The most powerful dramatization of the Constitutional issue is found in a debating episode in the Constituent Assembly when Dr. Rajendra Prasad had pointed exchanges with Dr. Ambedkar. We may reproduce those telling pages here :
"Mr. President : There is another amendment which has been moved by Sardar Hukum Singh in which he says that the President may promulgate ordinances after consultation with his Council of Ministers. The Honourable Dr. B.R. Ambedkar : I am very grateful to you for reminding me about this. The point is that that amendment is unnecessary because the President could not act and will not act except on the advice of the Ministers.
Mt-. President : Where is the provision in the Draft Constitution which binds the President to act in accordance with the advice of the Ministers?
Dr. Ambedkar : I am sure that there is a provision and the provision is that there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.
Mr. President : Since we are having this written Constitution, we must have that clearly put somewhere.
Dr. Ambedkar : Though I cannot point it out just now, I am sure there is a provision. I think there is a provision that the President will be bound to accept the advice of the Ministers. In fact, he cannot act without the advice of his Ministers.
Some Honourable Members : Article 61(1). Mr. president : It only lays down the duty of the Ministers, but it does not lay down the duty of the President to act in accordance with the advice given by the Ministers. It does not lay down that the President is bound to accept the advice. Is there any other provision in the Constitution? We will not be able even to impeach him, because he will not be acting in violation of the Constitution, if there is no provision.
Dr. Ambedkar : May I draw your attention to Article 61, which deals with the exercise of the President's functions? lie cannot exercise any of his functions, unless he has got the advice, in the exercise of his functions'. It is not merely to aid and advise'. In the exercise of his function,' those are the most important words.
Mr. president : I have my doubts if this word could bind the President. it only lays down that there shall be a Council of Minis- ters with the Prime Minister at the Head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. It does not say that the President will be bound to accept that advice. Dr. Ambedkar : If he does not accept the advice of the existing Ministry, he shall have to find some other body of Ministers to advise him. He Will never be able to act independently of the Ministers. Mr. President : Is there any real difficulty in providing somewhere that the President will be bound by the advice of the Ministers? Dr. Ambedkar : We are doing that. If I may say so, there is a provision in the Instrument of Instructions.
Mr. President : I have considered that also. Dr. Ambedkar : Paragraph 3 reads : In all matters within the scope of the executive power of the Union, the President hall, in the exercise of the powers conferred upon him, be guided by the advice of his Ministers, We- propose to make some amendment to that. Mr. President : You want to change that? As it is, it lays down that the President will be guided by the Ministers in the exercise of the executive powers of the Union and not in its legislative power.
Dr. Ambedkar : Article 61 follows almost literally various other constitutions and the Presidents have always understood that that language means that they must accept the advice. If there is any difficulty, it will certainly be remedied by suitable amendment. The Ambedkar approach, unequivocally accepted, was "It is the Prime Minister's business, with the support of the Ministers, to rule the country and the President may be permitted now and then to aid and advise the Council of Minis- ters. Therefore, we should look at the substance and not at the mere phraseology which is the result of conventions."
If the inner voice' of the founding fathers may be any guide, it is proved beyond reasonable doubt that the President and, a fortiori, the Governor, enjoy nothing more and nothing less than the status. of a constitutional head in a Cabinet-type government few exceptions and marginal reservations apart.
Art 352 clause (3) - The President shall not issue a Proclamation under clause (I) or a Proclamation varying such Proclamation unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (that is to say, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank under Article 75) that such a Proclamation may be issued has been communicated to him in writing. The bracket defines the word Cabinet.
Q23) Unitary in polity means Centre having more powers than the state. Now Joint Public Service Commission can not be created by Centre without the request from State Legislature of 2 or more states. It means the centre can not enforce or initiate the Joint Public Service Commission on its own upon the states. Hence JPSC is against the unitary feature.
Q37) All of them are disputed area. As per provision of Art 262 and consequent Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal Act 1956, Central Government constitute the tribunal to adjudicate the water dispute and hence centre is invariably dragged in interstate water dispute. Further Centre has also introduced the bill to amend Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal Act 1956 and during the course of the debate, various states have accused centre of biases. Hence it is an area of tension.
Q42) Statement 1- it should be 1 month and not six weeks.
Statement 2 - It should be by Special Majority and not by two-third of the total membership of the house.
Statement 3 - It should be Lok Sabha and not Parliament. Rajya Sabha has no power to initiate or vote on resolution for revocation of National Emergency
Q22 ) Discretionary grants are provided by the Ministry of Finance and not the NITI Ayog. Statement no 1 and 2 are interchanged ones.
The first hybrid annuity model was in Infrastructure and not in Sewage Treatment.
All of them are disputed area. As per provision of Art 262 and consequent Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal Act 1956, Central Government constitute the tribunal to adjudicate the water dispute and hence centre is invariably dragged in interstate water dispute. Further Centre has also introduced the bill to amend Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal Act 1956 and during the course of the debate, various states have accused centre of biases. Hence it is an area of tension.
Article 54 of the Indian Constitution clearly state that 'Election of President The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States''. As per Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019, the 4 sitting MPs in RS and 5 sitting MPs in Lok Sabhafrom the State of Jammu and Kashmir will deem to be elected members from the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Hence elected members from Jammu and Kashmir will vote in Presidential elections. And yes now 3 UTs will have legislative Assemblies.
the population of the area
the density of the population therein,
the revenue generated for local administration,
the percentage of employment innon-agricultural activities,
the economic importance or
such other factors as he may deem fit, specify by public notification for the purposes of this Part.
Q20) Verbatim previous year question and answer is per official key - Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability, but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization. So, the term “democratic decentralization” is an appropriate replacement for the term “political accountability”. Moreover, political accountability already existed in the villages by way of elections to State legislatures.
test 8: answer given for question no 43 is incorrect.. answer given in key is D.. whereas it should be C.
Plz refer Art 90 and 94. Speaker, Deputy Speaker and Deputy Chairman, all of them are removed by resolution passed by all the then members of the house i.e. by effective majority. Hence both wrong as question provided for Absolute Majority.
@Thinker all the then members and All the members is same interpretation... if it would have been absolute majority(as you are interpreting it in question) then it would be written as majority of Total membership of the house .
Majority of all the members is Absolute majority as it doesn't take into consideration the Vacancies in the house. Majority of all the then members of House means Effective majority as it does take into consideration the Vacancies in House. This is the distinction you need to remember. Further,The Constitution of India clearly mentions that Majority of all the then members of House is required for the removal (not the majority of all the members house as asked in the question) of Deputy Chairman (Art 90) and for Speaker and Deputy Speaker (Art 94) thereby makin both the statements wrong.
@Thinker since there is no such thing.. wouldn't it be a an abrupt statement instead of wrong statement and the question stands invalid.. :D
Since there is no such thing you consider it as wrong rather than invalid.
Regarding Question 14. Test 8
I couldnt find any mention that Chief Whip of GoI is Minister Parliamentary affairs either in the book or on the internet. Can someone pls explain !!
Didnt the government appoint Anurag Thakur as the Chief Whip ? and he is/was not the minister parliamentary affairs.
Not aware of this debate / question. Anurag Thakur is a Minister BTW
https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/practice_procedure/oppo.asp#WH plz search in this document of Rajya Sabha. It is clearly mentioned the The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is the Chief Whip of Government.
w.r.t Question no 37 in Test no 11. statement no 3.
"The constitution of India provides for reservation of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the State Legislative assembly of Every state" has been marked correct in answer key.
However, Article 332(1) clearly states thatthis is not applicable in case of " Scheduled Tribes in the tribal areas of Assam, in Nagaland and in Meghalaya" i.e Reservation for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to Nagaland and Meghalaya.
This provision has been specifically provided in the constitution due tovery low presence of Indigenous Scheduled Castes in these 2 states and tribal regions of Assam.
So the answer to Question no 37 should be "D".
Plz clarify accordingly.
------------------------------
Also the answer of Ques 30 is also marked as incorrect. it would be "B" instead of "D".
Reservation is not provided for STs from Scheduled Areas of Assam and not from the entire area of Assam. The entire list of reserved Constituency is available on ECI handouts.
In Meghalaya, 55 out of 60 seats are reserved for STs. The constitution doesn't prohibit the reservation for SCs in the state. However, in the background of the low SC population in the state, the reservation has not been provided.
In Nagaland 59 out of 60 seats are reserved for STs. The constitution doesn't prohibit the reservation for SCs in the state. However, in the background of the low SC population in the state, the reservation has not been provided.
Que No.: 14 ... Statement 3...." which is wrong as per the Key"
If any one consider the Answer key is right , Can he share the link about that info... where Constitution of india defined the term "Misbehavior".
Article 317 (4) has defined it clearly. If the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission is or becomes in any way concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the Government of a State or participates in any way in the profit thereof or in any benefit or emolument arising therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company, he shall, for the purposes of clause ( 1 ), be deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour
@Thinker It is clearly mentioned in article 332 thatexcept Meghalaya and Nagaland.And since the statement is about providing reservation i.e constitution "provides for" it ain't about the prohibitions.It's a simple statement with specific mention of "Scheduled casteandScheduled tribe" and not "Scheduled caste or Scheduled tribes" in that case it would have been correct.
Also it is not the discretion of parliament/president that reservation have not been provided for SCs in Nagaland and Meghalaya, rather a specific mention of the provision in constitution and that is why constitution "does not provide for reservation for Scheduled castesandscheduled tribes inAllstates."
Other reason for specific mention is the constitution is the factor of "IndigenousSchedule Castes" while providing reservation in state legislature of the these two states, which requires specific exemption provision in A332(1). Since Meghalaya do provides 5% reservations to Scheduled castes in Services.
There are certain discrepancies in the sources that we are using. https://www.constitution.org/cons/india/p16332.html. This website doesn't mention the point which you are presenting. The constitution has not provided for the exception in case of Scheduled Caste reservation. But still, I will reverify the statements. Please go through the link again and let me know if you are satisfied. Thanks and regards.
@Thinker yeah my source was somewhat non specific w.r.t Article 332(1).However insertion by 57th amendment act of article 332(3A) says..-----------------------3A.Notwithstanding anything contained in clause(3), until the taking effect, under article 170, of the re-adjustment, on the basis of the first census after the year6[2026], of the number of seats in the Legislative Assemblies of the States ofArunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,Mizoram and Nagaland, the seats which shall be reservedfor the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly ofany such State shall be,—(a) if all the seats in the Legislative Assembly ofsuch State in existence on the date of coming intoforce of the Constitution (Fifty-seventh Amendment)Act, 1987 (hereafter in this clause referred to as theexisting Assembly) are held by members of theScheduled Tribes, all the seats except one;(b) in any other case, such number of seats asbears to the total number of seats, a proportion notless than the number (as on the said date) of membersbelonging to the Scheduled Tribes in the existingAssembly bears to the total number of seats in theexisting Assembly.------------------------------So on this basis i think we can say this is anexception based on Indigenous SC population(0.5%)For the states of Nagaland and Meghalaya not having reservation for SCs in legislative assembly till completion of 2026 delimitation and is indeed a constitutional provision.
All these things are a matter of speculations but I am not able to find out the provision which specifically make provision for no reservation for SCs in Legislative Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland. 57 and 51 CAA too pertains to certain modifications in the reservation for STs only without explicit mention to SCs. For the statement to be incorrect I need a specific source.
Also please check the following 51st amendment to the constitution.
http://legislative.gov.in/constitution-fifty-first-amendment-act-1984
And then further amendment by 57th
http://legislative.gov.in/constitution-fifty-seventh-amendment-act-1987
The question is whether Constitution provides for the reservation to SC/ST in all state then yes it provides for it as per article 332. The same article makes an exception (by virtue of 51 and 57 CAA) for STs in certain areas of the state and not for the entire state. But as far as reservation to SCs are concerned Constitution has not made any specific exceptions.
@Thinker if you download a PDF of the fifth schedule and search key words like "education, school", there is not a single mention of them.
It's a verbatim previous year question of 2012 and the answer is as per the official key of UPSC. Further, the question isasking for bearing on education and not mention of education.
Q 30
As discussed in today's morning session answer ought to be option (b) instead of (d).
Note: Same question was there in previous test and also in one of the previous year CSE paper.
It was a typing error which has been rectified in revised answer key.
Regarding Jurisdictions of Supreme Court (Original and Appellate) having bearing on Questions 14 and 34 of test 9.
Sir, the discussion session post test 9 ended with the view thatOriginal jurisdictioncomprises of whatever is mentionedunder Article 131 only(NOT writ jurisdiction to be precise). Similarly,appellate jurisdictiondoesnot include special leave under Article 136.
Sir, I submit for your kind perusal thejudgement of Supreme Courtin Rojer Mathew vs South Indian Bank Ltd ( dated13 Nov 2019) regarding appellate and original jurisdictions and tribunals.
Click here to see (Refer para 201 and first line of Para 202. Pages 111-112) (Screenshots below)
Kindly guide, what should be the concluding view in this regard.
Thank you for bringing this recent judgement to my attention. I will go through it once and give a reply. Please give me some time.
1) Kindly look into Test 10 , Ques 17 - statement 2 says Project Sashakt aims to resolve NPAs via "market-led" approach, it should rather be "bank led" (pls refer the screenshot) and hence the correct answer should option C - 1 and 3 are correct ( Answer key says option D- 1,2,3 correct)
2) Also, Ques 19 statement 1 says Balsam are native to "Eastern Himalayas" which i think is a wrong statement ( refer the screenshots). So the answer should be option C - Both statements are not correct (as per answer key option B - only 2nd statement is incorrect)
P.S
a) Since, as per the clarification MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme, no given option is applicable, therefore the question should be cancelled.
b) If my argument regarding the above 2 question is correct (ques 17 &19) ,i request the answer keys should be revised and also the ranklist accordingly.
Q17) Project Sashakt aims to resolve the problems of NPA via a market-led approach. You can find different info in different papers. But it is common logic that both creditors and debtors are involved in resolving the NPA problem and not only banks. For eg. bank-led approach for inter-creditor agreement & ARC (a private entity) for assets worth more than 500. Hence the option stands true. Even the market-led approach is being suggested by Sunil Mehta Committee on whose recommendation the Project Sashakt was envisaged.
Q 19) Balsam are endemic to the Himalayas and native of both eastern and western Himalayas. I am attaching a link that specifically states that new varieties of Balsam are found across the eastern Himalayas (https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/eastern-himalayas-a-treasure-trove-of-balsams-yields-20-new-species/article27951138.ece). Had we asked BALSAM ARE NATIVE TOONLYEASTERN HIMALAYAS then the option would have been wrong. But since Balsam are found across the Himalayas, they are native to both east and west Himalayas.
Q38) Detailed explanation in this regard has already put in CLARIFICATION which we released yesterday.
Test 11 - Q28.
How is Option 3 incorrect?
It says "The Finance Commission recommends the state government to improve the finances of the Panchayat"
For example, it can suggest the state govt to empower local govt to impose advertisement tax and assign productive local assets to Panchayats.
For Q28) FC recommends to President and not to state govt.
Dear forum SFG RLG MONITORING CUM ADVISERY AUTHORITY, Kindly, respond to students queries w r to questions regarding SWAYYAT-MSME and VULNERABLE-LSA ACT 1987. So that they will be prevented from doing mistake in further examination. Thank you.
Please check out the clarification we provided 2 days earlier on SFG Channel to clarify any doubts.
Explanation for answers of test 11
Q.9 why first statement is incorrect?
Q.15 How planning is possible without knowing the experience of ministries with undergoing schemes?
Q.30 Explain Art. 243E(4)
Q9) The President of India may appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally (and not economically)backward classes.
Q15) UPSC previous year question and answer is as per the official answer key. The Planning Commission has an advisory power only and are not involved in the planning process. A simple elimination would give you the answer.
Q30) The provision of Art 243E(4) is explained in simple format in statement 2 of this question.
Test 9 Qn 34
According to this link: https://main.sci.gov.in/jurisdiction
The Supreme Court has also a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Tribunals in India in as much as it may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in the territory of India.
Confirmed by this article:
https
://www.deccanherald.com/amp/content/465647/apex-court-says-army-tribunal.htmlBut, according to Laxmikanth:
Please follow the thread.
This is with respect to Q.15
'Planning' in India is associated with Union ministry of rural and union ministry of urban development.MoUD is involved in 'Smart City' project which involves City PlanningSimilar argument goes for MoRD it is also involved in Rural planning.Also, transportation planning, environmental planning, rural development etc are all in their mandate.Preparation of District Development Plan is executed by MoRD as well as MoHUA
Q15) UPSC previous year question and answer is as per the official answer key. The Planning Commission has an advisory power only and is not involved in the planning process. A simple elimination would give you the answer.
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state in
consultation with the high court.
Who is responsible for the transfer of the district Judge ?
Since Constitution is silent on it it is undertaken by HC itself. The transfer orders are usually issued by the registrar of HC.
Q22) Statement 3 - Section 11A in The Representation of the People Act, 1951
Test 12, Q 49, statement two is also correct. "The state legislature may provide that the annual general body meeting of every co-operative society shall be convened within a period of six months of the close of the financial year."
So correct option should be "c".
Pls clarify.
243ZN. Convening of general body meetings.—The Legislature of a Statemay, by law, make provisions that the annual general body meeting of every co-operative society shall be convened within a period of six months of close of the financial year to transact the business as may be provided in such law.
SO it is not mandatory that meeting has to be there since state legislature may or may not provide for it.
http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/COI-updated-as-31072018.pdf Plz refer to this link for the said article.
Test 12, Q 49, statement two is also correct. "The state legislature may provide that the annual general body meeting of every co-operative society shall be convened within a period of six months of the close of the financial year."
So correct option should be "c".
Pls clarify.
243ZN. Convening of general body meetings.—The Legislature of a Statemay, by law, make provisions that the annual general body meeting of every co-operative society shall be convened within a period of six months of close of the financial year to transact the business as may be provided in such law.
SO it is not mandatory that meeting has to be there since state legislature may or may not provide for it.
http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/COI-updated-as-31072018.pdf Plz refer to this link for the said article.
Article 243ZM also says ".. state may by law,..." .
Same interpretation applies to both the provisions. Therefore, both options shall be incorrect by verbatim or both shall be correct by interpretation.
Please open the link file and search article 243ZM. The clause (1) and clause (2) of the article mention state legislature may provide. Clause (4) which pertains to audit within 6 months is an independent clause and doesn't have any mention of the state legislature.
Test 12, Q 49, statement two is also correct. "The state legislature may provide that the annual general body meeting of every co-operative society shall be convened within a period of six months of the close of the financial year."
So correct option should be "c".
Pls clarify.
243ZN. Convening of general body meetings.—The Legislature of a Statemay, by law, make provisions that the annual general body meeting of every co-operative society shall be convened within a period of six months of close of the financial year to transact the business as may be provided in such law.
SO it is not mandatory that meeting has to be there since state legislature may or may not provide for it.
http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/COI-updated-as-31072018.pdf Plz refer to this link for the said article.
Article 243ZM also says ".. state may by law,..." .
Same interpretation applies to both the provisions. Therefore, both options shall be incorrect by verbatim or both shall be correct by interpretation.
Please open the link file and search article 243ZM. The clause (1) and clause (2) of the article mention state legislature may provide. Clause (4) which pertains to audit within 6 months is an independent clause and doesn't have any mention of the state legislature.
Article 243ZM,Clause (4) is to be read independently, or as follows.. forClause (3): to be audited by an auditor or auditing firms referred to inClause (2)which is layed down by the Legislature of a State?
Each and Every clause is to be read independently unless and until it is referring to some other clause. For example,Cluse (3) clearly mentions clause (2)butclause (4) doesn't mention any other clauseand hence becomes independent. Similarly, clause(1) and (2) both mention the Stale legislature mayas both the clauses are independent.
Test 13:
Q.20)
a) The Governor makes acustomaryaddress t members of house at the commencement of first session of each year.
It's not customary. It's hisCONSTITUTIONAL OBLIGATIONto do so.
Plz Clarify.
It's one and the same thing. The Governor address is also called as customary address. I am attaching links to various newspapers confirming the same. Further, this was the 2019 UPSC pre question. https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/politics/opposition-bjp-mlas-in-karnataka-disrupt-governors-address-in-legislature-3490891.html & https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/rajasthan-governor-kalyan-singh-critical-of-vasundhara-raje-govt/articleshow/67570618.cms?from=mdr & https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/ap-governor-stresses-development-during-customary-address/article2888823.ece
Q26 test 15
Qué should be deleted or further explanation should be provided.
Labor party members in 3rd RTC-
Hafiz Hidayat Hussain, Muhammad Iqbal, M. R. Jayakar, Cowasji Jehangir, N. M. JoshiThank you.
Labour Party is a British party which boycotted the conference.
Test 20 Answer Key Issues
1. Ques. 2.
Under the policy of ring-fence, territories were not annexed, instead were continued to be under old heads, to serve as vassal state.
The same was discussed and agreed to in the post test discussion.
Correct option to be A.
2. Ques. 46
Treaty of Madras - 4 April 1769
Warren Hasting Governer General period - 1773-75
Hence, the correct answer should be A.
Post Test discussion also mentioned A as answer, whereas, the key says B.
Sir, kindly arrange for corrections in revised key.
@Thinker Sir, kindly arrange for corrections in revised key.
It has been taken care of and the revised answer key will be published soon.
In ques 19 test 19
Freedom to enter into academic collaborations with other institutions inside the country is not a specific benefit w.r.t Institute of Eminence scheme since it's in general available to all UGC recognised institutions.
Rather IoE tag gives freedom to collaborate with international institutions.
Plz rectify.
"toenter into academic collaboration with top 500 in the world ranking Institutions without permission of UGC;"
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=180478
Clearly given in this article and there's as such no specific mention of "other institutions within the country"
Thanks and cheers.
Statement 1 automatically implies statement 2. Once an institution has an administrative and academic autonomy it can enter into collaboration with any other institution as well. Anyways, for more elaboration plz refer to the link https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=193016. Please read point 7 under the heading of BENEFIT OF INSTITUTION OF EMINENCE.
@ranahere999 see. I think, in Bharat Ratna award, there is no exception, which says, it can be confreed to more that 3 people in certain circumstances.Meaning, if at all it had been conferred to more that 3 ppl at a time it can be considered as an exception.But the rule says, it can be conferred to not more than 3 people.Whereas, Sardar patel award, the rule itself makes an exception, that it can be conferred in certain cases (though rare and exceptional) posthumously.So, the third statement of q.41 cannot be ruled out completely according to my understanding.
https://mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/Scheme-BR_1.pdf. Please refer to the link of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Ques 18, Does E-NAM helps boost agriculture credit ?
Agriculture credit is basically money that is required for the overall growth of agriculture and personnel attached to it. It can be of two types i.e. Institutional (banks etc) or non-istitutional (Moneylenders or relatives etc.). e-NAM gives better pricing to farmers means farmers get surplus money which can be invested in Agricultural activities. Hence e-NAM has potential to boost agricultural credit.
@Apurva321 im not sure about q.41.Though ive never read that coal gassification plants have increased in India.I'd like to know whether or not that statement is incorrect, and how.I couldn't find any relevant information pertaining to that.If you have, kindly share.
As per the answer key, only the 1st statement is right.
In Q.39
Option 1.: Satyashodhak samaj did talk about giving sense of identity to the depressed classes against "brahmins", and wanted complete abolishon of caste system.
Going by this, Satyashodhak samaj call for maratha homeland free of brahminical domination.
So option should be right
Option 2: Self Respect movement aimed at rejection of "brahminical religion", and not aryans.
Now, whether brahmins are aryans are not, is a seperate debate. How can we read brahmins=aryans?!
This option is a wrong one.
@Thinker .
Kindly clarify.
First of all Satyashodhak samajnever called forMaratha Homeland free of Brahminical domination. It was a reformist organization that called for theupliftment of downtrodden by providing them political and educational access.
Brahminical religion is another name given to Aryans or Vedic religion due to the overwhelming influence of Brahminical Varna over this religion. You should remember the Aryan or Vedic religion is a hierarchical one with Brahmins as the topmost Varna.
so going by this. Q38, 3rd option says " its effect was limited to Bengal" , which should be the right option.
Bbut answer given is 1 &2 only are right.
TKindly clarify
Sometimes data can be distorted. Brahmo Samaj's influence was limited to Bengal during the early years only. However, later on in Maharashtra Prarthana samaj was by Atmaram Panduran under influence of Brahmo Samaj. Similarly, Rajamuhundary Social Reform Association and Veda Samaj in Madras province were influenced by Brahmo Samaj. So as such the influence of Brahmo Samaj was not limited to Bengal.
How is statement 1 correct in Question no 48 of test no21 since constitution mentioned English to be "used for allofficial purposefor a period of 15 years".
Being used for official purpose does not make it as an "official language of union".
As the statement says that "continuation of English as an official language of union" implies a different meaning from "used for all the official purposes of the Union".
Moreover we cannot distinguish in the exam that whether the question is being asked w.r.t Historical perspective (simple factual info)or political understanding( difference b/w being an official language or being used as language for official specified purpose).
So statement 1 cannot be considered as correct.. plz clarify.
343. Official language of the Union
Test 22 , Q. 3
Statement no 1 states that 'Vishnu's image as Vaikuntha Chaturmurti if found in Kandariya Mahadev Temple' and the answer key states this to be correct.
However, Kandariya Mahadev Temple is a Shiva temple and this image of Vishnu is found in Lakshmana Temple of Khajuraho.
I think the answer should be 2 Only (B) instead of Both 1 and 2 (C)
Kandariya Mahadev temple is indeed dedicated to Lord Shiva but the temple complex has an image of Vishnu in Vaikuntha Chaturmurthi with 8 hands (a rare phenomenon as Vaikuntha Chaturmurthi usually has only 4 hands). The Lakshmana temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and has the main idol of Vishnu in Vaikuntha Chaturmurthi form with 4 hands.
Test 23 Q 17
In this question Bidri work is matched with Andhra Pradesh and option ( b) is considered correct.
But as Bidri is prominently associated with Karnataka ( due to Bidar region) it was told by teacher in SFG discussion class that both option (b) and (c) will be considered as correct for this question.
Pls clarify.
Since the question asked for state associated with you should not have refuted Andhra Pradesh from the options. I am attaching the link for reference. https://www.craftscouncilofindia.org/craft-process/bidri-work/
DOUBTS TEST 23
Q 38. How is Kumbh associated with teacher student relationship?
Q17. Bidri craft= Karnataka, Bankura terracotta= W.Bengal. so correct option shd be C.
@Thinker sir. Kindly clarify.
The teacher-student relationship of the sadhus in the ashrams and akhadas remains the most important method of imparting and safeguarding knowledge and skills relating to Kumbh Mela. Plz refer the link https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/kumbh-mela-01258
Test 23 Q 21
Sir in this question the second statement is, " The Central Government contributes 75% of SDRF allocation for general category States/ Union Territories and 90% for special category States/ Union Territories.
This was the provision under the Disaster Management Act 2005.
But in 2018 a new decision was taken by Central government in this regard:
Government of India has taken an important decision to enhance its contribution in the State Disaster Response fund (SDRF) from 75% to 90%. w.e.f. 1st April 2018. Central Government will contribute 90 per cent and all States will contribute 10 per cent to the SDRF.
Source : Pib
Link: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183776
The official website https://www.ndmindia.nic.in/response-fund clearly mentions the data which we have provided. However, since you have brought this o our notice necessary changes will be made.
Q36test28
I was aware that Taswirkhana was established under Akbar eventhough when I moved down in 3rd point I found Shahjahan - Portrait painting climax which made me alert that he was Jahangir under whom portrait painting reached a climax.
So, What are your views?
In my opinion only 2nd point is correct and in option there is no option in which "only 2" mentioned. So it should be deleted.
The maximum development of portrait painting was made during Jahangir but it was taken up further by Shah Jahan who too patronised paintings (and more by Dara Sikhoi). It was Aurangzeb during whose reign the progress was halted suddenly. Hence it was Shah Jahan's reign which witnessed the climax of the portrait painting.
Q28test23
In Madhyapradesh decorative art is MANDANA.
Medana is name of village in Slovenia.
This question should be deleted.
MANDANA is also called Medana/Mendana/Medana etc in different sources. For example, refere to the link -http://www.edudel.nic.in/circulars_file/activities_for_summer_vacation_camp/38.%20RANGOLI.htm. Further, I am attaching the picture of the NIOS book. Anyways we request you to take up this test solving exercise not to evaluate yourself but to enhance your content which you can use on the day exam. In any case, the most appropriate answer must be ticked right and here it was only 3. 
Test 23 Q 12
Sir in this question option ( d ) was changed by the management from 2 and 3 only to1 and 3 only.
The first statement is The ' Tamasha Paintings ' of this period depict the common life of people in Mughal kingdom.
As discussed in today's SFG this statement is correct as depicted in paintings of regional kingdoms of that period.
So in the revised answer key option ( c ) is given as correct whereas it ought to be ( d ).
Pls clarify.
I was not aware of it. Thank you for bringing this into my attention. I will rectify this mistake and the revised answer key as well as the result will be published soon.
@Thinker pls recheck in to the key
Q5) it should beB not d(annamarcharya and tyagaraja are not contemporaries)
Q10) it should beA,chaliha sahib is celebrated by sindhis.
Q15)it should beA,tansen title was give gwalior rurler.
Q30)it should beB,miniature focus on Side not front profile.
Q33)should beC,manipuri is both lasya and tandava.
Q40) should beD,vajrapradama mudra is self confidence mudra.
Q42) should beA,ustad bismillah khan is king of shehnai.
Q45)is to bed
Q47) should beA.
Done all the changes. Except Q 42) which has answer C i.e both the statements are true.
@Thinker in Q 42 raja ravi Varma was known for painting mythological characters & ustad Bismillah Khan was known for playing shehnai. So answer should beC.
Alsoin Q 44 sankirtana is an art form and hencecan'tbe intangible heritagesite. By this logic the answer should be D
Changes are done in question 42. However, since statement 1 of Q 44 had created ambiguities for many we have kept both A and D as an answer for that question.
@Thinker pls recheck in to the key
Q5) it should beB not d(annamarcharya and tyagaraja are not contemporaries)
Q10) it should beA,chaliha sahib is celebrated by sindhis.
Q15)it should beA,tansen title was give gwalior rurler.
Q30)it should beB,miniature focus on Side not front profile.
Q33)should beC,manipuri is both lasya and tandava.
Q40) should beD,vajrapradama mudra is self confidence mudra.
Q42) should beA,ustad bismillah khan is king of shehnai.
Q45)is to bed
Q47) should beA.
Answer for Q42 should beC rather than A or D. Raja Ravi Verma was famous for his paintings such as "Ravana Kidnapping Sita" , images of Hindu Goddess etc. (Mythological Characters)
Question 4 ) Even after asking whether it is "Financial Security" or "Lack of Financial security" they didn't give any clarification so i went with optionD( at least clarification should have been given in the class regarding the doubt )
During the test, giving clarification would be tantamount to giving out the answer. Since financial security can not lead to decline the statement itself is incorrect.
Sir,
Around total 10 answers of test 24 sfg were wrongly given in the answer key provided on the portal. Kindly look into it. I am providing the answers.Q5. Given answer- DCorrect answer- B10. Given answer- DCorrect answer- A14. Given answer- ACorrect answer-D15. GIVEN ANSWER- BCorrect answer- A30. Given answer-ACorrect answer- B33. GIVEN answer- DCorrect answer- C40. GIVEN ANSWER- BCorrect answer- D42. Given answer-DCorrect answer- C45. Given answer - ACorrect answer - D47. Given answer- DCorrect answer- A
All the changes have been done.
Test 24
Q 30, 40 and 45 are repeated questions from previous tests but answer is different from previous ones which were correct ( checked standard sources )
Q 47, Variation of size based on social status is characteristic feature of Togalu Gombayetta of Karnataka(checked standard sources), why is Bommalattam given as answer.
Kindly explain.
The required changes have been done. Please recheck the answers and let us know if there any discrepancies still persisting.
@Thinker sir in ques no 14 ans should be b, nusrat fateh ali khan belongs to qawwal bacchon ka ghrana based in delhi.Here in one interview he himself said so
https://www.outlookindia.com/website/story/1988-interview/282000It was bde fateh ali khan who was from patiali gharana.
There are various sources with different information. However, since Nusrat Sahab himself mentions his Gharana it's difficult to refute it and hence I have changed the answer. By the way, Qawwal Bachho ka Gharana is a subset of Delhi Gharana of Hindustani music.
Sir in ques 48.according to new edition of nitin singhania.. Vishnupant chatre is the father of Indian circus and not keeleri kunhikanan
Please check
This is the old version of the Singhania book. The new version has made the amendment. Please refer to it. Further, I am attaching link to clarify any doubts. http://www.circopedia.org/The_Indian_Circus#Keeleri_Kunhikannan.2C_The_Father_Of_The_Indian_Circus
This is the old book sir.. Anyways if keeli kunharnini is the right answer we can make a change in the new version
https://bharatstories.in/history-of-circus-in-india/. Please read this to have clarity. I don't know why the Singhania book restored earlier mistakes.
Sir w.r.t Question no 31 of test 25.
Option 3 is marked as incorrect..
However it's correct since 6 indian cities are members of C40.
https://www.c40.org/blog_posts/chennai-becomes-6th-indian-city-to-join-c40
.
In various news articles that came in October regarding this news,they were factually incorrect and this is from the official website of c40 itself.
Thanks
The answer is given as (a) i.e. 2 and 3 only are correct.
Test 25 question 9 statement 2 says "any women" so should not it be wrong?
The statement is the chief aim of the SUMAN. https://suman.nhp.gov.in/
@Thinker SUMAN initiative aims for zero tolerance for denial of services to any pregnant woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.as the scheme's ultimate goal is to reduce the infant and maternal mortality rates.
“Assured, dignified and respectful delivery of quality healthcare services at no cost and zero tolerance for denial of services to any woman and newborn visiting a public health facility in order to end all preventable maternal and newborn deaths and morbidities and provide a positive birthing experience.”This is the stated aim of SUMAN as per their website https://suman.nhp.gov.in/
@Thinker Q11) TEST25 In the statement 2 it say Developed through a collaborative process including key stakeholders such as MHRD, the World Bank and sector experts in the niti aayog but the statement is out of context because it is in continuation of intro in Niti page which obviously state Niti aayog is part of it including other stakeholders. (https://niti.gov.in/content/school-education-quality-index ) .So it is self implied that Niti aayog itself is part of it.the report is launched and published by Niti aayog . So its obvious to include Niti aayog which is missing in statement 2.
The report (seqi 2019) itself confirms that and mhrd ministry also gave contribution to mhrd and Niti aayog. So correct option should be only1.
‘It was developed through acollaborative process includingkey stakeholders such as the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts.’ How can you state that the statement is wrong? Had the statement mentionedonlyMHRD and Wolrd Bank and sector experts then the statement could have been considered wrong. The statement as given in the Q 11, thus stands true.
T25Q42 - Statement2: Quantum Supremacy refers to quantum computers being able to solve a problem that a Classical Computer cannot.
'Sycamore' has finished the task assigned to it in 200 seconds, which usually takes 10000 years when assigned to a classical computer - 'Summit(supercomputer)' in this case.
Isn't this state absolute negation (of classical computers ability)?
Q4 Test 26
Plsprovide date of writting bhagvad purana,
Some sources say it is written on the beginning of Kali Yuga , some say 10th century ,
In that case option 3 should be wrong and answer to be C .
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bhagavata_Purana
Please refer to standard sources rather than random information available on the net. CCRT, NIOS, and even NCERT mentions it. Anyways I am attaching a link on NIOS to clarify doubts. https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecICHCour/English/CH.09.pdf
q4 test 26
even i couldnt find a source for bhagvad purana in 9th cen AD.
please either provide a source or correct the answer key
Please refer to standard sources rather than random information available on the net. CCRT, NIOS, and even NCERT mentions it. Anyways I am attaching a link on NIOS to clarify doubts. https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecICHCour/English/CH.09.pdf
Test 27, Question 6, Lehman discontinuity is at the height of 220km, how can it be bellow gutenberg discontinuity as suggested by option a 2>1>4>3. It should either be option D or the question is ambiguous.
Ques 39, how is statement 2 incorrect ( Air ,water carry debris with them), i think answer should be option C 1 and 2
For Q 39 the answer has been given by@TheMiddlePath above.
For Q27 NCERT and NIOS bothe mentions so. Wikipedia presents a debate regarding Lehman discontinuity which has not been ascertained yet. Hence answer given in original key stands true.
@Thinker
Would you please explain Q no. 30
Point no.:
5: rotation of the earth
6: Revolution of the earth
How these two are responsible for bringing "Dynamic Changes" on the earth's surface?
Rotation of earth is responsible for day and night and revolution of earth around the sun causes the changes in seasons. The occurrence of day and night and seasons themselves given effect to many changes.
Q37 of test27
How earth's rotation on its axis cannot be responsible?
how alone revolution can cause the seasons?
i think rotation is also the part however indirectly but it does.
The seasons are caused by the tilt of the Earth's rotational axis away or toward the sun as it travels through its year-long path around the sun( Revolution of the earth around the sun). Though the earth rotates around its own axis as it orbits the sun, the axis always points in the same direction.
Earth's rotation on its axis causes the change in day and night.
Please refer to the link given below.
https://spaceplace.nasa.gov/seasons/en/
- Test 28, Q 25. Dead sea is Rift valley Lake
- Test 28, Q 40 and test 27, Q 17 same question but different answer, Columbia snake plateau is formed from volcanic activity and not a volcano.
Please explain
Test 28, Q 41. City with population 10 lakh and above and not 5 lakh and above
The statement is asking recommendation under 6th NPC report - (National Police Commission in the 6th report, a system of Police Commissionerate should be introduced in cities with a population of five lakhs and above). Please verify https://niti.gov.in/writereaddata/files/document_publication/Strengthening-Police-Force.pdf
Doubts:
Q47. Aren't tropical cyclones more destructive than extra tropical cyclones?! (Though the word used is 'always'). Were there any incidents recorded where extra tropical cyclones were more destructive than tropical cyclones?
Q.42. Strength of westerlies do increase in sothern hemesphere because of vast ocean. Thats why they r called roaring forties, and shrieking sixties.
Q. 47) Braer Storm of 1993 accelerated to nearly 150 km/h (93 mph).
The Saffir–Simpson hurricane wind scale (SSHWS), classifies hurricanes – Western Hemisphere tropical cyclones – that exceed the intensities of tropical depressions and tropical storms – into five categories distinguished by the intensities of their sustained winds. To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical cyclone must have one-minute maximum sustained winds of at least 74 mph (33 m/s; 64 km; 119 km/h) (Category 1).
Also, there is the case of Bombogenesis. Bombogenesis, a popular term used by meteorologists, occurs when a midlatitude cyclone rapidly intensifies, dropping at least 24 millibars over 24 hours. This can happen when a cold air mass collides with a warm air mass, such as air over warm ocean waters. The formation of this rapidly strengthening weather system is a process called bombogenesis, which creates what is known as a bomb cyclone.
So Always in the statement makes the statement incorrect.
Q.42) The strength of Westerlies in the Southern hemisphere decreases as we move polewards from the subtropics. (From the Subtropics to Poleward). The strongest westerlies blow through Roaring forties.https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/wind/
@Thinker Ques no 5 stmt 1 - can it be right? word "only" is used, earth can be heated up from insolation too.
The question is previous year verbatim question of 2012. The statement is asking about the heating of the atmosphere (and not earth). Further, upward heating is caused only by radiation emitted from the earth's surface which are long wave radiations and are absorbed by the atmosphere thereby getting heated.
Doubts:
Q47. Aren't tropical cyclones more destructive than extra tropical cyclones?! (Though the word used is 'always'). Were there any incidents recorded where extra tropical cyclones were more destructive than tropical cyclones?
Q.42. Strength of westerlies do increase in sothern hemesphere because of vast ocean. Thats why they r called roaring forties, and shrieking sixties.
Q. 47) Braer Storm of 1993 accelerated to nearly 150 km/h (93 mph).
The Saffir–Simpson hurricane wind scale (SSHWS), classifies hurricanes – Western Hemisphere tropical cyclones – that exceed the intensities of tropical depressions and tropical storms – into five categories distinguished by the intensities of their sustained winds. To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical cyclone must have one-minute maximum sustained winds of at least 74 mph (33 m/s; 64 km; 119 km/h) (Category 1).
Also, there is the case of Bombogenesis. Bombogenesis, a popular term used by meteorologists, occurs when a midlatitude cyclone rapidly intensifies, dropping at least 24 millibars over 24 hours. This can happen when a cold air mass collides with a warm air mass, such as air over warm ocean waters. The formation of this rapidly strengthening weather system is a process called bombogenesis, which creates what is known as a bomb cyclone.
So Always in the statement makes the statement incorrect.
Q.42) The strength of westerlies does increase in the southern hemisphere because of the vast ocean. This is what is mentioned in the statement of the question- The strength of Westerlies in the Southern hemisphere increases as we move polewards from the subtropics. (From the Subtropics to Poleward).
Sir, but in the answer given to Q42 is given as b) option
Then it should have been C) (i.e 2 and 3 only)
A typo error. Sorry for the mistake. please refer to it again.
please explain question no. 32 in Test 29
When a cold front passes over an area then
1.Temperature decreases
2. Relative humidity increases
3.Sky becomes clear
http://ww2010.atmos.uiuc.edu/(Gh)/guides/mtr/af/frnts/cfrnt/def.rxml
please tell me the specific doubt.
@Thinker . Okay sir. Thanks for the clarification. Will refer the updated key when it gets uploaded. :)
I have updated the explanation itself.
The strength of Westerlies in the Southern hemisphere decreases as we move polewards from the subtropics. (From the Subtropics to Poleward). The strongest westerlies blow through Roaring forties.https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/wind/
Sir , various other Web sites have mentioned that Furious Fifties and Shrieking Sixties are more stronger in intensity than roaring forties.
That's why I have changed the answer to both B and C.
Test 29, Q30
Why the option b is correct?Eastward flow of equatorial counter current is to maintain the volume of water in each side.
The North Equatorial Current and South Equatorial Current take the water from east to the western part of the ocean basins. As a result, there is a piling up of water in the western parts of ocean basins. This piled up water then flows from west to east in the form of a weaker counter current. It is this counter current in the pacific ocean, which becomes stronger during el Nino conditions.
Sir, there is a slight mis-match (1question) in estimated and actual correct questions in my case.
Is it the case that Question 42, has been awarded for B only? Kindly check the program awarding marks please.
Saying because the last time we had double answers, faced the same issue, mailed and it came out to be exactly this.
Please check once if marks have been awarded for double answer as per revised key.
Thanks
I will look into it.
It is the second-longest river in Kerala, after the Periyar River. Please refer the link http://kerenvis.nic.in/Database/Bharathappuzha_1842.aspx
Test 34 Q No. 20
Ans should be 'A'
As IMD Chennai website shows rainfall received through S-W Monsoon is nearly 75% . Not more than 75%
Attaching link below
It's clearly written in NCERT as well as many other sources. Further, it is subject to interpretation as rainfall data that is measured varies according to the agencies. However generally country receives more than 75% of its rainfall from the southwest monsoon. Unless the question states drastic departure from the data it can be considered as correct.
Test 34 Q 14
Ans should be 'B'
As there no definite relationship between delayed monsoon and weak El Nino. It may or may not be.
As explained in article (link below)
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/el-nino-can-be-behind-monsoon-delay-experts-64586
Again it is subject to interpretation. There are many factors that affect monsoon in India and nobody can deny that El Nino is one of that factor.
@Thinker in question 8, ramganga river meets ganga at KANNAUJ and not HARDOI. please review.
Ramganga meets Ganga near Kannauj City. However, the place falls within the territorial jurisdiction of the Hardoi district. Ultimately, as NCERT mentions Kannauj, we had rectified the answer.
Sir/MadamWhy is thereNO SFG teston Class 12 NCERT India People & Economy?Is it not needed for UPSC?It has imp chaptersUnit III5.Land Resources and Agriculture40-596.Water Resources60-717.Mineral and Energy Resources72-848.Manufacturing Industries85-1039.Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context104-112Unit IV10.Transport and Communication113-12411.International Trade124-132
Al these topics overlap with the economic portion hence we will cover it in the economics section. However, u shall go though the said topics from Geo NCERT as it will help you in your preparation.
@Thinker can you recheck the answer for question 4 in test 35
Tropical moist deciduous covers more area than dry deciduous.
Source:Khullar.
SFG test 35 - Q.4
Test:35 Q.5 Pearl millet is a draught resistant crop. https://extension.uga.edu/publications/detail.html?number=B1216&title=Pearl%20Millet%20for%20Grain
Did the mastery over agriculture act as a leverage for the rise of Harappan towns and cities??? Discuss.
Plz give me the answer with explanation
Can you please elaborate. Is it a statement or you want a mains answer point? Anyhow, the statement is true and hence can be discussed or elaborated.
Test:35 Q.5 Pearl millet is a draught resistant crop. https://extension.uga.edu/publications/detail.html?number=B1216&title=Pearl%20Millet%20for%20Grain
The same qs was repeated in test 36
Q47. https://cropgenebank.sgrp.cgiar.org/index.php/regeneration-guidelines-of-crops/pearl-millet-mainmenu-409
@Thinker sir pls clarify
Q32 Test 36
Sir , Mumbai port is the largest container port of India , known as JNPT or Navasheva .
So option C should be correct.
Mumbai port and JNPT are two different ports. Mumbai port is handled by Mumbai Port Trust whereas JNPT as the name suggest is handled by Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust.
@Thinker Q30 test 36.
It is a previous year question and i think all of these crops are used as pulse,fodder and green manure.
Its 2012 previous year question and according to answer key the answer is A ie. 1 and 2 only.
Please check the question no 29.
HFC though relatively small, but do contribute to ozone depletion as can be seen on various sources including NASA.
The answer should be then 1 and 2 .. which is a not an option in question.
Kindly look into it.
It is a study thatclaimsto be so. However, the NIOS books and government data referer to otherwise. Further, the Kigali agreement had referred to it as a gas with green house warming potential without referring to ozone depletion. Hence I did not change the answer.
Anyways this kind of questions are dynamic in nature which can be justified in either way but we are going with Kigali Amendment and other government sources.
Statement 3 of Q47 test 37 (About IPCC) given wrong as per answer key. Can anyone make me understand it please?
Through its assessments, the IPCC determines the state of knowledge on climate change. It identifies where there is an agreement in the scientific community on topics related to climate change, and where further research is needed. The reports are drafted and reviewed in several stages, thus guaranteeing objectivity and transparency. The IPCC does not conduct its own research. It also doesn't monitor climate-related data. It is a scientific body. It reviews and assesses the most scientific and technical information which is important in understanding climate change.
@Thinker sir stmt 2 in ques no 6 i think stmt should be "will start phasing down by 2028 or "will be phasing down HFCs from 2018". Stmt " will be phasing down by 2028"giving imression as if they would stopped using HFC in 2028 itself,making it wrong
@Thinker Kindly look into following doubts/queries regardingTEST 38
1. Question No. 23
The Chairperson for CAMPA is Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
The answer should perhaps be "B" both 2&3accordingly.
Click here for official CAMPA Act, 2016 -Kindly refer Page 7, Article 8(4)
2. Question No. 29
The time for notice is 60 days and not 90 days.
The answer should perhaps be"A"1 onlyaccordingly.
Click here for official EPA, 1986 -Kindly refer Page 278, Chapter IV-Para-19(b)
3. Question No. 46
Click here for official Biological Diversity Act,1986 -Kindly refer Page 3, Chapter II, Para-3(2)(b)
As per act"a citizen of India, who is a non-resident as defined in clause (30) of section 2 of the Income-tax Act, 196 1",or NRI in common terms is required to take approval from NBA.
NRI is a miniscule sub-set of "a citizen of india", as mentioned in Question 46(1)
If a subset satisfies a particular condition, its supersetcannot be deduced to necessarily satisfy the same. (although the vice-versa is true)
Hence, the"a citizen of india"if not defined further, probably refers to 99+percent citizens residing in India, who need not take approval of NBA.
The answer should perhaps be "B" both 2&3 accordingly.
Request you to kindly pay heed to the doubts/queries and make changes to key, if required.
SFG 38, QUES 29:
@Thinker What about question 3?Please correct it
Which test?
@Thinker Okay Sir.IUCN status of Pigmy Hog hasn't been assessed since 2016 it seems.As per Down to Earth magazine's article (2018) and Shankar IAS'(Chapter 12) they are Critically Engangered. What should be the final status then ?
The revised publication of IUCN in 2019 mentions it as Endangered. Thus we shall consider it as Endangered only.
Kindly tell the corresponding Ramesh Singh Chapters (10th edition) for the Economics SFG tests
31st Jan - Chapter 1 (Intro) + Chapter 20 (HDI)
3rd Feb - Chapter 11 (Indian Financial Market) + Chapter 12 (Banking) + Chapter 18 (Financial Inst.)
4th Feb - Chapter 7 (Inflation) + Chapter 12 (Bnaking - only MP section)
5th Feb - Chapter 15 and 16.
However, apart from the aforementioned sources please o through the 11th and 12th (Macro) NCERT and Economic Survey of last year for the corresponding topics.
Question no 31 of test no 40.
Option B says that "Kuno palpur Wildlife sanctuary has been choosen for possible reintroduction".
Infact it was Nauradehi Wildlife sanctuary which was choosen from amongst 3 sites identified.Link to the article
In the recent court judgement too, there's no specific mention of Kuno palpur(earlier identified amongst 3 sites but not choosen) being choosen for reintroduction.
Infact supreme court in 2012 said that Lion population in Kuno Palpur may not be sustainable for leopard survival.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/african-cheetahs-can-be-brought-into-india-rules-supreme-court-69010. Plz go through this article.
Both statements are true. Since the question is asking incorrect, the answer is D i.e. Neither 1 nor 2.
Question no 31 of test no 40.
Option B says that "Kuno palpur Wildlife sanctuary has been choosen for possible reintroduction".
Infact it was Nauradehi Wildlife sanctuary which was choosen from amongst 3 sites identified.Link to the article
In the recent court judgement too, there's no specific mention of Kuno palpur(earlier identified amongst 3 sites but not choosen) being choosen for reintroduction.
Infact supreme court in 2012 said that Lion population in Kuno Palpur may not be sustainable for leopard survival.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/african-cheetahs-can-be-brought-into-india-rules-supreme-court-69010. Plz go through this article.
The article itself mentions that "The court has now asked NTCA to conduct a survey to find a new site for the re-introduction to reassess the potential of Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary and also see if there are any sites which might prove to be better."
Nonetheless, Thankyou :)
Kuno Palpur was already chosen hence the court asked to reassess its the potential. Further, the court never canceled the chosen site of Kuno Palpur. It just a survey that will reassess 3 sites initially finalized in 2009 for the project.
sfg test 41 Q)9 option 1 wrong it should be working age population.Hence no option in Ans.Sir told it will be cancelled.Please look into.
Are Deposit taking NBFCs considered under Systemically important NBFC?
I think Non-Deposit taking ND-NBFCs are only considered under this category which have asset size of over 500 crores.
Test 42, Ques 36
According to the RBI website,NBFCs whose asset size is of ₹ 500 cr or more as per last audited balance sheet are considered as systemically important NBFCs. The rationale for such classification is that the activities of such NBFCs will have a bearing on the financial stability of the overall economy.
Please refer to the link given below.
https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=92
Test 42 Q 6
Sir in this question statement 2 mentions that classification of plan and non-plan expenditure was ended by government in the budget in 2016.
In the Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh book, it is mentioned that it was announced in Union Budget 2017-18 and not in 2016. (Page: 18.4)
Therefore answer should be ( a ) and not ( c ).
Please clarify.
Test 42, Ques 6
It was stated by the Union Finance Minister while presenting the General Budget 2016-17 in Lok Sabha that the Plan and Non-Plan classification will be done away with from fiscal 2017-18.
The answer will be updated in the answer key. The answer will be A
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=136996
@Thinker Test 42, Question 16: Mutual funds in India are regulated by SEBI only. The answer should be (a)
SFG 42 Q.16)
Mutual funds, first of all, came in the money market (regulated by the RBI), but they have the freedom to operate in the capital market, too. This is why they have a provision of dual regulators—the RBI and SEBI.While RBI regulates MFs in the money market, SEBI regulates all MFs in the capital market. Besides, Mutual funds are affected by the RBI stipulation on structure, issuance, pricing, and trading of government securities. Besides, a mutual fund should have the approval of RBI in order to provide a guaranteed returns scheme.
Source: Ramesh Singh 10th edition, pg: 11.6
https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_SpeechesView.aspx?id=584
@Thinker Q6. (Test 43)
Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India. The State governments do not issue any treasury bills.
So answer should be A?
The answer is D only. States are not allowed to issue Treasury Bills. The third statement reads that the states are not
allowed to issue Treasury Bills.
Respected Mar/Madam,
Today's test number 45 of SFG about South Indian kingdom and Jainism and Buddhism. There are two answer given as wrong answer.1) Question number 15 answer is givenD but it's "C" about Kingdom Associated with Buddha, only Kosala and Magadha associated with life of Buddha not Avanti, it's previous year UPSC question.2) Question number 26 anwer is given C but it's "B" Because Cholas empire was divided into Mandalams and nadus not Rastrakutas.Kindly Correct above answer and revise Answer key and also Revise Rank list.Regards,Vijay Rahane
The answers to both the Questions 15 and 26 of SFG 45 will be updated in the key.
With reference to Test 45:
Q 15 - Answer should be (c) 2&3
Q 26 - Answer should be (b) 2 only
Kindly provide the right answer even if rank is not changed. That is more important
It hasn't been done for the past 2-3 tests.
Thank you
The answers to both the Questions 15 and 26 of SFG 45 will be updated in the key.
@Thinker - Q26 (test 45)
Statement 1: its not Rashtrakuta, but the CHOLA EMPIRE, was divided into mandalams and Nadus. Rashtrakuta was divided into Rashtras, vishyas and bhuktis.
So answer should be B. (answer key says c)
Someone please rectify.
The answer will be updated in the key.
Test 44 Q34
Adb follows one country one vote system???
I think it is NDB who has this .
Ans should be D
The answer will be updated in the key
@ThinkerSFG test 44 Check Key for Q)8 hard currency Q)34 ADB wrong answers given
For Ques 8:
Hard currency is the international currency in which the highest faith is shown and is needed by every economy. Soft currency is the term used in the foreign exchange market which denotes the currency that is easily available in any economy in its forex market. For example, the rupee is a soft currency in the Indian forex market. It is basically the opposite term for hard currency.
For Ques 34, the answer will be updated.
Q18 test 48.
Sir's lectrure true?
RS Sharma True?
Image -India's ancient past by RS Sharma -Oxford university press 23rd impression 2016.
Plz refer to page number 47 of the link given below. It is of IGNOU and hence UGC approved. http://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20138/1/Unit-12.pdf
SFG 47 Q)15 Guilds/Shrenis is PYQ Ans in key is D UPSC ans is C
See Q)82 here
csp2012_p1_ans_keys.pdf
It will get updated in the final weekly result.
Test 47, Q28. Need explanation for statement 3 about Ashoka's Dhamma
The tribal policy of Chanakya first and then Ashoka was quite stern in nature. The wanted to break down the tribals into the unit of 5 to 6 families to be settled as agriculturalist. It was done with the hope that agricultural production would increase and tribal violence would decrease. Hence the threat by Ashoka. This information is available in detail in the IGNOU book. However, as I am unable to find the digital copy of that chapter I am attaching NCERT Screenshot.
The act of 1861 started the process of Legislative Decentralisation by restoring the Legislative powers of Bombay and Madras Province. Further, 3 natives were appointed in the Legislative Council of Viceroy. Hence the statement which is asking about Administrative decentralization stands wrong.
@Thinker : Test 2Q47. Statement 1 is correct."Person renounces his citizenship, minor child if the person also looses his citizenship".Answer should be D (neither is incorrect)Answer given in the key is b).Kindly clarify.
The incorrect statement has been asked. The first statement stands true as every minor child of a person who renounces his/her citizenship also lose citizenship. The second statement is incorrect as there is a wartime exception mentioned in the Citizenship Act. Hence answer is B i.e. 2 only is incorrect.
query regarding question: 44
The birth should be registered at an Indian consulate within 1 year as a necessary condition for citizenship right. merely having either of parents as an Indian citizen at the time of his birth would not suffice.
please do clarify.
There are two conditions. First of all the person's either parent shall be a citizen of India and then the person's birth is required to be registered in Indian Consulate within a year.
The statement is asking a person born outside Indiacanacquire citizenship by descent if either of his parents is a citizen of India. Then yes he can as he/she is satisfying the first condition. Had the statement mentionedonlythen it would have been wrong statement.
sgf 2/2
48. D? // b/c art 75(5) //
22. B?
Plz post your specific doubts.
For Q. 22. not associated with liberty has been asked.
For Q48. The First two statements hold true in the British Parliamentary system and not in Indian System which has been asked in the question. The third statement is true as a person can be appointed as Minister even if he is not a member of either house of Parliament for 6 months.
BATCH 2- TEST 2:
I found some mistakes in the key of test 2. Please weigh in.
KEY ANS
Q16. C D
Q27. C A
Q29. D C
Q 16. The question is asking for incorrect statement. The first statement is incorrect as Distributive Justice comprises of Economic and Social Justice. The second statement is correct as it is a layman's understanding of Political Justice. The third statement is incorrect again as term Socialist was added to the Preamble (and not social which was already present in Preamble associated with Justice - Social Economic and Political). The question is asking for an incorrect statement hence 1 and 3 is the answer.
Q 27. I will put a detail explanation in some time.
Q 29. All the pairs are correctly matched. Its a factual detail but an important one. Plz, refer to chapter 11 of Laxmikanth and table given in it regarding Basic Structure and Cases.
@root @Thinker
Test 2 Q 29
Sir, in this question in the 4th statement may be due to misprint or otherwise name of case and elements of basic structure was interchanged. So it created ambiguity in deciding answer.
So, please clarify that whether answer should be ( D) or ( C ).
It was a printing mistake. Anyhow the pairs is matched correctly and hence ans stands D i.e. all of the above.
Q48: a non member of parliament can be appoiinted as minister (though for 6 months). So isn't the statement correct?
Q26: How is the govt present in religious institutions?
Q. 48. The question is asking for incorrect statements.
Q26. India follows positive secularism and hence there is a presence of Government in religious institutions (eg. Temple Trusts like Shirdi Temple Trust whose chairman is appointed by Govt or regulation of temple trust by Government via Societies Registration Act / similarly Waqf Board which monitors the donations given by Muslims have government nomination) and religious institution in government (for eg. Madarsas which are established under Religiou Endowments Act are totally run by government)
I have a confusion regarding the option in question no. 3 of sfg test 2. The option 97th amendment included fundamental duties for promotion of cooperative societies should be correct. The answer is however "3 only".
The 97th CAA added aFundamental Rightunder art 19 that provides for the formation of cooperative societies (noaddition to Fundamental Duties was made). Hence 2nd the statement is incorrect. In fact, there has been only one amendment in Fundamental Duty that was by 86th CAA which provides forDuty to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 to 14 years.
I have a confusion regarding the option in question no. 3 of sfg test 2. The option 97th amendment included fundamental duties for promotion of cooperative societies should be correct. The answer is however "3 only".The amendment added an DPSP and not an FD. Hence wrong.
The amendment added Part XI B + Amended Art 19 to add Fundament Right to form cooperative societies + DPSP was added Art 43 B
Test 2 Question number 2 in Statement 3 it is written "Andhra Pradesh was created before the States Reorganization Act was enacted."
But it was Andhra state which was created NOT Andhra Pradesh. If anybody has knowledge on this can clarify.
Otherwise this question seems invalid as 1 only is not there in options
I am looking into it. Plz, give some time. Any revision in the key will take place prior to weekly adaptation of result now and I will cross-check the validity of question till then.
This question is not related to any mistake in answer key but just to add to a point of discussion with respect to
Q24 (sfg test2).
option 2....while parliamentary system was declared a part of basic structure in Kesavanand case (1973) why did the Central government in1975 refer the matter of examining whether parliamentary system in India should be replaced by Presidential system toSwaran Singh Committeeas even if it was recommended by the Committee, it couldn't be put into place due to the basic structure violation.
The constitution is a dynamic document that means it keeps on evolving over the time via amendment of the Constitution. Now Supreme Court is a self-correcting agency meaning that it has the power to change its earlier verdicts. The Parliamentary system was declared as Basic Structure in 1972 (as per contemporary circumstances) but it does not mean that it can never be amended.
The Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the constitution via Article 368 and that includes any provision of the constitution. No suppose, today, Parliament passes a Constitutional Amendment bill changing the Parliamentary system to the federal system in Indian Constitution (the parliament can do that). In such a scenario, the SC again checks the validity of that provision as per the current circumstances. If SC again finds that the Parliamentary system is best suited then it will reaffirm the Kesavanad Bharti case verdict. However, if SC finds that now the Parliamentary system is indeed redundant then it will change the verdict given in the Kesavanada Bharti case and allows for Federal structure to continue.
In a nutshell, if SC declares a particular provision as the basic structure of the constitution then Parliament is not supposed to change it via amendment (but Parliament is not bound by it as article 368 and Article 13 gives power to Parliament to change any provision of the Constitution). It is this particular thin line that executive and legislature enter into time and again and that is what was the intention of the Indira Gandhi government when it constituted Swaran Singh Committee.
Dear all,
First of all, I am extremely sorry for the delayed reply today as I was trapped in something. Please give me time till tomorrow morning and I will answer all your queries. There seem to be a lot of uncertainties regarding Presidential System question and Martial Law question. However, the answers which we have provided stand true and will not change. I will be putting a detail explanation for both by tomorrow morning along with answers for all your queries. Please bear with me till tomorrow.
Please explain Q. 10 ( dpsp constitute limitations upon? )
DPSP is not a limitation upon the executive or legislature as they are non-justiceable in nature. Means Executive and legislature has the power to determine its time and mode of implementation. Thus they are not considered to be a limit on the powers of either executive or legislature.
Test 3, Q17
Statement 1: Sec. 3 of First Constitutional amendment substituted 19 (2) withRetrospective effect. It reads
Amendment of article 19 and validation of certain laws.-(1) In
article 19 of the Constitution,-
(a) for clause (2), the following clause shall be substituted, and the
said clause shall be deemed always to have been enacted in the
following form, namely:---
"(2) Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the
operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any
law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the
exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the
interests of the security of the State, friendly relations with
foreign States,public order, decency or morality, or in relation to
contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.";
Thus, it can be construed public order as a reasonable restriction does form a original part. which makesstatement 1 wrong.Contrary, "thesovereignty and integrity" was added by Sixteenth amendment and is not a original part of the constitution
@Thinker
That is what. It wasintroduced by 1st CAA with retrospective effectand hence it did not form the part of the original constitution.
Q8 correct answer should be b instead of a
Q18 correct answer should be d instead of b
Please clarify it
Q18) Statement 3 is incorrect- The equal treatment in equal circumstances and not in every circumstance. People placed in different circumstances shall not be treated equally. For example reservation for backward classes of citizens is a kind of positive discrimination allowed under Art 14 as this class of the citizen was at a historic disadvantaged position compare to Upper classes. Hence different treatment.
@Thinker can you please explain the options of Q 18.
My explanation- although the First two elements of rule of law are applicable to the Indian system, but A 14 in itself contains only the second element(Equality before law) and element 1 may be applicable but not under A14.
No option should be correct thus.
Equality before the law is a wider concept and is subjected to many connotations. It means law shall treat each and every citizen equally without any discrimination which also means there is the absence of arbitrary powers to state (in other words the state can not discriminate in terms of punishment or giving service etc.). It also means the absence of privileged sections in society as each and everyone is treated equally by the law. So the absence of arbitrary power is one of the inherent features of Art 14. In any case, it is a general understanding that if a state is having arbitrary powers then equality before the law can not be secured.
Let us ask from them to provide the answers for at least the current affairs day's tests. The whole exercise become futile when answers there is jo clarity about the concepts that are wrong.
We are working on it. I will update you once the modalities are decided. But by next week it will be done. Please bare with us till then.
Test 3 Q50
WHO has named the disease COVID-19 and the name of the virus is SARS - CoV - 2 .
The question gives the name of the virus as "CONVID-19"
@Thinker please take note.
Noted. Necessary changes will be made.
@Thinker Constitution is amended by 3 ways - (a) simple majority, (b) special majority (c) spl majority with state ratification
Why then Constitutional Amendment Acts list includes only (b) & (c) , despite (a) also being one?
Indian constitution is federal in nature in the sense that it has provided for the dual polity in the country. But ours is not a strict federal polity as it has some unitary traits to make the centre strong in order to preserve the territorial integrity. It is because of this aspect the framers of the constitution provided for two ways of amending the constitution. The first way is a simple majority whereby Parliament has all the power to amend the constitution without taking into consideration the will of the state. for eg. Art 3 and 4 which prohibits states from having any say over territorial integrity. The other way is to amend the constitution via Art 368 which provides for an amendment to the constitution via (a) Special Majority & (b) Special Majority + Ratification by half of the state legislature. This Art 368 covers the important federal provision as well as other rights related provisions. Basically, whenever the provision of simple majority is used to amend the constitution it is not considered as Amendment to the constitution under article 368 & hence simple majority is outside of the ambit of article 368 and hence not called as Constitutional Amendment.
Test3 Q14
@Thinker can you please elaborate a bit on Essentiality Doctrine that is mentioned in the question. Is it the same as Doctrine of Essential Religious Practises ?
The Fundamental Rights have provided for the Right to religion that includes the right to religious practices. For example, reading Namaz or carrying kirpan etc. However ever since independence, there was a debate in the country regarding what constitutes religious practices. Accordingly, the Supreme Court settled the dispute by proclaiming the Doctrine of Essentiality. It means SC will decide on a case to case basis as to what constitute the essential practices of a particular religion. For example, SC in 1994 verdict said that the Mosque does not form the essential religious practice as Namaz (which is an essential religious practice) can be read anywhere. This doctrine was again evoked by the SC recently in giving Ayudhya case verdict. As Mosque does not constitute essential religious practice it doesnt have protection of FR under the Constitution.
@Thinker regarding Q12 of test 4- OPTION 2 IS CORRECT AS PER OFFICIAL WEBSITE. FORMER MEMBERS OF PARLIAMENT ARE ELIGIBLE FOR ITS MEMBERSHIP.
As per Rule 4 of the Rules of Indian Parliamentary Group, on ceasing to be a Member of Parliament, a life member of the Group shall be designated as 'associate life member' and shall be entitled to such facilities only as are available to associate life members under Rule 7.
Hence, former Members of Parliament, are designated as ‘Associate Member’ with limited rights. The link to the rules is:
http://ipg.nic.in/RulesIPG.aspx
For further clarity, one can also refer to the list of Members (includes only current MPs) and the list of Associate Members given on the website.
Test 4 . Isnt 12th questions answer A. Ex Mp's are eligible for membership in IPG
As per Rule 4 of the Rules of Indian Parliamentary Group, on ceasing to be a Member of Parliament, a life member of the Group shall be designated as 'associate life member' and shall be entitled to such facilities only as are available to associate life members under Rule 7.
Hence, former Members of Parliament, are designated as ‘Associate Member’ with limited rights. The link to the rules is:
http://ipg.nic.in/RulesIPG.aspx
For further clarity, one can also refer to the list of Members (includes only current MPs) and the list of Associate Members given on the website.
What is the difference between majority of all the members of rajya sabha and majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha? As far as I understand, the former is thr absolute majority and latter is effective majority. But doesn't the resolution for dty chairman removal require absolute majority?
Absolute Majority = The majority of the total membership of the house. For example, LS has 545 members so the absolute majority becomes 273.
Effective majority = Majority of all the then members of the house. It means total members minus vacancies (not absentees). For example, LS has 545 members and for some reason 45 seats are vacant (so effectively, the LS has effective strength of 500 members). So effective membership means majority of 500 members.
Chairman (or Vice President) & Deputy Chairman of RS and Speaker & Deputy Speaker all these offices can be removed via effective membership of the respective houses. Plz, refer article 90 and 94 for the same.
EXPLANATION FOR MARTIAL LAW QUESTION = HOW IT IS AFFECTING THE CENTRE STATE RELATIONS.
The constitution of India provides for Suspension of FR during Martial Law under article 34.
Now the term Martial law means the military rule and whenever it is implemented the government of the day along with legislature and ordinary law courts stand suspended. However, in the case of India, the Constitution itself provides for Martial law under article 34 by stating that Parliament will dilute the FR during Martial Law. It means the Martial Law in the country can be implemented by the executive i.e. government of the day or President (though he is Supreme Military Commander in the country he shall implement the Martial Law in his Executive capacity). The Martial Law is implemented by executive in a particular area, say for example entire state, then obviously the powers ordinary law court + Legislature and above all the Executive of the day stand diluted as that is the purpose of Martial Law (to give supreme power to the Military over the particular area). These powers fell into the hand of the Military but as the Martial Law is itself implemented by the Executive the actual power of the administration of that area fell into the hand of the executive. Thus, by and large, the provision of Martial Law affect the Centre-State Relation as provided into Constitution as the separation of power is no longer there during Martial Law.
@Thinker test 4, Q21. IRCTC doesn't run trains. There is no operational charge. It's for catering and allied services. Please clarify. Thank you
Indian Railways’ CorporateTrain Model is used by Indian Railways to outsource the running of regular passengers trains to its PSU, the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC).
Plz refer to the article. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/how-does-railways-corporate-train-model-work-6271227/
ANNOUNCEMENT -
Dear all,
1) We are extremely sorry for the two different question papers provided today to a different sets of candidates. It was an unfortunate and unintentional mistake and will not happen again. The details of the question which were cancelled have been updated on the website. Plz find the same on the following link https://sgp1.digitaloceanspaces.com/forumias/noticeboard/wp-content/uploads/2020/02/20144555/CORRIGENDUM-TO-THE-SFG_RLG-TEST-4.pdf
2) There will be separate doubt clearing session on Saturday for all 5 polity papers which we will have conducted by tomorrow. Interested candidates are requested to attend it for clarity on any question.
Hi I'm a SFG students, I think the program is good , just 51 days yu'll be completing the whole syllabus by following the schedule rigorously.. Remaining days if we revise it again and again we can crack the prelims.. I found some errors in the question paper , they are not providing the answers with explanations.. UPSC questions may also comes from the explanation. Daily we can't the search the answers and learn thàt is a tedious one.. On the other hand we hv to study for next-day schedule.. So I request if yu feel the same pls DEMAND ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION...
Dear Mohanraj, first of all, we appreciate your faith in us and at the same time, we also understand your plight and are considering it on a serious note. We are working on some modalities of providing an explanation sheet and you can expect it be there by next week at the most. Please bare with us till then. Meanwhile, we are conducting a separate doubt clearing session on Saturday after the test. Feel free to attend it in case you need clarification on any questions. Thank you.
HELLO SIR,
could you please re post the schedule of SFG TEST 2 schedule along with its proper planner. as i am unable to find this in website.
https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/e/2PACX-1vTumKuAdZmb4wZ78BjxvaCnIMPVUflrl0yv8iKrqFJnYJ7EjgXmk6oB2ddQSYXV2clUWwVAhpFv2IKG/pubhtml?gid=1312782196&single=true Plz find it here.
SFG-2 Test-8 Q.No.34(25th feb)
Please rectify the answer key of Q.No.34.The 2nd statement i.e.State govt.can borrow only from within india is correct.So the ans.should be option-C-Both1&2.
It is old information and needs updation. State Govt agencies can borrow loans from abroad since 2017. Plz refer the article https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=161135
http://mowr.gov.in/sites/default/files/A1956-33.pdf
q 49 answer will be C
Water disputes act empowers the Central govt not Parliament.Please go through the text of the act in the link above
The question is asking for an INCORRECTstatement. Hence only 1 is wrong.
Q.21
CARA is statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development established under Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.answer of Q.21 should be C
Q.49
Water disputes Act 1956 does not empower parliament.it empowers centre to set up ad hoc tribunal
answer of Q.49 should be C
Q.32
Why is option C wrong. Isn’t it a vague statement?ans can be either A or D
Q21) CARA was established in 1990 and given statutory status in the 2015 Juvenile Justice Act. As the question is asking which bodies were established by the Juvenile Justice Act 2015 the option 2 is wrong. CARA was not established under the Juvenile Justice Act 2015. It was given statutory status under the ACT of 2015 and not established under it.
Q49) Question is asking to identify theINCORRECTstatement hence answer is 1 only.
Q32) Ans is A only i.e. 1 and 2.
We have already canceled the question because of the same concern. The explanation has also been provided for the same at the bottom of the answerkey.
Q21 cara is under JJ act.
Q 22. How is first statement wrong? It is to be administered by central govt through lt
Gov.
Q32. Statement third doesn't mention earstwhile Kashmir or UT kashmir. Can be either
Q34. Can the state govt borrow from outside India? How is the second statement wrong?
Q49 The act empowers the centre and not the Parliament.
Please review all the above stated questions. Thankyou
I have provided an explanation for all of your queries. Please read the thread.
@Thinker With respect to statement 1 of Q 29 - its an abridged form of Art 365.
Art 365 says - When state has failed to comply with 'any' directions " given in exercise of Executive power of Union" undet the provisions of Constitution then....
While statement 1 uses 'any' in a blanket form which i think makes the statement incorrect as only constitutional directions from Centre to State qualifies under this.
Centre directing the state for eg to make law on a state subject or directing it to reduce mortality rate by x%, etc aren't constitutional directions & hence not following them isn't reason for applying President Rule. (SC in Bommai case has laid down cases of improper & proper use of Art 356).
365. Effect of failure to comply with, or to give effect to, directions given by the Union Where any State has failed to comply with or to give effect to any directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any of the provisions of this Constitution, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
This is a verbatim definition of article 365. Furthur the constitution has mentioned only some directions from centre to state. However Constitution has nowhere put limitations on the power of centre to give direction to the state and that is what article 365 suggest.
@Thinker wrt the discussion above on change in 2017 guidelines allowing state govt "entities" to allow borrowing directly from outside agencies based on a guarantee by state govt.... (Q34)
aren't state govt 'entities'(MMRDA,etc) & state govt different for borrowing purposes?
How can they be different? Can state govt entities borrow loans without guarantee of state consolidated fund or without permission of the State government?
Sfg-2 test 9Why is Q42 cancelled?The question asks for correct statements.There is right answer available in the options
Statement 1 is incorrect - as it is three types and not three-tier.
Statement 2 is incorrect - as it is a voluntary provision and not compulsory.
Statement 3 is incorrect - as State FC and EC are constituted by the 73rd constitutional amendment act.
Since all are incorrect and no option mentions NONE OF THE ABOVE the question stand canceled.
This was the original provision of the Constitution which has been amended by 51st Constitutional Amendment Act. It was further extended via 57th CAA.
The Constitution (Fifty-first Amendment) Act, 1984 was enacted to provide for reservation of seats in the House of the People for the Scheduled Tribes in Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh and also for reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of Nagaland and Meghalaya by suitably amending articles 330 and 332.
Plz, refer the link. https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-fifty-seventh-amendment-act-1987
Further in order to enforce this provision the Section 7 of Representation of Peoples Act 1951 was amended. Plz, refer to the link. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/184733422/
Dear Candidates,
The solutions for Test numbers 7, 8 and 9 have already been uploaded on the website. You can find them in the attached links too. The solution for test 10 will be uploaded by tomorrow morning. The solutions for SFG/RLG paper will be provided for all the paper henceforth with a 1-day delay at the most. We are trying our level best to provide solutions at the earliest to assist you in your comprehensive preparation. However, it will take some time and we sincerely request you to bear with us till then. Further, feel free to post any doubts after going through the explanation sheet.
Thanks and regards.
Test 11 Q 5- Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a petition to the House of Commons demanding india’s direct representation in British Parliament?
Ans given is d poona sarvajanik sabha. Shouldn’t it be b Indian association?
Indian Association was established in 1876. Then how can they send a petition in 1875? Anyways the question is UPSC previous year question and answer is Poona Sarvajanik Sabha established in 1870.
SFG_2-Test-11-Q.37
Statement-1: Dada bhai Naroji propunded Drain of wealth theory for first time in the book Poverty and unbritish rule in India.
This statement should be correct.
What is wrong with this statement.
Ans.should be (C)
The Drain of Wealth Theory was first given in 1867 by Dadabhai in a speech. This theory was further expanded by him in his book Poverty and Un-British rule of India which was published in 1901.
@Thinker Q14 test 10- Berlin committee- VIRENDRANATH 'CHATTOPADHYAY' WAS the leader, not VIRENDRANATH Chatterjee.
Please do correct !
Its one and the same thing the British used to pronounce Chatterjee as Chattopadhyay. Same is the case with Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (who wrote famous Anandmath containing out now national song Vande Mataram) who was also called as Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
Test 11 Q37
Dadabhai Naoroji
Statement 1 :-
He propounded the theory of Drain of wealth for the first time in his book Poverty and Un British rule in India .
( Why this statement is wrong???)
Please read the thread
Hi@Thinker
Q35 Test 9
There is misalignment of options as answer should be B and explanation is also correct but answer option is given wrong as A
Also the 3rd statement clearly says that president appoints SAT members yet, the option is termed as correct.
Please clear this out. Thank you
It seems there may have been a typing error. In any case, Both statements 1 and 2 will be correct and 3rd will be incorrect.
true.
Wrt Q.7 of Test 8, the 3rd statement - the CM of Puducherry and Delhi are appointed by the President, though sworn in by Lt. Gov. Won't that be the case in J&K also?
According to Section 54 of the JAMMU AND KASHMIR REORGANISATION ACT, The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Please refer to the link given below.
Agreed. Good one. Thank you
@mickeyviru masulipatnam factory was 1616. Surat 1613
Any source for it ?
In ncert I had read 1611 masulipatnam
@Thinker Could you please mention the source in which it is mentioned Surat factory was established in 1613.
Its a very common thing and I don't understand what is the problem over it. All the standard books mention it i.e. First British Factory at Surat after permission from Jahangir was set up in 1613. Just a normal google search is enough. I am attaching link below for you but I am not going to do this again. Please put in some efforts by yourself.
Dear Candidates, at least have the courtesy of going through the thread first before posting your doubt. I can not type and explain the same thing again and again. This kind of spoon-feeding is also not beneficial for you. The answer to the question of Chaterjee and Chattopadhyay had already been explained in the morning. I am copy-pasting the text again here for you but I will not do it henceforth.
It's one and the same thing the British used to pronounce Chatterjee as Chattopadhyay. The same is the case with Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (who wrote famous Anandmath containing out now national song Vande Mataram) who was also called Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
@Thinker Q4, test 12- it is 12 States and not 11, Laxmikant has not counted 1 state, article371-2 state (Mh,Guj), then 371A-J consist 10 States. Please do rectify
Yes, there are a total of 12 States. Article 371 itself mentions Maharashtra and Gujrat & Article 371 D mention Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. But Article 371 E is for Andhra again. So a total of 12 States with 11 articles from 371 to 371 J.
@Thinker question-29, test 12- Answer given is A which is absolutely wrong, please rectify, it should be C as it is asking correct options.
It is C only as mentioned in the key.
@Thinker Q no 24-option b i.e. IUCN RED LIST CLASSIFIES SPECIES INTO 8 CATEGORIES- PLEASE elaborate, data deficient is also counted to make it into 9 categories??
Plz, wait for the key. It will be uploaded in some time. But is indeed has 9 categories including DATA DEFICIENT and NOT EVALUATED.
Test 12 Que 4Article 371Statement 2It contains special provisions for 11 states .Staement becomes wrong , as 12 states are there ,Answer should be D
I too noted it. It will be changed in the revised key.
@Thinker Q4, test 12- it is 12 States and not 11, Laxmikant has not counted 1 state, article371-2 state (Mh,Guj), then 371A-J consist 10 States. Please do rectify
Yes, there are a total of 12 States. Article 371 itself mentions Maharashtra and Gujrat & Article 371 D mention Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. But Article 371 E is for Andhra again. So a total of 12 States with 11 articles from 371 to 371 J.
@Thinker shouldn't we consider all articles separate.? Are Articles 371-A to Article 371-J separate articles or amendments to the same article A371? (2 states (Maha + Guj) or 12 States?)
Obviously they are different articles. A total of 11 Articles including Article 371 (i.e. Article 371 & Article 371 A B C D E F G H I J) provides special status to 12 states in India. Whenever the article is mentioned in capital letters it is a separate article and whenever article is mentioned in small letters it is just a clause of that article.
Guys how to take maximum benefit from sfg??
My all time goes in completing the syllabus of next day,no time for analysing the paper and not even get the time for reading the solutions,forget about the revision
To take maximum benefit from SFG you need to frame a holistic strategy for yourself. Here is what I would suggest.
First of all, you need to segregate daily timing for SFG. Say for example 3-4 hrs for revision of today's paper and 5-6 hours of study for tomorrow's paper. adhere to the time limit strictly. Also, while revising today's paper make notes on it. Short and crisp notes are always beneficial for revision.
Second, keep in mind that this is the final revision that you are doing and hence prepare thoroughly now itself. If you think that you will revise all the bulky books after 17th April once more then it might not be feasible.
Third, after 17 April try to solve at least 10- 15 Simulator tests. Again you need to solve the paper first and then revise it and obviously with notes. This practice will consume at least 8-10 hours a day. Thus you may be able to cover not more than 15 papers by 1st of May.
Fourth, on 1st May all your study needs to be stopped and entire attention needs to be on revisions. If you follow whatever I have said then on 1st May you will have with yourself:
1) 51 SFG Test = approx 2600 question bank (this will include 8 polity test = 400 questions; 13 History tests =750 question, Environment and Economics = 300 questions each; Science and Tech = 100 questions ; Current Affairs = 350 question)
2) At least 10-15 Simulator Test = 1000 to1500 questions
3) Revision of all the essential books like Laxmikanth, Singhania, Spectrum, Economic Survey, etc (which you would have done while preparing for SFG Test)
From 1st May onwards you need to revise Point 1 and 2 i.e. all the papers that you would have solved by then. This would help in :
1) Revising all the subject in a months time which is the most crucial aspect
2) Getting a grasp on demand of prelims
3) As you would revise more than 3500 questions the confidence level will receive a boost.
The main problem in Prelims is not the coverage of the syllabus as you would end up doing everything for clearing prelims. The problem is in revision. If you follow the question paper-based approach then it will help you more in actual paper of UPSC than going for a book revision approach.
Guys, please check the changs in SFG/RLG on the following link. https://forumias.com/post/detail/Important-Continuation-of-SFGRLG-Batch-2-1584445552
A wiser option would be to make it available throughout the day. Now that they have said that there would be no reshuffling, I see no point in keeping a one-hour window only.
The SFG is designed in such a way that candidates can discipline their preparation so as to finish up the required portion of Pre in a time bound manner. Hence we have decided to make window open only for an hour. Further we plan to provide for Solution Sheet along with PDF paper and discussion video withing half an hour of end of exam so that you can finish up with today's paper revision as soon as you can. Hence we request you to please bear with us.
@Thinker Happy with the instant score and solution feature. Just a request/ suggestion (If at all it is possible)Can we have an option to bookmark questions in the solution page?? this would help us have a online repository of questions where we have made a mistake(concepts not strong).Instead of going through all the solutions we can directly go to the bookmarked questions for quick revision of concepts before exam.Rest happy with the online version. Was lucky to have a smooth exam at dot 7 :)
Thank you so much for your feedback. I will look into it.
How to download the question paper of Test 21 SFG/RLG of batch 2
I believe it will be available after the test is over at 10 am
Yes. The pdf paper and solution sheet will be released as soon as the timing of the exam is over. The discussion video and online answers will be released once your exam gets submitted.
@mickeyviru Rank is available at the link from where you took the test. I guess they are not publishing it like a list as earlier. You can see it from where you must have accessed the test.
I saw that but the earlier version was better for comparison and performance improvement.
If that is the case I request@forumiasacademy to publish the rank list like it was done earlier
Yes, the combined rank list for SFG/RL students will be released on a daily basis.
Dear candidates,
Unfortunately due to technical issues SFG 35 could not be conducted today. We apologize to you all for it and are doing our best to avoid such a situation in the future. We are now shifting SFG 35 (Environment Current Affairs January 2019 - March 2020) to 13th April and consequently, a minor change has been done in the schedule. Please go through the updated schedule on the following link. Thank you all for keeping your trust in ForumIAS.
SFG 2.0 Test 10, Modern History
Please check Q. 19 & 36
Q. 19 - Privileges were given in other areas as well like Surat, Hyderabad and Madras. Some of them were earlier privileges that were extended and were put in these farmans. So, shouldn't we assume that in terms of granting trade concessions the farmans were limited to Bengal, Bihar and Orissa but in terms of privileges given it included whole India.
So, in my opinion, the correct option would be C i.e., both statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.
Q. 36 - After Bassein Treaty, Marathas had to cede territory (yielding an amount of 26 lakhs) to the British, forgo their right to collect Chauth from Nizam territory and surrender Surat. All this would have weakened the Maratha Empire economically and these can be clubbed together as war indemnity.
So, in my opinion, the correct option would be C i.e., both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
Plz refer to this link and post all your doubts in this link itself.
