatives of the RBI inspect currency chests time-to-time, and update their senior officers about it. The money present in the currency chest belongs to the RBI and the money, kept in the strong room outside the currency chest belongs to the bank.
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)”:
- Organic products of Small and medium-sized enterprises including Poultry Meat and Egg Products are also covered under the scheme.
- Scheme will be implemented over a six-year period from 2021-22 to 2026-27.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Union Cabinet has approved the Central Sector Scheme – “Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)”.
–The first component relates to incentivising manufacturing of four major food product segments viz. Ready to Cook/ Ready to Eat (RTC/ RTE) foods, Processed Fruits & Vegetables, Marine Products, Mozzarella Cheese.
–Innovative/ Organic products of SMEs including Free Range -Eggs, Poultry Meat, Egg Products in these segments are also covered under above component.
–The second component relates to support for branding and marketing abroad to incentivise emergence of strong Indian brands.
–For promotion of Indian Brand abroad, the scheme envisages grant to the applicant entities for – in store Branding, shelf space renting and marketing.
–Scheme will be implemented over a six-year period from 2021-22 to 2026-27.
Incorrect
The Union Cabinet has approved the Central Sector Scheme – “Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)”.
–The first component relates to incentivising manufacturing of four major food product segments viz. Ready to Cook/ Ready to Eat (RTC/ RTE) foods, Processed Fruits & Vegetables, Marine Products, Mozzarella Cheese.
–Innovative/ Organic products of SMEs including Free Range -Eggs, Poultry Meat, Egg Products in these segments are also covered under above component.
–The second component relates to support for branding and marketing abroad to incentivise emergence of strong Indian brands.
–For promotion of Indian Brand abroad, the scheme envisages grant to the applicant entities for – in store Branding, shelf space renting and marketing.
–Scheme will be implemented over a six-year period from 2021-22 to 2026-27.
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS):
- All Scheduled Commercial Banks are eligible as Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) under the scheme.
- No additional collateral is asked for by lending institutions for credit extended under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) is a specific response to the unprecedented situation COVID-19. It seeks to provide much needed relief to the MSME sector by incentivizing Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) to provide additional credit of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores at low cost, thereby enabling MSMEs to meet their operational liabilities and restart their businesses.
All Scheduled Commercial Banks are eligible as MLIs. NBFCs which have been in operation for at least 2 years and d Financial Institutions (FIs) will also be eligible as MLIs under the Scheme.
Statement 2 is correct. The entire funding provided under the scheme shall be provided with a 100% credit guarantee coverage by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) under the Scheme. No additional collateral shall be asked by MLIs for additional credit extended under GECL.
# In recognition of the continuing adverse impact of COVID-19 pandemic on certain service sectors, the Government has now extended the scope of ECLGS through introduction of ECLGS 3.0 to cover business enterprises in Hospitality, Travel & Tourism, Leisure & Sporting sectors.
# Further, the validity of ECLGS i.e. ECLGS 1.0, ECLGS 2.0 & ECLGS 3.0 have been extended up to 30.06.2021 or till guarantees for an amount of Rs. 3 lakh crores are issued.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) is a specific response to the unprecedented situation COVID-19. It seeks to provide much needed relief to the MSME sector by incentivizing Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) to provide additional credit of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores at low cost, thereby enabling MSMEs to meet their operational liabilities and restart their businesses.
All Scheduled Commercial Banks are eligible as MLIs. NBFCs which have been in operation for at least 2 years and d Financial Institutions (FIs) will also be eligible as MLIs under the Scheme.
Statement 2 is correct. The entire funding provided under the scheme shall be provided with a 100% credit guarantee coverage by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) under the Scheme. No additional collateral shall be asked by MLIs for additional credit extended under GECL.
# In recognition of the continuing adverse impact of COVID-19 pandemic on certain service sectors, the Government has now extended the scope of ECLGS through introduction of ECLGS 3.0 to cover business enterprises in Hospitality, Travel & Tourism, Leisure & Sporting sectors.
# Further, the validity of ECLGS i.e. ECLGS 1.0, ECLGS 2.0 & ECLGS 3.0 have been extended up to 30.06.2021 or till guarantees for an amount of Rs. 3 lakh crores are issued.
Discover more from Free UPSC IAS Preparation Syllabus and Materials For Aspirants
Subscribe to get the latest posts sent to your email.