Could Zamindars at the same time be Peasants ?
As we all know that when peasants were not able to meet the land revenues demanded by the government, they would be forced to sell off their lands. But, we also know that Zamindars also used to have large lands with them as their owner and they would employ agriculturelabours for the cultivation.
I have the following 3 questions:
1. Can we safely say that Zamindars were also peasants as they also had lands that were used for cultivation?
2. What would happen if Zamindars were not able to meet the land revenue requirements for their own land. Did government sell Zamindar's land in that case?
3. Were landless agriculture labours also knows as Peasants ? If, yes the responsibility to pay tax were in hand of the actual land owners, right ?, And was there any term for these people who had land with them but actual cultivation was done by agriculture labours ?
