Explanation Required for Q.28 of SFG Test 2.

PranavPBajpai

| 4 year(s) ago

SFG test 2:

Q.28 - which is correct?

1) sovereignty in India belong to people.

2) word ‘secular’ was originally present in constitution.

3) secularism is not a basic structure of Indian constitution.

Answer says - 1 and 2 are correct.

can anyone give explanation for 1 being correct ? - as in India we consider constitution to be sovereign.

curious_kid

7 comments

MysticalSoul .

commented 4 year(s) ago

"We the people" in the Constitution describes the concept of popular sovereignty, ie, people are the ultimate sovereign & they're the ones who've given the Constitution to themselves.
The word 'Secular' was originally present U/A 25. So only 1&2 are correct.

jack_Sparrow,curious_kidand3 otherslike this

MysticalSoul .

commented 4 year(s) ago

panbhi26967said
Also request to check question 18 and 27 too

Question 18: it deals with acts of states dealing with land reforms and not parliament.

& Question 27 yes BR amedkar was against inclusion of the word 'socialist' in the preamble as he felt the nature of the states economy and society should be decided by the people from time to time and hence should not be fixed by the assembly.

curious_kid,rootand1 otherslike this

Patrick_jane .

commented 4 year(s) ago

@nautiyalneha2326865 yes tq" other secular activity" is mentioned under article 25(2)(a).

root,MysticalSoul

shreesh3193435 .

commented 4 year(s) ago

sovereignty in India belong to people.

- 'we the people of India having solemnly resolved' in the preamble denotes the authority from where the power is derived. Therefore, being sovereign is granted by the people. Thus we have sovereignty in India.

- in the last line it says 'adopt, enact and give to our self', therefore belonging to the people.

Therefore, the sovereignty in India belong to people. However, Indians are not sovereign, except when they caste their own vote.

PranavPBajpai,