"When in doubt, observe and ask questions. When certain, observe at length and ask many more questions."
Created this thread as a one stop solution for all members so that all the doubts wherein any conceptual clarification is required can be solved here.
RER =Nominal exchange rate* (price of good in Foreign country/price of good in Domestic country).
That's why its not making sense
@mhs11 right to practice any profession ....could mean that any one could even perform gambling on internet...so it must be wrong??
Those are reasonable restrictions. The statements are general. Art 19 does say freedom to practice any profession
@walterwhit3 RER =Nominal exchange rate* (price of good in domestic country/price of good in forign country)so , if RER is high then price of good in domestic country would be more , hence expensiveif RER is low then price of domestic good is less and hence people would prefer buying domestic goods so imports would reduce and exports would rise.
RER =Nominal exchange rate* (price of good in Foreign country/price of good in Domestic country).
That's why its not making sense
Guys, please explain why both are not wrong.
Why I was thinking that both are wrong:1: Real exchange rate is defined as the ratio of Foreign Price to Domestic Price. High RER should mean that domestic prices are low.
2. Appreciation of currency or Increased Domestic inflation brings down RER. This reduces competitiveness and hence should reduce exports.
Please explain. Really a headache.
RER is low when currency depreciates. When currency depreciates exports increase.
@kraantikaari,@mhs11
Quoting Wikipedia:
"More in detail, an appreciation of the currency or a high level of domestic inflation reduces the RER, thus reducing the country's competitiveness and lowering the Current Account (CA). On the other hand, a currency depreciation generates an opposite effect, improving the country's CA.[15]"
@walterwhit3 I think that is wrong.......NER For usa is lets suppose 70rs. and price of good in usa is 1$, india is 35rsso rer=(70rs/1$)*(35rs/1$) with formula in ncert-----units will not get cancel out....hence it must berer=(70rs/1$)*(1$/35rs)----in this case rer comes out to be 2 with units get canceled
Mathematically correct but economically incorrect I guess. Price comparisons have to be made in same denominations. Here is IMF article:
https://www.imf.org/external/pubs/ft/fandd/basics/realex.htm
And even if that were true, I think in this case NER would have to be defined in terms of $ per Rupee. As both can be the definition of NER. I have read both formulas on credible sources.
@kraantikaari,@mhs11
Quoting Wikipedia:
"More in detail, an appreciation of the currency or a high level of domestic inflation reduces the RER, thus reducing the country's competitiveness and lowering the Current Account (CA). On the other hand, a currency depreciation generates an opposite effect, improving the country's CA.[15]"
Now I am confused too 😅
in this question ...can we assume 2nd statement as general statement......which is true except in some situations????
like right to practice any trade is general statement ....although there are restrictions but from solely reading this statement it seems wrong becoz of word "any".
what to consider in these type of questions? Is there any upsc previous year question like this??
in this question ...can we assume 2nd statement as general statement......which is true except in some situations????
like right to practice any trade is general statement ....although there are restrictions but from solely reading this statement it seems wrong becoz of word "any".
what to consider in these type of questions? Is there any upsc previous year question like this??
Going by the past upsc questions...I think we should take statement 2 as right. If negation of the statement is wrong then it should be right.