Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

[Solutions] Saturday CSAT Quiz #12

saturday-solution

[Solutions]

Q.1) A batsman in his 17th innings makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his average by 3. What is his average after 17 innings?

a) 35

b) 37

c) 38

d) 39

Ans-[B]

Let the average after 16th innings be x, then 16x + 85 = 17(x+3)=Total score after 17th innings. Therefore, x = 85­51 = 34. Average after 17 innings = x+3 = 34+3 = 37

 

Q.2) One­-third of a certain journey is covered at the rate of 25 km/hr, one-­fourth at the rate of 30 km/hr and the rest at 50 km/her. Find the average speed for the whole journey.

a) 33

b) 37

c) 35

d) 40

Ans-[A]

Let the total journey be x km. Then x/3 km at the speed of 25 km/hr and x/4 at 30 km/hr and the rest distance (x­x/3­x/4) i.e. 5x/12 at the speed of 50 km/hr Since Time=Distance/Speed, Therefore: Total time taken during the journey of x km = x/(3X25) + x/(4X30) + 5x/(12X50) = 18x/600 hrs =

3x/100 hrs ∴ Average speed = x/(18x/600) = 100/3 = 33km/hr

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

Statement1: All woods are jungles. All movie stars are actors

Statement 2: No jungles is trees. No actor is singers

Statement 3: Some trees are flowers. Some singers are dancers

Which of the following logically follows from the above?

1. Some trees are woods. Some singers are movie stars

2. Some jungles are woods. Some actors are movie stars

3. Some flowers are jungles. Some dancers are actors

Select the answer from the codes given below:

a) Only 1 follows

b) Only 2 follows

c)Only 3 follows

d) Only 1 and 2 follows

Ans- [B]

 

Directions: Read the passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

The male­ dominated corporate world needs more women on top. There’s no arguing there. But is the observable trend of “forced hiring” ­ to showcase women’s presence in company boards regardless of merit ­ the way to champion gender parity? It’s good if firms truly want greater women’s representation at senior management levels. But, as many women corporate leaders point out, such reward will remain ornamental, quota­- style, if firms just want to be faddish or politically correct. Blinking at meritocracy to push women up the corporate rungs for appearance’s sake accords decorative status, not real authority.

Some firms are said to set aside CVs from qualified male applicants to favour women. This is unfair: posts should be filled by suitable candidates irrespective of gender. It’s also an insult to educated and ambitious women who can compete on the basis of their competence. True, women are discriminated against in terms of recruitment, salaries and promotions. And they face the ubiquitous glass ceiling barring them from board­level positions. However, women becoming directors or CEOs as part of corporate PR exercises won’t root out gender bias in the workplace. It’ll merely help companies better conceal such bias.

No wonder many business representatives say gender diversity should flow from a merit ­based corporate strategy. Some suggest mid­level women executives be retrained for bigger remits. Others call for encouraging girls to join business schools, and greater social support for career women with families. The fact is, qualified women are mounting the corporate ladder in increasing numbers without their employers relinquishing gender ­neutrality. Indeed, the more transparently performance ­based industry is, the more deserving people can succeed. Women have already soared in areas from banking to biotech, hospitality to health, becoming role models for society. Talent needs a level playing field to shine. Spare women the tokenism that does them more harm than good.

Q.4) What does the author imply by “Blinking at meritocracy to push women up the corporate rungs for appearance’s sake accords decorative status, not real authority.”?

a) Overlooking merit to promote women does not accord them their true status

b) Overlooking merit in order to promote women as part of corporate practice is more of a safe play move and not something that boasts power and responsibility

c) Considering merits while pushing women up the corporate ladder is part of corporate practice

d) Considering merits while pushing women up the corporate ladder does not accord them real authority

Ans-[B]

Explanation-According to the given statement, corporate hire women at higher levels not on the basis of their merit, but to be politically correct and to display gender diversity in their organization. Hiring women on this basis does not accord them the true power and authority that they deserve. This is aptly described by option (b).

 

Q.5) Why is the setting aside of CVs from qualified male applicants, an insult to educated and ambitious women?

1. It indicates women are incompetent and not able enough to make a mark of their own

2. It indicates women’s abilities are underestimated.

3. It indicates that gender disparity still exists in every phase of society

4. It indicates that women are merely treated as a showpiece rather than as smart, independent individuals

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans-[A]

Explanation-CVs from qualified male applicants are set aside in order to favour women who are considered, by the male dominated society, in need of extra support in order to climb up the corporate rung. This indicates that, according to the corporate, women are incompetent and not able enough to make a mark of their own. Hence statement I and II holds true. Gender disparity implies not according equal status to women. If this statement were true, CVs from qualified male applicants would not have been set aside to favour women. It is nowhere stated or implied that women are treated as a showpiece

 

Q.6) Suggest a suitable title for the given passage:

a) No tokenism, please

b) Need to break the glass ceiling

c) Woman Power

d) All of the above

Ans-[A]

Explanation- The primary purpose of the passage is to showcase how women are qualified and able enough to be hired and to take authority on the basis of their merits alone, and such corporate handouts are not required by them.

 

Q.7) Three friends, returning from a movie, stop to eat at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bills and were served mints on the table. Ram took 1/3rd of the mints, but returned four as he felt he had taken too much. Shyam then took 1/4th of what was left but returned three for similar reasons. Ravi then took half of the remainder but threw two back into the bowl. The bowl now had only 17 mints left. How many mints were originally in the bowl?

a) 38

b) 31

c) 41

d) None of these

Ans-[D]

Explanation-The number of mints should be divisible by 3 and none of them are so [d]

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

Saturday CSAT Quiz #12

saturday

[Questions]

Q.1) A batsman in his 17th innings makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his average by 3. What is his average after 17 innings?

a) 35

b) 37

c) 38

d) 39

 

Q.2) One­-third of a certain journey is covered at the rate of 25 km/hr, one-­fourth at the rate of 30 km/hr and the rest at 50 km/her. Find the average speed for the whole journey.

a) 33

b) 37

c) 35

d) 40

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

Statement1: All woods are jungles. All movie stars are actors

Statement 2: No jungles is trees. No actor is singers

Statement 3: Some trees are flowers. Some singers are dancers

Which of the following logically follows from the above?

1. Some trees are woods. Some singers are movie stars

2. Some jungles are woods. Some actors are movie stars

3. Some flowers are jungles. Some dancers are actors

Select the answer from the codes given below:

a) Only 1 follows

b) Only 2 follows

c)Only 3 follows

d) Only 1 and 2 follows

 

Directions: Read the passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

The male­ dominated corporate world needs more women on top. There’s no arguing there. But is the observable trend of “forced hiring” ­ to showcase women’s presence in company boards regardless of merit ­ the way to champion gender parity? It’s good if firms truly want greater women’s representation at senior management levels. But, as many women corporate leaders point out, such reward will remain ornamental, quota­- style, if firms just want to be faddish or politically correct. Blinking at meritocracy to push women up the corporate rungs for appearance’s sake accords decorative status, not real authority.

Some firms are said to set aside CVs from qualified male applicants to favour women. This is unfair: posts should be filled by suitable candidates irrespective of gender. It’s also an insult to educated and ambitious women who can compete on the basis of their competence. True, women are discriminated against in terms of recruitment, salaries and promotions. And they face the ubiquitous glass ceiling barring them from board­level positions. However, women becoming directors or CEOs as part of corporate PR exercises won’t root out gender bias in the workplace. It’ll merely help companies better conceal such bias.

No wonder many business representatives say gender diversity should flow from a merit ­based corporate strategy. Some suggest mid­level women executives be retrained for bigger remits. Others call for encouraging girls to join business schools, and greater social support for career women with families. The fact is, qualified women are mounting the corporate ladder in increasing numbers without their employers relinquishing gender ­neutrality. Indeed, the more transparently performance ­based industry is, the more deserving people can succeed. Women have already soared in areas from banking to biotech, hospitality to health, becoming role models for society. Talent needs a level playing field to shine. Spare women the tokenism that does them more harm than good.

Q.4) What does the author imply by “Blinking at meritocracy to push women up the corporate rungs for appearance’s sake accords decorative status, not real authority.”?

a) Overlooking merit to promote women does not accord them their true status

b) Overlooking merit in order to promote women as part of corporate practice is more of a safe play move and not something that boasts power and responsibility

c) Considering merits while pushing women up the corporate ladder is part of corporate practice

d) Considering merits while pushing women up the corporate ladder does not accord them real authority

 

Q.5) Why is the setting aside of CVs from qualified male applicants, an insult to educated and ambitious women?

1. It indicates women are incompetent and not able enough to make a mark of their own

2. It indicates women’s abilities are underestimated.

3. It indicates that gender disparity still exists in every phase of society

4. It indicates that women are merely treated as a showpiece rather than as smart, independent individuals

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q.6) Suggest a suitable title for the given passage:

a) No tokenism, please

b) Need to break the glass ceiling

c) Woman Power

d) All of the above

 

Q.7) Three friends, returning from a movie, stop to eat at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bills and were served mints on the table. Ram took 1/3rd of the mints, but returned four as he felt he had taken too much. Shyam then took 1/4th of what was left but returned three for similar reasons. Ravi then took half of the remainder but threw two back into the bowl. The bowl now had only 17 mints left. How many mints were originally in the bowl?

a) 38

b) 31

c) 41

d) None of these

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

[Solutions] Saturday CSAT Quiz #11

saturday-solution

[Solutions]

Directions: Read the passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

 The Constitution has facilitated the political participation of SCs/STs (dalits and adivasis) through three measures: Fundamental Right to equality granted to citizens, abolition of discrimination including untouchability, and special provision for their representation in legislature. These rights and entitlements, however, have not resulted in effective political participation and removal of their sense of political marginalization. Though both groups face exclusionary practices, dalits and adivasis are differently placed in respect of their social situation. Dalits are exposed continuously to the domination of other castes hostile to them.

They are also socially and economically dependent upon these very castes in their day today life. They have, therefore, little autonomy to act on their own in any matter. Adivasis, by and large, are distanced from dominant non ­tribal communities and have considerable space to act autonomously. The political equality in respect of dalits is compromised in various ways. The exercise of the right to vote without fear or favour is widely frustrated both by untouchability practices and exertion of dominance by ‘higher’ caste groups. The absence of public buildings to serve as a polling booth near the cluster of dalits prevents this option being exercised on a large scale, even where the local officials are motivated to provide such a booth. Dalit votes are frequently ‘captured’ en masse. Both discrimination and dominance affect the exercise of the right to contest elections, which severely circumscribes dalit freedom. Threatening dalit aspirants not to contest the election, forcing them to withdraw their candidature if they file their nomination, and assaulting them and their supporters if they persist in their political assertion, are quite common.

Q1. Which of the following is/are the specific provisions for the SCs and STs

1. Fundamental Right to Equality

2. Abolition of discrimination including untouchability

3. Special provision for their representation in legislature

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Ans -[B]

Statement 1 is common to all the citizens. Hence B is the right answer.

 

Q2. According to the passage, dalits and adivasis are:

1. Differently placed in social order.

2. One and the same.

3. Dalits are dominant and adivasis are distanced from the society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Ans-[A]

The statement 1 can be inferred from “dalits and adivasis are differently placed in respect of their social situation.” and Statement 3 is wrong because Dalits are dependent upon the other hostile castes in their day to day life.

 

Q3. Which of the following observation suggests that the political equality of dalits is being compromised?

1. Untouchability practices.

2. Exertion of dominance by ‘higher’ caste groups.

3. Discrimination and authority.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 only

b) 2, 3 only

c) 1, 3 only

d) All the above

Ans-[D]

All the statements can be easily identified in the 2nd paragraph of the given passage.

 

Q4. A family has 6 members. The average age of all the members is 18 years. The youngest member is 8 years old. What is the average age of the family during the birth of the youngest member?

a) 10 years

b) 14 years

c) 12 years

d) 15 years

Ans-[C]

Solution: The sum of ages of all the members = 18 X 6 = 108.
The sum of ages except the youngest member = 108 – 8 = 100
8 years before the sum of ages of 5 members = 100 – (8X5) = 100 – 40 = 60

The average age before 8 years = 60 / 5 = 12 years.

 

Q5. Tanu had to travel certain distance. She travels half of the distance by bike at a speed of 30 km/hr and the remaining half by bus at a speed of 40 km/hr. If she took 14 hours for the whole journey, what is the total distance travelled?

a) 240 km

b) 400 km

c) 480 km

d) 490 km

Ans-[C]

Solution: Let 2x be the total distance. First half is covered at 30 km/hr. Time taken for first half = x/30

Time taken for second half = x/40 Total time taken = 14 = x/30 + x/40 70x = 14

1200
x = 240

Total distance = 480 km

 

Q6. Which of the following number comes next in the sequence 34, 41, 46, 56, 67…?

a) 79

b) 80

c) 77

d) 81

Ans-[B]

Solution: The logic behind the sequence is: sum of digits of previous term is added to the previous term. 3+4=7, 34+7=41

4+1=5, 41+5=46
4+6=10, 46+10=56

Similarly
6+7=13, 67+13=80

 

Directions for the following 4 items:
Read the following information carefully and answer the 4 items that follow.

A 5 member student welfare committee is being setup in a college. The committee must compose of 2 representatives of management, 2 representatives of students and an independent specialist in student relations.
– The management representatives must be chosen from A, B and C.
– The student representatives must be chosen from X, Y and Z.
– Either G or H must be chosen from independent specialist. ­ C cannot serve together with X.
– X cannot serve together with Z.
– B cannot serve unless H serves at the same time.

Q7. Which of the following people must be selected to the committee?

a) X

b) Y

c) A

d) B

Ans- [B]

Solution: X and Z cannot serve together. Hence the two combinations of student representatives will be XY or YZ. Hence Y must be chosen.

 

Q8. Which of the following group of people can form the committee?

a) A, C, X, Z, G

b) A, B, Y, Z, G

c) B, C, X, Y, H

d) A, B, X, Y, H

Ans-[D]

Solution:  Option (a) cannot be chosen since C cannot serve together X. Similarly options (b) and (c) do not satisfy the given conditions. Only (d) is the correct combination.

 

Q9. If G is selected as one of the member, the 4 people who can be chosen to serve together will be

a) B, C, Y, Z

b) A, B, X, Y

c) A, C, Y, Z

d) A, C, X, Y

Ans-[C]

Solution: Only option (c) is correct as per the given conditions.

 

Q10. If X and Y are chosen as the representatives, which of the following statements must be true?

1. H is chosen to serve the committee

2. Both A and B are chosen to represent the management

3. G is chosen to serve the committee

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2  only

Ans-[D]

Solution: If X is member C cannot be a member. Hence A and B have to be chosen. For B to be there on the committee H has to be chosen and G cannot be chosen.

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

Saturday CSAT Quiz #11

saturday

Good morning everyone,

How is your preparation going for UPSC IAS Prelims Examination, 2016. We, ForumIAS team believe that you have been regularly assessing yourself by attempting the quiz daily. Attempt the today’s CSAT test and write your answers in comment section.

[Questions]

Directions: Read the passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

 The Constitution has facilitated the political participation of SCs/STs (dalits and adivasis) through three measures: Fundamental Right to equality granted to citizens, abolition of discrimination including untouchability, and special provision for their representation in legislature. These rights and entitlements, however, have not resulted in effective political participation and removal of their sense of political marginalization. Though both groups face exclusionary practices, dalits and adivasis are differently placed in respect of their social situation. Dalits are exposed continuously to the domination of other castes hostile to them.

They are also socially and economically dependent upon these very castes in their day today life. They have, therefore, little autonomy to act on their own in any matter. Adivasis, by and large, are distanced from dominant non ­tribal communities and have considerable space to act autonomously. The political equality in respect of dalits is compromised in various ways. The exercise of the right to vote without fear or favour is widely frustrated both by untouchability practices and exertion of dominance by ‘higher’ caste groups. The absence of public buildings to serve as a polling booth near the cluster of dalits prevents this option being exercised on a large scale, even where the local officials are motivated to provide such a booth. Dalit votes are frequently ‘captured’ en masse. Both discrimination and dominance affect the exercise of the right to contest elections, which severely circumscribes dalit freedom. Threatening dalit aspirants not to contest the election, forcing them to withdraw their candidature if they file their nomination, and assaulting them and their supporters if they persist in their political assertion, are quite common.

Q1. Which of the following is/are the specific provisions for the SCs and STs

1. Fundamental Right to Equality

2. Abolition of discrimination including untouchability

3. Special provision for their representation in legislature

 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 only

 

Q2. According to the passage, dalits and adivasis are:

1. Differently placed in social order.

2. One and the same.

3. Dalits are dominant and adivasis are distanced from the society.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

 

Q3. Which of the following observation suggests that the political equality of dalits is being compromised?

1. Untouchability practices.

2. Exertion of dominance by ‘higher’ caste groups.

3. Discrimination and authority.

 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 only

b) 2, 3 only

c) 1, 3 only

d) All the above

 

Q4. A family has 6 members. The average age of all the members is 18 years. The youngest member is 8 years old. What is the average age of the family during the birth of the youngest member?

a) 10 years

b) 14 years

c) 12 years

d) 15 years

 

Q5. Tanu had to travel certain distance. She travels half of the distance by bike at a speed of 30 km/hr and the remaining half by bus at a speed of 40 km/hr. If she took 14 hours for the whole journey, what is the total distance travelled?

a) 240 km

b) 400 km

c) 480 km

d) 490 km

Q6.

 

Q6. Which of the following number comes next in the sequence 34, 41, 46, 56, 67…?

a) 79

b) 80

c) 77

d) 81

 

Directions for the following 4 items:
Read the following information carefully and answer the 4 items that follow.

A 5 member student welfare committee is being setup in a college. The committee must compose of 2 representatives of management, 2 representatives of students and an independent specialist in student relations.
– The management representatives must be chosen from A, B and C.
– The student representatives must be chosen from X, Y and Z.
– Either G or H must be chosen from independent specialist. ­ C cannot serve together with X.
– X cannot serve together with Z.
– B cannot serve unless H serves at the same time.

Q7. Which of the following people must be selected to the committee?

a) X

b) Y

c) A

d) B

 

Q8. Which of the following group of people can form the committee?

a) A, C, X, Z, G

b) A, B, Y, Z, G

c) B, C, X, Y, H

d) A, B, X, Y, H

 

Q9. If G is selected as one of the member, the 4 people who can be chosen to serve together will be

a) B, C, Y, Z

b) A, B, X, Y

c) A, C, Y, Z

d) A, C, X, Y

 

Q10. If X and Y are chosen as the representatives, which of the following statements must be true?

1. H is chosen to serve the committee

2. Both A and B are chosen to represent the management

3. G is chosen to serve the committee

 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2  only

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

[Solutions] Saturday CSAT Quiz #10

saturday-solution

Q1. In a road construction work the average wage per day of 22 labourers is Rs. 100, of 15 drivers is Rs. 120 each and of 13 supervisor is Rs. 150. What is the average of each person?

a) Rs. 120

b) Rs. 119

c) Rs. 150

d) Rs. 140

Ans -[B]

The total wage of 22 labourers = 22 X 100 = 2200
The total wage of 15 drivers = 15 X 120 = 1800
The total wage of 13 supervisors = 13 X 150 = 1950
The total wage of all the persons = 2200+1800+1950=5950
The average wage of each person = 5950/(22+15+13) = 5950/50 = 119

 

Q2. The board of directors of a company has 7 members. One of the directors has been replaced by a younger person. Now the average age of the members of new board is same as the average age of the members of old board 3 years before. How much younger is the new member than the member he replaced?

a) 35 years

b) 25 years

c) 21 years

d) 14 years

Ans- [C]

The increase of average age after 3 years should have been 7 X 3 = 21 years. The addition of new member has resulted in reducing this much of years. Therefore the new member is 21 years younger than the member he replaced.

 

Q3. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. All the positions are equidistant from the others.

1. A is two places to the right of E
2. D is immediate left of F
3. E is exactly opposite to D and C is exactly opposite to F

Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) B and C are at an equal distance from E.
b) F is on the immediate right of B.
c) A and B are exactly opposite to each other.
d) F and D are exactly opposite to each other.

Ans- [B]

csat scr

Based on the given conditions the arrangement will be as give in the figure. From the figure, it can be seen that F is on the immediate left of B.

 

Q4. Rohini, the only daughter of her parents, was walking with a girl named Shubha. On the way, she met an old friend who asked Rohini about the girl she was walking with. Rohini replied that her maternal uncle is same as the girl’s maternal uncle’s maternal uncle. Also, Rohini’s maternal uncle has only one sister. How is Rohini related to Shubha?

a) Aunt

b) Mother­in­law

c) Mother

d) Sister

Ans- [C]

It is given that Rohini’s maternal is same as the girl’s maternal uncle’s maternal uncle. It implies that girl’s maternal uncle and Rohini are siblings. This in turn means Shubha is the daughter of Rohini.

 

Directions: Read the passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much­ needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Q5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage given above?

a) Cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without

b) Some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens

c) Most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens

d) Most people prefer life in the country over life in the city

Ans- [A]

 

Q6.Which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens?

a) Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.

b) Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.

c) Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.

d) Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.

Ans- [D]

The author believes that the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens is that parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. Therefore, (D) is correct.

 

Q7. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they

a) Decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect.

b) Replenish the air with nourishing oxygen.

c) Do not require the use of valuable urban land.

d) Are less expensive than traditional park spaces.

Ans – [C]

In paragraph, the author contrasts parks, which require the use of valuable land, with rooftop gardens, which do not require any new land. Instead, rooftop gardens can be built on top of existing buildings. Therefore (C) is correct.

 

Q8. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author would most likely endorse a program that

a) Permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens

b) Extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens

c) Offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park

d) Promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer

Ans- [B]

In this passage, the author advocates the creation of rooftop gardens. Therefore, it makes sense that he or she would endorse a program that extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens. Therefore (B) is correct.

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

Saturday CSAT Quiz #10

saturday

Good morning everyone,

How is your preparation going for UPSC IAS Prelims Examination, 2016. We, ForumIAS team believe that you have been regularly assessing yourself by attempting the quiz daily. Attempt the today’s CSAT test and write your answers in comment section.

[Questions]

Q1. In a road construction work the average wage per day of 22 labourers is Rs. 100, of 15 drivers is Rs. 120 each and of 13 supervisor is Rs. 150. What is the average of each person?

a) Rs. 120

b) Rs. 119

c) Rs. 150

d) Rs. 140

 

Q2. The board of directors of a company has 7 members. One of the directors has been replaced by a younger person. Now the average age of the members of new board is same as the average age of the members of old board 3 years before. How much younger is the new member than the member he replaced?

a) 35 years

b) 25 years

c) 21 years

d) 14 years

 

Q3. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. All the positions are equidistant from the others.

1. A is two places to the right of E
2. D is immediate left of F
3. E is exactly opposite to D and C is exactly opposite to F

Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) B and C are at an equal distance from E.
b) F is on the immediate right of B.
c) A and B are exactly opposite to each other
d) F and D are not exactly opposite to each other.

 

Q4. Rohini, the only daughter of her parents, was walking with a girl named Shubha. On the way, she met an old friend who asked Rohini about the girl she was walking with. Rohini replied that her maternal uncle is same as the girl’s maternal uncle’s maternal uncle. Also, Rohini’s maternal uncle has only one sister. How is Rohini related to Shubha?

a) Aunt

b) Mother­in­law

c) Mother

d) Sister

 

Directions: Read the passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much­needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Q5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage given above?

a) Cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without

b) Some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens

c) Most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens

d) Most people prefer life in the country over life in the city

 

Q6. Which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens?

a) Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.

b) Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.

c) Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.

d) Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.

 

Q7. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they

a) Decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect.

b) Replenish the air with nourishing oxygen.

c) Do not require the use of valuable urban land.

d) Are less expensive than traditional park spaces.

 

Q8. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author would most likely endorse a program that

a) Permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens

b) Extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens

c) Offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park

d) Promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer

 

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

[Solution] – Saturday CSAT Quiz #9

Q.1 There are 800 boys in a hostel. Each plays either hockey or football or both. If 80% play hockey and 50% play football, how many players play both the games?

a) 180

b) 240

c) 260

d) 280

Ans. B

Explanation –

80% play hockey => 640 play hockey and 50% play football => 400 play football

640 play hockey => no of players who only play hockey + no of players who play both = 640

400 play football => no of players who only play football + no of players who play both = 400

Now, Number of players who play both = No. of hockey players + No. of football players – Total boys

Thus, Number of players who play both = 640 + 400 – 800 = 240.

Hence option b) is correct.

 

Q.2) A man rows to a place 48 kms apart and comes back in 16 hours. He finds out that he can row 6 km downstream and 4 km upstream in the same time. The speed of the stream would be-

a) 1.60 kmph

b) 3.25 kmph

c) 1.25 kmph

d) 1.80 kmph

Ans. C

Explanation – Let the time taken to move 6 km down and 4 km up be T and speed of boat be X and speed of stream be Y

Thus, speed in downstream = 6/T and speed in upstream = 4/T

Thus, 48 / (6/T) + 48 / (4/T) = 16 => T = 0.8 hours.

X + Y = 6/0.8 = 15/2    and    X – Y = 4/0.8 = 10/2  => 2Y = 5/2 => Y = 1.25 kmph

 

Q.3) Nayan can do a piece of work in 36 days. Rishi can do the same piece of work in 48 days and Nishu can do the same in 42 days. Nayan and Nishu worked for 6 days handed it over to Rishi. Rishi worked for some days and handed it over again to Nayan and Nishu 10 days before completing the work. Then, Nishu and Nayan completed the work. For how many days did Rishi worked with them?

a) 8 and 8/21 days

b) 6 and 7/23 days

c) 6 and 11/21 days

d) 6 and 11/23 days

Ans. A

Nayan and Nishu worked for beginning 6 days => work done = 6/36 + 6/42 = 1/6 + 1/7 = 13/42

Nayan and Nishu worked for ending 10 days => work done = 10/36 + 10/42

Total Work done by rishi = 1 – 13/42 – 10/36 – 10/42 = 44 / (6 x 6 x 7) = a

Work done by rishi in 1 day = 1/48 = b

No of days Rishi worked = a / b = 8 and 8/21 days.

Hence option a) is correct.

 

Q.4) For five consecutive odd numbers, the difference between the product of the second and fourth number and that of the  first number and the last number is 12. Find the third number.

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) Can’t be determined

Ans. D

Explanation – Let the five consecutive odd nos. be X, X+2, X+4, X+6, X+8

Now,  ( X+2 )( X+6 ) –  X( X+8 ) = 12 OR  (X*X + 8X + 12) – (X*X + 8X) = 12

Thus, we find that the given difference will be 12 for all values of X. Hence we can’t determine the third number. Hence option d) is correct.

 

Q.5) A, B, C, D and E are arranged in descending order of their weights from left to right. A becomes third, E is between D and A, C and D are not the first from left. Who among the given is the second heaviest?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

Ans. C

Explanation – The order is B > C > A > E > D. Hence C is the second heaviest. Hence option c) is correct.

 

Q.6) In a certain code language, ‘you are’ means ‘Se Pa’ ; ‘see you’ means ‘Lo Se’ and ‘parrots are’ means ‘Ni Pa’. What does ‘see parrots’ mean in that code language?

a) Lo Pa

b) Lo Ni

c) Se Ni

d) Pa Lo

Ans. B

‘you are’ means ‘Se Pa’ and  ‘see you’ means ‘Lo Se’ => you = Se, are = Pa and see = Lo

‘you are’ means ‘Se Pa’  and ‘parrots are’ means ‘Ni Pa’ => parrots = Ni

Thus, see parrots’ means Lo Ni. Hence option b) is correct.

 

Passage – 1

Liberalization, Privatization and globalization introduced in 1991 has done more good than bad. But allowing it beyond a level will surely affect traders and ultimately the people. The drawbacks include loss of rich agricultural lands that are used by foreign industries for their own purposes. In this process we have lost thousands of hectares of fertile agricultural land since 1991. Also, foreign companies in collaboration with Indian companies have been allowed to mine for some key resources. It affects our tribals, forest dwellers and moreover these resources are outsourced whereas we bear the cost of pollution. Another common sight is loss to first and second level traders. When big super markets are set, it affects small local shops as well as second level traders since people prefer to go to super markets for everything they need. Thus placing greater reliance on market forces and competition as the primary means of increasing efficiency needs to be balanced with the growth opportunities not becoming skewed but becoming available for all.

Q.7) With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1.  There is a risk of economic crisis if the on-going models of liberalisation are not balanced with the inclusive growth as a key objective.
  2. Western companies are always trying to take away and sell Indian resources in foreign market without giving their due share to the Indian companies.

Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

Explanation – Both statement 1 and 2 are too extreme w.r.t the passage tone and passage content and hence option d) is correct.

 

Q.8) What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

(a) Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade liberalization policies.

(b) There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuous loss of resources in India.

(c) Economic reforms can be harnessed in the true spirit when they become inclusive by nature.

(d) Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade liberalization process.

Ans. C

Explanation – Option a) and b) are too extreme when compared to the tone of the passage while option d) fails to connect with the message that is being conveyed by the passage. Hence only option c) is correct and can be verified from the passage tone and content.

 

Passage – 2

Open defecation refers to the practice whereby people go out in fields, bushes, forests, open bodies of water, or other open spaces rather than using the toilet to defecate. The practice is rampant in India and the country is home to the world’s largest population of people who defecate in the open and excrete close to 65,000 tonnes of faeces into the environment each day. The practice is the main reason India reports the highest number of diarrhoeal deaths among children under-five in the world. Children weakened by frequent diarrhoea episodes are more vulnerable to malnutrition, stunting, opportunistic infections such as pneumonia thus weakening their learning abilities. Open defecation also exposes women to the danger of physical attacks and encounters such as snake bites.  Poor sanitation also cripples national development where workers produce less, live shorter lives, save and invest less, and are less able to send their children to school. Hence as a part of national policy, states have now realized the need for more community-level participation about sanitation and have begun to recruit frontline workers to promote and implement sanitation strategies, with mechanisms for their training, management, and supervision.

Q.9) According to the passage, which of the following would contribute to the healthy sanitation practices in Inida ?

a) Budgetary resources and technical assistance should be made available from the central government to all the state governments.

b) A national sample-survey of rural sanitation should be conducted every year by independent third-party agencies.

c) States should be given the flexibility to adopt the messages and methods that resonate most with the social and cultural sensibilities of their people.

d) Shifting entire communities and social norms towards health and economic benefits along with dedicated workers towards implementation of sanitation strategies.

Ans. D

Explanation – Option a), b) and c)  are relevant add-ons to the theme of the passage but fails to find their reference in the passage. Only option d) matches the passage content as well as the tone. Hence option d) is correct.

 

Q.10) Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resource to afford a latrine for each household.

(b) Open defecation is the most important public health problem of India.

(c) Open defecation reduces the human capital of India’s workforce.

(d) Open defecation is a public health problem in all the developing countries.

Ans. C

Explanation – Option a) and option b) mentions about scarcity of resources and most important public health problem of India. Based on the passage content, we can’t be sure about them. Also option d) talks about all developing counties and fails to find it’s reference in the passage content. Only option c) is correct and can be verified from the passage tone and content.

 

 

. –

 

 

 

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

Saturday CSAT Quiz #9

Q.1 There are 800 boys in a hostel. Each plays either hockey or football or both. If 80% play hockey and 50% play football, how many players play both the games?

a) 180

b) 240

c) 260

d) 280

 

Q.2) A man rows to a place 48 kms apart and comes back in 16 hours. He finds out that he can row 6 km downstream and 4 km upstream in the same time. The speed of the stream would be-

a) 1.60 kmph

b) 3.25 kmph

c) 1.25 kmph

d) 1.80 kmph

 

 

Q.3) Nayan can do a piece of work in 36 days. Rishi can do the same piece of work in 48 days and Nishu can do the same in 42 days. Nayan and Nishu worked for 6 days handed it over to Rishi. Rishi worked for some days and handed it over again to Nayan and Nishu 10 days before completing the work. Then, Nishu and Nayan completed the work. For how many days did Rishi worked with them?

a) 8 and 8/21 days

b) 6 and 7/23 days

c) 6 and 11/21 days

d) 6 and 11/23 days

 

 

Q.4) For five consecutive odd numbers, the difference between the product of the second and fourth number and that of the  first number and the last number is 12. Find the third number.

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) Can’t be determined

 

 

Q.5) A, B, C, D and E are arranged in descending order of their weights from left to right. A becomes third, E is between D and A, C and D are not the first from left. Who among the given is the second heaviest?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

 

 

Q.6) In a certain code language, ‘you are’ means ‘Se Pa’ ; ‘see you’ means ‘Lo Se’ and ‘parrots are’ means ‘Ni Pa’. What does ‘see parrots’ mean in that code language?

a) Lo Pa

b) Lo Ni

c) Se Ni

d) Pa Lo

 

 

Passage – 1

Liberalization, Privatization and globalization introduced in 1991 has done more good than bad. But allowing it beyond a level will surely affect traders and ultimately the people. The drawbacks include loss of rich agricultural lands that are used by foreign industries for their own purposes. In this process we have lost thousands of hectares of fertile agricultural land since 1991. Also, foreign companies in collaboration with Indian companies have been allowed to mine for some key resources. It affects our tribals, forest dwellers and moreover these resources are outsourced whereas we bear the cost of pollution. Another common sight is loss to first and second level traders. When big super markets are set, it affects small local shops as well as second level traders since people prefer to go to super markets for everything they need. Thus placing greater reliance on market forces and competition as the primary means of increasing efficiency needs to be balanced with the growth opportunities not becoming skewed but becoming available for all.

Q.7) With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. There is a risk of economic crisis if the on-going models of liberalisation are not balanced with the inclusive growth as a key objective.
  2. Western companies are always trying to take away and sell Indian resources in foreign market without giving their due share to the Indian companies.

Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Q.8) What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

(a) Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade liberalization policies.

(b) There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuous loss of resources in India.

(c) Economic reforms can be harnessed in the true spirit when they become inclusive by nature.

(d) Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade liberalization process.

 

 

Passage – 2

Open defecation refers to the practice whereby people go out in fields, bushes, forests, open bodies of water, or other open spaces rather than using the toilet to defecate. The practice is rampant in India and the country is home to the world’s largest population of people who defecate in the open and excrete close to 65,000 tonnes of faeces into the environment each day. The practice is the main reason India reports the highest number of diarrhoeal deaths among children under-five in the world. Children weakened by frequent diarrhoea episodes are more vulnerable to malnutrition, stunting, opportunistic infections such as pneumonia thus weakening their learning abilities. Open defecation also exposes women to the danger of physical attacks and encounters such as snake bites.  Poor sanitation also cripples national development where workers produce less, live shorter lives, save and invest less, and are less able to send their children to school. Hence as a part of national policy, states have now realized the need for more community-level participation about sanitation and have begun to recruit frontline workers to promote and implement sanitation strategies, with mechanisms for their training, management, and supervision.

Q.9) According to the passage, which of the following would contribute to the healthy sanitation practices in India ?

a) Budgetary resources and technical assistance should be made available from the central government to all the state governments.

b) A national sample-survey of rural sanitation should be conducted every year by independent third-party agencies.

c) States should be given the flexibility to adopt the messages and methods that resonate most with the social and cultural sensibilities of their people.

d) Shifting entire communities and social norms towards health and economic benefits along with dedicated workers towards implementation of sanitation strategies.

 

 

Q.10) Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resource to afford a latrine for each household.

(b) Open defecation is the most important public health problem of India.

(c) Open defecation reduces the human capital of India’s workforce.

(d) Open defecation is a public health problem in all the developing countries.

 

 

 

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

[Solution] – Saturday CSAT Quiz #8

Passage 1:
Mr. Smith was regarded as a kind of luck -bringer among the miners who took care of him, did all he gently asked of them. He built his house and spent hours of their free time assisting him. When in a sentimental mood he first wrote about miners. Smith described them as large , muscular men; when he met them working underground and unclothed. he was struck by the slightness of their build. They were slim and tough, of the stuff from which swift footballers were made. On big holidays they dressed smartly, but the comradeship among them was such 
that a dressy young man did not mind being seen with one who neither wore nor owned a collar.

Q.1) Smith’s attitude towards miners was one of:
a) detachment
b)suspicion
c)affection
d)inquisitiveness

Ans-[C]
Explanation– Smith’s attitude is not of detachment and suspicion towards miners. They have an affectionate relationship between them.

Q.2) Smith had formed false impression of miners’  regarding:
(a) bodily structure.
(b) mental ability
(c) capacity for work
(d) generosity

Ans-[A]
Explanation– “Smith described them as large , muscular men ; when he met them working underground and unclothed. he was struck by the slightness of their build”. This clearly points out to his false impression about bodily structure of miners.

Passage 2:

For nearly twenty years I taught boys, lovingly and was being loved in return. When, after twenty-eight years of political work, I returned to education, I might have confined myself to administrative side, but took part in the actual instruction. This I did because I found happiness in it. Modern conditions do not tolerate caste and its monopolies, and the high calling of the educator is open to all.

Q.3)Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of the term ‘high calling of the educator’?
a)The noble profession of teaching
b)The serious advice to the teacher
c)The difficult work of educational administration
d)The high-sounding phrases used to describe a teacher

Ans-[A]
Explanation– Higher calling means to act in service to a higher i.e. more noble cause, a greater good which here clearly means a noble profession of teaching.

Q.4) The author suggests that he left teaching after twenty years because:
a) He was dissatisfied with teaching
b) He wanted to become administrator
c) He wanted to take part in political activities
d) He was busy with family and domestic affairs

Ans-[C]
Explanation– “When, after twenty-eight years of political work” this phrase tells he left teaching to pursue political activities.

Q.5) Find the number at the place of question mark in figure.

 Capture
a)  1332
b) 1321
c) 1231
d) 1331

Answer: (d)
Explanation– Bigger numbers are cube of the vertically opposite smaller numbers. 64 is cube of 4, 343 is cube of 7 and therefore ‘?’ will be cube of 11 ie. 1331.

Q.6) Find the number to be placed at question mark?

Capture

a) 16
b) 12
c) 90
d) 48

Ans-[C]
Explanation– The central number is product of all the numbers in the 4 corners.

60=3*4*5*1

84=7*1*2*6

Therefore, ‘?’ will be product of = 10*3*1*3=90

Q.7) If the measure of three angles of triangles is 2:3:5 then the triangle is
a)Equilateral triangle
b)Isosceles
c)Obtuse
d)Right angled

Ans-[D]
Explanation
Sum of all angles in a triangle =180 degrees
Let the proportionality be ‘x’
Therefore, angles are in proportion=2x:3x:5x
2x+3x+5x=180
x=18 degree
Angles are=
2*18=36 degree
3*18=54 degree
5*18=90 degrees

Clearly the triangle is right angle triangle.

Q.8) In a certain place, volume of the completely spherical cricket ball is numerically equal to its surface area. Diameter of the ball is
a) 4 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 6 cm

Ans – [D]
Explanation – Volume of spherical ball= 4/3*pi*(radius)^3
Surface area of spherical ball=4*pi*(radius)^2
Now, volume of ball=surface area of ball
4/3*pi*(radius)^3=4*pi*(radius)^2; on, solving we get
Radius= 3cm
Diameter=2*radius= 2*3=6 cm

Capture

Q.9) The average run of two innings of the players who scored highest in average is:
a) 70
b) 75
c) 80
d) 85

Ans-[A]
Explanation– Highest average runs are scored by Dhoni in the two innings. This average is (60+80)/2=70

Q.10)The average score in second innings contributed by the four player is:
a)30
b)40
c)50
d)60

Ans-[B]
Explanation
SUm of all runs in second innings=80+50+10+20=160
Average runs= 160/4=40

Categories
Saturday CSAT Quiz

Saturday CSAT Quiz #8

Mr. Smith was regarded as a kind of luck -bringer among the miners who took care of him, did all he gently asked of them. He built his house and spent hours of their free time assisting him. When in a sentimental mood he first wrote about miners. Smith described them as large , muscular men; when he met them working underground and unclothed. he was struck by the slightness of their build. They were slim and tough, of the stuff from which swift footballers were made. On big holidays they dressed smartly, but the comradeship among them was such that a dressy young man did not mind being seen with one who neither wore nor owned a collar.

Q.1) Smith’s attitude towards miners was one of:
a) detachment
b)suspicion
c)affection
d)inquisitiveness

Q.2) Smith had formed false impression of miners’  regarding:
(a) bodily structure.
(b) mental ability
(c) capacity for work
(d) generosity

For nearly twenty years I taught boys, lovingly and was being loved in return. When, after twenty-eight years of political work, I returned to education, I might have confined myself to administrative side, but took part in the actual instruction. This I did because I found happiness in it. Modern conditions do not tolerate caste and its monopolies, and the high calling of the educator is open to all.

Q.3)Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of the term ‘high calling of the educator’?
a)The noble profession of teaching
b)The serious advice to the teacher
c)The difficult work of educational administration
d)The high-sounding phrases used to describe a teacher

Q.4) The author suggests that he left teaching after twenty years because:
a) He was dissatisfied with teaching
b) He wanted to become administrator
c) He wanted to take part in political activities
d) He was busy with family and domestic affairs

Q.5) Find the number at the place of question mark in figure.

 Capture
a)  1332
b) 1321
c) 1231
d) 1331

Q.6) Find the number to be placed at question mark?

Capture

a) 16
b) 12
c) 90
d) 48

Q.7) If the measure of three angles of triangles is 2:3:5 then the triangle is
a)Equilateral triangle
b)Isosceles
c)Obtuse
d)Right angled

Q.8)In a certain place, volume of the completely spherical cricket ball is numerically equal to its surface area. Diameter of the ball is
a) 4 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 6 cm

Capture

Q.9) The average run of two innings of the players who scored highest in average is:
a) 70
b) 75
c) 80
d) 85

Q.10)The average score in second innings contributed by the four player is:
a)30
b)40
c)50
d)60