Indian Polity MCQ Quiz For UPSC

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.

: The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.

Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.

The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.

Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals

Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.

On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.

Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:

JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;

and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;

IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:

(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.

Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]

The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:

(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.

Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.

-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.

-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.

Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.

In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).

Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.

In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.

Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.

The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:

–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;

–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;

–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;

–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.

Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.

Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.

In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.

Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th

State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals

Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.

On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.

Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:

JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;

and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;

IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.

Regulating Act, 1833 was the final step towards centralization in British India.

The features of this Act were as follows:

• It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.
• It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations, while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
• It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

Source: Laxmikanth

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 239AA provides for special provisions with respect to Delhi which mentions that from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory of Delhi is called the National Capital Territory of Delhi (further referred to as the National Capital Territory).

Statement 2 is incorrect. First Schedule of the Constitution provides: Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction as well as names of the Union Territories and their extent.

It does not mention capital cities of the states.

The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has, its laws, institutions, policies, etc., result in different distributions of benefits and burdens across members of the society.

The structure of these frameworks is important because the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting from them fundamentally affect people’s lives. Principles of distributive justice are therefore best thought of as providing moral guidance for the political processes and structures that affect the distribution of benefits and burdens in societies.

Distributive principles vary in numerous dimensions. They vary in what is considered relevant to distributive justice (income, wealth, opportunities, jobs, welfare, utility, etc.); in the nature of the recipients of the distribution (individual persons, groups of persons, reference classes, etc.); and on what basis the distribution should be made (equality, maximization, according to individual characteristics, according to free transactions, etc.).

In 1951 the University of Madras invited Jennings to deliver a series of lectures on the just born Indian Constitution.

 Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, one of the chief architects of the Constitution, attended them and stayed through all his lectures which Jennings delivered in parts on three successive days.

 Jennings began his address by summing up India’s Constitution in one cynical sentence: “Too long, too rigid, too prolix.” Over the course of three lectures, Jennings elaborated on his views

• He focused on some primary aspects: The Constitution’s rigidity and its superfluous provisions; fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy; and, finally, key aspects of India’s federalism.

 Jennings finally handed down a largely unfavourable verdict. India’s Constitution, he declared, was “far too large and therefore far too rigid”, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations.

The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Sindhi (added by 21st Amendment Act, 1967) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (added by 71st Amendment Act, 1992), Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santal (added by 92nd Amendment 2003). The list had originally 14 languages only but subsequently through amendments 8 new languages were added.

Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.

 The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

 The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens. At present, only Assam has such a register.

 The exercise may be extended to other states as well

• Nagaland is already creating a similar database known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants.

 The Centre is planning to create a National Population Register (NPR), which will contain demographic and biometric details of citizens.

 The NRC will be updated as per the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.

Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.

Some of the key features of federalism:

 There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.

 Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.

 The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.

 The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.

 Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.

 Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.

 The federal system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and promote unity of the country, while at the same time accommodate regional diversity

Features of the Act:

 It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.

 Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.

 Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.

 It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.

 The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.

 It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.

 It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

 The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company.

 However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.

Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.

The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]

Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.

Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.

Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]

Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.

Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.

Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.

# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.

The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]

Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]

Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]

Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.

Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.

Both statements are incorrect.

As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.

Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]

Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.

Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.

Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—

–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;

–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;

–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and

–to administer such property in accordance with law.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 22 (2) every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest. However, Article 22 (3) provides exception in case of preventive detention detainees and enemy aliens from the said clause.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the article 22(4), no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:

-an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention;

-or such person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by Parliament.

All of the above are provided for in the Constitution of India.

Article 15 provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Further article the clause 15(3) sates that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

Clause 15(4) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Clause 15(6)(a) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.

Both statements are correct.

Article 25, providing for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, under clause 25(1) states that ‘subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion’.

Similar exception is provided under article 26 regarding freedom to manage religious affairs.

Sub-clause 25(2)(a) provide for power of the state for making any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(2) provides for State’s power with regard to Right to Freedom of Religion. It empowers State to make any law—

-regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;

– providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.

The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 26 of the Constitution provides that ‘subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—

-to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;

-to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;

-to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and

-to administer such property in accordance with law

Both statements are incorrect. The definitions of vertical and horizontal reservations have been interchanged in the above statements.

In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 1992 case, the principle of reservations in India was explained.

There are two types of reservations, which are often referred to as vertical reservations and horizontal reservations. The reservations in favour of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes [under Article 16(4)] may be called vertical reservations whereas reservations in favour of physically handicapped [under Article 16(1)] and women [under Article 15(3)] can be referred to as horizontal reservations.

Horizontal reservations cut across the vertical reservations, what is called interlocking reservations.

# Suppose 3% of the vacancies are reserved in favour of physically handicapped persons; the persons selected against this quota will be placed in the appropriate category; if she belongs to SC category he will be placed in that quota by making necessary adjustments; similarly, if she belongs to open competition (OC) category, she will be placed in that category by making necessary adjustments.

# Even after providing for these horizontal reservations, the percentage of reservations in favour of Backward Class of citizens remains and should remain the same.

The rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable; the original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties

• In other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution.

 However, they incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity.

 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.

 Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.

 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.

The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.

 In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.

 What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.

 The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.

The relevant Articles of the Constitution which govern the entire reservation set up are the following:

 Article 16(4): Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.

 Article 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.

 Article 335: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.

The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.

Socialistic principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. They direct the state:

1. To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—social, economic and political—and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
2. To secure

 The right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;

 The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;

 Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;

 Equal pay for equal work for men and women;

 Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and

 Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
2. To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
3. To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
4. To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
5. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
6. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).

NOTE: Article 48 – The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle – represent both Gandhian and liberal–intellectual principles.

: The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct.

1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.

Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]

Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.

Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)]

Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.

Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.

Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]

Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)]

In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable.
• The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.
• As Bagehot points out, ‘the cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together.’
• Hence, the whole system of government goes against the letter and spirit of the theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers.

Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.

Both statements are correct.
As per the provisions of the Constitution under Article 341:
Clause (1); President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Clause (2); Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under the clause given above any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.

Under article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means Rajya Sabha cannot make or unmake the Government.
• It can, however, exercise control over the Government and this function becomes quite prominent, particularly when the Government does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha.
• Ministers may belong to either House of Parliament. The Constitution does not make any distinction between the Houses in this regard.
• Every Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House but he is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
• Similarly, with regard to powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees thereof, the two Houses are placed absolutely on equal footing by the Constitution.
• Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. In respect of receiving reports and papers from various statutory authorities, etc., both Houses have equal powers.

In a parliamentary democracy, Parliament has broadly two functions, which are lawmaking and oversight of the executive branch of the government.
• Parliament is the embodiment of the people’s will. Committees (Parliamentary standing committees) are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
• Given the volume of legislative business, discussing all Bills under the consideration of Parliament in detail on the floor of the House is impossible.
• Committees are platforms for threadbare discussion on a proposed law.
• At least in principle, the assumption is that the smaller cohort of lawmakers, assembled on the basis of the proportional strength of individual parties and interests and expertise of individual lawmakers, could have more open, intensive and better informed discussions.
• Committee meetings are ‘closed door’ and members are not bound by party whips, which allows them the latitude for a more meaningful exchange of views as against discussions in full and open Houses where grandstanding and party positions invariably take precedence.

The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:
• Presentation of budget.
• General discussion.
• Scrutiny by departmental committees.
• Voting on demands for grants.
• Passing of appropriation bill.
• Passing of finance bill.

The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the
following legislative powers.
•He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can
also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
•He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after
each general election and the first session of each year.
•He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill
pending in the Parliament or otherwise.
•He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly,
he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
•He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social
service.
•He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
NOTE: The adjournment is done by presiding officers (speaker / deputy speaker in Lok
Sabha and Chairman / Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha).

The Prime Minister of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds
office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president
can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the
majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for
the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime
Minister shall be appointed by the president

The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing
Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
•Committee on Petitions
•Committee on Privileges
•Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinise and control:
•Committee on Government Assurances
•Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
•Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
•Business advisory committee
•Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
•House Committee
•General Purpose Committee
•Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha

The judicial powers and functions of the Parliament include the following:
•It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
•It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
•It can recommend the removal of judges (including chief justice) of the Supreme
Court and the high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller and auditor
general to the president.
•It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt.

Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of
public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned. The questions
are of four types:—
•Starred Questions- A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral
answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by
supplementary questions by members.
•Unstarred Questions- an Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is
desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by
Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary
question can be asked thereon.
•Short Notice Questions- A member may give a notice of question on a matter of
public importance and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10
days prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in ordinary
course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’.
•Questions to Private Members- A Question may also be addressed to a Private
Member (Under Rule 40 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha), provided that the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill,
Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that
Member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such questions is same as that
followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the
Speaker may consider necessary.

Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that
the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign
his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as
Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment
as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit.

Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires
an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a
question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer
in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To
such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the
Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and
can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary
question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary
questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is
asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to
the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall,
as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and
Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party
members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House
of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall
not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first
sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or
either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third
of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint
sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing
Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the
Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the
Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports
thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court are charged uponConsolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202]

Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)]

‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’.

The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances.

Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

President of India in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India appoints the Judges of High Courts in India.
The provisions relating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been struck down by the Supreme Court vide its order dated the 16th October, 2015 in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association and Another Vs. Union of India.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court are charged uponConsolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202]

Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)]

‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’.

The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances.

Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

President of India in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India appoints the Judges of High Courts in India.
The provisions relating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been struck down by the Supreme Court vide its order dated the 16th October, 2015 in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association and Another Vs. Union of India.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 130 provides for the Seat of Supreme Court: The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 131A was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 which provided for exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to questions as to constitutional validity of Central laws. This provision was later omitted by the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution. The Contempt of Court Act outlines the procedure in relation to investigation and punishment for contempt. The Act additionally allows the High Court to punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
Statement 2 is correct. Fair criticism of judicial act and accurate report of judicial proceeding does not amount to its contempt. A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court for publishing any fair comment on the merits of any case which has been heard and finally decided.

All of the above are part of the Doctrine of Proportionality.
In the nine-judge Bench judgement of the Supreme Court in Justice KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India, in which the Court upheld privacy as a fundamental right, proportionality can be ascertained on the basis of the following:
-the action must be sanctioned by law;
-the proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;
-the extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference;
-there must be procedural guarantees against abuse of such interference.

The Supreme Court recently held that the state is well within its rights to introduce a regulatory regime in the “national interest” to provide minority educational institutions with well-qualified teachers in order for them to “achieve excellence in education.”
• The managements of minority institutions cannot ignore such a legal regime by saying that it is their fundamental right under Article 30 of the Constitution to establish and administer their educational institutions according to their choice.
• “When it comes to the right to appoint teachers, in terms of law laid down in the TMA Pai Foundation case, a regulation framed in the national interest must necessarily apply to all institutions regardless whether they are run by majority or minority as the essence of Article 30(1) is to ensure equal treatment between the majority and minority institutions.
• An objection can certainly be raised if an unfavourable treatment is meted out to an educational institution established and administered by minority.
• But if ensuring of excellence in educational institutions is the underlying principle behind a regulatory regime and the mechanism of selection of teachers is so designed to achieve excellence in institutions, the matter may stand on a completely different footing”.

Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
• Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all.
• In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Ac was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body that has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act.

Amid nationwide protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, or CAA, 2019, and the threat of non-cooperation by some States with the Central government’s plan to update the National Population Register (NPR) and possibly establish a National Register of Indian Citizens, Kerala has filed a suit in the Supreme Court of India seeking to declare the CAA as unconstitutional.
• Meanwhile, Chhattisgarh has also filed a similar suit, challenging the constitutional validity of the National Investigation Agency Act.
• Both have invoked Article 131, which confers exclusive jurisdiction on the top court to adjudicate disputes between two or more States, or between States and the Centre.
• Article 131 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in disputes involving States, or the Centre on the one hand and one or more States on the other. This means no other court can entertain such a dispute.
• It is well-known that both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the State and Central governments.
• In particular, the validity of any executive or legislative action is normally challenged by way of writ petitions — under Article 226 of the Constitution in respect of High Courts, and, in respect to fundamental rights violations, under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in different states.
• At present, it has 17 regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of high courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow.
• These benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of high courts.
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.
• Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services.
• However, the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
• The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
• These principles keep the CAT flexible in approach. Only a nominal fee of 50 is to be paid by the applicant. The applicant may appear either in person or through a lawyer.

A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. (A) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (B) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (C) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.

NATIONAL LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITY (NALSA) VS UNION OF INDIA case was filed by the NALSA to legally recognize persons who fall outside the male/female gender binary, including persons who identify as “third gender”.
•This was a landmark decision where the apex court legally recognised “third gender”/transgender persons for the first time and discussed “gender identity” at length.
•The Court recognised that third gender persons were entitled to fundamental rights under the Constitution and under International law.
•Further, it directed state governments to develop mechanisms to realise the rights of “third gender”/transgender persons.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a
court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish
for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence
of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court
are charged upon Consolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is
charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202]

Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme
Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a
Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a
High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be,
in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall
not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address
by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House
and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and
voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the
ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address
and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971

Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government, further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.

Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members.

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020.

Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution. Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
–the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
–the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.

: Both statements are correct.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh have submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the President.
As per the terms of reference (ToR), the Commission was mandated to give its recommendations for five years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 by 30 October, 2020. Last year, the Commission had submitted its report containing recommendations for the year 2020-21 which was accepted by the Union Government and tabled in the Parliament on 30 January
2020.
Apart from the vertical and horizontal tax devolution, local government grants, disaster management grant, the Commission was also asked to examine and recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.
The Commission was also asked to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so, how such a mechanism could be operationalized. The Commission has sought to address all its ToRs in this Report to the Union government.

Both statements are correct.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. [Article 280(2)]
The President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament. [Article 281]

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971

Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government, further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.

Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members.

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020.

Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution. Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
–the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
–the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.

Both statements are correct.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh have submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the President.
As per the terms of reference (ToR), the Commission was mandated to give its recommendations for five years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 by 30 October, 2020. Last year, the Commission had submitted its report containing recommendations for the year 2020-21 which was accepted by the Union Government and tabled in the Parliament on 30 January
2020.
Apart from the vertical and horizontal tax devolution, local government grants, disaster management grant, the Commission was also asked to examine and recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.
The Commission was also asked to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so, how such a mechanism could be operationalized. The Commission has sought to address all its ToRs in this Report to the Union government.

Both statements are correct.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. [Article 280(2)]
The President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament. [Article 281]

Both statements are correct.
As per the article 148 of the Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from his/her office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
As per clause (4) of article 148, the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office.

In 1993, the Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act.
• The purpose of the Act was to establish an institutional framework that could effectively protect, promote and fulfil the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.
• To this end, the Act created a National Human Rights Commission, and also, Human Rights Commissions at the levels of the various States.
• Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the Human Rights Commissions are empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities, either upon petitions presented to them, or upon their own initiative.
• While conducting these inquiries, the Commissions are granted identical powers to that of civil courts, such as the examining witnesses, ordering for documents, receiving evidence, and so on.
• These proceedings are deemed to be judicial proceedings, and they require that any person, who may be prejudicially affected by their outcome, has a right to be heard.
• The controversy before the Madras High Court stems from the issue of what is to be done after the Human Rights Commission completes its enquiry, and reaches a conclusion that human rights have been violated.
• Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act empowers the Human Rights Commission to “recommend” to the concerned government to grant compensation to the victim, to initiate prosecution against the erring state authorities, to grant interim relief, and to take various other steps.

The CGA is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India. The office is in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. Controller General of Accounts derives his mandate from Article 150 of the Constitution. This statutory mandate as incorporated in the Allocation of Business Rules 1961.

 The office of the CGA has the mandate to establish and maintain a technically sound Management Accounting system.

 It also prepares and submits the accounts of the Central Government.

It is also in charge of the exchequer control and internal audits.

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and the state.
• His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
• The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.

National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT was established in the year 2010
under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 to dispose of civil cases relating to
environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, including
enforcement of any legal rights related to the environment (National Green Tribunal). The
Act was enacted through the Parliament of India, under the provision of Article 21 of the
Constitution of India, which emphasizes the right to live in a clean and healthy
environment.
Goods & Service Tax Council: As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the
GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of
Article 279A. The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th
September, 2016 was issued on 10th September, 2016.
Central Administrative Tribunal: The Central Administrative Tribunal had been
established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution for adjudication of disputes and
complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government.

Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on
the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K.
Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive
authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising
various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing
and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members.

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President
by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner
and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the
performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the
keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary
in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit
the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971

Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the
Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One
Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted,
forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as
NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed
by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially
and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards
of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and
educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy
matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]