Answer with explanation please
One tip for medieval questions-
1. With respect to questions centred around politico-administrative machinery like Iqta system, Amar Nayaka system where a subsidiary unit gets some semblance of power, the status of these units is linked to the power of the King. It will beinversely proportional to the power of the king.
Eg: Iqta system was introduced by Iltutmish. He was a powerful Sultan. The kingdom was prosperous as well. So, Iqtadars were transferred at the whims and fancies of the Sultan.
Likewise, Vijayanagar kings were powerful. So, to assert their powers, they transferred Amar Nayakas at their own discretion.
Let's see a different scenario. During the reign of Feroz Shah Tughlaq, the kingdom was in tatters after the poor governance of his predecessor, Mohd. Bin Tughlaq. So, to appease the subsidiary units and to avoid a possible coup d'etat, he made the Iqta system hereditary. Shows how weak the king is when he is willing to share his power with other groups!
Likewise, Britishers introduced Permanent Settlement to ensure that they continue to assert their power. The Sunset revenue clause meant the land was transferrable and not a hereditary commodity anymore!
This kind of logic will help you answer other questions related to society, polity and economy of medieval dynasties.
Coming to the question now-
1 is correct. 2 is correct because they were indeed given independent territories to govern that explains why rebellious amar nayakas started troubling the successor of Krishna Deva Raya. (Kings became weak, so nayakas asserted power). They acted like feudal lords- got the land tax-free (manyams) and collected the revenue.
3 is also correct as discussed.
Great question
