Contents
- 1 Economy Basics– 2020 and Before that
- 1.1 Economy Basics
- 1.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 1.1.0.2 Information
- 1.1.0.3 Results
- 1.1.0.4 Categories
- 1.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 1.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 1.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 1.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 1.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 1.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 1.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 1.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 1.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 1.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 1.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 1.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 1.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 1.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 1.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 1.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 1.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 1.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 1.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 1.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 1.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 1.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 1.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 1.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 1.2 Economy Basics Part-2
- 1.2.0.1 Test-summary
- 1.2.0.2 Information
- 1.2.0.3 Results
- 1.2.0.4 Categories
- 1.2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 1.2.0.4.2 2. Question
- 1.2.0.4.3 3. Question
- 1.2.0.4.4 4. Question
- 1.2.0.4.5 5. Question
- 1.2.0.4.6 6. Question
- 1.2.0.4.7 7. Question
- 1.2.0.4.8 8. Question
- 1.2.0.4.9 9. Question
- 1.2.0.4.10 10. Question
- 1.2.0.4.11 11. Question
- 1.2.0.4.12 12. Question
- 1.2.0.4.13 13. Question
- 1.2.0.4.14 14. Question
- 1.2.0.4.15 15. Question
- 1.2.0.4.16 16. Question
- 1.2.0.4.17 17. Question
- 1.2.0.4.18 18. Question
- 1.2.0.4.19 19. Question
- 1.2.0.4.20 20. Question
- 1.2.0.4.21 21. Question
- 1.2.0.4.22 22. Question
- 1.2.0.4.23 23. Question
- 1.2.0.4.24 24. Question
- 1.2.0.4.25 25. Question
- 1.3 Economy Basics III
- 1.1 Economy Basics
- 2 National Income– 2022
- 3 National Income– 2021
- 4 National Income– 2020 and Before that
- 5 Fiscal Policy– 2022
- 6 Fiscal Policy– 2021
- 7 Fiscal Policy– 2020 and Before that
- 7.1 Fiscal Policy Part-1
- 7.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 7.1.0.2 Information
- 7.1.0.3 Results
- 7.1.0.4 Categories
- 7.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 7.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 7.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 7.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 7.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 7.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 7.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 7.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 7.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 7.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 7.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 7.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 7.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 7.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 7.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 7.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 7.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 7.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 7.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 7.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 7.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 7.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 7.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 7.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 7.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 7.2 Fiscal Policy Part-2
- 7.2.0.1 Test-summary
- 7.2.0.2 Information
- 7.2.0.3 Results
- 7.2.0.4 Categories
- 7.2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 7.2.0.4.2 2. Question
- 7.2.0.4.3 3. Question
- 7.2.0.4.4 4. Question
- 7.2.0.4.5 5. Question
- 7.2.0.4.6 6. Question
- 7.2.0.4.7 7. Question
- 7.2.0.4.8 8. Question
- 7.2.0.4.9 9. Question
- 7.2.0.4.10 10. Question
- 7.2.0.4.11 11. Question
- 7.2.0.4.12 12. Question
- 7.2.0.4.13 13. Question
- 7.2.0.4.14 14. Question
- 7.2.0.4.15 15. Question
- 7.1 Fiscal Policy Part-1
- 8 Monetary Policy– 2022
- 9 Monetary Policy– 2020
- 10 Monetary Policy– 2020 and Before that
- 10.1 Monetary policy
- 10.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 10.1.0.2 Information
- 10.1.0.3 Results
- 10.1.0.4 Categories
- 10.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 10.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 10.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 10.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 10.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 10.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 10.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 10.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 10.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 10.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 10.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 10.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 10.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 10.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 10.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 10.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 10.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 10.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 10.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 10.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 10.1 Monetary policy
- 11 Money and Banking– 2022
- 11.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 11.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 11.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 11.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 11.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 11.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 11.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 11.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 11.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 11.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 11.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 11.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 12 Money and Banking– 2021
- 13 Money and Banking– 2020 and Before that
- 13.1 Money and banking
- 13.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 13.1.0.2 Information
- 13.1.0.3 Results
- 13.1.0.4 Categories
- 13.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 13.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 13.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 13.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 13.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 13.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 13.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 13.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 13.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 13.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 13.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 13.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 13.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 13.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 13.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 13.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 13.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 13.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 13.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 13.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 13.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 13.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 13.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 13.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 13.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 13.2 Money and banking Part-2
- 13.2.0.1 Test-summary
- 13.2.0.2 Information
- 13.2.0.3 Results
- 13.2.0.4 Categories
- 13.2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 13.2.0.4.2 2. Question
- 13.2.0.4.3 3. Question
- 13.2.0.4.4 4. Question
- 13.2.0.4.5 5. Question
- 13.2.0.4.6 6. Question
- 13.2.0.4.7 7. Question
- 13.2.0.4.8 8. Question
- 13.2.0.4.9 9. Question
- 13.2.0.4.10 10. Question
- 13.2.0.4.11 11. Question
- 13.2.0.4.12 12. Question
- 13.2.0.4.13 13. Question
- 13.2.0.4.14 14. Question
- 13.2.0.4.15 15. Question
- 13.2.0.4.16 16. Question
- 13.2.0.4.17 17. Question
- 13.2.0.4.18 18. Question
- 13.2.0.4.19 19. Question
- 13.2.0.4.20 20. Question
- 13.2.0.4.21 21. Question
- 13.2.0.4.22 22. Question
- 13.2.0.4.23 23. Question
- 13.2.0.4.24 24. Question
- 13.2.0.4.25 25. Question
- 13.3 Money and banking Part-3
- 13.3.0.1 Test-summary
- 13.3.0.2 Information
- 13.3.0.3 Results
- 13.3.0.4 Categories
- 13.3.0.4.1 1. Question
- 13.3.0.4.2 2. Question
- 13.3.0.4.3 3. Question
- 13.3.0.4.4 4. Question
- 13.3.0.4.5 5. Question
- 13.3.0.4.6 6. Question
- 13.3.0.4.7 7. Question
- 13.3.0.4.8 8. Question
- 13.3.0.4.9 9. Question
- 13.3.0.4.10 10. Question
- 13.3.0.4.11 11. Question
- 13.3.0.4.12 12. Question
- 13.3.0.4.13 13. Question
- 13.3.0.4.14 14. Question
- 13.3.0.4.15 15. Question
- 13.3.0.4.16 16. Question
- 13.1 Money and banking
- 14 Financial Market– 2022
- 14.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 14.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 14.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 14.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 14.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 14.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 14.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 14.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 14.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 14.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 14.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 14.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 15 Financial Market– 2021
- 16 Financial Market– 2020 and Before that
- 16.1 Financial market
- 16.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 16.1.0.2 Information
- 16.1.0.3 Results
- 16.1.0.4 Categories
- 16.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 16.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 16.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 16.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 16.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 16.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 16.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 16.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 16.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 16.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 16.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 16.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 16.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 16.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 16.1 Financial market
- 17 Five Year Plans and Economic Reforms– 2022
- 17.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 17.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 17.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 17.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 17.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 17.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 17.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 17.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 17.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 17.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 17.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 17.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 18 Five Year Plans and Economic Reforms– 2021
- 18.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 18.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 18.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 18.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 18.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 18.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 18.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 18.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 18.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 18.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 18.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 18.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 19 Five Year Plans and Economic Reforms– 2020 and Before that
- 19.1 Five year Plans and Economic Reforms in India
- 19.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 19.1.0.2 Information
- 19.1.0.3 Results
- 19.1.0.4 Categories
- 19.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 19.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 19.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 19.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 19.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 19.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 19.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 19.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 19.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 19.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 19.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 19.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 19.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 19.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 19.1 Five year Plans and Economic Reforms in India
- 20 Agriculture– 2022
- 20.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 20.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 20.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 20.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 20.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 20.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 20.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 20.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 20.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 20.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 20.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 20.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 21 Agriculture– 2021
- 21.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 21.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 21.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 21.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 21.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 21.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 21.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 21.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 21.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 21.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 21.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 21.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 22 Industries and Industrial Policies– 2022
- 22.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 22.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 22.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 22.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 22.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 22.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 22.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 22.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 22.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 22.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 22.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 22.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 23 Industries and Industrial Policies– 2021
- 23.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 23.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 23.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 23.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 23.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 23.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 23.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 23.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 23.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 23.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 23.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 23.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 24 Industries and Industrial Policies– 2020 and Before that
- 24.1 Industries and Industrial policies
- 24.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 24.1.0.2 Information
- 24.1.0.3 Results
- 24.1.0.4 Categories
- 24.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 24.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 24.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 24.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 24.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 24.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 24.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 24.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 24.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 24.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 24.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 24.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 24.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 24.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 24.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 24.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 24.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 24.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 24.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 24.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 24.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 24.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 24.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 24.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 24.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 24.2 Industries and Industrial policies 2
- 24.1 Industries and Industrial policies
- 25 Services– 2022
- 25.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 25.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 25.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 25.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 25.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 25.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 25.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 25.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 25.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 25.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 25.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 25.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 26 Services– 2021
- 26.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 26.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 26.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 26.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 26.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 26.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 26.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 26.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 26.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 26.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 26.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 26.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 27 Services– 2020 and Before that
- 27.1 Services
- 27.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 27.1.0.2 Information
- 27.1.0.3 Results
- 27.1.0.4 Categories
- 27.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 27.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 27.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 27.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 27.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 27.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 27.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 27.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 27.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 27.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 27.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 27.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 27.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 27.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 27.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 27.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 27.1 Services
- 28
- 29 Inflation and Employment– 2022
- 29.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 29.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 29.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 29.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 29.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 29.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 29.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 29.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 29.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 29.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 29.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 29.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 30 Inflation and Employment– 2021
- 30.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 30.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 30.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 30.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 30.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 30.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 30.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 30.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 30.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 30.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 30.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 30.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 31 Inflation and Employment– 2020 and Before that
- 31.1 Employment
- 31.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 31.1.0.2 Information
- 31.1.0.3 Results
- 31.1.0.4 Categories
- 31.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 31.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 31.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 31.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 31.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 31.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 31.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 31.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 31.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 31.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 31.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 31.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 31.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 31.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 31.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 31.1 Employment
- 32 Energy– 2020 and Before that
- 32.1 Energy
- 32.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 32.1.0.2 Information
- 32.1.0.3 Results
- 32.1.0.4 Categories
- 32.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 32.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 32.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 32.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 32.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 32.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 32.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 32.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 32.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 32.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 32.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 32.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 32.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 32.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 32.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 32.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 32.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 32.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 32.1 Energy
- 33 Infrastructure– 2022
- 33.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 33.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 33.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 33.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 33.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 33.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 33.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 33.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 33.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 33.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 33.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 33.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 34 Infrastructure– 2021
- 34.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 34.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 34.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 34.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 34.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 34.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 34.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 34.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 34.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 34.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 34.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 34.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 35 Infrastructure– 2020 and Before that
- 35.1 Infrastructure
- 35.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 35.1.0.2 Information
- 35.1.0.3 Results
- 35.1.0.4 Categories
- 35.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 35.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 35.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 35.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 35.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 35.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 35.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 35.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 35.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 35.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 35.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 35.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 35.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 35.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 35.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 35.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 35.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 35.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 35.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 35.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 35.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 35.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 35.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 35.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 35.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 35.2 Infrastructure II
- 35.1 Infrastructure
- 36 International Trade– 2022
- 36.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 36.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 36.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 36.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 36.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 36.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 36.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 36.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 36.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 36.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 36.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 36.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 36.0.0.0.13 Marking Pattern
- 36.0.0.0.14 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 36.0.0.0.15 Question No. 1
- 36.0.0.0.16 Question No. 2
- 36.0.0.0.17 Question No. 3
- 36.0.0.0.18 Question No. 4
- 36.0.0.0.19 Question No. 5
- 36.0.0.0.20 Question No. 6
- 36.0.0.0.21 Question No. 7
- 36.0.0.0.22 Question No. 8
- 36.0.0.0.23 Question No. 9
- 36.0.0.0.24 Question No. 10
- 37 International Trade– 2021
- 37.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 37.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 37.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 37.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 37.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 37.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 37.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 37.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 37.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 37.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 37.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 37.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 37.0.0.0.13 Marking Pattern
- 37.0.0.0.14 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 37.0.0.0.15 Question No. 1
- 37.0.0.0.16 Question No. 2
- 37.0.0.0.17 Question No. 3
- 37.0.0.0.18 Question No. 4
- 37.0.0.0.19 Question No. 5
- 37.0.0.0.20 Question No. 6
- 37.0.0.0.21 Question No. 7
- 37.0.0.0.22 Question No. 8
- 37.0.0.0.23 Question No. 9
- 37.0.0.0.24 Question No. 10
- 38 International Trade– 2020 and Before that
- 38.1 International trade
- 38.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 38.1.0.2 Information
- 38.1.0.3 Results
- 38.1.0.4 Categories
- 38.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 38.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 38.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 38.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 38.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 38.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 38.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 38.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 38.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 38.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 38.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 38.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 38.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 38.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 38.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 38.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 38.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 38.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 38.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 38.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 38.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 38.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 38.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 38.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 38.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 38.2 International trade II
- 38.1 International trade
- 39 Socio-Economic– 2020 and Before that
- 39.1 Socio-Economic
- 39.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 39.1.0.2 Information
- 39.1.0.3 Results
- 39.1.0.4 Categories
- 39.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 39.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 39.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 39.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 39.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 39.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 39.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 39.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 39.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 39.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 39.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 39.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 39.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 39.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 39.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 39.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 39.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 39.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 39.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 39.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 39.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 39.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 39.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 39.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 39.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 39.2 Socio-Economic II
- 39.2.0.1 Test-summary
- 39.2.0.2 Information
- 39.2.0.3 Results
- 39.2.0.4 Categories
- 39.2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 39.2.0.4.2 2. Question
- 39.2.0.4.3 3. Question
- 39.2.0.4.4 4. Question
- 39.2.0.4.5 5. Question
- 39.2.0.4.6 6. Question
- 39.2.0.4.7 7. Question
- 39.2.0.4.8 8. Question
- 39.2.0.4.9 9. Question
- 39.2.0.4.10 10. Question
- 39.2.0.4.11 11. Question
- 39.2.0.4.12 12. Question
- 39.2.0.4.13 13. Question
- 39.2.0.4.14 14. Question
- 39.2.0.4.15 15. Question
- 39.2.0.4.16 16. Question
- 39.2.0.4.17 17. Question
- 39.2.0.4.18 18. Question
- 39.2.0.4.19 19. Question
- 39.2.0.4.20 20. Question
- 39.2.0.4.21 21. Question
- 39.2.0.4.22 22. Question
- 39.1 Socio-Economic
Economy Basics– 2020 and Before that
Economy Basics
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- Question 1 of 24
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘monopsony’?
Correct
A monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one buyer, the monopsonist. It is a market structure in which a single buyer substantially controls the market as the major purchaser of goods and services offered by many would-be sellers.
An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few firms dominate. When a market is shared between a few firms, it is said to be highly concentrated.
A monopoly contains a single firm that produces goods with no close substitute.Incorrect
A monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one buyer, the monopsonist. It is a market structure in which a single buyer substantially controls the market as the major purchaser of goods and services offered by many would-be sellers.
An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few firms dominate. When a market is shared between a few firms, it is said to be highly concentrated.
A monopoly contains a single firm that produces goods with no close substitute. - Question 2 of 24
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following resources fall under the category of Capital Goods?
1. Buildings
2. Machinery
3. LabourSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Capital goods are physical assets that a company uses in the production process to manufacture products and services that consumers will later use.
Capital goods include buildings, machinery, equipment, vehicles, and tools.Capital goods are not finished goods instead; they are used to make finished goods.
Capital goods are one of the four factors of production. The other three are: Natural resources, such as land, oil, and water; Labor, such as workers; and Entrepreneurship.Incorrect
Capital goods are physical assets that a company uses in the production process to manufacture products and services that consumers will later use.
Capital goods include buildings, machinery, equipment, vehicles, and tools.Capital goods are not finished goods instead; they are used to make finished goods.
Capital goods are one of the four factors of production. The other three are: Natural resources, such as land, oil, and water; Labor, such as workers; and Entrepreneurship. - Question 3 of 24
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines the Nash equilibrium?
Correct
Nash Equilibriumis(in economics and game theory) a stable state of a system involving the interaction of different participants, in which no participant can gain by a unilateral change of strategy if the strategies of the others remain unchanged.
Price’s square root law: 50% of the work is done by the square root of the total number of people participate in the work.
Pareto principle: for many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
Strategic dominance occurs when one strategy is better than another strategy for one player, no matter how that player’s opponents may play.Incorrect
Nash Equilibriumis(in economics and game theory) a stable state of a system involving the interaction of different participants, in which no participant can gain by a unilateral change of strategy if the strategies of the others remain unchanged.
Price’s square root law: 50% of the work is done by the square root of the total number of people participate in the work.
Pareto principle: for many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
Strategic dominance occurs when one strategy is better than another strategy for one player, no matter how that player’s opponents may play. - Question 4 of 24
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement correctly defies the term ‘gig worker’?
Correct
The Code on Social Security, 2020 has defined “gig worker” as a person who performs work or participates in a work arrangement and earns from such activities outside of traditional employer-employee relationship.
Traditional workers have a long-term employer-employee relationship in which the worker is paid by the hour or year, earning a wage or salary.
Gig work may include freelancing, temp agency work, self-employment, and subcontracted work.
# NOTE: On September 19, the government withdrew three Bills related to labour laws and replaced them with new versions with some changes as– Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2020, Code on Social Security Bill, 2020 and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code Bill, 2020.
Questions have been asked previously on the Blog based on these codes, aspirants are advised to keep track of the major changes introduced [The Hindu, IE-Explained, ForumIAS 9 PM Current Affairs Brief].Incorrect
The Code on Social Security, 2020 has defined “gig worker” as a person who performs work or participates in a work arrangement and earns from such activities outside of traditional employer-employee relationship.
Traditional workers have a long-term employer-employee relationship in which the worker is paid by the hour or year, earning a wage or salary.
Gig work may include freelancing, temp agency work, self-employment, and subcontracted work.
# NOTE: On September 19, the government withdrew three Bills related to labour laws and replaced them with new versions with some changes as– Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2020, Code on Social Security Bill, 2020 and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code Bill, 2020.
Questions have been asked previously on the Blog based on these codes, aspirants are advised to keep track of the major changes introduced [The Hindu, IE-Explained, ForumIAS 9 PM Current Affairs Brief]. - Question 5 of 24
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding laws of demand and supply:
1.The law of demand says that at higher prices, buyers will demand less of an economic good.
2.Producers supply more at a higher price because the higher selling price justifies the higher opportunity cost of each additional unit sold.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The law of demand states that, if all other factors remain equal, the higher the price of a good, the less people will demand that good. In other words, the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded.
The amount of a good that buyers purchase at a higher price is less because as the price of a good goes up, so does the opportunity cost of buying that good.
Statement 2 is correct. The law of supply says that at higher prices, sellers will supply more of an economic good.
From the seller’s perspective, the opportunity cost of each additional unit that they sell tends to be higher and higher. Producers supply more at a higher price because the higher selling price justifies the higher opportunity cost of each additional unit sold.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The law of demand states that, if all other factors remain equal, the higher the price of a good, the less people will demand that good. In other words, the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded.
The amount of a good that buyers purchase at a higher price is less because as the price of a good goes up, so does the opportunity cost of buying that good.
Statement 2 is correct. The law of supply says that at higher prices, sellers will supply more of an economic good.
From the seller’s perspective, the opportunity cost of each additional unit that they sell tends to be higher and higher. Producers supply more at a higher price because the higher selling price justifies the higher opportunity cost of each additional unit sold. - Question 6 of 24
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution publishes the Financial Stability Report (FSR) in
India?Correct
The Financial Stability Reports, published by Reserve Bank of India, after approved by Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) Sub-Committee since its inception, taking inputs from financial sector regulators i.e. RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDAI including Ministry of Finance, are periodic exercise for reviewing the nature, magnitude and implications of risks that may have a bearing on the macroeconomic environment, financial institutions, markets and infrastructure.
Incorrect
The Financial Stability Reports, published by Reserve Bank of India, after approved by Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) Sub-Committee since its inception, taking inputs from financial sector regulators i.e. RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDAI including Ministry of Finance, are periodic exercise for reviewing the nature, magnitude and implications of risks that may have a bearing on the macroeconomic environment, financial institutions, markets and infrastructure.
- Question 7 of 24
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyIndia’s Forex Reserve comprises of which of the following assets?
- Foreign Currency Assets
- Gold
- Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
India’s forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and India’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
# The country’s foreign exchange reserves rose to reach a lifetime high of $542.013 billion in the week ended September 4.
# Guidotti Rule suggests that the countries should hold external assets sufficient to ensure that they could live without access to new foreign borrowings for up to twelve months.
Incorrect
India’s forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and India’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
# The country’s foreign exchange reserves rose to reach a lifetime high of $542.013 billion in the week ended September 4.
# Guidotti Rule suggests that the countries should hold external assets sufficient to ensure that they could live without access to new foreign borrowings for up to twelve months.
- Question 8 of 24
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are dominant policy objectives of keeping forex reserves?
- Maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies.
- Reduce external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Major policy objectives in regard to forex reserves:
-maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies,
-enhancing capacity to intervene in forex markets,
-limiting external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis including national disasters or emergencies;
-providing confidence to the markets especially credit rating agencies that external obligations can always be met, thus reducing the overall costs at which forex resources are available to all the market participants, and
-incidentally adding to the comfort of the market participants, by demonstrating the backing of domestic currency by external assets.
Incorrect
Major policy objectives in regard to forex reserves:
-maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies,
-enhancing capacity to intervene in forex markets,
-limiting external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis including national disasters or emergencies;
-providing confidence to the markets especially credit rating agencies that external obligations can always be met, thus reducing the overall costs at which forex resources are available to all the market participants, and
-incidentally adding to the comfort of the market participants, by demonstrating the backing of domestic currency by external assets.
- Question 9 of 24
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Base Effect?
- It can result from abnormally high or low levels of inflation in a period.
- It is the result of a consistent and constant growth in an economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Base effect is often a term used in relation to economic indicators such as inflation and GDP data which are primarily based on the base effect of last year.
For inflation, Base effect refers to the distortion in monthly inflation figures from a sudden spike or decline in them during a short period of time. They are caused by seasonal or monthly variations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is usually a result of volatility rather than consistency in an economy.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Base effect is often a term used in relation to economic indicators such as inflation and GDP data which are primarily based on the base effect of last year.
For inflation, Base effect refers to the distortion in monthly inflation figures from a sudden spike or decline in them during a short period of time. They are caused by seasonal or monthly variations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is usually a result of volatility rather than consistency in an economy.
- Question 10 of 24
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
- The real interest rate refers to the interest rate before taking inflation into account.
- A nominal interest rate adjusts the observed market interest rate for the effects of inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Both statements are incorrect with definitions interchanged.
The real interest rate adjusts the observed market interest rate for the effects of inflation. It is an interest rate that has been adjusted to remove the effects of inflation to reflect the real cost of funds to the borrower and the real yield to the lender or to an investor.
A nominal interest rate refers to the interest rate before taking inflation into account. The nominal interest rate is generally the one advertised by the institution backing the loan or investment.
Real Interest Rate = Nominal Interest Rate – Inflation (Expected or Actual)
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect with definitions interchanged.
The real interest rate adjusts the observed market interest rate for the effects of inflation. It is an interest rate that has been adjusted to remove the effects of inflation to reflect the real cost of funds to the borrower and the real yield to the lender or to an investor.
A nominal interest rate refers to the interest rate before taking inflation into account. The nominal interest rate is generally the one advertised by the institution backing the loan or investment.
Real Interest Rate = Nominal Interest Rate – Inflation (Expected or Actual)
- Question 11 of 24
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the inflation indices in India:
- The Consumer Price Index tracks changes in retail prices of goods and services.
- The Wholesale Price Index does not include services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Consumer Price Index measures the average change in prices (retail) over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation releases monthly Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Rural, Urban and Combined.
The most important category in the consumer price index is Food and beverages (45.86 percent of total weight). It also includes services like Transport and communication (8.59 percent), health (5.89 percent), and education (4.46 percent).
Statement 2 is correct. The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is releases monthly Wholesale price Index (WPI). It tracks the changes in the price of goods in the stages before the retail level.
The wholesale market is only for goods, so WPI does not include services.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Consumer Price Index measures the average change in prices (retail) over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation releases monthly Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Rural, Urban and Combined.
The most important category in the consumer price index is Food and beverages (45.86 percent of total weight). It also includes services like Transport and communication (8.59 percent), health (5.89 percent), and education (4.46 percent).
Statement 2 is correct. The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is releases monthly Wholesale price Index (WPI). It tracks the changes in the price of goods in the stages before the retail level.
The wholesale market is only for goods, so WPI does not include services.
- Question 12 of 24
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are potential benefit(s) of the Universal Basic Income (UBI)?
- A motivation for the labor force to work more
- Support for unpaid care workers
- Eliminating the need for social security schemes and subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. A concern with UBI is that it would encourage workers to stop working. If people aren’t working, there is less taxable income. However, people may choose to stop working for reasons that benefit society as a whole, such as getting a better education or caring for a relative in need.
Statement 2 is correct. Those with ill or differently abled relatives are often forced to quit their jobs to care for them full-time. UBI would allow care-workers to support themselves, encouraging care work within the home and relieving pressure on public services that provide care to the sick and elderly.
Statement 3 is correct. There exist countless governmental organisations/schemes responsible for helping those in poverty, unemployment benefits, food stamps, subsidised housing, etc. UBI would cut a country’s spending by eliminating these schemes.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. A concern with UBI is that it would encourage workers to stop working. If people aren’t working, there is less taxable income. However, people may choose to stop working for reasons that benefit society as a whole, such as getting a better education or caring for a relative in need.
Statement 2 is correct. Those with ill or differently abled relatives are often forced to quit their jobs to care for them full-time. UBI would allow care-workers to support themselves, encouraging care work within the home and relieving pressure on public services that provide care to the sick and elderly.
Statement 3 is correct. There exist countless governmental organisations/schemes responsible for helping those in poverty, unemployment benefits, food stamps, subsidised housing, etc. UBI would cut a country’s spending by eliminating these schemes.
- Question 13 of 24
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following constitute the ‘Public debt’ of India?
- Liabilities of Central Government contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India
- Public Account Liabilities of the Central Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.
Incorrect
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.
- Question 14 of 24
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyArrange the following “core industries” in the ascending order of their weight in
Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
- Coal
- Cement
- Steel
- Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Index of Eight Core Industries measures the performance of eight core
industries i.e., Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement
and Electricity. The industries included in the Index of Eight Core Industries comprise
40.27 per cent weight in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Incorrect
The Index of Eight Core Industries measures the performance of eight core
industries i.e., Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement
and Electricity. The industries included in the Index of Eight Core Industries comprise
40.27 per cent weight in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
- Question 15 of 24
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term “Invisible hand” in economics is related to which of the following?
Correct
Invisible hand.
- Scottish Enlightenment thinker Adam Smith introduced the concept Invisible hand
in several of his writings, but it found this economic interpretation in his book An
Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations published in 1776.
- The invisible hand is part of laissez-faire, meaning “let do/let go,” approach to
the market. In other words, the approach holds that the market will find its
equilibrium without government or other interventions forcing it into unnatural
patterns.
- The invisible hand is a metaphor for the unseen forces that move the free
market economy. Through individual self-interest and freedom of production as
well as consumption, the best interest of society, as a whole, are fulfilled.
- The constant interplay of individual pressures on market supply and demand
causes the natural movement of prices and the flow of trade.
Incorrect
Invisible hand.
- Scottish Enlightenment thinker Adam Smith introduced the concept Invisible hand
in several of his writings, but it found this economic interpretation in his book An
Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations published in 1776.
- The invisible hand is part of laissez-faire, meaning “let do/let go,” approach to
the market. In other words, the approach holds that the market will find its
equilibrium without government or other interventions forcing it into unnatural
patterns.
- The invisible hand is a metaphor for the unseen forces that move the free
market economy. Through individual self-interest and freedom of production as
well as consumption, the best interest of society, as a whole, are fulfilled.
- The constant interplay of individual pressures on market supply and demand
causes the natural movement of prices and the flow of trade.
- Question 16 of 24
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are characteristics of a Public good?
- Non-excludability
- Rival Consumption
- Rejectable
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Public goods are goods that can be consumed simultaneously by a large
number of people without the consumption by one imposing an opportunity cost on others.
The characteristics of a public good:
- Non excludability i.e., the citizens can enjoy its benefits at no explicit financial
cost.
- Non rival consumption i.e., the marginal cost of supplying this public good to an
extra citizen is zero.
- Non-Rejectable i.e., collective supply for all citizens means that it cannot be rejected.
Incorrect
Public goods are goods that can be consumed simultaneously by a large
number of people without the consumption by one imposing an opportunity cost on others.
The characteristics of a public good:
- Non excludability i.e., the citizens can enjoy its benefits at no explicit financial
cost.
- Non rival consumption i.e., the marginal cost of supplying this public good to an
extra citizen is zero.
- Non-Rejectable i.e., collective supply for all citizens means that it cannot be rejected.
- Question 17 of 24
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following parameters are consists of International Monetary Fund
(IMF) Quota Formula?
- Weighted average of GDP.
- Openness.
- Contribution to IMF.
- Economic variability.
- International reserves.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
When a country joins the IMF, it is assigned an initial quota in the same
range as the quotas of existing members of broadly comparable economic size and
characteristics. The IMF uses a quota formula to help assess a member’s relative position.
- The current quota formula is a weighted average of GDP (weight of 50 percent),
openness (30 percent), economic variability (15 percent), and international
reserves (5 percent).
- For this purpose, GDP is measured through a blend of GDP—based on market
exchange rates (weight of 60 percent) and on PPP exchange rates (40 percent).
- The formula also includes a “compression
Incorrect
When a country joins the IMF, it is assigned an initial quota in the same
range as the quotas of existing members of broadly comparable economic size and
characteristics. The IMF uses a quota formula to help assess a member’s relative position.
- The current quota formula is a weighted average of GDP (weight of 50 percent),
openness (30 percent), economic variability (15 percent), and international
reserves (5 percent).
- For this purpose, GDP is measured through a blend of GDP—based on market
exchange rates (weight of 60 percent) and on PPP exchange rates (40 percent).
- The formula also includes a “compression
- Question 18 of 24
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Economic Census:
- It is conducted by Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
- It covers all entrepreneurial units which involved in any economic activities of either
agricultural or non-agricultural sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Economic Census.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Economic Census is being conducted by Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to provide disaggregated information on
various operational and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any
economic activities of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in
production and/or distribution of goods and/or services not for the sole purpose of own consumption.
Incorrect
Economic Census.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Economic Census is being conducted by Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to provide disaggregated information on
various operational and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any
economic activities of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in
production and/or distribution of goods and/or services not for the sole purpose of own consumption.
- Question 19 of 24
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production
(IIP):
- The all-India IIP is being released as a monthly series since 1950.
- The base year of IIP is 2014-15.
- There is a lag of three weeks in the publication of the IIP index data after the reference month ends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In India, the first official attempt to compute the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP) was made much earlier than the first recommendation on the subject came
at the international level.
- The Office of the Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce and Industry made the
first attempt of compilation and release of IIP with base year 1937, covering 15
important industries, accounting for more than 90% of the total production of the
selected industries.
- The all-India IIP is being released as a monthly series since 1950. With the
inception of the Central Statistical Organization in 1951, the responsibility for
compilation and publication of IIP was vested with the same.
- When the index was commenced in India, the base year adopted was 1937 and
this was revised successively to 1946, 1951, 1956, 1960, 1970, 1980-81, 1993-
94, 2004-05 and recently to 2011-12.
- The IIP number measures the industrial production for the period under review,
usually a month, as against the reference period. IIP is a key economic indicator of
the manufacturing sector of the economy. There is a lag of six weeks in the publication of the IIP index data after the reference month ends.
Incorrect
In India, the first official attempt to compute the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP) was made much earlier than the first recommendation on the subject came
at the international level.
- The Office of the Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce and Industry made the
first attempt of compilation and release of IIP with base year 1937, covering 15
important industries, accounting for more than 90% of the total production of the
selected industries.
- The all-India IIP is being released as a monthly series since 1950. With the
inception of the Central Statistical Organization in 1951, the responsibility for
compilation and publication of IIP was vested with the same.
- When the index was commenced in India, the base year adopted was 1937 and
this was revised successively to 1946, 1951, 1956, 1960, 1970, 1980-81, 1993-
94, 2004-05 and recently to 2011-12.
- The IIP number measures the industrial production for the period under review,
usually a month, as against the reference period. IIP is a key economic indicator of
the manufacturing sector of the economy. There is a lag of six weeks in the publication of the IIP index data after the reference month ends.
- Question 20 of 24
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding a country’s Terms of Trade (ToT):
- It is the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of import prices.
- A country’s ToT is less than hundred percent if more capital is leaving the country than
is entering into it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Terms of trade are defined as the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of
import prices. It measures how many units of exports are required to purchase a single
unit of imports.
If the export prices increase more than the import prices, a country has a positive Terms of
Trade, as for the same amount of exports, it can purchase more imports.
The ratio is calculated by dividing the price of the exports by the price of the imports and
multiplying the result by 100.
When more capital is leaving the country than is entering into the country then the
country’s TOT is less than 100%. When the TOT is greater than 100%, the country is
accumulating more capital from exports than it is spending on imports.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Terms of trade are defined as the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of
import prices. It measures how many units of exports are required to purchase a single
unit of imports.
If the export prices increase more than the import prices, a country has a positive Terms of
Trade, as for the same amount of exports, it can purchase more imports.
The ratio is calculated by dividing the price of the exports by the price of the imports and
multiplying the result by 100.
When more capital is leaving the country than is entering into the country then the
country’s TOT is less than 100%. When the TOT is greater than 100%, the country is
accumulating more capital from exports than it is spending on imports.
- Question 21 of 24
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI):
- It is being published by National Statistics Office with base year 2014-15.
- The Monetary Policy Committee determines the Policy Rate required to achieve the CPI
inflation target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Statistics Office coordinates the statistical activities in the
country and evolves statistical standards. NSO brings out important economic indicators
such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Index of Industrial Product (IIP), Consumer Price
Index (CPI) and other official statistics to support Government decision making and framing
of appropriate socio-economic polices/programmes.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation publishes Consumer Price Index (CPI) on Base year 2012=100
for Rural, Urban and Combined.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, the Central Government
shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the
Consumer Price Index, once in every five years.
Further, the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to
achieve the inflation target
Incorrect
The National Statistics Office coordinates the statistical activities in the
country and evolves statistical standards. NSO brings out important economic indicators
such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Index of Industrial Product (IIP), Consumer Price
Index (CPI) and other official statistics to support Government decision making and framing
of appropriate socio-economic polices/programmes.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation publishes Consumer Price Index (CPI) on Base year 2012=100
for Rural, Urban and Combined.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, the Central Government
shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the
Consumer Price Index, once in every five years.
Further, the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to
achieve the inflation target
- Question 22 of 24
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
- It projects market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
- It is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO) for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
It is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing and service sectors. It consists of a diffusion index that summarizes whether market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
It is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing and service sectors. It consists of a diffusion index that summarizes whether market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics.
- Question 23 of 24
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are the mandate of the National Statistical Office (NSO)?
- Publishing annual estimates of national product
- Releasing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
- Conducting the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
NSO is mandated with the following responsibilities among others:
–prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices;
–compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month in the form of ‘quick estimates’; conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI); and provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition and structure of the organized manufacturing sector;
Incorrect
NSO is mandated with the following responsibilities among others:
–prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices;
–compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month in the form of ‘quick estimates’; conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI); and provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition and structure of the organized manufacturing sector;
- Question 24 of 24
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Core Inflation?
Correct
Core Inflation is a measure of inflation which excludes certain volatile and seasonal prices. It is the trend increase of the cost of factors of production that originates in the long-term expectations of inflation.
It excludes transitory or temporary price volatility as in the case of some commodities such as food and fuel. If temporary price shocks are taken into account, they may affect the estimated overall inflation numbers in such a way that they are different from actual inflation. To eliminate this possibility, core inflation is calculated to gauge the actual inflation apart from temporary shocks and volatility.
Incorrect
Core Inflation is a measure of inflation which excludes certain volatile and seasonal prices. It is the trend increase of the cost of factors of production that originates in the long-term expectations of inflation.
It excludes transitory or temporary price volatility as in the case of some commodities such as food and fuel. If temporary price shocks are taken into account, they may affect the estimated overall inflation numbers in such a way that they are different from actual inflation. To eliminate this possibility, core inflation is calculated to gauge the actual inflation apart from temporary shocks and volatility.
Economy Basics Part-2
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Gross Fixed Capital Formation:
- There is a continuous decline in Gross Fixed Capital Formation in India from 2008 to
2018.
- The World Bank tracks gross capital formation, which it defines as outlays on additions
to fixed assets and excludes net changes in Inventories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Capital formation is a term used to describe the net capital accumulation
during an accounting period for a particular country. The term refers to additions of capital
goods, such as equipment, tools, transportation assets, and electricity.
Statement 1 is incorrect: GFCF in India is not following a particular trend in last 12 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gross capital formation (formerly gross domestic investment)
consists of outlays on additions to the fixed assets of the economy plus net changes
in the level of inventories.
- Fixed assets include land improvements (fences, ditches, drains, and so on); plant,
machinery, and equipment purchases;
- And the construction of roads, railways, and the like, including schools, offices,
hospitals, private residential dwellings, and commercial and industrial buildings.
- Inventories are stocks of goods held by firms to meet temporary or unexpected
fluctuations in production or sales, and work in progress. According to the 1993
SNA, net acquisitions of valuables are also considered capital formation.
Incorrect
Capital formation is a term used to describe the net capital accumulation
during an accounting period for a particular country. The term refers to additions of capital
goods, such as equipment, tools, transportation assets, and electricity.
Statement 1 is incorrect: GFCF in India is not following a particular trend in last 12 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gross capital formation (formerly gross domestic investment)
consists of outlays on additions to the fixed assets of the economy plus net changes
in the level of inventories.
- Fixed assets include land improvements (fences, ditches, drains, and so on); plant,
machinery, and equipment purchases;
- And the construction of roads, railways, and the like, including schools, offices,
hospitals, private residential dwellings, and commercial and industrial buildings.
- Inventories are stocks of goods held by firms to meet temporary or unexpected
fluctuations in production or sales, and work in progress. According to the 1993
SNA, net acquisitions of valuables are also considered capital formation.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Comparative Advantage:
- It refers to an economy’s ability to produce goods and services at a lower opportunity
cost than that of trade partners.
- It is a foundational principle in the theory of international trade.
- The law of Comparative Advantage was propounded by John Maynard Keynes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Comparative advantage is an economic term that refers to an economy’s
ability to produce goods and services at a lower opportunity cost than that of trade
partners.
- A comparative advantage gives a company the ability to sell goods and services at a
lower price than its competitors and realize stronger sales margins.
- The law of comparative advantage is popularly attributed to English political
economist David Ricardo and his book “On the Principles of Political Economy
and Taxation” in 1817, although it is likely that Ricardo’s mentor James Mill
originated the analysis.
- One of the most important concepts in economic theory, comparative advantage is a
fundamental tenet of the argument that all actors, at all times, can mutually benefit
from cooperation and voluntary trade. It is also a foundational principle in the
theory of international trade
Incorrect
Comparative advantage is an economic term that refers to an economy’s
ability to produce goods and services at a lower opportunity cost than that of trade
partners.
- A comparative advantage gives a company the ability to sell goods and services at a
lower price than its competitors and realize stronger sales margins.
- The law of comparative advantage is popularly attributed to English political
economist David Ricardo and his book “On the Principles of Political Economy
and Taxation” in 1817, although it is likely that Ricardo’s mentor James Mill
originated the analysis.
- One of the most important concepts in economic theory, comparative advantage is a
fundamental tenet of the argument that all actors, at all times, can mutually benefit
from cooperation and voluntary trade. It is also a foundational principle in the
theory of international trade
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Creative destruction:
- It refers to the incessant product and process innovation mechanism by which new
production units replace outdated ones.
- It was coined by Joseph Schumpeter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Creative destruction refers to the incessant product and process innovation
mechanism by which new production units replace outdated ones.
- This restructuring process permeates major aspects of macroeconomic performance,
not only long-run growth but also economic fluctuations, structural adjustment and
the functioning of factor markets.
- Over the long run, the process of creative destruction accounts for over 50 per
cent of productivity growth.
- At business cycle frequency, restructuring typically declines during recessions, and
this add a significant cost to downturns.
- Obstacles to the process of creative destruction can have severe short- and long-run
macroeconomic consequences.
- It was coined by Joseph Schumpeter (1942), who considered it ‘the essential fact
about capitalism
Incorrect
Creative destruction refers to the incessant product and process innovation
mechanism by which new production units replace outdated ones.
- This restructuring process permeates major aspects of macroeconomic performance,
not only long-run growth but also economic fluctuations, structural adjustment and
the functioning of factor markets.
- Over the long run, the process of creative destruction accounts for over 50 per
cent of productivity growth.
- At business cycle frequency, restructuring typically declines during recessions, and
this add a significant cost to downturns.
- Obstacles to the process of creative destruction can have severe short- and long-run
macroeconomic consequences.
- It was coined by Joseph Schumpeter (1942), who considered it ‘the essential fact
about capitalism
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCI&S):
1. It compiles and releases monthly export & import data on merchandise trade.
2. It comes under Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The chequered history of evolution, developments, transformations and coming of age of the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence And Statistics (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) has been a mammoth exercise spread over a span of one hundred and forty years and carried out under the stewardship of capable and pragmatic visionaries.
The Organization traces its origin to a statistical branch established in the Finance Department of the Government of India way back in 1862. Sir William W. Hunter was the first DG of the DGCI & S or the Director General of Statistics as he was designated, back in 1871.
The DGCI&S compiles and releases monthly export & import data on merchandise trade.
It also compiles and releases yearly data on inter-state movement of goods in India by river, rail & air; customs & excise revenue collections of the Indian union, inland coasting trade consignments of India and foreign coastal cargo movements of India.
Incorrect
The chequered history of evolution, developments, transformations and coming of age of the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence And Statistics (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) has been a mammoth exercise spread over a span of one hundred and forty years and carried out under the stewardship of capable and pragmatic visionaries.
The Organization traces its origin to a statistical branch established in the Finance Department of the Government of India way back in 1862. Sir William W. Hunter was the first DG of the DGCI & S or the Director General of Statistics as he was designated, back in 1871.
The DGCI&S compiles and releases monthly export & import data on merchandise trade.
It also compiles and releases yearly data on inter-state movement of goods in India by river, rail & air; customs & excise revenue collections of the Indian union, inland coasting trade consignments of India and foreign coastal cargo movements of India.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following pair (s) is/are correctly matched?
Index : Base Year
1. Wholesale price index : 2014-15
2. Consumer price index : 2004-05
3. Gross Domestic Product : 2011-12
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Consumer Price Index or CPI as it is commonly called is an index measuring retail inflation in the economy by collecting the change in prices of most common goods and services used by consumers. Base Year for CPI is 2012.
Wholesale Price Index, or WPI, measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
With an aim to align the index with the base year of other important economic indicators such as GDP and IIP, the base year was updated to 2011-12 from 2004-05 for the new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI), effective from April 2017.
The present base year for gross domestic product is 2011-12.
Incorrect
Consumer Price Index or CPI as it is commonly called is an index measuring retail inflation in the economy by collecting the change in prices of most common goods and services used by consumers. Base Year for CPI is 2012.
Wholesale Price Index, or WPI, measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
With an aim to align the index with the base year of other important economic indicators such as GDP and IIP, the base year was updated to 2011-12 from 2004-05 for the new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI), effective from April 2017.
The present base year for gross domestic product is 2011-12.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale price index (WPI)?
Correct
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale at the level of early stage of transactions.
The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. (The index basket of the present 2011-12 series has a total of 697items including 117 items for Primary Articles, 16 items for Fuel & Power and 564 items for Manufactured Products.)
Incorrect
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale at the level of early stage of transactions.
The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. (The index basket of the present 2011-12 series has a total of 697items including 117 items for Primary Articles, 16 items for Fuel & Power and 564 items for Manufactured Products.)
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following organization conducts the “Periodic Labour Force Surveys (PLFS)”?
Correct
PLFS is an initiative aimed at generating estimates of various labour force indicators.
The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation conducts the survey.
Quarterly survey (For urban areas only) – Captures only the current weekly status (CWS) data.
Incorrect
PLFS is an initiative aimed at generating estimates of various labour force indicators.
The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation conducts the survey.
Quarterly survey (For urban areas only) – Captures only the current weekly status (CWS) data.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the economic census:
1. It is conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
2. Till now it was conducted six times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The government will kick off a massive exercise aimed to get a complete count of all economic units in the country-the Seventh Economic Census- from July 29 (2019) from the north eastern state of Tripura.
The census, conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), will be held this year after a gap of five years.
The ministry partnered with CSC e-Governance services India Ltd (CSC SPV) to conduct the census.
The First Economic Census was conducted throughout the country, except Lakshadweep, during 1977 in collaboration with the States/ Union Territories (UTs).
The subsequent Censuses were conducted in the years 1980, 1990, 1998, 2005. The 6th and the latest census was conducted in 2013.
Incorrect
The government will kick off a massive exercise aimed to get a complete count of all economic units in the country-the Seventh Economic Census- from July 29 (2019) from the north eastern state of Tripura.
The census, conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), will be held this year after a gap of five years.
The ministry partnered with CSC e-Governance services India Ltd (CSC SPV) to conduct the census.
The First Economic Census was conducted throughout the country, except Lakshadweep, during 1977 in collaboration with the States/ Union Territories (UTs).
The subsequent Censuses were conducted in the years 1980, 1990, 1998, 2005. The 6th and the latest census was conducted in 2013.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are NOT “mixed economy” characteristics?
1. Co-existence of private and public sector
2. Private property is not allowed
3. Economic planning
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Mixed economy is a golden mixture of capitalism and socialism.
Under this system there is freedom of economic activities and government interferences for the social welfare. Hence it is a blend of both the economies.
The concept of mixed economy is of recent origin. The developing countries like India have adopted mixed economy to accelerate the pace of economic development.
Even the developed countries like UK, USA, etc. have also adopted ‘Mixed Capitalist System’.
Mixed economy has following main features:
Co-existence of Private and Public Sector
Personal Freedom
Private Property is allowed
Economic Planning
Price Mechanism and Controlled Price
Profit Motive and Social Welfare
Incorrect
Mixed economy is a golden mixture of capitalism and socialism.
Under this system there is freedom of economic activities and government interferences for the social welfare. Hence it is a blend of both the economies.
The concept of mixed economy is of recent origin. The developing countries like India have adopted mixed economy to accelerate the pace of economic development.
Even the developed countries like UK, USA, etc. have also adopted ‘Mixed Capitalist System’.
Mixed economy has following main features:
Co-existence of Private and Public Sector
Personal Freedom
Private Property is allowed
Economic Planning
Price Mechanism and Controlled Price
Profit Motive and Social Welfare
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are “inflation measuring indices” in India?
- Consumer price index
- Wholesale price index
- GDP deflator
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
There are two main set of inflation indices for measuring price level changes in India – the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
The WPI, where prices are quoted from wholesalers, is constructed by Office of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
In the case of CPI (prices quoted from retailers), there are several indices to measure it: CPI for industrial labourers (CPI-IL), agricultural labourers (CPI-AL) and rural labourers (CPI-RL) besides an all India CPI.
In addition, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator and Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) deflator from the National Accounts Statistics (NAS) provide an implicit economy-wide inflation estimate.
Incorrect
There are two main set of inflation indices for measuring price level changes in India – the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
The WPI, where prices are quoted from wholesalers, is constructed by Office of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
In the case of CPI (prices quoted from retailers), there are several indices to measure it: CPI for industrial labourers (CPI-IL), agricultural labourers (CPI-AL) and rural labourers (CPI-RL) besides an all India CPI.
In addition, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator and Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) deflator from the National Accounts Statistics (NAS) provide an implicit economy-wide inflation estimate.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements most appropriately defines an ‘Integrity Pact’?
Correct
“Integrity Pact” is a vigilance tool that envisages an agreement between
the prospective vendors/bidders and the buyer, committing both (contracting) the parties
not to exercise any corrupt influence on any aspect of the contract. The pact is also to
ensure transparency, equity and competitiveness in public procurement.
Incorrect
“Integrity Pact” is a vigilance tool that envisages an agreement between
the prospective vendors/bidders and the buyer, committing both (contracting) the parties
not to exercise any corrupt influence on any aspect of the contract. The pact is also to
ensure transparency, equity and competitiveness in public procurement.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat does Phillips Curve indicate?
Correct
The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating
that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. The theory claims
that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less
unemployment.
# A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income inequality.
# The Laffer Curve is a theory developed by supply-side economist Arthur Laffer to show the
relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
Incorrect
The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating
that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. The theory claims
that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less
unemployment.
# A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income inequality.
# The Laffer Curve is a theory developed by supply-side economist Arthur Laffer to show the
relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are qualifications for appointment as Governor provided under the Constitution?
- Minimum age of thirty-five years
- Should not be a member of a recognized political party
- Should not hold any other office of profit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor
unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 57]
Option 2 is incorrect. There is no such limitation provided for under the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. [Article 158(2)]
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor
unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 57]
Option 2 is incorrect. There is no such limitation provided for under the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. [Article 158(2)]
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘Regulatory Sandbox’?
Correct
A regulatory sandbox (RS) usually refers to live testing of new products or
services in a controlled/test regulatory environment for which regulators may (or may not)
permit certain regulatory relaxations for the limited purpose of the testing.
It allows the regulator, the innovators, the financial service providers (as potential deployers
of the technology) and the customers (as final users) to conduct field tests to collect
evidence on the benefits and risks of new financial innovations, while carefully monitoring
and containing their risks.
Incorrect
A regulatory sandbox (RS) usually refers to live testing of new products or
services in a controlled/test regulatory environment for which regulators may (or may not)
permit certain regulatory relaxations for the limited purpose of the testing.
It allows the regulator, the innovators, the financial service providers (as potential deployers
of the technology) and the customers (as final users) to conduct field tests to collect
evidence on the benefits and risks of new financial innovations, while carefully monitoring
and containing their risks.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are potential benefits of incoming Foreign Direct
Investments (FDI) in a country?
- Human resource development
- Transfer of technology
- Increase in exports
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment of funds by an organisation
from one country into another, with the intent of establishing ‘lasting interest’.
# FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investments) means only equity infusion, and does not imply the
establishment of a lasting interest.
FDI allows the transfer of technology—particularly in the form of new varieties of capital
inputs—that cannot be achieved through financial investments or trade in goods and
services.
Human Capital refers to the knowledge and competence of the workforce. New
technological investments lead to new skills gained and enhanced through training and
experience boost the education and human capital quotient of the country. Once developed,
human capital is mobile and has multiplier effect on the economy.
Many of these products developed by FDI led industries have global markets and can
further assist FDI investors in boosting their exports from other countries..
# Total FDI inflow grew by 55%, i.e. from US$ 231.37 billion in 2008-14 to US$ 358.29 billion
in 2014-20.
#FDI equity inflow also increased by 57% from US$ 160.46 billion during 2008-14 to US$ 252.42 billion (2014-20).
Incorrect
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment of funds by an organisation
from one country into another, with the intent of establishing ‘lasting interest’.
# FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investments) means only equity infusion, and does not imply the
establishment of a lasting interest.
FDI allows the transfer of technology—particularly in the form of new varieties of capital
inputs—that cannot be achieved through financial investments or trade in goods and
services.
Human Capital refers to the knowledge and competence of the workforce. New
technological investments lead to new skills gained and enhanced through training and
experience boost the education and human capital quotient of the country. Once developed,
human capital is mobile and has multiplier effect on the economy.
Many of these products developed by FDI led industries have global markets and can
further assist FDI investors in boosting their exports from other countries..
# Total FDI inflow grew by 55%, i.e. from US$ 231.37 billion in 2008-14 to US$ 358.29 billion
in 2014-20.
#FDI equity inflow also increased by 57% from US$ 160.46 billion during 2008-14 to US$ 252.42 billion (2014-20).
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index for
Industrial Workers (CPI-IW):
- It is compiled by the Labour Bureau.
- The base year for the CPI-IW has been updated to the year 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been
compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of the
retail prices of selected. The index is compiled for 78 centres and All-India and is released
on the last working day of succeeding month.
The Labour and Employment Ministry has recently revised the base year of the Consumer
Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016.
The number of items directly retained in the index basket has increased to 463 items as
against 392 items in the 2001 series. The weight to food and beverage was reduced from 46.2% to 39%, while spending on housing increased from 15.2% to 17%.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been
compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of the
retail prices of selected. The index is compiled for 78 centres and All-India and is released
on the last working day of succeeding month.
The Labour and Employment Ministry has recently revised the base year of the Consumer
Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016.
The number of items directly retained in the index basket has increased to 463 items as
against 392 items in the 2001 series. The weight to food and beverage was reduced from 46.2% to 39%, while spending on housing increased from 15.2% to 17%.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines the Nash equilibrium?
Correct
Nash Equilibrium is (in economics and game theory) a stable state of a
system involving the interaction of different participants, in which no participant can gain
by a unilateral change of strategy if the strategies of the others remain unchanged.
Price’s square root law: 50% of the work is done by the square root of the total number of
people participate in the work.
Pareto principle: for many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
Strategic dominance occurs when one strategy is better than another strategy for one player, no matter how that player’s opponents may play.
Incorrect
Nash Equilibrium is (in economics and game theory) a stable state of a
system involving the interaction of different participants, in which no participant can gain
by a unilateral change of strategy if the strategies of the others remain unchanged.
Price’s square root law: 50% of the work is done by the square root of the total number of
people participate in the work.
Pareto principle: for many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
Strategic dominance occurs when one strategy is better than another strategy for one player, no matter how that player’s opponents may play.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following constitute the ‘Public debt’ of India?
- Liabilities of Central Government contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India
- Public Account Liabilities of the Central Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are
contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the
Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External
Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Nonmarketable
securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments,
special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank
for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and
official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund
(NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.
Incorrect
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are
contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the
Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External
Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Nonmarketable
securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments,
special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank
for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and
official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund
(NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement correctly defies the term ‘gig worker’?
Correct
The Code on Social Security, 2020 has defined “gig worker” as a person
who performs work or participates in a work arrangement and earns from such activities
outside of traditional employer-employee relationship.
Traditional workers have a long-term employer-employee relationship in which the worker
is paid by the hour or year, earning a wage or salary.
Gig work may include freelancing, temp agency work, self-employment, and subcontracted
work.
# NOTE: On September 19, the government withdrew three Bills related to labour laws and
replaced them with new versions with some changes as– Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2020,
Code on Social Security Bill, 2020 and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions
Code Bill, 2020.
Questions have been asked previously on the Blog based on these codes, aspirants are
advised to keep track of the major changes introduced [The Hindu, IE-Explained, ForumIAS 9
PM Current Affairs Brief].
Incorrect
The Code on Social Security, 2020 has defined “gig worker” as a person
who performs work or participates in a work arrangement and earns from such activities
outside of traditional employer-employee relationship.
Traditional workers have a long-term employer-employee relationship in which the worker
is paid by the hour or year, earning a wage or salary.
Gig work may include freelancing, temp agency work, self-employment, and subcontracted
work.
# NOTE: On September 19, the government withdrew three Bills related to labour laws and
replaced them with new versions with some changes as– Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2020,
Code on Social Security Bill, 2020 and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions
Code Bill, 2020.
Questions have been asked previously on the Blog based on these codes, aspirants are
advised to keep track of the major changes introduced [The Hindu, IE-Explained, ForumIAS 9
PM Current Affairs Brief].
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding a country’s Terms of Trade (ToT):
- It is the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of import prices.
- A country’s ToT is less than hundred percent if more capital is leaving the country than
is entering into it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Terms of trade are defined as the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of
import prices. It measures how many units of exports are required to purchase a single
unit of imports.
If the export prices increase more than the import prices, a country has a positive Terms of
Trade, as for the same amount of exports, it can purchase more imports.
The ratio is calculated by dividing the price of the exports by the price of the imports and
multiplying the result by 100.
When more capital is leaving the country than is entering into the country then the
country’s TOT is less than 100%. When the TOT is greater than 100%, the country is
accumulating more capital from exports than it is spending on imports.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Terms of trade are defined as the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of
import prices. It measures how many units of exports are required to purchase a single
unit of imports.
If the export prices increase more than the import prices, a country has a positive Terms of
Trade, as for the same amount of exports, it can purchase more imports.
The ratio is calculated by dividing the price of the exports by the price of the imports and
multiplying the result by 100.
When more capital is leaving the country than is entering into the country then the
country’s TOT is less than 100%. When the TOT is greater than 100%, the country is
accumulating more capital from exports than it is spending on imports.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI):
- It is being published by National Statistics Office with base year 2014-15.
- The Monetary Policy Committee determines the Policy Rate required to achieve the CPI
inflation target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Statistics Office coordinates the statistical activities in the
country and evolves statistical standards. NSO brings out important economic indicators
such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Index of Industrial Product (IIP), Consumer Price
Index (CPI) and other official statistics to support Government decision making and framing
of appropriate socio-economic polices/programmes.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation publishes Consumer Price Index (CPI) on Base year 2012=100
for Rural, Urban and Combined.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, the Central Government
shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the
Consumer Price Index, once in every five years.
Further, the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to
achieve the inflation target
Incorrect
The National Statistics Office coordinates the statistical activities in the
country and evolves statistical standards. NSO brings out important economic indicators
such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Index of Industrial Product (IIP), Consumer Price
Index (CPI) and other official statistics to support Government decision making and framing
of appropriate socio-economic polices/programmes.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation publishes Consumer Price Index (CPI) on Base year 2012=100
for Rural, Urban and Combined.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, the Central Government
shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the
Consumer Price Index, once in every five years.
Further, the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to
achieve the inflation target
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
- It projects market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
- It is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO) for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
It is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing and service sectors. It consists of a diffusion index that summarizes whether market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
It is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing and service sectors. It consists of a diffusion index that summarizes whether market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
- It projects market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
- It is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO) for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
It is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing and service sectors. It consists of a diffusion index that summarizes whether market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
It is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing and service sectors. It consists of a diffusion index that summarizes whether market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or contracting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by Markit Economics.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are the mandate of the National Statistical Office (NSO)?
- Publishing annual estimates of national product
- Releasing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
- Conducting the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
NSO is mandated with the following responsibilities among others:
–prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices;
–compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month in the form of ‘quick estimates’; conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI); and provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition and structure of the organized manufacturing sector;
Incorrect
NSO is mandated with the following responsibilities among others:
–prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices;
–compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month in the form of ‘quick estimates’; conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI); and provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition and structure of the organized manufacturing sector;
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Core Inflation?
Correct
Core Inflation is a measure of inflation which excludes certain volatile and seasonal prices. It is the trend increase of the cost of factors of production that originates in the long-term expectations of inflation.
It excludes transitory or temporary price volatility as in the case of some commodities such as food and fuel. If temporary price shocks are taken into account, they may affect the estimated overall inflation numbers in such a way that they are different from actual inflation. To eliminate this possibility, core inflation is calculated to gauge the actual inflation apart from temporary shocks and volatility.
Incorrect
Core Inflation is a measure of inflation which excludes certain volatile and seasonal prices. It is the trend increase of the cost of factors of production that originates in the long-term expectations of inflation.
It excludes transitory or temporary price volatility as in the case of some commodities such as food and fuel. If temporary price shocks are taken into account, they may affect the estimated overall inflation numbers in such a way that they are different from actual inflation. To eliminate this possibility, core inflation is calculated to gauge the actual inflation apart from temporary shocks and volatility.
Economy Basics III
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1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the financial stability report (FSR):
1. It is released biannually by Reserve Bank of India.
2. It is approved by sub-committee of Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
before it is published.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Financial Stability Reports (FSR), published by Reserve Bank of
India, after approved by FSDC Sub-Committee since its inception, taking inputs from
financial sector regulators i.e. RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDAI including Ministry of Finance, are
periodic exercise for reviewing the nature, magnitude and implications of risks that may
have a bearing on the macroeconomic environment, financial institutions, markets and
infrastructure.
•These reports will also assess the resilience of the financial sector through stress
tests.
•FSR is a biannual publication.Incorrect
The Financial Stability Reports (FSR), published by Reserve Bank of
India, after approved by FSDC Sub-Committee since its inception, taking inputs from
financial sector regulators i.e. RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDAI including Ministry of Finance, are
periodic exercise for reviewing the nature, magnitude and implications of risks that may
have a bearing on the macroeconomic environment, financial institutions, markets and
infrastructure.
•These reports will also assess the resilience of the financial sector through stress
tests.
•FSR is a biannual publication. - Question 2 of 3
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committee on Investment
and Growth (CCIG):
1. It was created in 2014 to promote capital investment and growth of the economy.
2. It is headed by finance minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
In June 2019, the Union government formed two cabinet committees —
one on Investment, the other on Employment and Skill Development.
The Prime Minister constitutes Standing Committees of the Cabinet and sets out the
specific functions assigned to them. He can add or reduce the number of committees.
Investment: The Cabinet Committee on Investment will “identify key projects required to be
implemented on a time-bound basis”, involving investments of Rs 1,000 crore or more, or
any other critical projects, as may be specified by it, with regard to infrastructure and
manufacturing.
•It will prescribe time limits for giving requisite approvals and clearances by the
ministries concerned in identified sectors.
•It will also monitor the progress of such projects.
Employment: The Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development is supposed
to provide “direction to all policies, programmes, schemes and initiatives for skill
development aimed at increasing the employability of the workforce for effectively meeting
the emerging requirements of the rapidly growing economy and mapping the benefits of
demographic dividend”.
•It is required to enhance workforce participation, foster employment growth and
identification, and work towards removal of gaps between requirement and
availability of skills in various sectors.
•The panel will set targets for expeditious implementation of all skill development
initiatives by the ministries and to periodically review the progress in this regard.
The addition of the two committees is indicative of the new focus areas for the government.
The goal of both is new jobs.Incorrect
In June 2019, the Union government formed two cabinet committees —
one on Investment, the other on Employment and Skill Development.
The Prime Minister constitutes Standing Committees of the Cabinet and sets out the
specific functions assigned to them. He can add or reduce the number of committees.
Investment: The Cabinet Committee on Investment will “identify key projects required to be
implemented on a time-bound basis”, involving investments of Rs 1,000 crore or more, or
any other critical projects, as may be specified by it, with regard to infrastructure and
manufacturing.
•It will prescribe time limits for giving requisite approvals and clearances by the
ministries concerned in identified sectors.
•It will also monitor the progress of such projects.
Employment: The Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development is supposed
to provide “direction to all policies, programmes, schemes and initiatives for skill
development aimed at increasing the employability of the workforce for effectively meeting
the emerging requirements of the rapidly growing economy and mapping the benefits of
demographic dividend”.
•It is required to enhance workforce participation, foster employment growth and
identification, and work towards removal of gaps between requirement and
availability of skills in various sectors.
•The panel will set targets for expeditious implementation of all skill development
initiatives by the ministries and to periodically review the progress in this regard.
The addition of the two committees is indicative of the new focus areas for the government.
The goal of both is new jobs. - Question 3 of 3
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the approache (s) to study of human development?
1. Income approach
2. Welfare approach
3. Sustainability approach
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
There are many ways of looking at the problem of human development. Some of the important approaches are: (a) The income approach; (b) The welfare approach; (c) Minimum needs approach; and (d) Capabilities approach
Incorrect
There are many ways of looking at the problem of human development. Some of the important approaches are: (a) The income approach; (b) The welfare approach; (c) Minimum needs approach; and (d) Capabilities approach
National Income– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
National Income– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 12 July 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“Let do/let go” approach is related to which of the following?
Correct
Scottish Enlightenment thinker Adam Smith introduced the concept Invisible hand in several of his writings, but it found this economic interpretation in his book An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations published in 1776.
- The invisible hand is part of laissez-faire, meaning “let do/let go,” approach to the market.
- In other words, the approach holds that the market will find its equilibrium without government or other interventions forcing it into unnatural patterns.
- The invisible hand is a metaphor for the unseen forces that move the free market economy.
- Through individual self-interest and freedom of production as well as consumption, the best interest of society, as a whole, are fulfilled.
- The constant interplay of individual pressures on market supply and demand causes the natural movement of prices and the flow of trade.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Scottish Enlightenment thinker Adam Smith introduced the concept Invisible hand in several of his writings, but it found this economic interpretation in his book An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations published in 1776.
- The invisible hand is part of laissez-faire, meaning “let do/let go,” approach to the market.
- In other words, the approach holds that the market will find its equilibrium without government or other interventions forcing it into unnatural patterns.
- The invisible hand is a metaphor for the unseen forces that move the free market economy.
- Through individual self-interest and freedom of production as well as consumption, the best interest of society, as a whole, are fulfilled.
- The constant interplay of individual pressures on market supply and demand causes the natural movement of prices and the flow of trade.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are characteristics of a Public good?
- non-excludability
- Non rival Consumption
- Non rejectable
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Public goods are goods that can be consumed simultaneously by a large number of people without the consumption by one imposing an opportunity cost on others.
The characteristics of a public good:
- Non excludability i.e., the citizens can enjoy its benefits at no explicit financial cost.
- Non rival consumption i.e., the marginal cost of supplying this public good to an extra citizen is zero.
- Non-Rejectable i.e., collective supply for all citizens means that it cannot be rejected.
Source: NCERT XII Macro Economics
Incorrect
Public goods are goods that can be consumed simultaneously by a large number of people without the consumption by one imposing an opportunity cost on others.
The characteristics of a public good:
- Non excludability i.e., the citizens can enjoy its benefits at no explicit financial cost.
- Non rival consumption i.e., the marginal cost of supplying this public good to an extra citizen is zero.
- Non-Rejectable i.e., collective supply for all citizens means that it cannot be rejected.
Source: NCERT XII Macro Economics
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI):
- It is conducted by Department for Promotion of Industry & Internal Trade.
- It covers both formal and informal industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). ASI is principal source of industrial statistics in India. It does not cover unorganized or unregistered or informal sector enterprises.
- ASI, an annual event, not only facilitates suitable data collection based on appropriate sampling techniques but also ensures timely dissemination of statistical information to asses and evaluates the dynamics in composition, growth and structure of organized manufacturing sector.
- The structure and function of the industrial sector is an important perspective of Indian Economy. It is imperative for industries to grow both qualitatively and quantitatively to boost the economy.
- The well-being of the industries depends truly on the formulation and promotion of industrial policies framed by the policy makers.
- To frame suitable industrial policies the policy makers, need to be aware about the quantified aspect of the existing scenarios in the industries in the country.
- This is where the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample Survey Office, Government of India.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). ASI is principal source of industrial statistics in India. It does not cover unorganized or unregistered or informal sector enterprises.
- ASI, an annual event, not only facilitates suitable data collection based on appropriate sampling techniques but also ensures timely dissemination of statistical information to asses and evaluates the dynamics in composition, growth and structure of organized manufacturing sector.
- The structure and function of the industrial sector is an important perspective of Indian Economy. It is imperative for industries to grow both qualitatively and quantitatively to boost the economy.
- The well-being of the industries depends truly on the formulation and promotion of industrial policies framed by the policy makers.
- To frame suitable industrial policies the policy makers, need to be aware about the quantified aspect of the existing scenarios in the industries in the country.
- This is where the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample Survey Office, Government of India.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “International Standards of Accounting and Reporting (ISAR)”?
- It was established after the financial crisis of 2008.
- United Nations Industrial Development Organization serves as ISAR’s secretariat.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
ISAR is the Intergovernmental Working Group of Experts on International Standards of Accounting and Reporting, the United Nations focal point on accounting and corporate governance matters.
- It was established in 1982 by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- Through its Division on Investment and Enterprise, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) serves as ISAR’s secretariat, providing substantive and administrative inputs to its activities.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
ISAR is the Intergovernmental Working Group of Experts on International Standards of Accounting and Reporting, the United Nations focal point on accounting and corporate governance matters.
- It was established in 1982 by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- Through its Division on Investment and Enterprise, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) serves as ISAR’s secretariat, providing substantive and administrative inputs to its activities.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the Gross Domestic Product, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
- It is the value of theall-intermediategoods and services produced within the boundary of a nation during one year period.
- It is calculated by adding national private consumption, gross investment, government spending and trade balance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of the all-final goods and services produced within the boundary of a nation during one year period.
It is also calculated by adding national private consumption, gross investment, government spending and trade balance (exports-minus-imports).
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of the all-final goods and services produced within the boundary of a nation during one year period.
It is also calculated by adding national private consumption, gross investment, government spending and trade balance (exports-minus-imports).
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following ministry in India decides the rate of depreciation of a good?
Correct
Every asset (except human beings) goes for depreciation in the process of their uses, which means they ‘wear and tear’.
The governments of the economies decide and announce the rates by which assets depreciate (done in India by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) and a list is published, which is used by different sections of the economy to determine the real levels of depreciations in different assets.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Every asset (except human beings) goes for depreciation in the process of their uses, which means they ‘wear and tear’.
The governments of the economies decide and announce the rates by which assets depreciate (done in India by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) and a list is published, which is used by different sections of the economy to determine the real levels of depreciations in different assets.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyGross National Product (GNP) is the GDP of a country added with its ‘income from abroad’. Which of the following is/are part of income from abroad in India?
- Private Remittances
- External grants
- Interest on External loans
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Gross National Product (GNP) is the GDP of a country added with its ‘income from abroad’. Here, the trans-boundary economic activities of an economy are also taken into account. The items which are counted in the segment ‘Income from Abroad’ is:
- Private Remittances
- Interest on external loans
- External grants
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Gross National Product (GNP) is the GDP of a country added with its ‘income from abroad’. Here, the trans-boundary economic activities of an economy are also taken into account. The items which are counted in the segment ‘Income from Abroad’ is:
- Private Remittances
- Interest on external loans
- External grants
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the base year for national income accounting, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It was revised from 2004–05 to 2011 – 12.
- It has been revised in line with the requirements of the System of National Accounts (SNA)-2008.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Central Statistics Office (CSO), in January 2015, released the new and revised data of National Accounts, effecting two changes:
- The Base Year was revised from 2004–05 to 2011–12. This was done in accordance with the recommendation of the National Statistical Commission (NSC), which had advised to revise the base year of all economic indices every five years.
- This time, the methodology of calculating the National Accounts has also been revised in line with the requirements of the System of National Accounts (SNA)-2008, an internationally accepted standard.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Central Statistics Office (CSO), in January 2015, released the new and revised data of National Accounts, effecting two changes:
- The Base Year was revised from 2004–05 to 2011–12. This was done in accordance with the recommendation of the National Statistical Commission (NSC), which had advised to revise the base year of all economic indices every five years.
- This time, the methodology of calculating the National Accounts has also been revised in line with the requirements of the System of National Accounts (SNA)-2008, an internationally accepted standard.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- ‘Factory Price’ is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the process of producing something.
- ‘Market cost’ is derived after deducting the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Basically, ‘factor cost’ is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the process of producing something (such as cost of capital, i.e., interest on loans, raw materials, labour, rent, power, etc.).
- This is also termed as ‘factory price’ or ‘production cost/price’. This is nothing but ‘price’ of the commodity from the producer’s side.
- While the ‘market cost’ is derived after adding the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product, it means the cost at which the goods reach the market, i.e., showrooms (these are the cenvat/central excise and the CST which are paid by the producers to the central government in India).
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Basically, ‘factor cost’ is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the process of producing something (such as cost of capital, i.e., interest on loans, raw materials, labour, rent, power, etc.).
- This is also termed as ‘factory price’ or ‘production cost/price’. This is nothing but ‘price’ of the commodity from the producer’s side.
- While the ‘market cost’ is derived after adding the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product, it means the cost at which the goods reach the market, i.e., showrooms (these are the cenvat/central excise and the CST which are paid by the producers to the central government in India).
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCI&S):
- It compiles and releases yearly export & import data on merchandise trade.
- It comes under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The chequered history of evolution, developments, transformations and coming of age of the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) has been a mammoth exercise spread over a span of one hundred and forty years and carried out under the stewardship of capable and pragmatic visionaries.
- The Organization traces its origin to a statistical branch established in the Finance Department of the Government of India way back in 1862.
- Sir William W. Hunter was the first DG of the DGCI & S or the Director General of Statistics as he was designated, back in 1871.
- The DGCI&S compiles and releases monthly export & import data on merchandise trade.
- It also compiles and releases yearly data on inter-state movement of goods in India by river, rail & air; customs & excise revenue collections of the Indian union, inland coasting trade consignments of India and foreign coastal cargo movements of India.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The chequered history of evolution, developments, transformations and coming of age of the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) has been a mammoth exercise spread over a span of one hundred and forty years and carried out under the stewardship of capable and pragmatic visionaries.
- The Organization traces its origin to a statistical branch established in the Finance Department of the Government of India way back in 1862.
- Sir William W. Hunter was the first DG of the DGCI & S or the Director General of Statistics as he was designated, back in 1871.
- The DGCI&S compiles and releases monthly export & import data on merchandise trade.
- It also compiles and releases yearly data on inter-state movement of goods in India by river, rail & air; customs & excise revenue collections of the Indian union, inland coasting trade consignments of India and foreign coastal cargo movements of India.
Source: The Hindu
National Income– 2020 and Before that
National Income
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- Question 1 of 11
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding India’s GDP data:
1. The National Statistical Office (NSO) is mandated to prepare national accounts as well as publish annual estimates of national product.
2. India’s economy for the first time in last decade saw negative quarterly growth rate in (April-June) Q1 of 2020-21.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation.
The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
NSO, among other its functions, prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices.
Statement 2 is correct. India’s economy contracted by a historic 23.9% in the June quarter, marking the sharpest drop in the country’s growth numbers in more than 40 years. Data released by the National Statistical Office recently shows that manufacturing, construction and trade sectors experienced massive contraction at 39.3%, 50.3%, 47%, respectively.
The last contraction of the economy occurred in 1979-80, when GDP shrank 5.2%.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation.
The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
NSO, among other its functions, prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices.
Statement 2 is correct. India’s economy contracted by a historic 23.9% in the June quarter, marking the sharpest drop in the country’s growth numbers in more than 40 years. Data released by the National Statistical Office recently shows that manufacturing, construction and trade sectors experienced massive contraction at 39.3%, 50.3%, 47%, respectively.
The last contraction of the economy occurred in 1979-80, when GDP shrank 5.2%. - Question 2 of 11
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term ‘technical recession’ was in news recently, what does it mean?
Correct
Reserve Bank of India in its monthly bulletin stated that India has entered a technical recession in the first half of 2020-21 for the first time in its history with Q2:2020- 21 likely to record the second successive quarter of GDP contraction.
A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation’s economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP.
The difference between a ‘technical recession’ and a ‘recession’ is that while the former term is mainly used to capture the trend in GDP, the latter expression encompasses an appreciably more broad-based decline in economic activity.Incorrect
Reserve Bank of India in its monthly bulletin stated that India has entered a technical recession in the first half of 2020-21 for the first time in its history with Q2:2020- 21 likely to record the second successive quarter of GDP contraction.
A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation’s economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP.
The difference between a ‘technical recession’ and a ‘recession’ is that while the former term is mainly used to capture the trend in GDP, the latter expression encompasses an appreciably more broad-based decline in economic activity. - Question 3 of 11
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Base Effect?
1. It can result from abnormally high or low levels of inflation in a period.
2. It is the result of a consistent and constant growth in an economy.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Base effect is often a term used in relation to economic indicators such as inflation and GDP data which are primarily based on the base effect of last year.
For inflation, Base effect refers to the distortion in monthly inflation figures from a sudden spike or decline in them during a short period of time. They are caused by seasonal or monthly variations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is usually a result of volatility rather than consistency in an economy.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Base effect is often a term used in relation to economic indicators such as inflation and GDP data which are primarily based on the base effect of last year.
For inflation, Base effect refers to the distortion in monthly inflation figures from a sudden spike or decline in them during a short period of time. They are caused by seasonal or monthly variations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is usually a result of volatility rather than consistency in an economy. - Question 4 of 11
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following measures will spur economic growth?
1. Transparent and hassle free land acquiring.
2. Availability of Skilled labour.
3. Lower interest rates in the economy.
4. Decrease in effective demand.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation:
The traditional argument is that the lower the interest rate, the better for businesses as it brings down the cost of capital, making investments more attractive.
Any government would love this as the country would then draw higher investments leading to higher growth and more job creation.
Governments abhor higher interest rates as, theoretically, these push up project costs and keep investors away.
Capital is one of the three main factors of production, which are critical to the growth of a commercial entity, the other two being land and labour.
But capital is only a necessary, not sufficient, condition. Land, unless allocated by the local government, is too costly for investors seeking to set up shop.
On labour, even if adequate hands are available for a job, the skill quotient is still low. Training graduates to be job-ready is a form of tax that companies pay.
Also to be taken into account is the market environment and demand. If end users are seeing lesser money in hand than earlier, demand will certainly be impacted.
Therefore, in an environment where the other factors of production are not favourable for an investor, low interest rates by themselves may not prove attractive enough.
Any revival of economic activity will be contingent on joint efforts by the government on the fiscal front to stimulate demand, and the RBI, to keep interest rates low.Incorrect
Explanation:
The traditional argument is that the lower the interest rate, the better for businesses as it brings down the cost of capital, making investments more attractive.
Any government would love this as the country would then draw higher investments leading to higher growth and more job creation.
Governments abhor higher interest rates as, theoretically, these push up project costs and keep investors away.
Capital is one of the three main factors of production, which are critical to the growth of a commercial entity, the other two being land and labour.
But capital is only a necessary, not sufficient, condition. Land, unless allocated by the local government, is too costly for investors seeking to set up shop.
On labour, even if adequate hands are available for a job, the skill quotient is still low. Training graduates to be job-ready is a form of tax that companies pay.
Also to be taken into account is the market environment and demand. If end users are seeing lesser money in hand than earlier, demand will certainly be impacted.
Therefore, in an environment where the other factors of production are not favourable for an investor, low interest rates by themselves may not prove attractive enough.
Any revival of economic activity will be contingent on joint efforts by the government on the fiscal front to stimulate demand, and the RBI, to keep interest rates low. - Question 5 of 11
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- Real GDP measures an economy’s total goods and services in a given year, taking into
account changes in price levels.
- Real GDP can never be more than the nominal GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Real GDP measures an economy’s total goods and
services in a given year, taking into account changes in price levels. It allows GDP
comparison year by year because it takes into account inflation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nominal GDP is also referred to as the current prices GDP. Real
GDP takes into consideration adjustments for changes in inflation. This means that if
inflation is positive, real GDP will be lower than nominal, and vice versa.
# GDP deflator is a measure of the level of prices of all new, domestically produced, final
goods and services in an economy. It is calculated by computing the ratio of nominal GDP to
the real measure of GDP.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Real GDP measures an economy’s total goods and
services in a given year, taking into account changes in price levels. It allows GDP
comparison year by year because it takes into account inflation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nominal GDP is also referred to as the current prices GDP. Real
GDP takes into consideration adjustments for changes in inflation. This means that if
inflation is positive, real GDP will be lower than nominal, and vice versa.
# GDP deflator is a measure of the level of prices of all new, domestically produced, final
goods and services in an economy. It is calculated by computing the ratio of nominal GDP to
the real measure of GDP.
- Question 6 of 11
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding India’s GDP data:
- The National Statistical Office (NSO) is mandated to prepare national accounts as well as publish annual estimates of national product.
- India’s economy for the first time in last decade saw negative quarterly growth rate in (April-June) Q1 of 2020-21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation.
The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
NSO, among other its functions, prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices.
Statement 2 is correct. India’s economy contracted by a historic 23.9% in the June quarter, marking the sharpest drop in the country’s growth numbers in more than 40 years. Data released by the National Statistical Office recently shows that manufacturing, construction and trade sectors experienced massive contraction at 39.3%, 50.3%, 47%, respectively.
The last contraction of the economy occurred in 1979-80, when GDP shrank 5.2%.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation.
The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
NSO, among other its functions, prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital, as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices.
Statement 2 is correct. India’s economy contracted by a historic 23.9% in the June quarter, marking the sharpest drop in the country’s growth numbers in more than 40 years. Data released by the National Statistical Office recently shows that manufacturing, construction and trade sectors experienced massive contraction at 39.3%, 50.3%, 47%, respectively.
The last contraction of the economy occurred in 1979-80, when GDP shrank 5.2%.
- Question 7 of 11
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term ‘technical recession’ was in news recently, what does it mean?
Correct
Reserve Bank of India in its monthly bulletin stated that India has entered a technical recession in the first half of 2020-21 for the first time in its history with Q2:2020- 21 likely to record the second successive quarter of GDP contraction.
A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation’s economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP.
The difference between a ‘technical recession’ and a ‘recession’ is that while the former term is mainly used to capture the trend in GDP, the latter expression encompasses an appreciably more broad-based decline in economic activity.
Incorrect
Reserve Bank of India in its monthly bulletin stated that India has entered a technical recession in the first half of 2020-21 for the first time in its history with Q2:2020- 21 likely to record the second successive quarter of GDP contraction.
A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation’s economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP.
The difference between a ‘technical recession’ and a ‘recession’ is that while the former term is mainly used to capture the trend in GDP, the latter expression encompasses an appreciably more broad-based decline in economic activity.
- Question 8 of 11
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production
(IIP):
- Manufacturing sector has highest weightage in IIP calculation.
- Base year for current IIP calculations is 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Quick Estimates of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are released
on 12th of every month (or previous working day if 12th is a holiday) with a six weeks lag
and compiled with data received from source agencies, who in turn receive the data from
the producing factories/ establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The weightage of Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity
production in overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is 77.63 per cent, 14.37 per cent
and 7.99 per cent respectively.
Statement 2 is correct. There have been nine revision of base year of all-India IIP since the
beginning of its dissemination with first being 1937. Currently base year for IIP calculations is 2011-12.
Incorrect
The Quick Estimates of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are released
on 12th of every month (or previous working day if 12th is a holiday) with a six weeks lag
and compiled with data received from source agencies, who in turn receive the data from
the producing factories/ establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The weightage of Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity
production in overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is 77.63 per cent, 14.37 per cent
and 7.99 per cent respectively.
Statement 2 is correct. There have been nine revision of base year of all-India IIP since the
beginning of its dissemination with first being 1937. Currently base year for IIP calculations is 2011-12.
- Question 9 of 11
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- The Gross Value Added (GVA) of fisheries sector forms more than one third share of Agricultural GVA.
- The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is a completely Central Sector Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Fisheries and aquaculture are an important source of food, nutrition, employment and income in India. The sector provides livelihood to about 16 million fishers and fish farmers at the primary level and almost twice the number along the value chain.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gross Value Added (GVA) of fisheries sector in the national economy during 2018-19 stood at Rs 2,12,915 crores (current basic prices) which constituted 1.24% of the total National GVA and 7.28% share of Agricultural GVA.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). The Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) Component is further segregated into Non- beneficiary oriented and beneficiary orientated sub-components/activities under the following three broad heads:
–Enhancement of Production and Productivity
–Infrastructure and Post-harvest Management
–Fisheries Management and Regulatory Framework
Incorrect
Fisheries and aquaculture are an important source of food, nutrition, employment and income in India. The sector provides livelihood to about 16 million fishers and fish farmers at the primary level and almost twice the number along the value chain.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gross Value Added (GVA) of fisheries sector in the national economy during 2018-19 stood at Rs 2,12,915 crores (current basic prices) which constituted 1.24% of the total National GVA and 7.28% share of Agricultural GVA.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). The Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) Component is further segregated into Non- beneficiary oriented and beneficiary orientated sub-components/activities under the following three broad heads:
–Enhancement of Production and Productivity
–Infrastructure and Post-harvest Management
–Fisheries Management and Regulatory Framework
- Question 10 of 11
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Private final consumption expenditure (PFCE):
- It is the expenditure incurred by the resident households and non-profit institutions serving households on final consumption of goods and services.
- It forms more than half of the Real Gross Domestic Product of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Private final consumption expenditure (PFCE) is defined as the expenditure incurred by the resident households and non-profit institutions serving households (NPISH) on final consumption of goods and services, whether made within or outside the economic territory.
Statement 2 is correct. The Private Final Consumption Expenditure formed more than 57 percent of the Real Gross Domestic Product (At 2011-12 Prices) of India in 2019-20.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Private final consumption expenditure (PFCE) is defined as the expenditure incurred by the resident households and non-profit institutions serving households (NPISH) on final consumption of goods and services, whether made within or outside the economic territory.
Statement 2 is correct. The Private Final Consumption Expenditure formed more than 57 percent of the Real Gross Domestic Product (At 2011-12 Prices) of India in 2019-20.
- Question 11 of 11
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- India is the largest fish producing country in the world.
- Fisheries sector of India contributes more than five percent to the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Fisheries and aquaculture continue to be an important source of food, nutrition, income and livelihood to millions of people. Export earnings from the Fisheries sector has been Rs.46,662.85 crores during 2019-20.
The sector provides livelihood support to about 280 lakh people at the primary level and almost twice the number along the value chain and the annual average growth rate in the Fisheries sector has been 7% over the last few years. Fish being an affordable and rich source of animal protein, is one of the healthiest options to mitigate hunger and nutrient deficiency.
Statement 1 is incorrect. India is the second largest fish producing country in the world accounting for 7.56% of global production after China.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Fisheries sector is contributing about 1.24% to the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) and over 7.28% to the agricultural GVA.
Incorrect
Fisheries and aquaculture continue to be an important source of food, nutrition, income and livelihood to millions of people. Export earnings from the Fisheries sector has been Rs.46,662.85 crores during 2019-20.
The sector provides livelihood support to about 280 lakh people at the primary level and almost twice the number along the value chain and the annual average growth rate in the Fisheries sector has been 7% over the last few years. Fish being an affordable and rich source of animal protein, is one of the healthiest options to mitigate hunger and nutrient deficiency.
Statement 1 is incorrect. India is the second largest fish producing country in the world accounting for 7.56% of global production after China.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Fisheries sector is contributing about 1.24% to the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) and over 7.28% to the agricultural GVA.
Fiscal Policy– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Fiscal Policy– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Fiscal Policy– 2020 and Before that
Fiscal Policy Part-1
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Cash Management Bill
(CMB)”?
1. It is a short-term instrument issued by banks to meet the temporary cash flow
mismatches.
2. The Cash Management Bills are issued for maturities of 91 days, 182 days and 364
days.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Cash Management bills.
•The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, decided to issue a new
short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills, since August 2009
to meet the temporary cash flow mismatches of the government.
•The Cash Management Bills are non-standard and discounted instruments
issued for maturities less than 91 days.
•The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills (issued at discount to the
face value); are tradable and qualify for ready forward facility; investment in it is
considered as an eligible investment in government securities by banks for SLR.Incorrect
Cash Management bills.
•The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, decided to issue a new
short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills, since August 2009
to meet the temporary cash flow mismatches of the government.
•The Cash Management Bills are non-standard and discounted instruments
issued for maturities less than 91 days.
•The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills (issued at discount to the
face value); are tradable and qualify for ready forward facility; investment in it is
considered as an eligible investment in government securities by banks for SLR. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Consumer Welfare Fund (CWF) has been setup under section 57 of the CGST
Act, 2017. The financial assistance from CWF is given to which of the following?
1. Voluntary Consumer Organization (VCOs).
2. States.
3. Universities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Consumer Welfare Fund Rules were framed and notified in the Gazette of
India in 1992, which have been incorporated in Consumer Welfare Fund Rule 97 of the
CGST Rules, 2017. Consumer Welfare Fund has been setup under section 57 of the CGST
Act, 2017.
Financial assistance from CWF is given to various Institutions including Universities,
Voluntary Consumer Organization (VCOs) and States to promote and protect the welfare and interests of the consumers, create consumer awareness and strengthen consumer movement in the country. Grants from CWF have been given for the following major projects:
•Creation of Consumer Law Chairs/ Centres of Excellence in Institutions/Universities of repute to foster research and training on consumer related issues.
•Projects for spreading consumer literacy and awareness.Incorrect
The Consumer Welfare Fund Rules were framed and notified in the Gazette of
India in 1992, which have been incorporated in Consumer Welfare Fund Rule 97 of the
CGST Rules, 2017. Consumer Welfare Fund has been setup under section 57 of the CGST
Act, 2017.
Financial assistance from CWF is given to various Institutions including Universities,
Voluntary Consumer Organization (VCOs) and States to promote and protect the welfare and interests of the consumers, create consumer awareness and strengthen consumer movement in the country. Grants from CWF have been given for the following major projects:
•Creation of Consumer Law Chairs/ Centres of Excellence in Institutions/Universities of repute to foster research and training on consumer related issues.
•Projects for spreading consumer literacy and awareness. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following state taxes is/are subsumed under Goods and Service Tax (GST)?
1. Luxury Tax
2. Entertainment tax and Amusement tax levied by local bodies
3. Taxes on advertisements
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
The introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a very significant step in the field of indirect tax reforms in India.
By amalgamating a large number of Central and State taxes into a single tax, GST will mitigate ill effects of cascading or double taxation in a major way and pave the way for a common national market.
The government rolled out GST with effect from 1st July 2017. State taxes that would be subsumed within the GST are:-
• State VAT
• Central Sales Tax
• Purchase Tax
• Luxury Tax
• Entry Tax (All forms)
• Entertainment Tax and Amusement Tax (except those levied by the local bodies)
• Taxes on advertisements
• Taxes on lotteries, betting and gambling
• State cesses and surcharges in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services.Incorrect
The introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a very significant step in the field of indirect tax reforms in India.
By amalgamating a large number of Central and State taxes into a single tax, GST will mitigate ill effects of cascading or double taxation in a major way and pave the way for a common national market.
The government rolled out GST with effect from 1st July 2017. State taxes that would be subsumed within the GST are:-
• State VAT
• Central Sales Tax
• Purchase Tax
• Luxury Tax
• Entry Tax (All forms)
• Entertainment Tax and Amusement Tax (except those levied by the local bodies)
• Taxes on advertisements
• Taxes on lotteries, betting and gambling
• State cesses and surcharges in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the buyback tax:
1. The government of India amended the Section 115QA of the Income Tax Act 1961 to introduce tax on buyback of shares.
2. It includes both listed and unlisted companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
In simple terms, buyback of shares means a situation when the company repurchases its own shares. A company may opt to buy back the shares under any one of the following situations:
• When the quoted price on the stock exchange for the company’s share does not represent the true value of the shares; or
• When the company doesn’t have paths to invest its accumulated funds, and it goes for buyback of shares with a view to return the capital; or
• When the promoters are planning to increase their shareholding in the company.A company which has distributable surplus has the following two options:
• Declare dividend; or
• Purchase its own shares (i.e. buyback its shares).The declared dividend is chargeable to Dividend Distribution Tax, whereas, earlier, the amount distributed as buy-back of shares was chargeable to capital gains. Being treated as capital gains, the income tax was paid at lower rates on buyback of shares.
In order to avoid the tax, unlisted companies started resorting to buyback of shares instead of declaring dividends. As an anti-tax avoidance measure, the government introduced Section 115QA under the Income Tax Act vide the Finance Act, 2013.
Provisions of Section 115QA were initially applicable only to unlisted companies. However, vide the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, the provisions of Section 115QA were amended and the same is made applicable to the listed companies also. The amended Section 115QA basically aims to bring the tax on dividend and the tax on buyback of shares at par.Incorrect
In simple terms, buyback of shares means a situation when the company repurchases its own shares. A company may opt to buy back the shares under any one of the following situations:
• When the quoted price on the stock exchange for the company’s share does not represent the true value of the shares; or
• When the company doesn’t have paths to invest its accumulated funds, and it goes for buyback of shares with a view to return the capital; or
• When the promoters are planning to increase their shareholding in the company.A company which has distributable surplus has the following two options:
• Declare dividend; or
• Purchase its own shares (i.e. buyback its shares).The declared dividend is chargeable to Dividend Distribution Tax, whereas, earlier, the amount distributed as buy-back of shares was chargeable to capital gains. Being treated as capital gains, the income tax was paid at lower rates on buyback of shares.
In order to avoid the tax, unlisted companies started resorting to buyback of shares instead of declaring dividends. As an anti-tax avoidance measure, the government introduced Section 115QA under the Income Tax Act vide the Finance Act, 2013.
Provisions of Section 115QA were initially applicable only to unlisted companies. However, vide the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, the provisions of Section 115QA were amended and the same is made applicable to the listed companies also. The amended Section 115QA basically aims to bring the tax on dividend and the tax on buyback of shares at par. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the strategic disinvestment or strategic sale:
1. It implies the sale of the Government shareholding of central public sector enterprises (CPSE) of up to 50%, or such higher percentage.
2. It is approved by the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
When the government decides to transfer the ownership and control of a public sector entity to some other entity, either private or public, the process is called strategic disinvestment.
• The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) which comes under the Finance Ministry defines Strategic disinvestment as follows:Strategic disinvestment would imply the sale of a substantial portion of the Government shareholding of central public sector enterprises (CPSE) of up to 50%, or such higher percentage as the competent authority may determine, along with transfer of management control.”
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves the strategic divestment of government holdings.Incorrect
When the government decides to transfer the ownership and control of a public sector entity to some other entity, either private or public, the process is called strategic disinvestment.
• The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) which comes under the Finance Ministry defines Strategic disinvestment as follows:Strategic disinvestment would imply the sale of a substantial portion of the Government shareholding of central public sector enterprises (CPSE) of up to 50%, or such higher percentage as the competent authority may determine, along with transfer of management control.”
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves the strategic divestment of government holdings. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Asset Monetisation Framework:
1. It is prepared by Reserve bank of India.
2. It helps to monetise stressed debts of banking system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The framework is being drafted by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM). The policy framework lays down the Institutional framework for monetization of the following:
• Identified non-core assets of CPSEs under strategic disinvestment;
• Immovable Enemy Property under the custody of Custodian of Enemy Property (CEPI), MHA as per sub section 6 of section 8A of the Enemy Property Act, 1968;
• This framework is also available for use to monetize assets of other CPSEs/PSUs/other Government Organizations with the approval of the Competent Authority;
• Sick/Loss making CPSEs under closure normally follow the DPE closure guidelines dated 14.06.2018 in this regard. However, any sick/loss making CPSE can also adopt this framework with the approval of Competent Authority.The objective of the asset monetization programme of the Government of India is to unlock the value of investment made in public assets which have not yielded appropriate or potential returns so far.
Incorrect
The framework is being drafted by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM). The policy framework lays down the Institutional framework for monetization of the following:
• Identified non-core assets of CPSEs under strategic disinvestment;
• Immovable Enemy Property under the custody of Custodian of Enemy Property (CEPI), MHA as per sub section 6 of section 8A of the Enemy Property Act, 1968;
• This framework is also available for use to monetize assets of other CPSEs/PSUs/other Government Organizations with the approval of the Competent Authority;
• Sick/Loss making CPSEs under closure normally follow the DPE closure guidelines dated 14.06.2018 in this regard. However, any sick/loss making CPSE can also adopt this framework with the approval of Competent Authority.The objective of the asset monetization programme of the Government of India is to unlock the value of investment made in public assets which have not yielded appropriate or potential returns so far.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are type (s) of Government Securities (G-Sec)?
1. Treasury Bills (T-bills)
2. Cash Management Bills (CMBs)
3. Dated Government Securities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
• Treasury Bills (T-bills): Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.
• Cash Management Bills (CMBs): In 2010, Government of India, in consultation with RBI introduced a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs), to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days.
• Dated G-Secs: Dated G-Secs are securities which carry a fixed or floating coupon (interest rate) which is paid on the face value, on half-yearly basis. Generally, the tenor of dated securities ranges from 5 years to 40 years.Incorrect
A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
• Treasury Bills (T-bills): Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.
• Cash Management Bills (CMBs): In 2010, Government of India, in consultation with RBI introduced a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs), to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days.
• Dated G-Secs: Dated G-Secs are securities which carry a fixed or floating coupon (interest rate) which is paid on the face value, on half-yearly basis. Generally, the tenor of dated securities ranges from 5 years to 40 years. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Small Savings Fund (NSSF):
1. It was established in 1999 within the consolidated fund of India.
2. The money in the account is used by the centre and states to finance their fiscal deficit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was established in 1999 within the Public Account of India for pooling the money from different small saving schemes (SSSs).
• Collections from all small savings schemes are credited to the NSSF.
• Similarly, withdrawals under small savings schemes by the depositors are made out of this Fund.
• The money in the account is used by the centre and states to finance their fiscal deficit.
• The balance in the Fund is invested in Central and State Government Securities.
• Pattern of utilization of the fund among the centre and states is decided from time to time by the Government of India.Incorrect
National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was established in 1999 within the Public Account of India for pooling the money from different small saving schemes (SSSs).
• Collections from all small savings schemes are credited to the NSSF.
• Similarly, withdrawals under small savings schemes by the depositors are made out of this Fund.
• The money in the account is used by the centre and states to finance their fiscal deficit.
• The balance in the Fund is invested in Central and State Government Securities.
• Pattern of utilization of the fund among the centre and states is decided from time to time by the Government of India. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “interim report of the 15th Finance Commission (FC)”:
1. The commission recommended continuing the 14th Finance commission vertical divisible pool of tax revenues.
2. The demographic performance is the new parameter added to the horizontal divisible pool criteria
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The interim report of the Fifteenth Finance Commission, tabled together with the Union Budget for 2020-21, leaves the tax devolution formula between the centre and states largely unchanged.
• It, however, calls for greater clarity on government finances, a new fiscal legislation and improvements in the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax.
• The commission will submit its final report only in October 2020. Its interim recommendations will underpin the 2020-21 budget while final recommendations will be used for subsequent years.
• The finance commission, headed by NK Singh, recommended an aggregate share of 41 percent of the net proceeds of the union taxes to be devolved to states in FY21.
• The Fourteenth Finance Commission has increased the devolution to states to 42 percent.
• The demographic performance is the new crucial parameter that has been added to the mix.Incorrect
The interim report of the Fifteenth Finance Commission, tabled together with the Union Budget for 2020-21, leaves the tax devolution formula between the centre and states largely unchanged.
• It, however, calls for greater clarity on government finances, a new fiscal legislation and improvements in the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax.
• The commission will submit its final report only in October 2020. Its interim recommendations will underpin the 2020-21 budget while final recommendations will be used for subsequent years.
• The finance commission, headed by NK Singh, recommended an aggregate share of 41 percent of the net proceeds of the union taxes to be devolved to states in FY21.
• The Fourteenth Finance Commission has increased the devolution to states to 42 percent.
• The demographic performance is the new crucial parameter that has been added to the mix. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of following are the “grants of the finance commission”?
1. Grants for rural and urban local bodies.
2. Assistance to State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
3. Post devolution revenue deficit grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment requires both the Centre and states to help Panchayati Raj institutions to evolve as a unit of self-governance by assigning them funds, functions and functionaries.
The Finance Commission Grants, in the Union Budget, provides funds to local bodies, state disaster relief funds and compensates any revenue loss to states after devolution of taxes.
The Finance Commission Grants are primarily divided into four sub-heads.
1. Grants for rural local bodies: The three-tier model of governance envisioned in the Constitution assigns clear roles and responsibilities to Gram Panchayats.
• The Finance Commission recommendations ensure that these local bodies are adequately funded.
• In fact, nearly half of the Finance Commission Grants in Union Budget goes to village local bodies.
2. Grants for urban local bodies: In addition to units of self-governance at the village level, the Constitution also envisages cities as units of self-governance.
• Urban local bodies like municipal councils receive the largest chunk of Finance Commission Grants after Rural Local Bodies and Post Devolution Deficit Grants to states.3. Assistance to SDRF: The central government also provides funds to State Disaster Relief Funds in addition to funding the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
•The assistance to state government’s disaster relief authorities is provided as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
4. Post devolution revenue deficit grants: About a third of the total revenue collected by the Centre is directly transferred to states as their share in the divisible pool.
• However, the Finance Commission also provides a mechanism for compensation of any loss incurred by states, which is called post-devolution revenue deficit grants.
• This Finance Commission Grant forms the second largest chunk of Finance Commission transfers after the assistance to local rural bodies.Incorrect
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment requires both the Centre and states to help Panchayati Raj institutions to evolve as a unit of self-governance by assigning them funds, functions and functionaries.
The Finance Commission Grants, in the Union Budget, provides funds to local bodies, state disaster relief funds and compensates any revenue loss to states after devolution of taxes.
The Finance Commission Grants are primarily divided into four sub-heads.
1. Grants for rural local bodies: The three-tier model of governance envisioned in the Constitution assigns clear roles and responsibilities to Gram Panchayats.
• The Finance Commission recommendations ensure that these local bodies are adequately funded.
• In fact, nearly half of the Finance Commission Grants in Union Budget goes to village local bodies.
2. Grants for urban local bodies: In addition to units of self-governance at the village level, the Constitution also envisages cities as units of self-governance.
• Urban local bodies like municipal councils receive the largest chunk of Finance Commission Grants after Rural Local Bodies and Post Devolution Deficit Grants to states.3. Assistance to SDRF: The central government also provides funds to State Disaster Relief Funds in addition to funding the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
•The assistance to state government’s disaster relief authorities is provided as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
4. Post devolution revenue deficit grants: About a third of the total revenue collected by the Centre is directly transferred to states as their share in the divisible pool.
• However, the Finance Commission also provides a mechanism for compensation of any loss incurred by states, which is called post-devolution revenue deficit grants.
• This Finance Commission Grant forms the second largest chunk of Finance Commission transfers after the assistance to local rural bodies. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“Fiscal Stimulus” is provided to different sectors of an economy to promote the growth. Which of the following measure (s) is/are constitutes fiscal stimulus?
1. Increasing taxes
2. Monetary incentives
3. Export subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
A stimulus package is a number of incentives and tax rebates offered by a government to boost spending in a bid to pull a country out of a recession or to prevent an economic slowdown.
• A stimulus package can either be in the form of a monetary stimulus or a fiscal stimulus.
• A monetary stimulus involves cutting interest rates to stimulate the economy.
• When interest rates are cut, there is more incentive for people to borrow as the cost of borrowing is reduced.
• An increase in borrowing means there’ll be more money in circulation, less incentive to save, and more incentive to spend.
• Lowering interest rates could also weaken the exchange rate of a country, thereby leading to a boost in exports.
• When exports are increased, more money enters the economy, encouraging spending and stirring up the economyIncorrect
A stimulus package is a number of incentives and tax rebates offered by a government to boost spending in a bid to pull a country out of a recession or to prevent an economic slowdown.
• A stimulus package can either be in the form of a monetary stimulus or a fiscal stimulus.
• A monetary stimulus involves cutting interest rates to stimulate the economy.
• When interest rates are cut, there is more incentive for people to borrow as the cost of borrowing is reduced.
• An increase in borrowing means there’ll be more money in circulation, less incentive to save, and more incentive to spend.
• Lowering interest rates could also weaken the exchange rate of a country, thereby leading to a boost in exports.
• When exports are increased, more money enters the economy, encouraging spending and stirring up the economy - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“National Calamity Contingent duty (NCCD)” levied by government of India on which of the following product?
Correct
National Calamity Contingent Duty (NCCD) is levied as a duty of excise on certain manufactured goods specified under the Seventh Schedule of Finance Act, 2001. The Union Budget proposed an increase in the NCCD on tobacco products (except bidi).
Incorrect
National Calamity Contingent Duty (NCCD) is levied as a duty of excise on certain manufactured goods specified under the Seventh Schedule of Finance Act, 2001. The Union Budget proposed an increase in the NCCD on tobacco products (except bidi).
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following duties/charges are included in the retail price of petrol/diesel?
1. Base price
2. Freight cost
3. Dealer charges
4. GST
5. Excise duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Currently, the price build-up of petrol comprises the base price of ₹32.81 and freight cost of ₹0.35 per litre. The price charged to dealers (excluding excise duty and VAT) is ₹33.16.
• With excise duty at ₹19.98 per litre, average dealer commission of ₹3.55 per litre and VAT (including VAT on dealer commission) of ₹15.30 per litre, the retail selling price at Delhi is rounded off to ₹71.99 per litre.
• Similarly, price build-up of diesel includes the base price of ₹37.15 per litre. With freight cost of ₹0.32 per litre, the price charged to dealers (excluding excise duty and VAT) is ₹37.47 per litre.
• With an excise duty of ₹15.83 per litre, average dealer commission of ₹2.49 per litre and VAT (including VAT on dealer commission) of ₹9.64 per litre, the retail selling price at Delhi is rounded off to ₹65.43 per litre.Incorrect
Currently, the price build-up of petrol comprises the base price of ₹32.81 and freight cost of ₹0.35 per litre. The price charged to dealers (excluding excise duty and VAT) is ₹33.16.
• With excise duty at ₹19.98 per litre, average dealer commission of ₹3.55 per litre and VAT (including VAT on dealer commission) of ₹15.30 per litre, the retail selling price at Delhi is rounded off to ₹71.99 per litre.
• Similarly, price build-up of diesel includes the base price of ₹37.15 per litre. With freight cost of ₹0.32 per litre, the price charged to dealers (excluding excise duty and VAT) is ₹37.47 per litre.
• With an excise duty of ₹15.83 per litre, average dealer commission of ₹2.49 per litre and VAT (including VAT on dealer commission) of ₹9.64 per litre, the retail selling price at Delhi is rounded off to ₹65.43 per litre. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Securities Transaction Tax (STT)”:
1. It is levied on transactions done on the domestic stock exchanges.
2. It is levied by State Government with the recommendations of Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of ‘financial transaction tax’ levied in India on transactions done on the domestic stock exchanges.
• The rates of STT are prescribed by the central government through its budget from time to time. In tax parlance, this is categorised as a direct tax. The tax came into effect from 1 October, 2004.
• In India, STT is collected for the Government of India by the stock exchanges.
• With charging of STT, long-term capital gains tax was made zero and short-term capital gains tax was reduced to 10 per cent (subsequently, changed to 15 per cent since 2008).Incorrect
The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of ‘financial transaction tax’ levied in India on transactions done on the domestic stock exchanges.
• The rates of STT are prescribed by the central government through its budget from time to time. In tax parlance, this is categorised as a direct tax. The tax came into effect from 1 October, 2004.
• In India, STT is collected for the Government of India by the stock exchanges.
• With charging of STT, long-term capital gains tax was made zero and short-term capital gains tax was reduced to 10 per cent (subsequently, changed to 15 per cent since 2008). - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax in India:
1. It for the first time in India introduced taxation on services.
2. It is a destination-based tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The provisions relating to Service Tax were brought
into force with effect from July 1, 1994 by chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994.
Goods and Services Tax was launched all over India with effect from 1 July 2017.
Statement 2 is correct. Destination based tax or consumption tax are levied where goods
and services are consumed. GST is a destination-based tax, i.e., the goods/services will be
taxed at the place where they are consumed and not at the origin.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The provisions relating to Service Tax were brought
into force with effect from July 1, 1994 by chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994.
Goods and Services Tax was launched all over India with effect from 1 July 2017.
Statement 2 is correct. Destination based tax or consumption tax are levied where goods
and services are consumed. GST is a destination-based tax, i.e., the goods/services will be
taxed at the place where they are consumed and not at the origin. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Input Tax Credit (ITC):
1. It is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes.
2. The Goods and Services Tax mechanism in India does not incorporate the ITC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Input Tax Credit (ITC) allows a person to avail credit
of tax paid on the inward supply of goods or services or both which is used or intended to
be used in the course or furtherance of business.
ITC is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes, i.e., ‘tax on tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Uninterrupted and seamless chain of input tax credit is one of
the key features of Goods and Services Tax.
One of the most important features of the GST system is that the entire supply chain is
subject to GST to be levied by Central and State Government concurrently. As the tax
charged by the Central or the State Governments would be part of the same tax regime,
credit of tax paid at every stage would be available as set-off for payment of tax at every
subsequent stage.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Input Tax Credit (ITC) allows a person to avail credit
of tax paid on the inward supply of goods or services or both which is used or intended to
be used in the course or furtherance of business.
ITC is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes, i.e., ‘tax on tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Uninterrupted and seamless chain of input tax credit is one of
the key features of Goods and Services Tax.
One of the most important features of the GST system is that the entire supply chain is
subject to GST to be levied by Central and State Government concurrently. As the tax
charged by the Central or the State Governments would be part of the same tax regime,
credit of tax paid at every stage would be available as set-off for payment of tax at every
subsequent stage. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Central Government had recently allowed additional borrowing limit to the
States for current financial year subject to which of the following reform(s)?
1. Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System
2. Ease of doing business reform
3. Implementation of National Education Policy 2020
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
In view of the unprecedented COVID-19 pandemic, the Central Government
had in May, 2020 allowed additional borrowing limit of up to 2 percent of Gross State
Domestic Product (GSDP) to the States for the year 2020-21.
One percent of this is subject to implementation of following four specific State level
reforms, where weightage of each reform is 0.25 percent of GSDP:
– Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System;
– Ease of doing business reform;
– Urban Local body/ utility reforms; and
– Power Sector reformsIncorrect
In view of the unprecedented COVID-19 pandemic, the Central Government
had in May, 2020 allowed additional borrowing limit of up to 2 percent of Gross State
Domestic Product (GSDP) to the States for the year 2020-21.
One percent of this is subject to implementation of following four specific State level
reforms, where weightage of each reform is 0.25 percent of GSDP:
– Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System;
– Ease of doing business reform;
– Urban Local body/ utility reforms; and
– Power Sector reforms - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following constitute the internal debt of the Central Government?
1. Treasury Bills
2. Non-marketable securities issued by Central Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are
contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the
Constitution of India. It has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and
External Debt.
Internal debt of the Central Government consists of marketable securities and
nonmarketable securities.
– Marketable securities include fixed tenor and fixed/ floating rate dated securities, and
short-term borrowings through treasury bills.
– Nonmarketable securities in internal debt are the special Central Government securities
issued to National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), securities issued to international financial
institutions, special securities issued against securitisation of balances under postal
insurance and annuity funds (POLIF and RPOLIF), compensation & other bonds, special
securities issued to public sector banks/ EXIM Bank and 14-day Intermediate Treasury
Bills.Incorrect
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are
contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the
Constitution of India. It has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and
External Debt.
Internal debt of the Central Government consists of marketable securities and
nonmarketable securities.
– Marketable securities include fixed tenor and fixed/ floating rate dated securities, and
short-term borrowings through treasury bills.
– Nonmarketable securities in internal debt are the special Central Government securities
issued to National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), securities issued to international financial
institutions, special securities issued against securitisation of balances under postal
insurance and annuity funds (POLIF and RPOLIF), compensation & other bonds, special
securities issued to public sector banks/ EXIM Bank and 14-day Intermediate Treasury
Bills. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Repurchase (buyback) of
Government securities:
1. It is a process whereby the Government of India and States buy back their existing
securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
2. It can be used for infusion of liquidity in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Repurchase (buyback) of G-Secs is a process whereby the Government of India and State
Governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the
holders.
The objectives of buyback can be reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon securities),
reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs
market (by buying back illiquid securities) and infusion of liquidity in the system.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Repurchase (buyback) of G-Secs is a process whereby the Government of India and State
Governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the
holders.
The objectives of buyback can be reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon securities),
reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs
market (by buying back illiquid securities) and infusion of liquidity in the system. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax
(Compensation to States) Act:
1. It provides for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on account of a
national calamity or due to implementation of the goods and services tax.
2. The Act assumes nominal growth rate of revenue subsumed for a State during the
transition period as fourteen percent per annum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to
States) Act is to provide for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on
account of implementation of the goods and services tax in pursuance of the provisions
of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the act the projected nominal growth rate of revenue
subsumed for a State during the transition period shall be fourteen percent per annum.
The projected revenue for any year in a State is calculated by applying the projected growth
rate over the base year revenue of that State.
For the purpose of calculating the compensation amount payable in any financial year
during the transition period, the financial year ending 31st March, 2016, is taken as the base year.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to
States) Act is to provide for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on
account of implementation of the goods and services tax in pursuance of the provisions
of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the act the projected nominal growth rate of revenue
subsumed for a State during the transition period shall be fourteen percent per annum.
The projected revenue for any year in a State is calculated by applying the projected growth
rate over the base year revenue of that State.
For the purpose of calculating the compensation amount payable in any financial year
during the transition period, the financial year ending 31st March, 2016, is taken as the base year. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines revenue neutral rate (RNR) in context of
GST in India?Correct
Revenue neutral rate (RNR) is a structure of different rates established
under the new GST regime in order to match the previous revenue generation.
The RNR is aimed to keep the revenue as constant as possible in the new regime as was
under previous taxation. The government had entrusted the then (2015) chief economic
advisor Arvind Subramanian to head a panel with the task of proposing a revenue neutral rate (RNR), or a rate at which there will be no revenue loss to states under the GST regimeIncorrect
Revenue neutral rate (RNR) is a structure of different rates established
under the new GST regime in order to match the previous revenue generation.
The RNR is aimed to keep the revenue as constant as possible in the new regime as was
under previous taxation. The government had entrusted the then (2015) chief economic
advisor Arvind Subramanian to head a panel with the task of proposing a revenue neutral rate (RNR), or a rate at which there will be no revenue loss to states under the GST regime - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Repurchase (buyback) of
Government securities:
1. It is a process whereby the Government of India and States buy back their existing
securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
2. It can be used for infusion of liquidity in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Repurchase (buyback) of G-Secs is a process whereby the Government of India and
State Governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely,
from the holders.
The objectives of buyback can be reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon
securities), reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs market (by buying back illiquid securities) and infusion of liquidity in the system.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Repurchase (buyback) of G-Secs is a process whereby the Government of India and
State Governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely,
from the holders.
The objectives of buyback can be reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon
securities), reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs market (by buying back illiquid securities) and infusion of liquidity in the system. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are the potential impact(s) of sale of Government
securities by the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Increase in liquidity in the market.
2. Increase in interest rates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the
market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly,
when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby
releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of
the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the
demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the
demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the
market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly,
when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby
releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of
the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the
demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the
demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Cess:
1. Cess taxes have an earmarked purpose but do not give the contributor an entitlement of
a benefit in exchange.
2. Constitution mandates Cess tax revenue to be part of the divisible pool and is distributed
between the Union and the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Cess taxes have an earmarked purpose but do not
give the contributor an entitlement to a quid pro quo benefit.
# The CAG’s has recently reported that the Centre retained ₹47,272 crore of GST
compensation cess in the Consolidated Fund instead of crediting it to the GST compensation
fund in the very first two years of the implementation of GST.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 270(1) identifies the taxes that form a part of the divisible pool, meaning the taxes, proceeds of which are to be distributed between the Union and the State Governments.However, Article 270 states that any cess levied for ‘specific purposes’ under any law passed by the Parliament is an exception i.e. the proceeds from cesses are not part of the divisible pool.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Cess taxes have an earmarked purpose but do not
give the contributor an entitlement to a quid pro quo benefit.
# The CAG’s has recently reported that the Centre retained ₹47,272 crore of GST
compensation cess in the Consolidated Fund instead of crediting it to the GST compensation
fund in the very first two years of the implementation of GST.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 270(1) identifies the taxes that form a part of the divisible pool, meaning the taxes, proceeds of which are to be distributed between the Union and the State Governments.However, Article 270 states that any cess levied for ‘specific purposes’ under any law passed by the Parliament is an exception i.e. the proceeds from cesses are not part of the divisible pool.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax Council:
1.Union Minister of State for Finance is the ex-officio Vice-Chairperson of the Council.
2.One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council constitute the quorum at its meetings.
3.It can recommend any special rate for a specified period, to raise additional resources during any natural calamity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council choose one amongst themselves to be the Vice-Chairperson of the Council for such period as they may decide.
Statement 2 is correct. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
Statement 3 is correct. The Goods and Services Tax Council’s mandate includes that it can make recommendations to the Union and the States on any special rate or rates for a specified period, to raise additional resources during any natural calamity or disasterIncorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council choose one amongst themselves to be the Vice-Chairperson of the Council for such period as they may decide.
Statement 2 is correct. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
Statement 3 is correct. The Goods and Services Tax Council’s mandate includes that it can make recommendations to the Union and the States on any special rate or rates for a specified period, to raise additional resources during any natural calamity or disaster
Fiscal Policy Part-2
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- Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Central Government had recently allowed additional borrowing limit to the States for current financial year subject to which of the following reform(s)?
1. Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System
2. Ease of doing business reform
3. Implementation of National Education Policy 2020
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
In view of the unprecedented COVID-19 pandemic, the Central Government had in May, 2020 allowed additional borrowing limit of up to 2 percent of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) to the States for the year 2020-21.
One percent of this is subject to implementation of following four specific State level reforms, where weightage of each reform is 0.25 percent of GSDP:
– Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System;
– Ease of doing business reform;
– Urban Local body/ utility reforms; and
– Power Sector reformsIncorrect
In view of the unprecedented COVID-19 pandemic, the Central Government had in May, 2020 allowed additional borrowing limit of up to 2 percent of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) to the States for the year 2020-21.
One percent of this is subject to implementation of following four specific State level reforms, where weightage of each reform is 0.25 percent of GSDP:
– Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System;
– Ease of doing business reform;
– Urban Local body/ utility reforms; and
– Power Sector reforms - Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following constitute the internal debt of the Central Government?
1. Treasury Bills
2. Non-marketable securities issued by Central Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India. It has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt.
Internal debt of the Central Government consists of marketable securities and nonmarketable securities.
– Marketable securities include fixed tenor and fixed/ floating rate dated securities, and short-term borrowings through treasury bills.
– Nonmarketable securities in internal debt are the special Central Government securities issued to National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), securities issued to international financial institutions, special securities issued against securitisation of balances under postal insurance and annuity funds (POLIF and RPOLIF), compensation & other bonds, special securities issued to public sector banks/ EXIM Bank and 14-day Intermediate Treasury Bills.Incorrect
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India. It has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt.
Internal debt of the Central Government consists of marketable securities and nonmarketable securities.
– Marketable securities include fixed tenor and fixed/ floating rate dated securities, and short-term borrowings through treasury bills.
– Nonmarketable securities in internal debt are the special Central Government securities issued to National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), securities issued to international financial institutions, special securities issued against securitisation of balances under postal insurance and annuity funds (POLIF and RPOLIF), compensation & other bonds, special securities issued to public sector banks/ EXIM Bank and 14-day Intermediate Treasury Bills. - Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax in India:
1. It for the first time in India introduced taxation on services.
2. It is a destination-based tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The provisions relating to Service Tax were brought into force with effect from July 1, 1994 by chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994.
Goods and Services Tax was launched all over India with effect from 1 July 2017.
Statement 2 is correct. Destination based tax or consumption tax are levied where goods and services are consumed. GST is a destination-based tax, i.e., the goods/services will be taxed at the place where they are consumed and not at the origin.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The provisions relating to Service Tax were brought into force with effect from July 1, 1994 by chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994.
Goods and Services Tax was launched all over India with effect from 1 July 2017.
Statement 2 is correct. Destination based tax or consumption tax are levied where goods and services are consumed. GST is a destination-based tax, i.e., the goods/services will be taxed at the place where they are consumed and not at the origin. - Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Input Tax Credit (ITC):
1. It is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes.
2. The Goods and Services Tax mechanism in India does not incorporate the ITC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Input Tax Credit (ITC) allows a person to avail credit of tax paid on the inward supply of goods or services or both which is used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business.
ITC is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes, i.e., ‘tax on tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Uninterrupted and seamless chain of input tax credit is one of the key features of Goods and Services Tax.
One of the most important features of the GST system is that the entire supply chain is subject to GST to be levied by Central and State Government concurrently. As the tax charged by the Central or the State Governments would be part of the same tax regime, credit of tax paid at every stage would be available as set-off for payment of tax at every subsequent stage.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Input Tax Credit (ITC) allows a person to avail credit of tax paid on the inward supply of goods or services or both which is used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business.
ITC is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes, i.e., ‘tax on tax.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Uninterrupted and seamless chain of input tax credit is one of the key features of Goods and Services Tax.
One of the most important features of the GST system is that the entire supply chain is subject to GST to be levied by Central and State Government concurrently. As the tax charged by the Central or the State Governments would be part of the same tax regime, credit of tax paid at every stage would be available as set-off for payment of tax at every subsequent stage. - Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act:
1. It provides for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on account of a national calamity or due to implementation of the goods and services tax.
2. The Act assumes nominal growth rate of revenue subsumed for a State during the transition period as fourteen percent per annum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act is to provide for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on account of implementation of the goods and services tax in pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the act the projected nominal growth rate of revenue subsumed for a State during the transition period shall be fourteen percent per annum.
The projected revenue for any year in a State is calculated by applying the projected growth rate over the base year revenue of that State.
For the purpose of calculating the compensation amount payable in any financial year during the transition period, the financial year ending 31st March, 2016, is taken as the base year.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act is to provide for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on account of implementation of the goods and services tax in pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the act the projected nominal growth rate of revenue subsumed for a State during the transition period shall be fourteen percent per annum.
The projected revenue for any year in a State is calculated by applying the projected growth rate over the base year revenue of that State.
For the purpose of calculating the compensation amount payable in any financial year during the transition period, the financial year ending 31st March, 2016, is taken as the base year. - Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following subject(s) is/are not under the purview of Goods and Services Tax in India?
1. Alcohol for human consumptions
2. Petroleum Products
3. ElectricitySelect the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Alcohol for human consumption has been kept outside the purview of GST in India at present. These goods are subject to existing State levies.
Petroleum Products such as petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel etc. are also kept outside the purview of GST in India.
At present, electricity is not subject to GST and power companies pay multiple taxes on capital goods and other inputs like excise duty, customs duty etc.Incorrect
Alcohol for human consumption has been kept outside the purview of GST in India at present. These goods are subject to existing State levies.
Petroleum Products such as petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel etc. are also kept outside the purview of GST in India.
At present, electricity is not subject to GST and power companies pay multiple taxes on capital goods and other inputs like excise duty, customs duty etc. - Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the GST e-Invoice System:
1. Presently, Invoice Reference Number (IRN) can be generated only by tax payers whose turnover is more than Rs. 500 Crores.
2. Each Invoice uploaded by the tax payer gets a unique Invoice Reference Number (IRN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The GST e-invoice system was launched on 1st October, 2020 for the businesses with aggregate turnover of more than Rs. 500 Crores in the financial year.
Note: The Government is planning to reduce the aggregate turnover cut off to Rs 100 Crores for generation of IRN by the tax payers in coming days.
Statement 2 is correct. Each Invoice uploaded by the tax payer will get the unique number called as Invoice Reference Number (IRN). IRN is of 64 Characters length.
This IRN is unique number in the GST system, irrespective of tax payer, financial year and document type. It is hash of Supplier GSTIN + Fin. Year + Doc Type + Doc Number.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The GST e-invoice system was launched on 1st October, 2020 for the businesses with aggregate turnover of more than Rs. 500 Crores in the financial year.
Note: The Government is planning to reduce the aggregate turnover cut off to Rs 100 Crores for generation of IRN by the tax payers in coming days.
Statement 2 is correct. Each Invoice uploaded by the tax payer will get the unique number called as Invoice Reference Number (IRN). IRN is of 64 Characters length.
This IRN is unique number in the GST system, irrespective of tax payer, financial year and document type. It is hash of Supplier GSTIN + Fin. Year + Doc Type + Doc Number. - Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding GST collection trend in current Financial Year [2020-21]:
1. The monthly GST collection has consistently been below one lakh crore rupees.
2. The GST collection has not crossed the previous year’s monthly collection in any of the month so far.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
Rs 1,05,155 crore of gross GST revenue have been collected in the month of October 2020. The revenues for the month are 10% higher than the GST revenues in the same month last year.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
Rs 1,05,155 crore of gross GST revenue have been collected in the month of October 2020. The revenues for the month are 10% higher than the GST revenues in the same month last year. - Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1.The input tax credit is tax reduced from output tax payable on account of it being already paid at the time of buying raw material.
2.Goods and Services Tax (GST) is not applicable on the mobility aids used by disabled citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Input tax credit (ITC) is the tax paid by the buyer on purchase of goods or services. Such tax which is paid at the purchase when reduced from liability payable on outward supplies is known as input tax credit.
ITC is one of the key features of Goods and Services Tax. ITC is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The mobility aids used by disabled citizens are not exempt from GST at present. It is subject to five percent GST.
# On October 27, the Supreme Court of India heard an appeal on the constitutional validity of the levy of Goods and Services Tax (GST) on mobility aids used by disabled citizens. But it said that the taxation was a matter of policy over which the judiciary ought not to ordinarily interfere and advised petitioner to appeal to the GST Council.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Input tax credit (ITC) is the tax paid by the buyer on purchase of goods or services. Such tax which is paid at the purchase when reduced from liability payable on outward supplies is known as input tax credit.
ITC is one of the key features of Goods and Services Tax. ITC is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The mobility aids used by disabled citizens are not exempt from GST at present. It is subject to five percent GST.
# On October 27, the Supreme Court of India heard an appeal on the constitutional validity of the levy of Goods and Services Tax (GST) on mobility aids used by disabled citizens. But it said that the taxation was a matter of policy over which the judiciary ought not to ordinarily interfere and advised petitioner to appeal to the GST Council. - Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020:
- It provided for a mechanism for resolution of pending tax disputes related to income tax and corporation tax.
- The disputes involving undisclosed foreign income or assets are not covered under the said mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 provides a mechanism for resolution of pending tax disputes related to income tax and corporation tax.
It proposed a resolution mechanism under which an appellant can file a declaration to the designated authority to initiate resolution of pending direct tax disputes. Based on the declaration, the designated authority will determine the amount payable by the appellant against the dispute and grant a certificate.
Once the designated authority issues the certificate, appeals pending before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunals and the Commissioner (Appeals) will be deemed to be withdrawn. In case of appeals or petitions pending before the Supreme Court and High Courts, the appellant is required to withdraw the appeal or petition.
Statement 2 is correct. The proposed mechanism does not cover certain disputes: (i) where prosecution has been initiated before the declaration is filed, (ii) which involve persons who have been convicted or are being prosecuted for offences under certain laws (such as the Indian Penal Code), or for enforcement of civil liabilities, and (iii) involving undisclosed foreign income or assets.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 provides a mechanism for resolution of pending tax disputes related to income tax and corporation tax.
It proposed a resolution mechanism under which an appellant can file a declaration to the designated authority to initiate resolution of pending direct tax disputes. Based on the declaration, the designated authority will determine the amount payable by the appellant against the dispute and grant a certificate.
Once the designated authority issues the certificate, appeals pending before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunals and the Commissioner (Appeals) will be deemed to be withdrawn. In case of appeals or petitions pending before the Supreme Court and High Courts, the appellant is required to withdraw the appeal or petition.
Statement 2 is correct. The proposed mechanism does not cover certain disputes: (i) where prosecution has been initiated before the declaration is filed, (ii) which involve persons who have been convicted or are being prosecuted for offences under certain laws (such as the Indian Penal Code), or for enforcement of civil liabilities, and (iii) involving undisclosed foreign income or assets.
- Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Faceless Assessment & Faceless Appeal on Taxation:
- The Income tax assessment appeals are to be randomly allotted to officers across the country.
- Cases relating to Serious Frauds, Benami Cases and International Taxation are not to be covered under the Faceless Assessment & Faceless Appeal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Along with the launch of ‘Transparent Taxation — Honoring the Honest’ platform, Government also unveiled faceless appeal and expanded the scope of faceless assessment, eliminating physical interface between taxpayers and tax authority.
It does away with territorial jurisdiction and substitutes individual discretion with team-based assessment, thereby bringing in transparency.
The exceptions are: Serious Frauds, Major Tax Evasion, International Tax, Black Money and Benami Property.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Along with the launch of ‘Transparent Taxation — Honoring the Honest’ platform, Government also unveiled faceless appeal and expanded the scope of faceless assessment, eliminating physical interface between taxpayers and tax authority.
It does away with territorial jurisdiction and substitutes individual discretion with team-based assessment, thereby bringing in transparency.
The exceptions are: Serious Frauds, Major Tax Evasion, International Tax, Black Money and Benami Property.
- Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines ‘inverted duty structure’?
Correct
Inverted duty structure (IDS) is a situation where the rate of tax on inputs used is higher than the rate of tax on the finished good.
It also refers to a situation where import duty on finished goods is low compared to the import duty on raw materials that are used in the production of such finished goods. When the import duty on raw materials is high, it will be more difficult to produce the concerned good domestically at a competitive price.
The term ‘Inverted Tax Structure’ under GST refers to a situation where the GST rate on inputs purchased (or inward supplies) is more than the GST rate on finished goods (or outward supplies).
Incorrect
Inverted duty structure (IDS) is a situation where the rate of tax on inputs used is higher than the rate of tax on the finished good.
It also refers to a situation where import duty on finished goods is low compared to the import duty on raw materials that are used in the production of such finished goods. When the import duty on raw materials is high, it will be more difficult to produce the concerned good domestically at a competitive price.
The term ‘Inverted Tax Structure’ under GST refers to a situation where the GST rate on inputs purchased (or inward supplies) is more than the GST rate on finished goods (or outward supplies).
- Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyAs per the fiscal management principles under Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, the Central Government shall-
- Endeavour to ensure that that the general Government debt does not exceed sixty percent and the Central Government debt does not exceed forty percent.
- Not give additional guarantees with respect to any loan on security of Consolidated Fund of India in excess of one-half percent of GDP, in a financial year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Fiscal management principles under Section 4 of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act state that the Central Government shall:
-take appropriate measures to limit the fiscal deficit upto three per cent. of gross domestic product by the 31st March, 2021;
-endeavour to ensure that— (i) the general Government debt does not exceed sixty per cent.; (ii) the Central Government debt does not exceed forty per cent., of gross domestic product by the end of financial year 2024-2025;
-not give additional guarantees with respect to any loan on security of the Consolidated Fund of India in excess of one-half percent of gross domestic product, in any financial year.
# “General Government debt” means the sum total of the debt of the Central Government and the State Governments, excluding inter-Governmental liabilities.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Fiscal management principles under Section 4 of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act state that the Central Government shall:
-take appropriate measures to limit the fiscal deficit upto three per cent. of gross domestic product by the 31st March, 2021;
-endeavour to ensure that— (i) the general Government debt does not exceed sixty per cent.; (ii) the Central Government debt does not exceed forty per cent., of gross domestic product by the end of financial year 2024-2025;
-not give additional guarantees with respect to any loan on security of the Consolidated Fund of India in excess of one-half percent of gross domestic product, in any financial year.
# “General Government debt” means the sum total of the debt of the Central Government and the State Governments, excluding inter-Governmental liabilities.
- Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following fund(s) is/are established by the Constitution of India?
- Consolidated Fund of India
- Contingency Fund of India
- National Small Savings Fund
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. Consolidated Fund of India and for every state is established by virtue of article 266(1) of the Constitution for all revenues received by the Government, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans.
Option 2 is incorrect. The Contingency Fund is not established by the Constitution rather article 267 empowers the Parliament to establish such fund. Accordingly, Parliament enacted the Contingency fund of India Act 1950. The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the President of India and it can be operated by executive action.
Option 3 is incorrect. National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was established in 1999 within the Public Account of India for pooling the money from different small saving schemes (SSSs). Collections from all small savings schemes are credited to the NSSF.
Public Account of India is established by the Constitution under article 266(2).
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Consolidated Fund of India and for every state is established by virtue of article 266(1) of the Constitution for all revenues received by the Government, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans.
Option 2 is incorrect. The Contingency Fund is not established by the Constitution rather article 267 empowers the Parliament to establish such fund. Accordingly, Parliament enacted the Contingency fund of India Act 1950. The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the President of India and it can be operated by executive action.
Option 3 is incorrect. National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was established in 1999 within the Public Account of India for pooling the money from different small saving schemes (SSSs). Collections from all small savings schemes are credited to the NSSF.
Public Account of India is established by the Constitution under article 266(2).
- Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding recent trends in tax collection in India:
- The direct tax revenue is more than the indirect tax revenue.
- Corporate Income tax revenue is more than Goods & Services tax revenue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The direct tax collection of India, comprising mainly of corporate and personal income tax has been higher than indirect tax collection. It constitutes around 54 per cent of Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) of India (2019-20 BE).
Of the total Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) of India, Corporate Tax revenue accounts for 31%, while the GST accounts for 27% of GTR (2019-20 BE).
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The direct tax collection of India, comprising mainly of corporate and personal income tax has been higher than indirect tax collection. It constitutes around 54 per cent of Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) of India (2019-20 BE).
Of the total Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) of India, Corporate Tax revenue accounts for 31%, while the GST accounts for 27% of GTR (2019-20 BE).
Monetary Policy– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Monetary Policy– 2020
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 13 July 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements regarding new monetary aggregates set by RBI is/are correct?
- New monetary aggregates are recommended by Sukhamoy Chakraborty Committe.
- Committee was recommended four monetary aggregates.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The RBI has started publishing a set of new monetary aggregates following the recommendations of the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation (Chairman: Dr. Y.V. Reddy) which submitted its report in June 1998.
- The Working Group recommended compilation of four monetary aggregates on the basis of the balance sheet of the banking sector in conformity with the norms of progressive liquidity: M0 (monetary base), M1 (narrow money), M2 and M3 (broad money).
- In addition to the monetary aggregates, the Working Group had recommended compilation of three liquidity aggregates namely, L1, L2 and L3, which include select items of financial liabilities of non-depository financial corporations such as development financial institutions and non-banking financial companies accepting deposits from the public, apart from post office savings banks.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The RBI has started publishing a set of new monetary aggregates following the recommendations of the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation (Chairman: Dr. Y.V. Reddy) which submitted its report in June 1998.
- The Working Group recommended compilation of four monetary aggregates on the basis of the balance sheet of the banking sector in conformity with the norms of progressive liquidity: M0 (monetary base), M1 (narrow money), M2 and M3 (broad money).
- In addition to the monetary aggregates, the Working Group had recommended compilation of three liquidity aggregates namely, L1, L2 and L3, which include select items of financial liabilities of non-depository financial corporations such as development financial institutions and non-banking financial companies accepting deposits from the public, apart from post office savings banks.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following provision (s) is/are covered under “Banking Regulations Act, 1949”?
- Bank Rate
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio
- Cash Reserve Ratio
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Bank Rate: Under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Bank Rate has been defined as “the standard rate at which the Reserve Bank is prepared to buy or re-discount bills of exchange or other commercial paper eligible for purchase under the Act.
- On introduction of LAF, discounting/rediscounting of bills of exchange by the Reserve Bank has been discontinued.
- As a result, the Bank Rate became dormant as an instrument of monetary management.
- It is now aligned to MSF rate and used for calculating penalty on default in the cash reserve ratio (CRR) and the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR).
Statutory Liquidity Ratio: In terms of Section 24 of the Banking Regulations Act, 1949, scheduled commercial banks have to invest in unencumbered government and approved securities certain minimum amount as statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) on a daily basis.
Cash Reserve Ratio: According to Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, each scheduled commercial bank has to maintain a minimum cash balance with the Reserve Bank as cash reserve ratio (CRR) which is prescribed by the Reserve Bank from time to time as certain percentage of its net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) relating to the second preceding fortnight.
Source: RBI
Incorrect
Bank Rate: Under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Bank Rate has been defined as “the standard rate at which the Reserve Bank is prepared to buy or re-discount bills of exchange or other commercial paper eligible for purchase under the Act.
- On introduction of LAF, discounting/rediscounting of bills of exchange by the Reserve Bank has been discontinued.
- As a result, the Bank Rate became dormant as an instrument of monetary management.
- It is now aligned to MSF rate and used for calculating penalty on default in the cash reserve ratio (CRR) and the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR).
Statutory Liquidity Ratio: In terms of Section 24 of the Banking Regulations Act, 1949, scheduled commercial banks have to invest in unencumbered government and approved securities certain minimum amount as statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) on a daily basis.
Cash Reserve Ratio: According to Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, each scheduled commercial bank has to maintain a minimum cash balance with the Reserve Bank as cash reserve ratio (CRR) which is prescribed by the Reserve Bank from time to time as certain percentage of its net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) relating to the second preceding fortnight.
Source: RBI
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“LERMS” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) was a new system of exchange rate management.
- According to this system, forty percent of the proceeds of exports and inward remittances were purchased at the official exchange rate by the (RBI) Reserve Bank of India for official use.
- Receipts and Payments on capital account continued to be subject to controls.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) was a new system of exchange rate management.
- According to this system, forty percent of the proceeds of exports and inward remittances were purchased at the official exchange rate by the (RBI) Reserve Bank of India for official use.
- Receipts and Payments on capital account continued to be subject to controls.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following “currencies” is/are considered for Reference rate of RBI?
- US Dollar
- Japan Yen
- Renminbi
- Britain Pound
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India compiles on a daily basis and publishes reference rates for four major currencies i.e., USD, GBP, YEN and EUR.
- The rates are arrived at by averaging the mean of the bid/offer rates polled from a few select banks around 12 noon every week day (excluding Saturdays).
- The contributing banks are selected on the basis of their standing, market-share in the domestic foreign exchange market and representative character.
- The Reserve Bank periodically reviews the procedure for selecting the banks and the methodology of polling so as to ensure that the reference rate is a true reflection of the market activity.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India compiles on a daily basis and publishes reference rates for four major currencies i.e., USD, GBP, YEN and EUR.
- The rates are arrived at by averaging the mean of the bid/offer rates polled from a few select banks around 12 noon every week day (excluding Saturdays).
- The contributing banks are selected on the basis of their standing, market-share in the domestic foreign exchange market and representative character.
- The Reserve Bank periodically reviews the procedure for selecting the banks and the methodology of polling so as to ensure that the reference rate is a true reflection of the market activity.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements with respect to “National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)”:
- It is an initiative of RBI and NITI Aayog.
- It was created under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
- NPCI launched RuPay is an indigenously developed Payment System – designed to meet the expectation and needs of the Indian consumer, banks and merchant eco-system.
- RuPay supports the issuance of debit, credit and prepaid cards by banks in India and thereby supporting the growth of retail electronic payments in India.
Source: NPCI
Incorrect
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
- NPCI launched RuPay is an indigenously developed Payment System – designed to meet the expectation and needs of the Indian consumer, banks and merchant eco-system.
- RuPay supports the issuance of debit, credit and prepaid cards by banks in India and thereby supporting the growth of retail electronic payments in India.
Source: NPCI
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework” in India?
- It was based on the recommendation of Raghuram Rajan committee.
- It was given statutory basis by amending the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
In his first speech as RBI Governor, Raghuram Rajan (Reserve Bank of India, 2013) emphasized on the importance of inflation targeting and set up an Expert Committee under Deputy Governor Urjit Patel to assess the current monetary policy and give recommendations to strengthen it.
The RBI Act was amended on May 14, 2016 to give the key provisions in the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (MPFA) a statutory basis.
Source: RBI
Incorrect
In his first speech as RBI Governor, Raghuram Rajan (Reserve Bank of India, 2013) emphasized on the importance of inflation targeting and set up an Expert Committee under Deputy Governor Urjit Patel to assess the current monetary policy and give recommendations to strengthen it.
The RBI Act was amended on May 14, 2016 to give the key provisions in the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (MPFA) a statutory basis.
Source: RBI
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are type/types of External Benchmark Rates?
- Repo rate
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
- Cash Reserve Ratio.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The RBI has made it compulsory for banks to link their new floating rate home, auto and MSME loans to an external benchmark so that the borrowers can enjoy lower rate of interest.
All new floating rate personal or retail loans (housing, auto, etc.) and floating rate loans to Micro and Small Enterprises extended by banks from October 01, 2019 shall be benchmarked to one of the following:
- Reserve Bank of India policy repo rate
- Government of India 3-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL)
- Government of India 6-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the FBIL
- Any other benchmark market interest rate published by the FBIL.
Source: RBI
Incorrect
The RBI has made it compulsory for banks to link their new floating rate home, auto and MSME loans to an external benchmark so that the borrowers can enjoy lower rate of interest.
All new floating rate personal or retail loans (housing, auto, etc.) and floating rate loans to Micro and Small Enterprises extended by banks from October 01, 2019 shall be benchmarked to one of the following:
- Reserve Bank of India policy repo rate
- Government of India 3-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL)
- Government of India 6-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the FBIL
- Any other benchmark market interest rate published by the FBIL.
Source: RBI
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following are instruments of Monetary Policy of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
- Repo rate
- Reverse Repo rate
- Cash Reserve Ratio
- Open Market Operations (OMOs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy.
- Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
- Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.
- Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily movement in the weighted average call money rate.
- Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate changes.
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the Gazette of India.
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The share of NDTL that a bank is required to maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as, unencumbered government securities, cash and gold. Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the banking system for lending to the private sector.
- Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
- Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS): This instrument for monetary management was introduced in 2004. Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital inflows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills. The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.
Source: RBI
Incorrect
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy.
- Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
- Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.
- Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily movement in the weighted average call money rate.
- Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate changes.
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the Gazette of India.
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The share of NDTL that a bank is required to maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as, unencumbered government securities, cash and gold. Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the banking system for lending to the private sector.
- Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
- Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS): This instrument for monetary management was introduced in 2004. Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital inflows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills. The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.
Source: RBI
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyA facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest – is describes which of the following?
Correct
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Economic Census:
- It is conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- It covers all entrepreneurial units which involved in any economic activities of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Economic Census is being conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to provide disaggregated information on various operational and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.
All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any economic activities of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in production and/or distribution of goods and/or services not for the sole purpose of own consumption.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Economic Census is being conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to provide disaggregated information on various operational and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.
All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any economic activities of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in production and/or distribution of goods and/or services not for the sole purpose of own consumption.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Monetary Policy– 2020 and Before that
Monetary policy
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- Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe monetary policy of Reserve Bank of India targets which of the following Inflation Index?
Correct
As per the RBI Act 1934 (amended 2016), the Central Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years.
Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
As per the Act, the CPI Combined published by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is used as inflation targeting index.Incorrect
As per the RBI Act 1934 (amended 2016), the Central Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years.
Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
As per the Act, the CPI Combined published by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is used as inflation targeting index. - Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy of Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
1. The Monetary Policy framework in India is based on Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation targeting.
2. RBI Governor does not generally have a vote and votes only in the event of an equality of votes in Monetary Policy Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the amended RBI Act: The Monetary Policy Committee consists of the following Members:
–the Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
–Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
–One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
–Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is required to meet at least four times in a year.
-The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.
-Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the amended RBI Act: The Monetary Policy Committee consists of the following Members:
–the Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
–Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
–One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
–Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is required to meet at least four times in a year.
-The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.
-Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote. - Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Open Market Operations (OMOs):
1. These are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of Government Securities to/ from the market.
2. RBI resorts to sale of securities if there is excess liquidity in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Open Market Operations (OMOs) are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of G-Secs to/ from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis.
When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Open Market Operations (OMOs) are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of G-Secs to/ from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis.
When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market. - Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Cost Inflation Index (CII):
1. It calculates the increase in the price of goods due to inflation year-by-year.
2. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is responsible for notifying the CII every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As inflation increases, the prices of goods increase too. Due to this, the purchasing power of money falls. Cost Inflation Index (CII) is a tool used in the calculation of an estimated yearly increase in an asset’s price as a result of inflation.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Government fixes this index and publishes it in its official gazette for measuring inflation. This index, notified each year by the CBDT is mandated under Section 48 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
CII has a base year concept, currently the base year is 2001 having CII of 100. CII for 2020-21 has been notified at 301.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As inflation increases, the prices of goods increase too. Due to this, the purchasing power of money falls. Cost Inflation Index (CII) is a tool used in the calculation of an estimated yearly increase in an asset’s price as a result of inflation.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Government fixes this index and publishes it in its official gazette for measuring inflation. This index, notified each year by the CBDT is mandated under Section 48 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
CII has a base year concept, currently the base year is 2001 having CII of 100. CII for 2020-21 has been notified at 301. - Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW):
1. It is compiled by the Labour Bureau.
2. The base year for the CPI-IW has been updated to the year 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of the retail prices of selected. The index is compiled for 78 centres and All-India and is released on the last working day of succeeding month.
The Labour and Employment Ministry has recently revised the base year of the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016.
The number of items directly retained in the index basket has increased to 463 items as against 392 items in the 2001 series. The weight to food and beverage was reduced from 46.2% to 39%, while spending on housing increased from 15.2% to 17%.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of the retail prices of selected. The index is compiled for 78 centres and All-India and is released on the last working day of succeeding month.
The Labour and Employment Ministry has recently revised the base year of the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016.
The number of items directly retained in the index basket has increased to 463 items as against 392 items in the 2001 series. The weight to food and beverage was reduced from 46.2% to 39%, while spending on housing increased from 15.2% to 17%. - Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy of Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
- The Monetary Policy framework in India is based on Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation targeting.
- RBI Governor does not generally have a vote and votes only in the event of an equality of votes in Monetary Policy Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the amended RBI Act: The Monetary Policy Committee consists of the following Members:
–the Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
–Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
–One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
–Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is required to meet at least four times in a year.
-The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.
-Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the amended RBI Act: The Monetary Policy Committee consists of the following Members:
–the Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
–Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
–One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
–Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is required to meet at least four times in a year.
-The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.
-Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote.
- Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the monetary policy of Reserve Bank of India:
- Inflation target for monetary policy is set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years.
- The representation from Reserve Bank of India in Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is equal to that of the Central Government appointed members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years.
Central Government has notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from 2016 to 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC).
The Monetary Policy Committee consists of the following Members:
-Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
-Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
-One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
-Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years.
Central Government has notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from 2016 to 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC).
The Monetary Policy Committee consists of the following Members:
-Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
-Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
-One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
-Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members
- Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are type/types of External Benchmark Rates?
- Repo and Reverse repo rate
- Government of India 3-Months Treasury bill yield published by the Financial
Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL).
- Government of India 6-Months Treasury bill yield published by the Financial
Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The RBI has made it compulsory for banks to link their new floating rate home, auto and MSME loans to an external benchmark so that the borrowers can enjoy lower rate of interest. All new floating rate personal or retail loans (housing, auto, etc.) and floating rate loans to Micro and Small Enterprises extended by banks from October 01, 2019 shall be benchmarked to one of the following:
- Reserve Bank of India policy repo rate
- Government of India 3-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL)
- Government of India 6-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the FBIL
- Any other benchmark market interest rate published by the FBIL.
Incorrect
The RBI has made it compulsory for banks to link their new floating rate home, auto and MSME loans to an external benchmark so that the borrowers can enjoy lower rate of interest. All new floating rate personal or retail loans (housing, auto, etc.) and floating rate loans to Micro and Small Enterprises extended by banks from October 01, 2019 shall be benchmarked to one of the following:
- Reserve Bank of India policy repo rate
- Government of India 3-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL)
- Government of India 6-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the FBIL
- Any other benchmark market interest rate published by the FBIL.
- Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following are instruments of Monetary Policy of Reserve Bank of India
(RBI)?
- Repo rate
- Marginal Standing Facility
- Open Market Operations (OMOs)
- Bank Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for
implementing monetary policy.
- Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight
liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities
under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
- Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs
liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible
government securities under the LAF.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial
banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by
dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal
rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to
the banking system.
- Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily
movement in the weighted average call money rate.
- Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount
bills of exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under
Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the
MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes
alongside policy repo rate changes.
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to
maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and
time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the
Gazette of India.
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The share of NDTL that a bank is required to
maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as, unencumbered government securities,
cash and gold. Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the
banking system for lending to the private sector.
- Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale
of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity,
respectively.
- Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS): This instrument for monetary management
was introduced in 2004. Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital inflows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills. The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.
Incorrect
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for
implementing monetary policy.
- Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight
liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities
under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
- Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs
liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible
government securities under the LAF.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial
banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by
dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal
rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to
the banking system.
- Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily
movement in the weighted average call money rate.
- Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount
bills of exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under
Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the
MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes
alongside policy repo rate changes.
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to
maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and
time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the
Gazette of India.
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The share of NDTL that a bank is required to
maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as, unencumbered government securities,
cash and gold. Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the
banking system for lending to the private sector.
- Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale
of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity,
respectively.
- Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS): This instrument for monetary management
was introduced in 2004. Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital inflows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills. The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.
- Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Negative Rate Policy:
- Under the negative rate policy, financial institutions are required to pay interest for parking excess reserves with the central bank.
- The USA Fed reserve, euro area, Switzerland, Denmark, Sweden and Japan have allowed rates to fall slightly below zero.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Negative rate policy.
- Under a negative rate policy, financial institutions are required to pay interest for parking excess reserves with the central bank.
- That way, central banks penalize financial institutions for holding on to cash in hope of prompting them to boost lending.
- The euro area, Switzerland, Denmark, Sweden and Japan have allowed rates to fall slightly below zero.
Incorrect
Negative rate policy.
- Under a negative rate policy, financial institutions are required to pay interest for parking excess reserves with the central bank.
- That way, central banks penalize financial institutions for holding on to cash in hope of prompting them to boost lending.
- The euro area, Switzerland, Denmark, Sweden and Japan have allowed rates to fall slightly below zero.
- Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “Operation Twist” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will simultaneously buy and sale government securities worth ₹10,000crore each in December 2019 under its open market operations — a move aimed at managing the yields.
The RBI will purchase the longer-term maturities, that are trading at a spread of 150 bps (basis points) over the repo rate, so that the yield of these papers will soften and sell the shorter duration ones.
The central bank said it will buy ₹10,000 crore of 6.45% government bonds maturing in 2029 and simultaneously sell ₹10,000 crore of short-term bonds maturing in 2020.
Operation Twist is a move taken by U.S. Federal Reserve in 2011-12 to make long-term borrowing cheaper.
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will simultaneously buy and sale government securities worth ₹10,000crore each in December 2019 under its open market operations — a move aimed at managing the yields.
The RBI will purchase the longer-term maturities, that are trading at a spread of 150 bps (basis points) over the repo rate, so that the yield of these papers will soften and sell the shorter duration ones.
The central bank said it will buy ₹10,000 crore of 6.45% government bonds maturing in 2029 and simultaneously sell ₹10,000 crore of short-term bonds maturing in 2020.
Operation Twist is a move taken by U.S. Federal Reserve in 2011-12 to make long-term borrowing cheaper.
- Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Utkarsh 2022, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board finalized a three- year roadmap to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank.
This medium term strategy — named Utkarsh 2022 — is in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board finalized a three- year roadmap to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank.
This medium term strategy — named Utkarsh 2022 — is in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism
- Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS):
1. It is a tool used by central bank (RBI) to increase the liquidity and bringing the money market under control.
2. It was initiated by Raghuram Rajan in 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Market Stabilisation Scheme or MSS is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to suck out excess liquidity from the market through issue of securities like Treasury Bills, Dated Securities etc. on behalf of the government.
The money raised under MSS is kept in a separate account called MSS Account and not parked in the government account or utilized to fund its expenditures.
The Reserve Bank under Governor YV Reddy initiated the MSS scheme in 2004, to control the surge of US dollars in the Indian market; RBI started buying US dollars while pumping in rupee.
This eventually led to over-supply of the domestic currency raising inflationary expectations. MSS was introduced to mop up this excess liquidity.
Incorrect
Market Stabilisation Scheme or MSS is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to suck out excess liquidity from the market through issue of securities like Treasury Bills, Dated Securities etc. on behalf of the government.
The money raised under MSS is kept in a separate account called MSS Account and not parked in the government account or utilized to fund its expenditures.
The Reserve Bank under Governor YV Reddy initiated the MSS scheme in 2004, to control the surge of US dollars in the Indian market; RBI started buying US dollars while pumping in rupee.
This eventually led to over-supply of the domestic currency raising inflationary expectations. MSS was introduced to mop up this excess liquidity.
- Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution (s) is/are eligible to raise money from or park excess money with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)?
1. Primary Dealers
2. Scheduled Commercial Banks
3. Regional Rural Banks
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
LAF is a facility extended by the Reserve Bank of India to the scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs) and primary dealers to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with the RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of Government securities including State Government securities. Basically LAF enables liquidity management on a day to day basis
Incorrect
LAF is a facility extended by the Reserve Bank of India to the scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs) and primary dealers to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with the RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of Government securities including State Government securities. Basically LAF enables liquidity management on a day to day basis
- Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. CRR needs to be maintained only in cash.
2. Banks do not get any interest on the money that is with the RBI under the CRR requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India or RBI mandates that banks store a proportion of their deposits in the form of cash so that the same can be given to the bank’s customers if the need arises.
The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves, vis-a-vis a bank’s total deposits, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio.
The cash reserve is either stored in the bank’s vault or is sent to the RBI.
Banks do not get any interest on the money that is with the RBI under the CRR requirements.
Unlike Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR, which can be maintained in either gold or cash, CRR needs to be maintained only in cash.
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India or RBI mandates that banks store a proportion of their deposits in the form of cash so that the same can be given to the bank’s customers if the need arises.
The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves, vis-a-vis a bank’s total deposits, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio.
The cash reserve is either stored in the bank’s vault or is sent to the RBI.
Banks do not get any interest on the money that is with the RBI under the CRR requirements.
Unlike Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR, which can be maintained in either gold or cash, CRR needs to be maintained only in cash.
- Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe word “monetary transmission” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Monetary transmission is the pass-through of the RBI’s rate actions to the economy at large.
As you know, the RBI’s most important task is to keep tabs on inflation by adjusting money supply.
It also monitors the exchange rate. To control all this, the RBI uses many monetary tools.
The repo rate, reverse repo rate and cash reserve requirement are being the key instruments.
Let us take the repo rate, for instance. This is the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to banks to manage their day-to-day operations.
When the RBI wants to stimulate growth, it cuts the repo rate to reduce the cost of borrowings.
Banks get money at a cheaper rate. If this is passed on to borrowers, then monetary transmission is said to have happened smoothly.
Incorrect
Monetary transmission is the pass-through of the RBI’s rate actions to the economy at large.
As you know, the RBI’s most important task is to keep tabs on inflation by adjusting money supply.
It also monitors the exchange rate. To control all this, the RBI uses many monetary tools.
The repo rate, reverse repo rate and cash reserve requirement are being the key instruments.
Let us take the repo rate, for instance. This is the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to banks to manage their day-to-day operations.
When the RBI wants to stimulate growth, it cuts the repo rate to reduce the cost of borrowings.
Banks get money at a cheaper rate. If this is passed on to borrowers, then monetary transmission is said to have happened smoothly.
- Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are dominant policy objectives of keeping forex reserves?
- Maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies.
- Reduce external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks
during times of crisis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Major policy objectives in regard to forex reserves:
-maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies,
-enhancing capacity to intervene in forex markets,
-limiting external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks
during times of crisis including national disasters or emergencies;
-providing confidence to the markets especially credit rating agencies that external
obligations can always be met, thus reducing the overall costs at which forex resources are
available to all the market participants, and
-incidentally adding to the comfort of the market participants, by demonstrating the
backing of domestic currency by external assets.
Incorrect
Major policy objectives in regard to forex reserves:
-maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies,
-enhancing capacity to intervene in forex markets,
-limiting external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks
during times of crisis including national disasters or emergencies;
-providing confidence to the markets especially credit rating agencies that external
obligations can always be met, thus reducing the overall costs at which forex resources are
available to all the market participants, and
-incidentally adding to the comfort of the market participants, by demonstrating the
backing of domestic currency by external assets.
- Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee
(MPC):
- It is statutorily mandated to determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation
target.
- A Member of Parliament or any State Legislature cannot be appointed as a member of
MPC by Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act; the Central
Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms
of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years. Further, the Monetary Policy
Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target.
Statement 2 is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee consists of:
-the Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
-Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
-One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
-Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
No person shall be appointed as a Member, in case such person:
-has completed the age of seventy years on the date of appointment as Member;
-is a Member of any Board or Committee of the Bank or is an employee of the Bank;
-is a public servant as defined under the Indian Penal Code;
-is a Member of Parliament or any State Legislature;
-has been at any time, adjudged as an insolvent;
-has been convicted of an offence which is punishable with an imprisonment for a term of
one hundred and eighty days or more;
-is physically or mentally incapable of discharging the duties of a Member of the Monetary
Policy Committee; or
-has a material conflict of interest with the Bank and is unable to resolve such conflict.
# ‘the Bank’ above means the Reserve Bank of India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As per the Reserve Bank of India Act; the Central
Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms
of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years. Further, the Monetary Policy
Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target.
Statement 2 is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee consists of:
-the Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
-Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
-One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
-Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
No person shall be appointed as a Member, in case such person:
-has completed the age of seventy years on the date of appointment as Member;
-is a Member of any Board or Committee of the Bank or is an employee of the Bank;
-is a public servant as defined under the Indian Penal Code;
-is a Member of Parliament or any State Legislature;
-has been at any time, adjudged as an insolvent;
-has been convicted of an offence which is punishable with an imprisonment for a term of
one hundred and eighty days or more;
-is physically or mentally incapable of discharging the duties of a Member of the Monetary
Policy Committee; or
-has a material conflict of interest with the Bank and is unable to resolve such conflict.
# ‘the Bank’ above means the Reserve Bank of India.
- Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee
(MPC):
- The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee on policy rate is binding on the Reserve
Bank of India.
- The members appointed by the Central Government hold office for a period of four years
and are not eligible for re-appointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In 2016, the government provided statutory backing to the Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC) by notifying amendments to the RBI Act, 1934.
Statement 1 is correct. As per the act the Monetary Policy Committee determines the Policy
Rate required to achieve the inflation target. Further the decision of the Monetary Policy
Committee is binding on the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 2 is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee consists of:
– Governor of the RBI—Chairperson, ex officio;
– Deputy Governor of the RBI, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
– One officer of the RBI to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
– Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government hold
office for a period of four years and are not eligible for re-appointment.
Incorrect
In 2016, the government provided statutory backing to the Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC) by notifying amendments to the RBI Act, 1934.
Statement 1 is correct. As per the act the Monetary Policy Committee determines the Policy
Rate required to achieve the inflation target. Further the decision of the Monetary Policy
Committee is binding on the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 2 is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee consists of:
– Governor of the RBI—Chairperson, ex officio;
– Deputy Governor of the RBI, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
– One officer of the RBI to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio; and
– Three persons to be appointed by the Central Government—Members.
The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government hold
office for a period of four years and are not eligible for re-appointment.
- Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework of Reserve Bank of India:
- The inflation target is set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years.
- RBI’s flexible inflation targeting places price stability, in terms of Consumer Price Index inflation, as the primary objective of the monetary policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
India formally adopted flexible inflation targeting (FIT) in June 2016 to place price stability, defined in terms of a target CPI inflation, as the primary objective of the monetary policy.
In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
India formally adopted flexible inflation targeting (FIT) in June 2016 to place price stability, defined in terms of a target CPI inflation, as the primary objective of the monetary policy.
In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Money and Banking– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Money and Banking– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 14 July 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following suggested the government to create All India Development Banks (AIDBs)?
Correct
The era of economic reforms had given the same option to the PSUs to tap new capital.
- As the AIFIs had more or less fixed rate of interest as compared to the banks which could mobilize cheaper deposits to lend cheaper—the AIFIs seemed to become irrelevant.
- The AIFIs witnessed a sharp decline in recent years. At this juncture the government decided to convert them into Development Banks (suggested by the Narasimhan Committee-I) to be known as the All-India Development Banks (AIDBs).
- In 2000, the government allowed ICICI to go for a reverse merger (when an elder enterprise is merged with a younger one) with the ICICI Bank—the first AIDB emerged with no obligation of project financing—such entities in coming times will be known as the universal banks.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The era of economic reforms had given the same option to the PSUs to tap new capital.
- As the AIFIs had more or less fixed rate of interest as compared to the banks which could mobilize cheaper deposits to lend cheaper—the AIFIs seemed to become irrelevant.
- The AIFIs witnessed a sharp decline in recent years. At this juncture the government decided to convert them into Development Banks (suggested by the Narasimhan Committee-I) to be known as the All-India Development Banks (AIDBs).
- In 2000, the government allowed ICICI to go for a reverse merger (when an elder enterprise is merged with a younger one) with the ICICI Bank—the first AIDB emerged with no obligation of project financing—such entities in coming times will be known as the universal banks.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding “Local Area Banks (LABs)”:
- NRI contributions are not permitted in equity of Local Area Banks.
- A family group can promote equity holding in Local Area Banks up to 40%.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
In 1996 it was decided to allow the establishment of local banks in the private sector.
- These banks were expected to bridge the gaps in credit availability and enhance the institutional credit framework in the rural and semi-urban areas and provide efficient and competitive financial intermediation services in their area of operation.
- The minimum start-up capital of a LAB was fixed at Rs.5crore.
- The promoters of these banks were required to bring in the entire minimum share capital up-front.
- It was also decided that a family among the promoter group could hold equity not exceeding 40% of the capital.
- The NRI contributions to the equity of the bank were not to exceed 40% of the paid-up capital.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
In 1996 it was decided to allow the establishment of local banks in the private sector.
- These banks were expected to bridge the gaps in credit availability and enhance the institutional credit framework in the rural and semi-urban areas and provide efficient and competitive financial intermediation services in their area of operation.
- The minimum start-up capital of a LAB was fixed at Rs.5crore.
- The promoters of these banks were required to bring in the entire minimum share capital up-front.
- It was also decided that a family among the promoter group could hold equity not exceeding 40% of the capital.
- The NRI contributions to the equity of the bank were not to exceed 40% of the paid-up capital.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “small finance banks”?
- Small finance banks are universal banks.
- Small Finance Banks was recommended by the usha thorat committee.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Differentiated Banks (niche banks) are banks that serve the needs of a certain demographic segment of the population.
- Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are examples of differentiated banks in India.
- Small Finance Banks was recommended by the Nachiket Mor committee on financial inclusion.
Source: Sriram’s Economy
Incorrect
Differentiated Banks (niche banks) are banks that serve the needs of a certain demographic segment of the population.
- Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are examples of differentiated banks in India.
- Small Finance Banks was recommended by the Nachiket Mor committee on financial inclusion.
Source: Sriram’s Economy
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Reserve Bank of India was set up P J Nayak Committee to review Governance of Boards of Banks in India and to establish which of the following?
Correct
The Banks Board Bureau owes its genesis to the recommendations in the Report of The Committee set up by the Reserve Bank of India to Review Governance of Boards of Banks in India (Chair: Dr P J Nayak; May 2014), which envisaged the Bureau as a precursor to a Company which would eventually hold the Government’s investments in PSBs.
Source: Sriram’s Economy
Incorrect
The Banks Board Bureau owes its genesis to the recommendations in the Report of The Committee set up by the Reserve Bank of India to Review Governance of Boards of Banks in India (Chair: Dr P J Nayak; May 2014), which envisaged the Bureau as a precursor to a Company which would eventually hold the Government’s investments in PSBs.
Source: Sriram’s Economy
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently, the Reserve Bank of India released the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India 2018-19, a statutory publication in compliance with which of the act?
Correct
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India released the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India 2018-19, a statutory publication in compliance with Section 36 (2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India released the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India 2018-19, a statutory publication in compliance with Section 36 (2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following are the pillars of the Basel Norms?
- Capital adequacy requirements
- Supervisory review
- Market discipline
- Government intervention
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
In June 2004, Basel II guidelines were published by BCBS. The guidelines were based on three parameters, which the committee calls it as pillars.
- Capital Adequacy Requirements: Banks should maintain a minimum capital adequacy requirement of 8% of risk assets
- Supervisory Review: According to this, banks were needed to develop and use better risk management techniques in monitoring and managing all the three types of risks that a bank faces, viz. credit, market and operational risks
- Market Discipline: This needs increased disclosure requirements. Banks need to mandatorily disclose their CAR, risk exposure, etc to the central bank. Basel II norms in India and overseas are yet to be fully implemented.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
In June 2004, Basel II guidelines were published by BCBS. The guidelines were based on three parameters, which the committee calls it as pillars.
- Capital Adequacy Requirements: Banks should maintain a minimum capital adequacy requirement of 8% of risk assets
- Supervisory Review: According to this, banks were needed to develop and use better risk management techniques in monitoring and managing all the three types of risks that a bank faces, viz. credit, market and operational risks
- Market Discipline: This needs increased disclosure requirements. Banks need to mandatorily disclose their CAR, risk exposure, etc to the central bank. Basel II norms in India and overseas are yet to be fully implemented.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Utkarsh 2022, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board finalized a three- year roadmap to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank.
This medium-term strategy — named Utkarsh 2022 — is in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board finalized a three- year roadmap to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank.
This medium-term strategy — named Utkarsh 2022 — is in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following liquidity windows is/are allowed raising liquidity by regional rural banks?
- Liquidity Adjustment Facility
- Marginal Standing Facility
- Call Money Market
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
RBI allowed RRBs to access the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF), marginal standing facility (MSF) and call or notice money market.
At present, RRBs are not permitted to access the liquidity windows of the RBI as well as the call or notice market.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
RBI allowed RRBs to access the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF), marginal standing facility (MSF) and call or notice money market.
At present, RRBs are not permitted to access the liquidity windows of the RBI as well as the call or notice market.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following financial institutions/banks are covered under deposit insurance of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)?
- Commercial Banks
- Regional Rural Banks
- Urban Cooperative Banks
- Local Area Banks
- Small Finance Banks
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The functions of the DICGC are governed by the provisions of ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961’ (DICGC Act) and ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961’ framed by the Reserve Bank of India in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the said Act.
Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme are:
- All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
- Co-operative Banks – All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg) of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme.
- All State, Central and Primary co-operative banks functioning in the States/Union Territories which have amended their Co-operative Societies Act as required under the DICGC Act, 1961, empowering RBI to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as eligible banks.
- At present all Co-operative banks are covered by the Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The functions of the DICGC are governed by the provisions of ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961’ (DICGC Act) and ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961’ framed by the Reserve Bank of India in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the said Act.
Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme are:
- All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
- Co-operative Banks – All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg) of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme.
- All State, Central and Primary co-operative banks functioning in the States/Union Territories which have amended their Co-operative Societies Act as required under the DICGC Act, 1961, empowering RBI to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as eligible banks.
- At present all Co-operative banks are covered by the Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term Economic Capital Framework is related to which of the following?
Correct
Bimal Jalan Committee was set up to review the economic capital framework of the RBI.
- Its mandate was to review global best practices followed by the central banks in making assessment and provisions.
- It has suggested that the framework may be periodically reviewed after every five years.
- The panel recommended aligning the central bank’s accounting year with the financial year which could reduce the need for paying interim dividend.
- The panel also suggested a clearer distinction between the two components of economic capital — realized equity and revaluation balances — mainly because of the volatile nature of the revaluation balances.
Source: Sriram’s Economy
Incorrect
Bimal Jalan Committee was set up to review the economic capital framework of the RBI.
- Its mandate was to review global best practices followed by the central banks in making assessment and provisions.
- It has suggested that the framework may be periodically reviewed after every five years.
- The panel recommended aligning the central bank’s accounting year with the financial year which could reduce the need for paying interim dividend.
- The panel also suggested a clearer distinction between the two components of economic capital — realized equity and revaluation balances — mainly because of the volatile nature of the revaluation balances.
Source: Sriram’s Economy
Money and Banking– 2020 and Before that
Money and banking
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016:
1.The code applies to companies as well as individuals.
2.Insolvency Professionals administer the resolution process and manage the assets of the debtor.
3.The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India is the regulator over Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies and Information Utilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 applies to companies and individuals. The proceedings of the resolution process are adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), for companies; and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), for individuals.
Statement 2 is correct. Insolvency Professionals are a specialised cadre of licensed professionals. These professionals administer the resolution process, manage the assets of the debtor, and provide information for creditors to assist them in decision making.
Statement 3 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).
It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 applies to companies and individuals. The proceedings of the resolution process are adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), for companies; and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), for individuals.
Statement 2 is correct. Insolvency Professionals are a specialised cadre of licensed professionals. These professionals administer the resolution process, manage the assets of the debtor, and provide information for creditors to assist them in decision making.
Statement 3 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).
It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is the mandate of the KV Kamath Committee formed by the Reserve Bank of India?
Correct
The RBI had formed a committee under the chairmanship of former ICICI Bank CEO KV Kamath to make recommendations on the financial parameters to be considered in the restructuring of loans impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
The committee has selected 26 sectors which will require restructuring based on its analyses of financial parameters hit due to the economic crash caused by the coronavirus pandemic. The financial parameters selected include total outside liability to adjusted tangible net worth, debt to EBIDTA, current ratio, debt service coverage ratio (DSCR) and average debt service coverage ratio (ADSCR).Incorrect
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
1. It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
2. RuPay card payment scheme was launched by the NPCI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
Statement 2 is correct. RuPay, a new card payment scheme was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It offers a domestic, open-loop, multilateral system which will allow all Indian banks and financial institutions in India to participate in electronic payments.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
Statement 2 is correct. RuPay, a new card payment scheme was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It offers a domestic, open-loop, multilateral system which will allow all Indian banks and financial institutions in India to participate in electronic payments. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms of RBI:
1. The small finance banks are required to extend 75 percent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to priority sector.
2. The Housing and Renewable Energy sectors are included in the Priority Sector under PSL norms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The small finance banks are required to extend 75 per cent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
The target for Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above is 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher
Statement 2 is correct. The categories under priority sector are: Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing,Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy and Others.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The small finance banks are required to extend 75 per cent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
The target for Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above is 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher
Statement 2 is correct. The categories under priority sector are: Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing,Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy and Others. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the State Development Loans (SDL):
1. These are Government Securities (G-Sec) issued by State governments in India.
2. These are eligible for meeting the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements of banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 2 is correct. SDLs are eligible securities for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) purposes, and are bought by banks, insurance companies, mutual funds, provident funds and other institutional investors.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 2 is correct. SDLs are eligible securities for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) purposes, and are bought by banks, insurance companies, mutual funds, provident funds and other institutional investors. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the EASE 2.0 Index:
1. It provides Public Sector Banks a comparative evaluation showing where banks stand on the Reforms Agenda.
2. It has been released by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) Reforms Index independently measures progress on the Public Sector Banks (PSB) Reforms Agenda.
Statement 2 is incorrect. EASE 2.0 Index Results has been released recently by the Indian Banking Association (IBA). Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three (in that order) in the ‘Top Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
# As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services envisaged to provide convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App, was inaugurated recently by the Finance Minister.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) Reforms Index independently measures progress on the Public Sector Banks (PSB) Reforms Agenda.
Statement 2 is incorrect. EASE 2.0 Index Results has been released recently by the Indian Banking Association (IBA). Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three (in that order) in the ‘Top Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
# As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services envisaged to provide convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App, was inaugurated recently by the Finance Minister. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is the mandate of the recently constituted Rajiv Mehrishi committee?
Correct
The government has recently set up an expert committee headed by former comptroller and auditor general (CAG) Rajiv Mehrishi to assess the impact of “waiving of interest and waiving of interest on interest on the Covid-19-related moratorium” on the economy and financial stability.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had in March this year allowed banks to offer a three-month moratorium on principal and interest payments beginning March 1 to provide relief to borrowers hit by the Covid-19 pandemic. This was later extended by another three months to August 31.Incorrect
The government has recently set up an expert committee headed by former comptroller and auditor general (CAG) Rajiv Mehrishi to assess the impact of “waiving of interest and waiving of interest on interest on the Covid-19-related moratorium” on the economy and financial stability.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had in March this year allowed banks to offer a three-month moratorium on principal and interest payments beginning March 1 to provide relief to borrowers hit by the Covid-19 pandemic. This was later extended by another three months to August 31. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1. Currency revaluation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another based on supply and demand in the forex market.
2. A Currency appreciation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate by central bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency.Incorrect
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are the potential impact(s) of sale of Government securities by the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Increase in liquidity in the market.
2. Increase in interest rates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework:
1. The capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and
Return on Assets (RoA) are the trigger points for banks to be put under PCA.
2. It is not applicable to co-operative banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of prompt corrective action (PCA) Framework, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points.
Statement 2 is correct. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and Financial Market Infrastructure (FMI).Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of prompt corrective action (PCA) Framework, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points.
Statement 2 is correct. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and Financial Market Infrastructure (FMI). - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1.As per the Constitution, states can legislate on the incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies.
2.The Reserve Bank of India does not regulate the cooperative banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Entry 32 in the Seventh Schedule’s State List mentions ‘Incorporation, regulation and winding up of corporations, other than those specified in List I, and universities; unincorporated trading, literary, scientific, religious and other societies and associations; cooperative societies.’
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1965, certain provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (BR Act) were made applicable to co-operative banks. This gave Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some powers to regulate co-operative banks.
RBI regulated state co-operative banks, district (central) co-operative banks and primary co-operative banks (also called urban co-operative banks).
The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 amended the Act to further expand RBI’s regulatory control over co-operative banks in terms of management, capital, audit and liquidation.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Entry 32 in the Seventh Schedule’s State List mentions ‘Incorporation, regulation and winding up of corporations, other than those specified in List I, and universities; unincorporated trading, literary, scientific, religious and other societies and associations; cooperative societies.’
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1965, certain provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (BR Act) were made applicable to co-operative banks. This gave Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some powers to regulate co-operative banks.
RBI regulated state co-operative banks, district (central) co-operative banks and primary co-operative banks (also called urban co-operative banks).
The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 amended the Act to further expand RBI’s regulatory control over co-operative banks in terms of management, capital, audit and liquidation. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Committee on Financial Sector Reforms was headed by whom?
Correct
The Raghuram Rajan Committee on Financial Sector Reforms was a committee constituted by the Government of India in 2007 for proposing the next generation of financial sector reforms in India.
An Internal Working Group of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently recommended that corporate houses be given bank licenses. The Raghuram Rajan committee had said that it is premature to allow industrial houses to own banks.Incorrect
The Raghuram Rajan Committee on Financial Sector Reforms was a committee constituted by the Government of India in 2007 for proposing the next generation of financial sector reforms in India.
An Internal Working Group of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently recommended that corporate houses be given bank licenses. The Raghuram Rajan committee had said that it is premature to allow industrial houses to own banks. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyIndia’s Forex Reserve comprises of which of the following assets?
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
India’s forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and India’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
# The country’s foreign exchange reserves rose to reach a lifetime high of $542.013 billion in the week ended September 4.
# Guidotti Rule suggests that the countries should hold external assets sufficient to ensure that they could live without access to new foreign borrowings for up to twelve months.Incorrect
India’s forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and India’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
# The country’s foreign exchange reserves rose to reach a lifetime high of $542.013 billion in the week ended September 4.
# Guidotti Rule suggests that the countries should hold external assets sufficient to ensure that they could live without access to new foreign borrowings for up to twelve months. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are dominant policy objectives of keeping forex reserves?
1. Maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies.
2. Reduce external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Major policy objectives in regard to forex reserves:
-maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies,
-enhancing capacity to intervene in forex markets,
-limiting external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis including national disasters or emergencies;
-providing confidence to the markets especially credit rating agencies that external obligations can always be met, thus reducing the overall costs at which forex resources are available to all the market participants, and
-incidentally adding to the comfort of the market participants, by demonstrating the backing of domestic currency by external assets.Incorrect
Major policy objectives in regard to forex reserves:
-maintaining confidence in monetary and exchange rate policies,
-enhancing capacity to intervene in forex markets,
-limiting external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis including national disasters or emergencies;
-providing confidence to the markets especially credit rating agencies that external obligations can always be met, thus reducing the overall costs at which forex resources are available to all the market participants, and
-incidentally adding to the comfort of the market participants, by demonstrating the backing of domestic currency by external assets. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016:
- The code applies to companies as well as individuals.
- Insolvency Professionals administer the resolution process and manage the assets of the debtor.
- The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India is the regulator over Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies and Information Utilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 applies to companies and individuals. The proceedings of the resolution process are adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), for companies; and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), for individuals.
Statement 2 is correct. Insolvency Professionals are a specialised cadre of licensed professionals. These professionals administer the resolution process, manage the assets of the debtor, and provide information for creditors to assist them in decision making.
Statement 3 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).
It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 applies to companies and individuals. The proceedings of the resolution process are adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), for companies; and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), for individuals.
Statement 2 is correct. Insolvency Professionals are a specialised cadre of licensed professionals. These professionals administer the resolution process, manage the assets of the debtor, and provide information for creditors to assist them in decision making.
Statement 3 is correct. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).
It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to change its accounting year from July-June to April- May on whom recommendations?
Correct
After nearly eight decades, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to change its accounting year from July-June to April- May.
Accordingly, the next accounting year will be a nine-month period, which starts from July 2020 and ends on March 31, 2021.
Thereafter, all the financial years will start from April every year, the RBI.
The Bimal Jalan Committee on Economic Capital Framework (ECF) of the RBI had proposed a more transparent presentation of the RBI‘s annual accounts and change in its accounting year from July to June to April to March from the financial year 2020-21.
Incorrect
After nearly eight decades, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to change its accounting year from July-June to April- May.
Accordingly, the next accounting year will be a nine-month period, which starts from July 2020 and ends on March 31, 2021.
Thereafter, all the financial years will start from April every year, the RBI.
The Bimal Jalan Committee on Economic Capital Framework (ECF) of the RBI had proposed a more transparent presentation of the RBI‘s annual accounts and change in its accounting year from July to June to April to March from the financial year 2020-21.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is the mandate of the KV Kamath Committee formed by the Reserve Bank of India?
Correct
The RBI had formed a committee under the chairmanship of former ICICI Bank CEO KV Kamath to make recommendations on the financial parameters to be considered in the restructuring of loans impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
The committee has selected 26 sectors which will require restructuring based on its analyses of financial parameters hit due to the economic crash caused by the coronavirus pandemic. The financial parameters selected include total outside liability to adjusted tangible net worth, debt to EBIDTA, current ratio, debt service coverage ratio (DSCR) and average debt service coverage ratio (ADSCR).
Incorrect
The RBI had formed a committee under the chairmanship of former ICICI Bank CEO KV Kamath to make recommendations on the financial parameters to be considered in the restructuring of loans impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
The committee has selected 26 sectors which will require restructuring based on its analyses of financial parameters hit due to the economic crash caused by the coronavirus pandemic. The financial parameters selected include total outside liability to adjusted tangible net worth, debt to EBIDTA, current ratio, debt service coverage ratio (DSCR) and average debt service coverage ratio (ADSCR).
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
- It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
- RuPay card payment scheme was launched by the NPCI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
Statement 2 is correct. RuPay, a new card payment scheme was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It offers a domestic, open-loop, multilateral system which will allow all Indian banks and financial institutions in India to participate in electronic payments.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
Statement 2 is correct. RuPay, a new card payment scheme was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It offers a domestic, open-loop, multilateral system which will allow all Indian banks and financial institutions in India to participate in electronic payments.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
1. It was created under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
2. It has been incorporated as a not for profit organization under the provisions of Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.
The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems.
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, and Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC.
In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
Incorrect
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.
The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems.
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, and Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC.
In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms of RBI:
- The small finance banks are required to extend 75 percent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to priority sector.
- The Housing and Renewable Energy sectors are included in the Priority Sector under PSL norms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The small finance banks are required to extend 75 per cent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
The target for Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above is 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher
Statement 2 is correct. The categories under priority sector are: Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing,Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy and Others.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The small finance banks are required to extend 75 per cent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
The target for Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above is 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher
Statement 2 is correct. The categories under priority sector are: Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing,Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy and Others.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Open Market Operations (OMOs):
- These are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of Government Securities to/ from the market.
- RBI resorts to sale of securities if there is excess liquidity in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Open Market Operations (OMOs) are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of G-Secs to/ from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis.
When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Open Market Operations (OMOs) are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of G-Secs to/ from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis.
When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Cost Inflation Index (CII):
- It calculates the increase in the price of goods due to inflation year-by-year.
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is responsible for notifying the CII every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As inflation increases, the prices of goods increase too. Due to this, the purchasing power of money falls. Cost Inflation Index (CII) is a tool used in the calculation of an estimated yearly increase in an asset’s price as a result of inflation.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Government fixes this index and publishes it in its official gazette for measuring inflation. This index, notified each year by the CBDT is mandated under Section 48 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
CII has a base year concept, currently the base year is 2001 having CII of 100. CII for 2020-21 has been notified at 301.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As inflation increases, the prices of goods increase too. Due to this, the purchasing power of money falls. Cost Inflation Index (CII) is a tool used in the calculation of an estimated yearly increase in an asset’s price as a result of inflation.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Government fixes this index and publishes it in its official gazette for measuring inflation. This index, notified each year by the CBDT is mandated under Section 48 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
CII has a base year concept, currently the base year is 2001 having CII of 100. CII for 2020-21 has been notified at 301.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW):
- It is compiled by the Labour Bureau.
- The base year for the CPI-IW has been updated to the year 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of the retail prices of selected. The index is compiled for 78 centres and All-India and is released on the last working day of succeeding month.
The Labour and Employment Ministry has recently revised the base year of the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016.
The number of items directly retained in the index basket has increased to 463 items as against 392 items in the 2001 series. The weight to food and beverage was reduced from 46.2% to 39%, while spending on housing increased from 15.2% to 17%.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of the retail prices of selected. The index is compiled for 78 centres and All-India and is released on the last working day of succeeding month.
The Labour and Employment Ministry has recently revised the base year of the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016.
The number of items directly retained in the index basket has increased to 463 items as against 392 items in the 2001 series. The weight to food and beverage was reduced from 46.2% to 39%, while spending on housing increased from 15.2% to 17%.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the State Development Loans (SDL):
- These are Government Securities (G-Sec) issued by State governments in India.
- These are eligible for meeting the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements of banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 2 is correct. SDLs are eligible securities for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) purposes, and are bought by banks, insurance companies, mutual funds, provident funds and other institutional investors.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 2 is correct. SDLs are eligible securities for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) purposes, and are bought by banks, insurance companies, mutual funds, provident funds and other institutional investors.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the EASE 2.0 Index:
- It provides Public Sector Banks a comparative evaluation showing where banks stand on the Reforms Agenda.
- It has been released by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) Reforms Index independently measures progress on the Public Sector Banks (PSB) Reforms Agenda.
Statement 2 is incorrect. EASE 2.0 Index Results has been released recently by the Indian Banking Association (IBA). Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three (in that order) in the ‘Top Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
# As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services envisaged to provide convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App, was inaugurated recently by the Finance Minister.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) Reforms Index independently measures progress on the Public Sector Banks (PSB) Reforms Agenda.
Statement 2 is incorrect. EASE 2.0 Index Results has been released recently by the Indian Banking Association (IBA). Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three (in that order) in the ‘Top Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
# As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services envisaged to provide convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App, was inaugurated recently by the Finance Minister.
Money and banking Part-2
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is the mandate of the recently constituted Rajiv Mehrishi committee?
Correct
The government has recently set up an expert committee headed by former comptroller and auditor general (CAG) Rajiv Mehrishi to assess the impact of “waiving of interest and waiving of interest on interest on the Covid-19-related moratorium” on the economy and financial stability.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had in March this year allowed banks to offer a three-month moratorium on principal and interest payments beginning March 1 to provide relief to borrowers hit by the Covid-19 pandemic. This was later extended by another three months to August 31.Incorrect
The government has recently set up an expert committee headed by former comptroller and auditor general (CAG) Rajiv Mehrishi to assess the impact of “waiving of interest and waiving of interest on interest on the Covid-19-related moratorium” on the economy and financial stability.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had in March this year allowed banks to offer a three-month moratorium on principal and interest payments beginning March 1 to provide relief to borrowers hit by the Covid-19 pandemic. This was later extended by another three months to August 31. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1. Currency revaluation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another based on supply and demand in the forex market.
2. A Currency appreciation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate by central bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency.Incorrect
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are the potential impact(s) of sale of Government securities by the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Increase in liquidity in the market.
2. Increase in interest rates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework:
1. The capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and
Return on Assets (RoA) are the trigger points for banks to be put under PCA.
2. It is not applicable to co-operative banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of prompt corrective action (PCA) Framework, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points.
Statement 2 is correct. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and Financial Market Infrastructure (FMI).Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of prompt corrective action (PCA) Framework, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points.
Statement 2 is correct. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and Financial Market Infrastructure (FMI). - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1.As per the Constitution, states can legislate on the incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies.
2.The Reserve Bank of India does not regulate the cooperative banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Entry 32 in the Seventh Schedule’s State List mentions ‘Incorporation, regulation and winding up of corporations, other than those specified in List I, and universities; unincorporated trading, literary, scientific, religious and other societies and associations; cooperative societies.’
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1965, certain provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (BR Act) were made applicable to co-operative banks. This gave Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some powers to regulate co-operative banks.
RBI regulated state co-operative banks, district (central) co-operative banks and primary co-operative banks (also called urban co-operative banks).
The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 amended the Act to further expand RBI’s regulatory control over co-operative banks in terms of management, capital, audit and liquidation.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Entry 32 in the Seventh Schedule’s State List mentions ‘Incorporation, regulation and winding up of corporations, other than those specified in List I, and universities; unincorporated trading, literary, scientific, religious and other societies and associations; cooperative societies.’
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1965, certain provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (BR Act) were made applicable to co-operative banks. This gave Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some powers to regulate co-operative banks.
RBI regulated state co-operative banks, district (central) co-operative banks and primary co-operative banks (also called urban co-operative banks).
The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 amended the Act to further expand RBI’s regulatory control over co-operative banks in terms of management, capital, audit and liquidation. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Committee on Financial Sector Reforms was headed by whom?
Correct
The Raghuram Rajan Committee on Financial Sector Reforms was a committee constituted by the Government of India in 2007 for proposing the next generation of financial sector reforms in India.
An Internal Working Group of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently recommended that corporate houses be given bank licenses. The Raghuram Rajan committee had said that it is premature to allow industrial houses to own banks.Incorrect
The Raghuram Rajan Committee on Financial Sector Reforms was a committee constituted by the Government of India in 2007 for proposing the next generation of financial sector reforms in India.
An Internal Working Group of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently recommended that corporate houses be given bank licenses. The Raghuram Rajan committee had said that it is premature to allow industrial houses to own banks. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Yuva Sahakar Scheme:
1. It is being implemented by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
2. It aims to encourage cooperative societies to venture into new and innovative areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) ‘Yuva Sahakar-Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme’ aims for attracting youth into cooperative business ventures.
The scheme is linked to Rs 1000 crore ‘Cooperative Start-up and Innovation Fund (CSIF)’ created by the NCDC and has more incentives for cooperatives of North Eastern region, Aspirational Districts and cooperatives with women or SC or ST or PwD members.
The scheme envisages 2% less than the applicable rate of interest on term loan for the project cost up to Rs 3 crore including 2 years moratorium on payment of principal. All types of cooperatives in operation for at least one year are eligible.
Agriculture Ministry has recently launched the Sahakar Cooptube NCDC Channel, a new initiative by National Cooperative Development Corporation.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) ‘Yuva Sahakar-Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme’ aims for attracting youth into cooperative business ventures.
The scheme is linked to Rs 1000 crore ‘Cooperative Start-up and Innovation Fund (CSIF)’ created by the NCDC and has more incentives for cooperatives of North Eastern region, Aspirational Districts and cooperatives with women or SC or ST or PwD members.
The scheme envisages 2% less than the applicable rate of interest on term loan for the project cost up to Rs 3 crore including 2 years moratorium on payment of principal. All types of cooperatives in operation for at least one year are eligible.
Agriculture Ministry has recently launched the Sahakar Cooptube NCDC Channel, a new initiative by National Cooperative Development Corporation. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following category(s) is/are included in the Priority Sector Lending norms of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Export Credit
2. Education
3. Renewable Energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the are included in the Priority Sector Lending norm of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Priority Sector includes the following categories: Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy and Others.
The 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher is mandatory to be given to priority sector.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently declared to bring startups under the purview of priority sector lending (PSL).Incorrect
All of the are included in the Priority Sector Lending norm of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Priority Sector includes the following categories: Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy and Others.
The 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher is mandatory to be given to priority sector.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently declared to bring startups under the purview of priority sector lending (PSL). - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Positive Pay mechanism:
1.The mechanism involves cross checking the financial instrument with the details provided by the issuing party or individual.
2.It has potential to make cheque payments more secure from altering, counterfeiting and forging.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
To enhance the safety of cheque payments, Reserve Bank of India has decided to introduce a mechanism of Positive Pay for all cheques of value Rs 50,000 and above.
Statement 1 is correct. It is aimed to end cheque frauds including altering, counterfeiting and forging of the financial instruments by confirming details with details electronically uploaded information by issuer.
Statement 2 is correct. The Positive Pay system demands that an account holder electronically uploads the details of the high value cheque through the bank’s net banking system.
The details are cross checked with details provided by the issuing party or the individual. Only a match will lead to the drawee’s bank clearing the cheque and in the event of a ‘no match’ scenario, the issuing authority/individual will be contacted for verification, cancellation or withdrawal of the cheque.Incorrect
To enhance the safety of cheque payments, Reserve Bank of India has decided to introduce a mechanism of Positive Pay for all cheques of value Rs 50,000 and above.
Statement 1 is correct. It is aimed to end cheque frauds including altering, counterfeiting and forging of the financial instruments by confirming details with details electronically uploaded information by issuer.
Statement 2 is correct. The Positive Pay system demands that an account holder electronically uploads the details of the high value cheque through the bank’s net banking system.
The details are cross checked with details provided by the issuing party or the individual. Only a match will lead to the drawee’s bank clearing the cheque and in the event of a ‘no match’ scenario, the issuing authority/individual will be contacted for verification, cancellation or withdrawal of the cheque. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007:
1.No person can operate a payment system except under and in accordance with an authorization issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
2.The Act prohibits foreign entities from operating a payment system in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 empowers Reserve Bank of India to regulate and oversee the various payments and settlement systems in India.
Every person operating a payment and settlement system (system provider) needs to be authorized by the RBI. The form and manner of application for authorization is prescribed by RBI.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently released a framework for setting up of a pan-India umbrella entity for retail payments systems. It will manage and operate new payments systems in the retail space comprising ATMs, white label PoS, Aadhaar-based payments and remittance services.
The formation of the umbrella entity has been authorised under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 does not prohibit foreign entities from operating a payment system in India and the Act does not discriminate or differentiate between foreign entities and domestic entities.
All entities, whether domestic or foreign, need to obtain a licence, approval or authorization from the RBI before commencing payment system operations in the country.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 empowers Reserve Bank of India to regulate and oversee the various payments and settlement systems in India.
Every person operating a payment and settlement system (system provider) needs to be authorized by the RBI. The form and manner of application for authorization is prescribed by RBI.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently released a framework for setting up of a pan-India umbrella entity for retail payments systems. It will manage and operate new payments systems in the retail space comprising ATMs, white label PoS, Aadhaar-based payments and remittance services.
The formation of the umbrella entity has been authorised under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 does not prohibit foreign entities from operating a payment system in India and the Act does not discriminate or differentiate between foreign entities and domestic entities.
All entities, whether domestic or foreign, need to obtain a licence, approval or authorization from the RBI before commencing payment system operations in the country. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Contingency Fund (CF) of the Reserve Bank of India:
1.It has been established by the Contingency Fund of India Act 1950.
2.It is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected contingencies that arise from RBI’s monetary policy and exchange rate operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Contingency Fund of India is established by the Contingency Fund of India Act 1950, not the CF of RBI.
As per Section 47 of the RBI Act, profits or surplus of the RBI are to be transferred to the government, after making various contingency provisions, public policy mandate of the RBI, including financial stability considerations.
RBI’s income comes mainly through interest on the securities it holds. RBI’ Surplus represents the amount RBI transfers to the government. There are two unique features about RBI’s financial statements. It is not required to pay income tax and has to transfer to the government the surplus left over after meeting its needs.
Statement 2 is correct. Contingency Fund of the RBI is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected and unforeseen contingencies, including depreciation in the value of securities, risks arising out of monetary/exchange rate policy operations, systemic risks and any risk arising on account of the special responsibilities enjoined upon the Reserve Bank. This amount is retained within the RBI.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Contingency Fund of India is established by the Contingency Fund of India Act 1950, not the CF of RBI.
As per Section 47 of the RBI Act, profits or surplus of the RBI are to be transferred to the government, after making various contingency provisions, public policy mandate of the RBI, including financial stability considerations.
RBI’s income comes mainly through interest on the securities it holds. RBI’ Surplus represents the amount RBI transfers to the government. There are two unique features about RBI’s financial statements. It is not required to pay income tax and has to transfer to the government the surplus left over after meeting its needs.
Statement 2 is correct. Contingency Fund of the RBI is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected and unforeseen contingencies, including depreciation in the value of securities, risks arising out of monetary/exchange rate policy operations, systemic risks and any risk arising on account of the special responsibilities enjoined upon the Reserve Bank. This amount is retained within the RBI. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following forms part of the Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) of RBI?
1. Contingency Fund
2. Foreign currency assets (FCA)
3. Gold reserve
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. The Contingency Fund (CF) is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected contingencies that arise from RBI’s monetary policy and exchange rate operations. It is not part of Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) of RBI.
Option 2 and 3 are correct. RBI reserves are invested mainly in foreign and Indian government securities (essentially promissory notes bearing an interest rate against which these governments borrow) and gold.
The Currency & Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) is a type of reserve with RBI that represents the value of the gold and foreign currency that the RBI holds on behalf of India. It is maintained by the Reserve Bank to take care of currency risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold prices.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. The Contingency Fund (CF) is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected contingencies that arise from RBI’s monetary policy and exchange rate operations. It is not part of Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) of RBI.
Option 2 and 3 are correct. RBI reserves are invested mainly in foreign and Indian government securities (essentially promissory notes bearing an interest rate against which these governments borrow) and gold.
The Currency & Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) is a type of reserve with RBI that represents the value of the gold and foreign currency that the RBI holds on behalf of India. It is maintained by the Reserve Bank to take care of currency risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold prices. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Systematically Important Core
Investment Companies (CICs-ND-SI):
1. (CICs-ND-SI) are non-banking financial companies with asset size of ₹1000crore and
above.
2. (CICs-ND-SI) are not allowed to accept public funds, but they can raise the money from
capital markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
Core Investment Companies.
A CICs-ND-SI is a Non-Banking Financial Company
•with asset size of Rs 100crore and above
•carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities and which satisfies the following conditions as on the date of the last audited balance sheet,
•it holds not less than 90% of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies;
•its investments in the equity shares (including instruments compulsorily convertible into equity shares within a period not exceeding 10 years from the date of issue) in group companies constitutes not less than 60% of its net assets as mentioned in clause (iii) above;
•it does not trade in its investments in shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies except through block sale for the purpose of dilution or disinvestment;
•it does not carry on any other financial activity referred to in Section 45I(c) and 45I(f) of the RBI act, 1934 except investment in bank deposits, money market instruments, government securities, loans to and investments in debt issuances of group companies or guarantees issued on behalf of group companies.
•it accepts public fundsIncorrect
Core Investment Companies.
A CICs-ND-SI is a Non-Banking Financial Company
•with asset size of Rs 100crore and above
•carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities and which satisfies the following conditions as on the date of the last audited balance sheet,
•it holds not less than 90% of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies;
•its investments in the equity shares (including instruments compulsorily convertible into equity shares within a period not exceeding 10 years from the date of issue) in group companies constitutes not less than 60% of its net assets as mentioned in clause (iii) above;
•it does not trade in its investments in shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies except through block sale for the purpose of dilution or disinvestment;
•it does not carry on any other financial activity referred to in Section 45I(c) and 45I(f) of the RBI act, 1934 except investment in bank deposits, money market instruments, government securities, loans to and investments in debt issuances of group companies or guarantees issued on behalf of group companies.
•it accepts public funds - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the wilful default in India:
1. The RBI defines wilful defaulter as a firm that has defaulted in meeting its repayment
obligations even though it has the capacity to honour these obligations.
2. The cut-off limit of willful default is fixed by Central government.
3. From 2009 to 2018 the money owed by willful defaulters has constantly decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Simply, default means non-payment of a loan availed by a borrower. A willful
defaulter is an entity or a person that has not paid the loan back despite the ability to repay
it.
Statement 1 is correct: Wilful default occurs when firms take loans, divert the proceeds
out of the firm for the personal benefit of owners, default on loans and declare bankruptcy,
thereby expropriating a range of stakeholders – lenders, minority shareholders, employees,
regulators and state coffers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the penal measures would normally be attracted by all the
borrowers identified as wilful defaulters or the promoters involved in diversion / siphoning
of funds, keeping in view the present limit of Rs.25 lakh fixed by the Central Vigilance
Commission for reporting of cases of wilful default by the banks / FIs to RBI, any wilful
defaulter with an outstanding balance of Rs.25 lakh or more, would attract the penal
measures
Statement 3 is incorrect: From 2009 to 2018 the money owed by willful defaulters has
constantly increased.Incorrect
Simply, default means non-payment of a loan availed by a borrower. A willful
defaulter is an entity or a person that has not paid the loan back despite the ability to repay
it.
Statement 1 is correct: Wilful default occurs when firms take loans, divert the proceeds
out of the firm for the personal benefit of owners, default on loans and declare bankruptcy,
thereby expropriating a range of stakeholders – lenders, minority shareholders, employees,
regulators and state coffers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the penal measures would normally be attracted by all the
borrowers identified as wilful defaulters or the promoters involved in diversion / siphoning
of funds, keeping in view the present limit of Rs.25 lakh fixed by the Central Vigilance
Commission for reporting of cases of wilful default by the banks / FIs to RBI, any wilful
defaulter with an outstanding balance of Rs.25 lakh or more, would attract the penal
measures
Statement 3 is incorrect: From 2009 to 2018 the money owed by willful defaulters has
constantly increased. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Repatriates Cooperative Finance
and Development Bank Ltd (REPCO BANK):
1. It was created for the purpose of promoting the rehabilitation activities for repatriates
from neighbouring countries mainly from Bangladesh, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Burma.
2. Its rules and regulations are governed by Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies) Act,
1955.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Repatriates Cooperative Finance and Development Bank Ltd., (REPCO BANK) was registered on 19.11.1969 as a Cooperative Society under the relevant provisions of Madras Cooperative Societies Act, 1961 with Jurisdiction over the State of Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Union Territory of Puducherry for the purpose of promoting the rehabilitation activities for repatriates from neighbouring countries mainly from Sri Lanka and Burma.
•Though originally registered under the Madras Cooperative Societies Act, 1961, the
Bank is deemed to be registered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act,
2002.
•The Bank is under the administrative control of FFR Division, Ministry of Home
Affairs, Govt. of India. Constitutionally, the Bank is a Multi-State Cooperative
Society.
•The Bank was promoted by Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs in association with the State Governments of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The Society’s rules and regulations are governed by its byelaws.
•In terms of the byelaws, as the share of the Government is more than 51%, the Board of Directors are appointed by the Govt. of India.
•The area of operation of the bank covers the south Indian states viz., Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
•As on March 31, 2019 the government of India held 49.15 per cent of the share capital, four southern state governments held 6.24 per cent and the remaining 45 percent was held by individual repatriates.Incorrect
Repatriates Cooperative Finance and Development Bank Ltd., (REPCO BANK) was registered on 19.11.1969 as a Cooperative Society under the relevant provisions of Madras Cooperative Societies Act, 1961 with Jurisdiction over the State of Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Union Territory of Puducherry for the purpose of promoting the rehabilitation activities for repatriates from neighbouring countries mainly from Sri Lanka and Burma.
•Though originally registered under the Madras Cooperative Societies Act, 1961, the
Bank is deemed to be registered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act,
2002.
•The Bank is under the administrative control of FFR Division, Ministry of Home
Affairs, Govt. of India. Constitutionally, the Bank is a Multi-State Cooperative
Society.
•The Bank was promoted by Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs in association with the State Governments of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The Society’s rules and regulations are governed by its byelaws.
•In terms of the byelaws, as the share of the Government is more than 51%, the Board of Directors are appointed by the Govt. of India.
•The area of operation of the bank covers the south Indian states viz., Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
•As on March 31, 2019 the government of India held 49.15 per cent of the share capital, four southern state governments held 6.24 per cent and the remaining 45 percent was held by individual repatriates. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following are the pillars of the Basel Norms?
1. Capital adequacy requirements
2. Supervisory review
3. Market discipline
4. Independence of Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Basel is a city in Switzerland. It is the headquarters of Bureau of
International Settlement (BIS), which fosters co-operation among central banks with a
common goal of financial stability and common standards of banking regulations.
•Basel guidelines refer to broad supervisory standards formulated by this group of
central banks – called the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS).
•The set of agreement by the BCBS, which mainly focuses on risks to banks and the
financial system are called Basel accord.
•The purpose of the accord is to ensure that financial institutions have enough
capital on account to meet obligations and absorb unexpected losses. India has
accepted Basel accords for the banking system.
In June 2004, Basel II guidelines were published by BCBS. The guidelines were based on
three parameters, which the committee calls it as pillars.
•Capital Adequacy Requirements: Banks should maintain a minimum capital
adequacy requirement of 8% of risk assets
•Supervisory Review: According to this, banks were needed to develop and use
better risk management techniques in monitoring and managing all the three types
of risks that a bank faces, viz. credit, market and operational risks
•Market Discipline: This need increased disclosure requirements. Banks need to
mandatorily disclose their CAR, risk exposure, etc to the central bank. Basel II
norms in India and overseas are yet to be fully implemented.Incorrect
Basel is a city in Switzerland. It is the headquarters of Bureau of
International Settlement (BIS), which fosters co-operation among central banks with a
common goal of financial stability and common standards of banking regulations.
•Basel guidelines refer to broad supervisory standards formulated by this group of
central banks – called the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS).
•The set of agreement by the BCBS, which mainly focuses on risks to banks and the
financial system are called Basel accord.
•The purpose of the accord is to ensure that financial institutions have enough
capital on account to meet obligations and absorb unexpected losses. India has
accepted Basel accords for the banking system.
In June 2004, Basel II guidelines were published by BCBS. The guidelines were based on
three parameters, which the committee calls it as pillars.
•Capital Adequacy Requirements: Banks should maintain a minimum capital
adequacy requirement of 8% of risk assets
•Supervisory Review: According to this, banks were needed to develop and use
better risk management techniques in monitoring and managing all the three types
of risks that a bank faces, viz. credit, market and operational risks
•Market Discipline: This need increased disclosure requirements. Banks need to
mandatorily disclose their CAR, risk exposure, etc to the central bank. Basel II
norms in India and overseas are yet to be fully implemented. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the new Non-Performing Assets (NPA) recognition norms, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The new norms replace all the earlier resolution plans except Joint Lenders Forum (JLF).
2. The lenders can initiate the process of a resolution plan (RP) even before a default.
3. The lenders shall undertake a prima facie review of the borrower account within 30 days from the day of default.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on June 7, 2019 issued a new framework for resolution of bad loans, replacing the previous norms quashed by the Supreme Court in April, offering a 30-day gap for stress recognition instead of the one-day default earlier.
• The new norms replaces all the earlier resolution plans such as the framework for revitalising distressed assets, corporate debt restructuring scheme, flexible structuring of existing long-term project loans, strategic debt restructuring scheme (SDR), change in ownership outside SDR, and scheme for sustainable structuring of stressed assets (S4A), and the joint lenders’ forum with immediate effect.
• The central bank said lenders shall recognise incipient stress in loan accounts, immediately on default, by classifying such assets as special mention accounts (SMA).
• Since default with any lender is a lagging indicator of financial stress faced by the borrower, it is expected that the lenders initiate the process of implementing a resolution plan (RP) even before a default.
• The central bank said once a borrower is reported to be in default by any lenders, financial institutions, small finance banks or NBFCs, the lenders shall undertake a prima facie review of the borrower account within 30 days from the day of default.Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on June 7, 2019 issued a new framework for resolution of bad loans, replacing the previous norms quashed by the Supreme Court in April, offering a 30-day gap for stress recognition instead of the one-day default earlier.
• The new norms replaces all the earlier resolution plans such as the framework for revitalising distressed assets, corporate debt restructuring scheme, flexible structuring of existing long-term project loans, strategic debt restructuring scheme (SDR), change in ownership outside SDR, and scheme for sustainable structuring of stressed assets (S4A), and the joint lenders’ forum with immediate effect.
• The central bank said lenders shall recognise incipient stress in loan accounts, immediately on default, by classifying such assets as special mention accounts (SMA).
• Since default with any lender is a lagging indicator of financial stress faced by the borrower, it is expected that the lenders initiate the process of implementing a resolution plan (RP) even before a default.
• The central bank said once a borrower is reported to be in default by any lenders, financial institutions, small finance banks or NBFCs, the lenders shall undertake a prima facie review of the borrower account within 30 days from the day of default. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has slapped restrictions on withdrawal on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank Ltd (PMC Bank). Under which Act does the RBI has imposed restrictions?
Correct
The RBI has slapped restrictions on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank Ltd (PMC Bank).It has also appointed an administrator and superseded its board of directors.
•The PMC had been placed under ‘directions’ of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for six months, after irregularities had been found in lending.
• The RBI has issued directions in exercise of powers vested in it under sub section (1) of Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (AACS).Incorrect
The RBI has slapped restrictions on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank Ltd (PMC Bank).It has also appointed an administrator and superseded its board of directors.
•The PMC had been placed under ‘directions’ of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for six months, after irregularities had been found in lending.
• The RBI has issued directions in exercise of powers vested in it under sub section (1) of Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (AACS). - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following financial institutions/banks are covered under deposit insurance of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)?
1. All Commercial Banks
2. Regional Rural Banks
3. Co-operative Banks
4. Non-Banking Financial institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The functions of the DICGC are governed by the provisions of ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961’ (DICGC Act) and ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961’ framed by the Reserve Bank of India in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the said Act.
Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme are:
• All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
• Co-operative Banks – All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg) of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme.
• All State, Central and Primary co-operative banks functioning in the States/Union Territories which have amended their Co-operative Societies Act as required under the DICGC Act, 1961, empowering RBI to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as eligible banks.
• At present all Co-operative banks are covered by the Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks.Incorrect
The functions of the DICGC are governed by the provisions of ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961’ (DICGC Act) and ‘The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961’ framed by the Reserve Bank of India in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the said Act.
Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme are:
• All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
• Co-operative Banks – All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg) of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme.
• All State, Central and Primary co-operative banks functioning in the States/Union Territories which have amended their Co-operative Societies Act as required under the DICGC Act, 1961, empowering RBI to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as eligible banks.
• At present all Co-operative banks are covered by the Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following are the trigger points that invite corrective action from the central bank under Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)?
1. Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR)
2. Net Non-Performing Assets (NPA)
3. Return on Assets (RoA)
4. Leverage ratio (LR)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework is a set of guidelines for banks that are weak in terms of identified indicators including – poor asset quality, insufficient capital and insufficient profit or losses.
• The Reserve Bank of India initiated the Scheme of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) in 2002 to discipline banks when they report poor and risky financial performance.
• PCA is a policy action guideline (first in May 2014 and revised effective from April 1, 2017) if a commercial bank’s financial condition worsens below a mark.
• The PCA framework specifies the trigger points or the level in which the RBI will intervene with corrective action. This trigger points are expressed in terms of parameters for the banks.The parameters that invite corrective action from the central bank are:
• Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR)
• Net Non-Performing Assets (NPA)
• Return on Assets (RoA) and
• Leverage ratioIncorrect
RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework is a set of guidelines for banks that are weak in terms of identified indicators including – poor asset quality, insufficient capital and insufficient profit or losses.
• The Reserve Bank of India initiated the Scheme of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) in 2002 to discipline banks when they report poor and risky financial performance.
• PCA is a policy action guideline (first in May 2014 and revised effective from April 1, 2017) if a commercial bank’s financial condition worsens below a mark.
• The PCA framework specifies the trigger points or the level in which the RBI will intervene with corrective action. This trigger points are expressed in terms of parameters for the banks.The parameters that invite corrective action from the central bank are:
• Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR)
• Net Non-Performing Assets (NPA)
• Return on Assets (RoA) and
• Leverage ratio - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term Economic Capital Framework, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Bimal Jalan Committee was set up to review the economic capital framework of the RBI.
• Its mandate was to review global best practices followed by the central banks in making assessment and provisions.
• It has suggested that the framework may be periodically reviewed after every five years.
• The panel recommended to align the central bank’s accounting year with the financial year which could reduce the need for paying interim dividend.
• The panel also suggested a clearer distinction between the two components of economic capital — realized equity and revaluation balances — mainly because of the volatile nature of the revaluation balances.Incorrect
Bimal Jalan Committee was set up to review the economic capital framework of the RBI.
• Its mandate was to review global best practices followed by the central banks in making assessment and provisions.
• It has suggested that the framework may be periodically reviewed after every five years.
• The panel recommended to align the central bank’s accounting year with the financial year which could reduce the need for paying interim dividend.
• The panel also suggested a clearer distinction between the two components of economic capital — realized equity and revaluation balances — mainly because of the volatile nature of the revaluation balances. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe central bank (RBI) has three different funds that together comprise its reserves. Arrange the following funds in ascending order with respect to the reserves?
1. The Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA)
2. The Contingency Fund (CF)
3. The Asset Development Fund (ADF)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The central bank has three different funds that together comprise its reserves. These are the Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA), the Contingency Fund (CF) and the Asset Development Fund (ADF).
•Of these, the CGRA is by far the largest and makes up the significant bulk of the RBI’s reserves.
• The fund, which in essence is made up of the gains on the revaluation of foreign exchange and gold, stood at ₹6.91 lakh crore as of financial year 2017-18.
• The CGRA has grown quite significantly since 2010, at a compounded annual growth rate of 25%.
• The CF is the second biggest fund, amounting to ₹2.32 lakh crore in 2017-18.
• It is designed to meet contingencies from exchange rate operations and monetary policy decisions and is funded in large part from the RBI’s profits.
• The ADF makes up a much smaller share of the reserves.Incorrect
The central bank has three different funds that together comprise its reserves. These are the Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA), the Contingency Fund (CF) and the Asset Development Fund (ADF).
•Of these, the CGRA is by far the largest and makes up the significant bulk of the RBI’s reserves.
• The fund, which in essence is made up of the gains on the revaluation of foreign exchange and gold, stood at ₹6.91 lakh crore as of financial year 2017-18.
• The CGRA has grown quite significantly since 2010, at a compounded annual growth rate of 25%.
• The CF is the second biggest fund, amounting to ₹2.32 lakh crore in 2017-18.
• It is designed to meet contingencies from exchange rate operations and monetary policy decisions and is funded in large part from the RBI’s profits.
• The ADF makes up a much smaller share of the reserves. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Merger of Banks in India:
1. The merger of public sector banks was proposed by Sukhamoy Chakravarty committee.
2. Merger of banks can do by Cabinet approval without referring to parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Maidavolu Narasimham, the 13th governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in 1991 recommended merger of public sector banks to make them stronger.
• It had envisaged a three-tier banking structure with three large banks with international presence at the top, eight to 10 national banks at tier two, and a large number of regional and local banks at the bottom.
• Bank consolidation procedures are laid out in the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
• Any two public sector banking entities can initiate merger talks, but the scheme of the merger must be finalized by the government in consultation with the central bank and it must be placed in Parliament.
• Parliament reserves the right to modify or reject the scheme. In case of a merger between a public sector bank and a private bank too, parliamentary approval is a must.Incorrect
Maidavolu Narasimham, the 13th governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in 1991 recommended merger of public sector banks to make them stronger.
• It had envisaged a three-tier banking structure with three large banks with international presence at the top, eight to 10 national banks at tier two, and a large number of regional and local banks at the bottom.
• Bank consolidation procedures are laid out in the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
• Any two public sector banking entities can initiate merger talks, but the scheme of the merger must be finalized by the government in consultation with the central bank and it must be placed in Parliament.
• Parliament reserves the right to modify or reject the scheme. In case of a merger between a public sector bank and a private bank too, parliamentary approval is a must. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “Draft Scheme of Reconstruction” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
RBI has placed the financially troubled Yes Bank under a moratorium (temporary suspension).
• After placing this bank under a moratorium, the RBI announced a draft Scheme of Reconstruction.
• This scheme entails the State Bank of India (SBI) investing capital to acquire a 49% stake in the restructured private lender.Incorrect
RBI has placed the financially troubled Yes Bank under a moratorium (temporary suspension).
• After placing this bank under a moratorium, the RBI announced a draft Scheme of Reconstruction.
• This scheme entails the State Bank of India (SBI) investing capital to acquire a 49% stake in the restructured private lender. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “Acceptance Development Fund (ADF)” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
An RBI concept paper (March 2016) on expanding the card acceptance infrastructure in the country had suggested that besides card issuers (banks) and card payment networks (such as Visa, MasterCard and RuPay), the government and the RBI to consider contributing to the Acceptance Development Fund (ADF).
• ADF is to develop debit and credit card acceptance infrastructure in the country.
• While the government’s contribution to the ADF could be routed through the Financial Inclusion Fund (FIF), which is operated by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (Nabard), the RBI’s contribution could come from the Depositors’ Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund.Incorrect
An RBI concept paper (March 2016) on expanding the card acceptance infrastructure in the country had suggested that besides card issuers (banks) and card payment networks (such as Visa, MasterCard and RuPay), the government and the RBI to consider contributing to the Acceptance Development Fund (ADF).
• ADF is to develop debit and credit card acceptance infrastructure in the country.
• While the government’s contribution to the ADF could be routed through the Financial Inclusion Fund (FIF), which is operated by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (Nabard), the RBI’s contribution could come from the Depositors’ Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund.
Money and banking Part-3
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- Question 1 of 16
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Additional Tier-1 bonds (AT-1):
1. They are issued by banks to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
2. These bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
AT-1, short for Additional Tier-1 bonds, are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
• After a string of banks turned turtle in the global financial crisis, central banks got together and decided to formulate new rules (called the Basel-III norms) that would make them maintain stronger balance sheets.
• In India, one of the key new rules brought in was that banks must maintain capital at a minimum ratio of 11.5 per cent of their risk-weighted loans. Of this, 9.5 per cent needs to be in Tier-1 capital and 2 per cent in Tier-2.
• Tier-1 capital refers to equity and other forms ofIncorrect
AT-1, short for Additional Tier-1 bonds, are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
• After a string of banks turned turtle in the global financial crisis, central banks got together and decided to formulate new rules (called the Basel-III norms) that would make them maintain stronger balance sheets.
• In India, one of the key new rules brought in was that banks must maintain capital at a minimum ratio of 11.5 per cent of their risk-weighted loans. Of this, 9.5 per cent needs to be in Tier-1 capital and 2 per cent in Tier-2.
• Tier-1 capital refers to equity and other forms of - Question 2 of 16
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Credit Default Swap (CDS):
1. It is a risk management product which helps entities guard against possibility of defaults in repayment of corporate bonds.
2. The eligible participants to participate in CDS are commercial banks, primary dealers, NBFCs, insurance companies and mutual funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
CDS is in operation in India since October 2011-launched in only corporate bonds.
• The eligible participants are commercial banks, primary dealers, NBFCs, insurance companies and mutual funds.
• CDS is a credit derivative transaction in which two parties enter into an agreement, whereby one party (called as the ‘protection buyer’) pays the other party (called as the ‘protection seller’) periodic payments for the specified life of the agreement.
• The protection seller makes no payment unless a credit event relating to a pre-determined reference asset occurs.
• If such an event occurs, it triggers the Protection Seller’s settlement obligation, which can be either cash or physical (India follows physical settlement).
• It means, CDS is a credit derivative that can be used to transfer credit risk from the investor exposed to the risk (called protection buyer) to an investor willing to take risk (called protection seller).
• It operates like an insurance policy. In an insurance policy, the insurance firm pays the loss amount to the insured party.Incorrect
CDS is in operation in India since October 2011-launched in only corporate bonds.
• The eligible participants are commercial banks, primary dealers, NBFCs, insurance companies and mutual funds.
• CDS is a credit derivative transaction in which two parties enter into an agreement, whereby one party (called as the ‘protection buyer’) pays the other party (called as the ‘protection seller’) periodic payments for the specified life of the agreement.
• The protection seller makes no payment unless a credit event relating to a pre-determined reference asset occurs.
• If such an event occurs, it triggers the Protection Seller’s settlement obligation, which can be either cash or physical (India follows physical settlement).
• It means, CDS is a credit derivative that can be used to transfer credit risk from the investor exposed to the risk (called protection buyer) to an investor willing to take risk (called protection seller).
• It operates like an insurance policy. In an insurance policy, the insurance firm pays the loss amount to the insured party. - Question 3 of 16
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the regional rural banks (RRB):
1. RRBs were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group. 2. The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors.
• Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislations of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
• The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on October 2, 1975. At present there are 82 RRBs in India.
• The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35.
• The RRBs combine the characteristics of a cooperative in terms of the familiarity of the rural problems and a commercial bank in terms of its professionalism and ability to mobilise financial resources.
• Each RRB operates within the local limits as notified by Government.
• The main objectives of RRB’s are to provide credit and other facilities‚ especially to the small and marginal farmers‚ agricultural labourers artisans and small entrepreneurs in rural areas with the objective of bridging the credit gap in rural areas, checking the outflow of rural deposits to urban areas and reduce regional imbalances and increase rural employment generation.Incorrect
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors.
• Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislations of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
• The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on October 2, 1975. At present there are 82 RRBs in India.
• The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35.
• The RRBs combine the characteristics of a cooperative in terms of the familiarity of the rural problems and a commercial bank in terms of its professionalism and ability to mobilise financial resources.
• Each RRB operates within the local limits as notified by Government.
• The main objectives of RRB’s are to provide credit and other facilities‚ especially to the small and marginal farmers‚ agricultural labourers artisans and small entrepreneurs in rural areas with the objective of bridging the credit gap in rural areas, checking the outflow of rural deposits to urban areas and reduce regional imbalances and increase rural employment generation. - Question 4 of 16
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Priority Sector Lending (PSL)”:
1. All Indian banks have to follow the compulsory target of priority sector lending (PSL).
2. Indian and Foreign Banks need to lend 40 per cent to the priority sector every year of their total lending.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
All Indian banks have to follow the compulsory target of priority sector lending (PSL).
The priority sector in India are at present the sectors-agriculture, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), road and water transport, retail trade, small business, small housing loans (not more than Rs. 10lakhs), software industries, self-help groups (SHGs), agro-processing, small and marginal farmers, artisans, distressed urban poor and indebted non-institutional debtors besides the SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society.
The PSL target must be met by the banks operating in India in the following way:
• Indian Banks need to lend 40 per cent to the priority sector every year (public sector as well as private sector banks, both) of their total lending.
• Foreign Banks (having less than 20 branches) have to fulfill only 32 per cent PSL target which has sub-targets for the exports (12 per cent) and small and medium enterprises (10 per cent).Incorrect
All Indian banks have to follow the compulsory target of priority sector lending (PSL).
The priority sector in India are at present the sectors-agriculture, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), road and water transport, retail trade, small business, small housing loans (not more than Rs. 10lakhs), software industries, self-help groups (SHGs), agro-processing, small and marginal farmers, artisans, distressed urban poor and indebted non-institutional debtors besides the SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society.
The PSL target must be met by the banks operating in India in the following way:
• Indian Banks need to lend 40 per cent to the priority sector every year (public sector as well as private sector banks, both) of their total lending.
• Foreign Banks (having less than 20 branches) have to fulfill only 32 per cent PSL target which has sub-targets for the exports (12 per cent) and small and medium enterprises (10 per cent). - Question 5 of 16
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements “Service Area Approach (SAA)”:
1. It is introduced in April 1989 for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas.
2. It is applicable to Scheduled Commercial Banks only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Service Area Approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas was applicable to all scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks.
• Under SAA, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area.
• The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels.
• The SAA scheme was reviewed from time to time and appropriate changes were made in the scheme to make it more effective.Incorrect
The Service Area Approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas was applicable to all scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks.
• Under SAA, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area.
• The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels.
• The SAA scheme was reviewed from time to time and appropriate changes were made in the scheme to make it more effective. - Question 6 of 16
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
norms of RBI:
1. The small finance banks are required to extend 75 percent of their Adjusted Net Bank
Credit (ANBC) to priority sector.
2. The Housing and Renewable Energy sectors are included in the Priority Sector under PSL
norms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The small finance banks are required to extend 75
per cent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification
as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
The target for Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks
and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above is 40 per cent of
Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure,
whichever is higher
Statement 2 is correct. The categories under priority sector are: Agriculture, Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social Infrastructure,
Renewable Energy and Others.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The small finance banks are required to extend 75
per cent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification
as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
The target for Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks
and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above is 40 per cent of
Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure,
whichever is higher
Statement 2 is correct. The categories under priority sector are: Agriculture, Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social Infrastructure,
Renewable Energy and Others. - Question 7 of 16
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the EASE 2.0 Index:
1. It provides Public Sector Banks a comparative evaluation showing where banks stand on
the Reforms Agenda.
2. It has been released by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence)
Reforms Index independently measures progress on the Public Sector Banks (PSB)
Reforms Agenda.
Statement 2 is incorrect. EASE 2.0 Index Results has been released recently by the Indian
Banking Association (IBA). Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental
Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three (in that order) in the ‘Top
Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
# As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services envisaged to provide
convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App, was inaugurated recently by the
Finance Minister.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence)
Reforms Index independently measures progress on the Public Sector Banks (PSB)
Reforms Agenda.
Statement 2 is incorrect. EASE 2.0 Index Results has been released recently by the Indian
Banking Association (IBA). Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental
Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three (in that order) in the ‘Top
Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
# As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services envisaged to provide
convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App, was inaugurated recently by the
Finance Minister. - Question 8 of 16
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Five Star Villages Scheme:
1. It aims to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural areas of the
country.
2. The scheme will cover Savings Bank accounts and PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Department of Posts has launched a scheme
called Five Star Villages, to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural
areas of the country. The scheme seeks to bridge the gaps in public awareness and reach of
postal products and services, especially in interior villages.
Statement 2 is correct. The schemes covered under the Five Star scheme include: i)
Savings Bank accounts, Recurrent Deposit Accounts, NSC / KVP certificates, ii) Sukanya
Samridhi Accounts/ PPF Accounts, iii) Funded Post Office Savings Account linked India
Post Payments Bank Accounts, iv) Postal Life Insurance Policy/Rural Postal Life Insurance
Policy and v) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana Account / Pradhan Mantri Jeevan
Jyoti Bima Yojana Account If a village attains universal coverage for four schemes from the above list, then that village
gets four-star status; if a village completes three schemes, then that village get three-star
status and so on.
The scheme will be implemented by a team of five Gramin Dak Sevaks who will be
assigned a village for marketing of all products, savings and insurance schemes of the
Department of Posts.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Department of Posts has launched a scheme
called Five Star Villages, to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural
areas of the country. The scheme seeks to bridge the gaps in public awareness and reach of
postal products and services, especially in interior villages.
Statement 2 is correct. The schemes covered under the Five Star scheme include: i)
Savings Bank accounts, Recurrent Deposit Accounts, NSC / KVP certificates, ii) Sukanya
Samridhi Accounts/ PPF Accounts, iii) Funded Post Office Savings Account linked India
Post Payments Bank Accounts, iv) Postal Life Insurance Policy/Rural Postal Life Insurance
Policy and v) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana Account / Pradhan Mantri Jeevan
Jyoti Bima Yojana Account If a village attains universal coverage for four schemes from the above list, then that village
gets four-star status; if a village completes three schemes, then that village get three-star
status and so on.
The scheme will be implemented by a team of five Gramin Dak Sevaks who will be
assigned a village for marketing of all products, savings and insurance schemes of the
Department of Posts. - Question 9 of 16
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1. Currency revaluation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another
based on supply and demand in the forex market.
2. A Currency appreciation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official
exchange rate by central bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in
the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly
changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate
relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency.Incorrect
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in
the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly
changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate
relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency. - Question 10 of 16
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is the objective the Accommodative policy stance of central bank?
Correct
Accommodative monetary policy, also known as loose credit or easy monetary policy, occurs when a central bank attempts to expand the overall money supply to boost the economy when growth is slowing.
It does this by running a succession of decreases in the Interest rates, making the cost of borrowing cheaper. Accommodative money policy is triggered to encourage more spending from consumers and businesses by making money less expensive to borrow through the lowering of short-term interest rates.Incorrect
Accommodative monetary policy, also known as loose credit or easy monetary policy, occurs when a central bank attempts to expand the overall money supply to boost the economy when growth is slowing.
It does this by running a succession of decreases in the Interest rates, making the cost of borrowing cheaper. Accommodative money policy is triggered to encourage more spending from consumers and businesses by making money less expensive to borrow through the lowering of short-term interest rates. - Question 11 of 16
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is e-Kuber?
Correct
E-kuber is the core banking solution of the RBI that gives high degree of access to commercial banks and other institutions to their current account with the RBI. Several financial engagements like the auction of Government securities are done through e-kuber system.
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) is a facility or arrangement that helps banks to offer large number of customer-centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location. The core banking solution can support retail as well as corporate banking activities.
It enables banks access with their current account at any time, everywhere across the coutnry. The e-kuber is used by the RBI to execute various transactions with banks. Utility of e-kuber is that it is used to conduct exercises like auctioning of government securitiesIncorrect
E-kuber is the core banking solution of the RBI that gives high degree of access to commercial banks and other institutions to their current account with the RBI. Several financial engagements like the auction of Government securities are done through e-kuber system.
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) is a facility or arrangement that helps banks to offer large number of customer-centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location. The core banking solution can support retail as well as corporate banking activities.
It enables banks access with their current account at any time, everywhere across the coutnry. The e-kuber is used by the RBI to execute various transactions with banks. Utility of e-kuber is that it is used to conduct exercises like auctioning of government securities - Question 12 of 16
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) System in India:
1.It is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received up to a particular time are processed in batches.
2.It can receive and process transactions only during working hours of the banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) is a system where there is continuous and real-time settlement of fund-transfers, individually on a transaction-by-transaction basis (without netting). ‘Real Time’ means the processing of instructions at the time they are received; ‘Gross Settlement’ means that the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually.
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) System is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received up to a particular time are processed in batches.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Real Time Gross Settlement System (RTGS) for high-value transactions has been made available round-the-clock recently, making India one of the few countries in the world to operate the system 24X7.
# In December 2019, RBI had made the national electronic funds transfer (NEFT) available 24X7.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) is a system where there is continuous and real-time settlement of fund-transfers, individually on a transaction-by-transaction basis (without netting). ‘Real Time’ means the processing of instructions at the time they are received; ‘Gross Settlement’ means that the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually.
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) System is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received up to a particular time are processed in batches.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Real Time Gross Settlement System (RTGS) for high-value transactions has been made available round-the-clock recently, making India one of the few countries in the world to operate the system 24X7.
# In December 2019, RBI had made the national electronic funds transfer (NEFT) available 24X7. - Question 13 of 16
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) of Reserve Bank of India?
1.The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements (repos and reverse repos).
2.The Regional Rural Banks have been made eligible to avail the LAF facility of RBI.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks and Primary Dealers to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of G-Secs including SDLs. Basically, LAF enables liquidity management on a day-to-day basis.
The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements (repos and reverse repos) with RBI being the counter-party to all the transactions.
As per a recent RBI circular, in order to provide an additional avenue for liquidity management to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), it has been decided that Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) will be extended to Scheduled RRBs meeting the following criteria:
–Implemented Core Banking Solution (CBS)
–There is a minimum CRAR of nine per cent and
–Fully compliant with the terms and conditions for availing LAF and MSF issued by Financial Markets Operations Department (FMOD), Reserve Bank of India.Incorrect
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks and Primary Dealers to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of G-Secs including SDLs. Basically, LAF enables liquidity management on a day-to-day basis.
The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements (repos and reverse repos) with RBI being the counter-party to all the transactions.
As per a recent RBI circular, in order to provide an additional avenue for liquidity management to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), it has been decided that Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) will be extended to Scheduled RRBs meeting the following criteria:
–Implemented Core Banking Solution (CBS)
–There is a minimum CRAR of nine per cent and
–Fully compliant with the terms and conditions for availing LAF and MSF issued by Financial Markets Operations Department (FMOD), Reserve Bank of India. - Question 14 of 16
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Positive Pay mechanism?
Correct
From January 1, 2021 onwards Reserve Bank of Inida has decided to introduce a mechanism of Positive Pay for all cheques of value ₹50,000 and above. Under this mechanism, cheques will be processed for payment by the drawee bank based on information passed on by its customer at the time of issuance of cheque.
Under this process, the issuer of the cheque submits electronically, through channels like SMS, mobile app, Internet banking and ATM, certain minimum details of that cheque (like date, name of the beneficiary, or payee and amount) to the drawee bank, details of which are cross-checked with the presented cheque by Cheque Truncation System (CTS).
Any discrepancy is flagged by CTS to the drawee bank and presenting bank, who then take redressal measures.Incorrect
From January 1, 2021 onwards Reserve Bank of Inida has decided to introduce a mechanism of Positive Pay for all cheques of value ₹50,000 and above. Under this mechanism, cheques will be processed for payment by the drawee bank based on information passed on by its customer at the time of issuance of cheque.
Under this process, the issuer of the cheque submits electronically, through channels like SMS, mobile app, Internet banking and ATM, certain minimum details of that cheque (like date, name of the beneficiary, or payee and amount) to the drawee bank, details of which are cross-checked with the presented cheque by Cheque Truncation System (CTS).
Any discrepancy is flagged by CTS to the drawee bank and presenting bank, who then take redressal measures. - Question 15 of 16
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following pair (s) is/are correctly matched?
Committee : Organization
- Sivaraman Committee : NABARD
- B.D. Kumar Committee : EXIM Bank
- Sukomoy Chakravarthy committee: SIDBI Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The B.D. Kumar Committee, which submitted its report in 1975, recommended for setting up of an export-import Bank type institution to finance and promote exports of engineering goods and turnkey projects.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at the insistence of the Government of India, constituted a Committee to Review the Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development (CRAFICARD) to look into these very critical aspects.
The Committee was formed on 30 March 1979, under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, former member of Planning Commission, Government of India.
Its recommendation was formation of a unique development financial institution which would address these aspirations and formation of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was approved by the Parliament through Act 61 of 1981.
Incorrect
The B.D. Kumar Committee, which submitted its report in 1975, recommended for setting up of an export-import Bank type institution to finance and promote exports of engineering goods and turnkey projects.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at the insistence of the Government of India, constituted a Committee to Review the Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development (CRAFICARD) to look into these very critical aspects.
The Committee was formed on 30 March 1979, under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, former member of Planning Commission, Government of India.
Its recommendation was formation of a unique development financial institution which would address these aspirations and formation of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was approved by the Parliament through Act 61 of 1981.
- Question 16 of 16
16. Question
1 pointsThe “principles for responsible banking” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The banking sector plays a crucial role in promoting sustainable development.
It can lead the way to a more sustainable economy by lending to economic activities that yield the best return from society’s point of view and by guiding customers and stakeholders to manage social and environmental challenges and opportunities.
At UNEP FI, we work hand in hand with our member banks to increase lending that supports socially and environmentally sustainable economic activities.
The Principles for Responsible Banking are a unique framework for ensuring that signatory banks’ strategy and practice align with the vision society has set out for its future in the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Climate Agreement.
More than 185 banks have now joined this movement for change, leading the way towards a future in which the banking community makes the kind of positive contribution to people and the planet that society expects.
These banks represent more than a third of the global banking industry. This is a journey of unprecedented scale and scope at a time when such ambition is urgently needed.
Incorrect
The banking sector plays a crucial role in promoting sustainable development.
It can lead the way to a more sustainable economy by lending to economic activities that yield the best return from society’s point of view and by guiding customers and stakeholders to manage social and environmental challenges and opportunities.
At UNEP FI, we work hand in hand with our member banks to increase lending that supports socially and environmentally sustainable economic activities.
The Principles for Responsible Banking are a unique framework for ensuring that signatory banks’ strategy and practice align with the vision society has set out for its future in the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Climate Agreement.
More than 185 banks have now joined this movement for change, leading the way towards a future in which the banking community makes the kind of positive contribution to people and the planet that society expects.
These banks represent more than a third of the global banking industry. This is a journey of unprecedented scale and scope at a time when such ambition is urgently needed.
Financial Market– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Financial Market– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 16 July 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the capital and money markets, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The money market fulfils the requirements of funds for the period up to 364 days.
- The capital market fulfils the requirements of funds for the period above 364 days.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Financial markets in every economy are having two separate segments today, one catering to the requirements of short-term funds and the other to the requirements of long-term funds.
- The short-term financial market is known as the money market, while the long-term financial market is known as the capital market.
- The money market fulfils the requirements of funds for the period upto 364 days (i.e., short term) while the capital market does the same for the period above 364 days (i.e., long term).
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Financial markets in every economy are having two separate segments today, one catering to the requirements of short-term funds and the other to the requirements of long-term funds.
- The short-term financial market is known as the money market, while the long-term financial market is known as the capital market.
- The money market fulfils the requirements of funds for the period upto 364 days (i.e., short term) while the capital market does the same for the period above 364 days (i.e., long term).
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyIn money market, trading is done on a rate known as discount rate which is determined by?
Correct
Money market is the short-term financial market of an economy.
- In this market, money is traded between individuals or groups (i.e., financial institutions, banks, government, companies, etc.), who are either cash-surplus or cash-scarce.
- Trading is done on a rate known as discount rate which is determined by the market and guided by the availability of and demand for the cash in the day-to-day trading.
- The ‘repo rate’ of the time (announced by the RBI) works as the guiding rate for the current ‘discount rate’.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Money market is the short-term financial market of an economy.
- In this market, money is traded between individuals or groups (i.e., financial institutions, banks, government, companies, etc.), who are either cash-surplus or cash-scarce.
- Trading is done on a rate known as discount rate which is determined by the market and guided by the availability of and demand for the cash in the day-to-day trading.
- The ‘repo rate’ of the time (announced by the RBI) works as the guiding rate for the current ‘discount rate’.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following committees underlined the need and laid foundations for money market development in India?
Correct
The organised form of money market in India is just close to three decades old.
- However, its presence has been there, but restricted to the government only.
- It was the Chakravarthy Committee (1985) which, for the first time, underlined the need of an organised money market in the country and the Vahul Committee (1987) laid the blue print for its development.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The organised form of money market in India is just close to three decades old.
- However, its presence has been there, but restricted to the government only.
- It was the Chakravarthy Committee (1985) which, for the first time, underlined the need of an organised money market in the country and the Vahul Committee (1987) laid the blue print for its development.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“Marwari Kayas and Chettiars” terms are associated with which of the following?
Correct
Indigenous bankers receive deposits and lend money in the capacity of an individual or private firm. There are, basically, four such bankers in the country functioning as non-homogenous groups:
- Gujarati Shroffs: They operate in Mumbai, Kolkata as well as in industrial, trading and port cities in the region.
- Multani or Shikarpuri Shroffs: They operate in Mumbai, Kolkata, Assam tea gardens and North Eastern India.
- Marwari Kayas: They operate mainly in Gujarat with a little bit of presence in Mumbai and Kolkata.
- Chettiars: They are active in Chennai and at the ports of southern India.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Indigenous bankers receive deposits and lend money in the capacity of an individual or private firm. There are, basically, four such bankers in the country functioning as non-homogenous groups:
- Gujarati Shroffs: They operate in Mumbai, Kolkata as well as in industrial, trading and port cities in the region.
- Multani or Shikarpuri Shroffs: They operate in Mumbai, Kolkata, Assam tea gardens and North Eastern India.
- Marwari Kayas: They operate mainly in Gujarat with a little bit of presence in Mumbai and Kolkata.
- Chettiars: They are active in Chennai and at the ports of southern India.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following treasury bills is/are discontinued from money market?
- 14-day treasury bills
- 91-day treasury bills
- 182-day treasury bills
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Treasury Bills (TBs): This instrument of the money market though present since Independence got organised only in 1986. They are used by the Central Government to fulfill its short-term liquidity requirement up-to the period of 364 days. There developed five types of the TBs in due course of time:
- 14-day (Intermediate TBs)
- 14-day (Actionable TBs)
- 91-day TBs
- 182-day TBs
- 364-day TBs
Out of the above five variants of the TBs, at present only the 91-day TBs, 182-day TBs and the 364-day TBs are issued by the government. The other two variants were discontinued in 2001.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Treasury Bills (TBs): This instrument of the money market though present since Independence got organised only in 1986. They are used by the Central Government to fulfill its short-term liquidity requirement up-to the period of 364 days. There developed five types of the TBs in due course of time:
- 14-day (Intermediate TBs)
- 14-day (Actionable TBs)
- 91-day TBs
- 182-day TBs
- 364-day TBs
Out of the above five variants of the TBs, at present only the 91-day TBs, 182-day TBs and the 364-day TBs are issued by the government. The other two variants were discontinued in 2001.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are NOT correct about “Cash Management Bill (CMB)”?
- It is a short-term instrument issued by government to meet the temporary cash flow mismatches.
- These are issued for maturities less than 91 days.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, decided to issue a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills, since August 2009 to meet the temporary cash flow mismatches of the government.
- The Cash Management Bills are non-standard and discounted instruments issued for maturities less than 91 days.
- The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills (issued at discount to the face value); are tradable and qualify for ready forward facility; investment in it is considered as an eligible investment in government securities by banks for SLR.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, decided to issue a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills, since August 2009 to meet the temporary cash flow mismatches of the government.
- The Cash Management Bills are non-standard and discounted instruments issued for maturities less than 91 days.
- The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills (issued at discount to the face value); are tradable and qualify for ready forward facility; investment in it is considered as an eligible investment in government securities by banks for SLR.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is associated with which of the following?
Correct
The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is a common measure of market concentration and is used to determine market competitiveness, often pre- and post-Merger & Acquisition transactions.
- It is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm competing in a market and then summing the resulting numbers. It can range from close to zero to 10,000.
- Regulators use the HHI Index using the 50 largest companies in a particular industry to determine if that industry should be considered competitive or as close to being a monopoly.
Source: Investopedia
Incorrect
The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is a common measure of market concentration and is used to determine market competitiveness, often pre- and post-Merger & Acquisition transactions.
- It is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm competing in a market and then summing the resulting numbers. It can range from close to zero to 10,000.
- Regulators use the HHI Index using the 50 largest companies in a particular industry to determine if that industry should be considered competitive or as close to being a monopoly.
Source: Investopedia
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Currency Swap Arrangement:
- The exchange of currencies is determined by market determined exchange rate not on market rate.
- The disputes out of arrangement are settled within the countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Currency Swap Arrangement is an arrangement, between two friendly countries, which have regular, substantial or increasing trade, to basically involve in trading in their own local currencies, where both pay for import and export trade, at the pre-determined rates of exchange, without bringing in third country currency like the US Dollar.
- In such arrangements no third country currency is involved, thereby eliminating the need to worry about exchange variations.
- The swap arrangement (in 2018) is an agreement between India and Japan to essentially exchange and re-exchange a maximum amount of USD 75 Billion for domestic currency, for the purpose of maintaining an appropriate level of balance of payments for meeting short-term deficiency in foreign exchange.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Currency Swap Arrangement is an arrangement, between two friendly countries, which have regular, substantial or increasing trade, to basically involve in trading in their own local currencies, where both pay for import and export trade, at the pre-determined rates of exchange, without bringing in third country currency like the US Dollar.
- In such arrangements no third country currency is involved, thereby eliminating the need to worry about exchange variations.
- The swap arrangement (in 2018) is an agreement between India and Japan to essentially exchange and re-exchange a maximum amount of USD 75 Billion for domestic currency, for the purpose of maintaining an appropriate level of balance of payments for meeting short-term deficiency in foreign exchange.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has slapped restrictions on withdrawal on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank Ltd (PMC Bank), under which Act does the RBI has imposed restrictions?
Correct
The RBI has slapped restrictions on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank Ltd (PMC Bank). It has also appointed an administrator and superseded its board of directors.
- The PMC had been placed under ‘directions’ of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for six months, after irregularities had been found in lending.
- The RBI has issued directions in exercise of powers vested in it under sub section (1) of Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (AACS).
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The RBI has slapped restrictions on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank Ltd (PMC Bank). It has also appointed an administrator and superseded its board of directors.
- The PMC had been placed under ‘directions’ of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for six months, after irregularities had been found in lending.
- The RBI has issued directions in exercise of powers vested in it under sub section (1) of Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (AACS).
Source: The Hindu
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS):
- It is a tool used by commercial banks to reduce the liquidity and bringing the money market under control.
- It was initiated by Raghuram Rajan after financial crisis of 2008.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Market Stabilisation Scheme or MSS is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to suck out excess liquidity from the market through issue of securities like Treasury Bills, Dated Securities etc. on behalf of the government.
- The money raised under MSS is kept in a separate account called MSS Account and not parked in the government account or utilized to fund its expenditures.
- The Reserve Bank under Governor YV Reddy initiated the MSS scheme in 2004, to control the surge of US dollars in the Indian market; RBI started buying US dollars while pumping in rupee.
- This eventually led to over-supply of the domestic currency raising inflationary expectations. MSS was introduced to mop up this excess liquidity.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Market Stabilisation Scheme or MSS is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to suck out excess liquidity from the market through issue of securities like Treasury Bills, Dated Securities etc. on behalf of the government.
- The money raised under MSS is kept in a separate account called MSS Account and not parked in the government account or utilized to fund its expenditures.
- The Reserve Bank under Governor YV Reddy initiated the MSS scheme in 2004, to control the surge of US dollars in the Indian market; RBI started buying US dollars while pumping in rupee.
- This eventually led to over-supply of the domestic currency raising inflationary expectations. MSS was introduced to mop up this excess liquidity.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Financial Market– 2020 and Before that
Financial market
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- Question 1 of 14
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Repurchase (buyback) of Government securities:
1.It is a process whereby the Government of India and States buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
2.It can be used for infusion of liquidity in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Repurchase (buyback) of G-Secs is a process whereby the Government of India and State Governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
The objectives of buyback can be reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon securities), reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs market (by buying back illiquid securities) and infusion of liquidity in the system.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Repurchase (buyback) of G-Secs is a process whereby the Government of India and State Governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
The objectives of buyback can be reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon securities), reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs market (by buying back illiquid securities) and infusion of liquidity in the system. - Question 2 of 14
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA):
1.IFSCA is a statutory regulatory body.
2.It is empowered to exercise the powers of Reserve Bank of India in respect of the international financial services centres in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. International Financial Sevices Centres Authority (IFSCA) is a statutory unified regulatory body under the Department of Economic Affairs established by an Act of Parliament to develop and regulate the financial products, financial services and financial institutions located / performed in the International Financial Services Centres in India.
Statement 2 is correct. The Authority will function as a unified regulator and is empowered to exercise the powers of RBI, SEBI, IRDAI and PFRDA in respect of financial services, financial products and financial institutions performed/located in the international financial services centres in the country.
IFSCA has introduced a framework for “Regulatory Sandbox”. Under this, entities operating in the capital market, banking, insurance and financial services space shall be granted certain facilities and flexibilities to experiment with innovative FinTech solutions in a live environment with a limited set of real customers for a limited time frame.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. International Financial Sevices Centres Authority (IFSCA) is a statutory unified regulatory body under the Department of Economic Affairs established by an Act of Parliament to develop and regulate the financial products, financial services and financial institutions located / performed in the International Financial Services Centres in India.
Statement 2 is correct. The Authority will function as a unified regulator and is empowered to exercise the powers of RBI, SEBI, IRDAI and PFRDA in respect of financial services, financial products and financial institutions performed/located in the international financial services centres in the country.
IFSCA has introduced a framework for “Regulatory Sandbox”. Under this, entities operating in the capital market, banking, insurance and financial services space shall be granted certain facilities and flexibilities to experiment with innovative FinTech solutions in a live environment with a limited set of real customers for a limited time frame. - Question 3 of 14
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding International Financial Services Centre (IFSC):
1. An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy.
2. India’s first IFSC’s is being set up in GIFT City in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. Such centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. London, New York and Singapore can be counted as global financial centres.
An expert panel headed by former World Bank economist Percy Mistry submitted a report on making Mumbai an international financial centre in 2007. However, the global financial crisis that unfolded in 2008 made countries including India cautious about rapidly opening up their financial sectors.
Finance Minister announced in the Union Budget 2015 that India’s first IFSC’s would be set up in GIFT City in Gujarat.
# The United Kingdom has entered into a strategic partnership to develop India’s fledgling international financial services centre GIFT City, and agreed to set up a new Fund of Funds to be managed by the State Bank of India group in order to route U.K.’s future capital investments into India.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. Such centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. London, New York and Singapore can be counted as global financial centres.
An expert panel headed by former World Bank economist Percy Mistry submitted a report on making Mumbai an international financial centre in 2007. However, the global financial crisis that unfolded in 2008 made countries including India cautious about rapidly opening up their financial sectors.
Finance Minister announced in the Union Budget 2015 that India’s first IFSC’s would be set up in GIFT City in Gujarat.
# The United Kingdom has entered into a strategic partnership to develop India’s fledgling international financial services centre GIFT City, and agreed to set up a new Fund of Funds to be managed by the State Bank of India group in order to route U.K.’s future capital investments into India. - Question 4 of 14
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM):
1. The Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) has launched the GTAM on its platform.
2. The pan India GTAM benefits buyers of Renewable Energy through competitive prices and sellers by providing access to nation-wide market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Energy Exchange recently launched the GTAM on its power trading platform after receiving approval from the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).
The market will offer trade in four types of green term-ahead contracts -Green Intra-day contracts, Day-ahead Contingency contracts, Daily Contracts and Weekly contracts. There will be separate contracts for Solar and Non-Solar energy to facilitate Solar and Non-Solar Renewable Purchase Obligations fulfillment.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own renewable purchase obligations. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country.
The GTAM platform will lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Energy Exchange recently launched the GTAM on its power trading platform after receiving approval from the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).
The market will offer trade in four types of green term-ahead contracts -Green Intra-day contracts, Day-ahead Contingency contracts, Daily Contracts and Weekly contracts. There will be separate contracts for Solar and Non-Solar energy to facilitate Solar and Non-Solar Renewable Purchase Obligations fulfillment.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own renewable purchase obligations. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country.
The GTAM platform will lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market. - Question 5 of 14
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is a Negative Bond Yield?
Correct
A negative bond yield is when an investor receives less money at the bond’s maturity than the original purchase price for the bond.
A negative bond yield is an unusual situation in which issuers of debt are paid to borrow. In other words, the depositors, or buyers of bonds, are effectively paying the bond issuer a net amount at maturity instead of earning a return through interest income.
Negative-yield bonds attract investments during times of stress and uncertainty as investors look to protect their capital from significant erosion.
These are generally issued by central banks or governments, and investors pay interest to the borrower to keep their money with them.Incorrect
A negative bond yield is when an investor receives less money at the bond’s maturity than the original purchase price for the bond.
A negative bond yield is an unusual situation in which issuers of debt are paid to borrow. In other words, the depositors, or buyers of bonds, are effectively paying the bond issuer a net amount at maturity instead of earning a return through interest income.
Negative-yield bonds attract investments during times of stress and uncertainty as investors look to protect their capital from significant erosion.
These are generally issued by central banks or governments, and investors pay interest to the borrower to keep their money with them. - Question 6 of 14
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe market capitalization is the aggregate valuation of the company based on which
of the following?Correct
Market capitalization is the aggregate valuation of the company based on its
current share price and the total number of outstanding stocks. It is calculated by
multiplying the current market price of the company’s share with the total outstanding shares of the company.Incorrect
Market capitalization is the aggregate valuation of the company based on its
current share price and the total number of outstanding stocks. It is calculated by
multiplying the current market price of the company’s share with the total outstanding shares of the company. - Question 7 of 14
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Currency Swap Arrangement:
1. It is an arrangement, between two friendly countries, to basically involve in trading in
their own local currencies.
2. The exchange of currencies is determined by market (float) exchange rate.
3. The disputes (SWAP) are settled by third party intervention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Currency Swap Arrangement is an arrangement, between two friendly
countries, which have regular, substantial or increasing trade, to basically involve in
trading in their own local currencies, where both pay for import and export trade, at the
pre-determined rates of exchange, without bringing in third country currency like the
US Dollar.
•In such arrangements no third country currency is involved, thereby eliminating the
need to worry about exchange variations.
•The swap arrangement (in 2018) is an agreement between India and Japan to
essentially exchange and re-exchange a maximum amount of USD 75 Billion for
domestic currency, for the purpose of maintaining an appropriate level of balance of
payments for meeting short-term deficiency in foreign exchange.Incorrect
Currency Swap Arrangement is an arrangement, between two friendly
countries, which have regular, substantial or increasing trade, to basically involve in
trading in their own local currencies, where both pay for import and export trade, at the
pre-determined rates of exchange, without bringing in third country currency like the
US Dollar.
•In such arrangements no third country currency is involved, thereby eliminating the
need to worry about exchange variations.
•The swap arrangement (in 2018) is an agreement between India and Japan to
essentially exchange and re-exchange a maximum amount of USD 75 Billion for
domestic currency, for the purpose of maintaining an appropriate level of balance of
payments for meeting short-term deficiency in foreign exchange. - Question 8 of 14
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following enterprises is/are funded mostly under Venture Capital funds?
1. Start-ups.
2. Small and medium enterprises.
3. Large enterprises.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Venture capital funds are investment funds that manage the money of investors who seek private equity stakes in startup and small- to medium-sized enterprises with strong growth potential.
• These investments are generally characterized as high-risk/high-return opportunities.
• In the past, venture capital investments were only accessible to professional venture capitalists, although now accredited investors have a greater ability to take part in venture capital investments.Incorrect
Venture capital funds are investment funds that manage the money of investors who seek private equity stakes in startup and small- to medium-sized enterprises with strong growth potential.
• These investments are generally characterized as high-risk/high-return opportunities.
• In the past, venture capital investments were only accessible to professional venture capitalists, although now accredited investors have a greater ability to take part in venture capital investments. - Question 9 of 14
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Circuit breakers of stock market:
1. It halts trading in all equity and equity derivative markets nationwide for a specified time.
2. It is applicable to both Company stocks and individual stocks.
3. It is introduced by SEBI in 2018 to control unprecedented rise in Stock markets of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
In the stock markets, the circuit breaker halts trading in all equity and equity derivative markets nationwide for a specified time, when the index hits predefined levels.
• Circuit breakers are applicable for individual securities as well.
• The market regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced circuit breakers to curb severe market selling/volatility in the stock markets, with effect from July 2, 2001.
• The market-wide circuit breakers would be triggered by the movement of either BSE Sensex or NSE S&P CNX Nifty, whichever is breached earlier.
• Circuit breakers are triggered when either of the indices moves either ways (upside/downside) by 10 per cent or 15 per cent and 20 per cent, compared to the previous day’s closing level of the index.Incorrect
In the stock markets, the circuit breaker halts trading in all equity and equity derivative markets nationwide for a specified time, when the index hits predefined levels.
• Circuit breakers are applicable for individual securities as well.
• The market regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced circuit breakers to curb severe market selling/volatility in the stock markets, with effect from July 2, 2001.
• The market-wide circuit breakers would be triggered by the movement of either BSE Sensex or NSE S&P CNX Nifty, whichever is breached earlier.
• Circuit breakers are triggered when either of the indices moves either ways (upside/downside) by 10 per cent or 15 per cent and 20 per cent, compared to the previous day’s closing level of the index. - Question 10 of 14
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “Fear Index” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Created by the Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE), the Volatility Index, or VIX, is a real-time market index that represents the market’s expectation of 30-day forward-looking volatility.
• Derived from the price inputs of the S&P 500 index options, it provides a measure of market risk and investors’ sentiments.
• It is also known by other names like “Fear Gauge” or “Fear Index”.
• Investors, research analysts and portfolio managers look to VIX values as a way to measure market risk, fear and stress before they take investment decisions.Incorrect
Created by the Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE), the Volatility Index, or VIX, is a real-time market index that represents the market’s expectation of 30-day forward-looking volatility.
• Derived from the price inputs of the S&P 500 index options, it provides a measure of market risk and investors’ sentiments.
• It is also known by other names like “Fear Gauge” or “Fear Index”.
• Investors, research analysts and portfolio managers look to VIX values as a way to measure market risk, fear and stress before they take investment decisions. - Question 11 of 14
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term “Side Pocketing” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Simply put, side pocketing is a framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate portfolio within their debt schemes.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced the framework in December — primarily triggered by the IL&FS fiasco — after it emerged that many fund houses have huge exposure to the beleaguered entity and could potentially take a huge hit on their net asset value thereby affecting investor returns.
• If a debt instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be ring-fenced.
• Side pocketing segregates the bad assets from the good ones.
• All existing investors in the scheme are allotted equal number of units in the segregated portfolio as held in the main portfolio and no redemption or subscription is allowed in the segregated portfolio.
• Thereafter, the units have to be listed on a stock exchange within 10 days to facilitate exit of the unit holders.
• Effectively, this makes the price discovery of the bad assets a transparent procedure with investors having the freedom of either selling it at prevailing price or holding it if they expect the value to recover in futureIncorrect
Simply put, side pocketing is a framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate portfolio within their debt schemes.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced the framework in December — primarily triggered by the IL&FS fiasco — after it emerged that many fund houses have huge exposure to the beleaguered entity and could potentially take a huge hit on their net asset value thereby affecting investor returns.
• If a debt instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be ring-fenced.
• Side pocketing segregates the bad assets from the good ones.
• All existing investors in the scheme are allotted equal number of units in the segregated portfolio as held in the main portfolio and no redemption or subscription is allowed in the segregated portfolio.
• Thereafter, the units have to be listed on a stock exchange within 10 days to facilitate exit of the unit holders.
• Effectively, this makes the price discovery of the bad assets a transparent procedure with investors having the freedom of either selling it at prevailing price or holding it if they expect the value to recover in future - Question 12 of 14
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Municipal Bonds:
1.It is an equity instrument issued by local governing bodies across the world.
2.Lucknow Municipal Corporation has become the first urban local body in India to issue Municipal Bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. A municipal bond is a debt instrument issued by municipal corporations or associated bodies in India. These local governmental bodies utilize the funds raised through these bonds to finance projects for socio-economic development through building bridges, schools, hospitals, providing proper amenities to households, etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The INR 200 crore municipal bonds issue of the Lucknow Municipal Corporation (LMC) was listed at Bombay Stock Exchange recently.
With this, Lucknow has become the 9th city in the country to have raised municipal bonds, which has been incentivized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India under the mission AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation).
The Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation, in 1998, was the first to make a public offering. Since then, other local bodies in the cities of Nashik, Nagpur, Ludhiana, and Madurai, have also accessed the capital markets through municipal bonds.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. A municipal bond is a debt instrument issued by municipal corporations or associated bodies in India. These local governmental bodies utilize the funds raised through these bonds to finance projects for socio-economic development through building bridges, schools, hospitals, providing proper amenities to households, etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The INR 200 crore municipal bonds issue of the Lucknow Municipal Corporation (LMC) was listed at Bombay Stock Exchange recently.
With this, Lucknow has become the 9th city in the country to have raised municipal bonds, which has been incentivized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India under the mission AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation).
The Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation, in 1998, was the first to make a public offering. Since then, other local bodies in the cities of Nashik, Nagpur, Ludhiana, and Madurai, have also accessed the capital markets through municipal bonds. - Question 13 of 14
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is measured by the MSCI Indexes?
Correct
Morgan Stanley Capital International (MSCI) has set up many global indices, one of which is a composite of Indian stocks-the MSCI India index.
The MSCI Indexes are a measurement of stock market performance in a particular area. Like other indexes, such as the Dow Jones Averages or the S&P 500, it tracks the performance of the stocks included in the index.
MSCI has indexes for a variety of geographic sub-areas, as well as global indexes for stock categories such as small-cap, large-cap, and mid-cap. The four most popular track emerging markets, frontier markets, developed markets excluding the United States and Canada, and the world market.
# MSCI Inc will cut seven Chinese firms from some of its global indexes, it said recently, the third major index publisher after S&P Dow Jones Indices and FTSE Russell to do so following U.S. restrictions on owning the companies.Incorrect
Morgan Stanley Capital International (MSCI) has set up many global indices, one of which is a composite of Indian stocks-the MSCI India index.
The MSCI Indexes are a measurement of stock market performance in a particular area. Like other indexes, such as the Dow Jones Averages or the S&P 500, it tracks the performance of the stocks included in the index.
MSCI has indexes for a variety of geographic sub-areas, as well as global indexes for stock categories such as small-cap, large-cap, and mid-cap. The four most popular track emerging markets, frontier markets, developed markets excluding the United States and Canada, and the world market.
# MSCI Inc will cut seven Chinese firms from some of its global indexes, it said recently, the third major index publisher after S&P Dow Jones Indices and FTSE Russell to do so following U.S. restrictions on owning the companies. - Question 14 of 14
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Malegam Committee often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India formed a Sub-Committee of the Board to study matters and concerns in the microfinance sector insofar as they are related to the entities regulated by the Bank.
The Sub-Committee was under the chairmanship of Y.H. Malegam.
The terms of mention of the Sub-Committee included framing the description of ‘microfinance’ and ‘Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs)’ for the point of regulation of non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) undertaking microfinance by the Reserve Bank of India and giving proper recommendations.
Also, the committee had to look at the widespread activities of MFIs in relation to interest rates, lending and recovery measures to identify trends that impose on borrowers’ interests.
Incorrect
The Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India formed a Sub-Committee of the Board to study matters and concerns in the microfinance sector insofar as they are related to the entities regulated by the Bank.
The Sub-Committee was under the chairmanship of Y.H. Malegam.
The terms of mention of the Sub-Committee included framing the description of ‘microfinance’ and ‘Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs)’ for the point of regulation of non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) undertaking microfinance by the Reserve Bank of India and giving proper recommendations.
Also, the committee had to look at the widespread activities of MFIs in relation to interest rates, lending and recovery measures to identify trends that impose on borrowers’ interests.
Five Year Plans and Economic Reforms– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Five Year Plans and Economic Reforms– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Five Year Plans and Economic Reforms– 2020 and Before that
Five year Plans and Economic Reforms in India
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- Question 1 of 14
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Industrial Information System (IIS) portal:
1.It has been developed by the Department for promotion of Industry & Internal Trade.
2.It provides real time information on the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in different industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Department for promotion of Industry & Internal Trade has developed Industrial Information System (IIS) portal, a GIS-enabled database of industrial areas/clusters across the country to adopt a committed approach towards resource optimization, industrial upgradation and sustainability.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Industrial Information System (IIS) aims to provide:
-Information on available land for prospective investors looking at setting up units in the Country
-GIS Mapping of Industrial Clusters
-The system also holds the information about the existing External and Internal Infrastructure such as rail, road, air and port connectivity and other common facilities in and around the manufacturing clusters
-Links to State GIS Portals and State Land Banks
At present, the database covers more than 3,350 parks/clusters covering about 475,000 hectares land across 31 States/UTs.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Department for promotion of Industry & Internal Trade has developed Industrial Information System (IIS) portal, a GIS-enabled database of industrial areas/clusters across the country to adopt a committed approach towards resource optimization, industrial upgradation and sustainability.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Industrial Information System (IIS) aims to provide:
-Information on available land for prospective investors looking at setting up units in the Country
-GIS Mapping of Industrial Clusters
-The system also holds the information about the existing External and Internal Infrastructure such as rail, road, air and port connectivity and other common facilities in and around the manufacturing clusters
-Links to State GIS Portals and State Land Banks
At present, the database covers more than 3,350 parks/clusters covering about 475,000 hectares land across 31 States/UTs. - Question 2 of 14
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National GIS-enabled Land Bank system:
1.It aims to provide real-time information about the availability of industrial land and resources.
2.The system is being developed by integration of Industrial Information System (IIS) with State GIS Systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Commerce and Industry Minister recently launched the National GIS-enabled land bank system prototype for six states with more states to be added in future. The Land Bank information system will help investors to get real-time information about the availability of industrial land and resources.
The system is being developed by integration of Industrial Information System (IIS) with State GIS Systems. This is a prototype only and will be developed further with inputs from states, to make it an effective, transparent mechanism of land identification and procurement.
IIS portal is a GIS-enabled database of industrial areas/clusters across the states. More than 3,300 industrial parks across 31 States/UTs covering about 475,000 hectares land have been mapped on the System. Information available includes forest, drainage; raw material heat maps (agricultural, horticulture, mineral layers); multiple layers of connectivity.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Commerce and Industry Minister recently launched the National GIS-enabled land bank system prototype for six states with more states to be added in future. The Land Bank information system will help investors to get real-time information about the availability of industrial land and resources.
The system is being developed by integration of Industrial Information System (IIS) with State GIS Systems. This is a prototype only and will be developed further with inputs from states, to make it an effective, transparent mechanism of land identification and procurement.
IIS portal is a GIS-enabled database of industrial areas/clusters across the states. More than 3,300 industrial parks across 31 States/UTs covering about 475,000 hectares land have been mapped on the System. Information available includes forest, drainage; raw material heat maps (agricultural, horticulture, mineral layers); multiple layers of connectivity. - Question 3 of 14
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA Scheme:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. SVAMITVA Scheme is a Central Sector scheme.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme.
In the States, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department will be the Nodal
Department and shall carry out the scheme with support of State Panchayati Raj
Department. Survey of India shall work as the technology partner for implementation.Statement 2 is correct. The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. The demarcation of rural abadi areas would be done using Drone Surveying technology.
The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives:
–To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.
–Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.
–Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.
–Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.
–To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.
–To reduce property related disputes and legal casesIncorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. SVAMITVA Scheme is a Central Sector scheme.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme.
In the States, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department will be the Nodal
Department and shall carry out the scheme with support of State Panchayati Raj
Department. Survey of India shall work as the technology partner for implementation.Statement 2 is correct. The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. The demarcation of rural abadi areas would be done using Drone Surveying technology.
The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives:
–To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.
–Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.
–Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.
–Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.
–To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.
–To reduce property related disputes and legal cases - Question 4 of 14
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is the utility of the e-Dharti Geo Portal?
Correct
e-Dharti Geo Portal is GIS based mapping of each and every Government
property under Land & Development Office (L&DO), whether it is allotted or still lying vacant. Through this portal the Lessee of the property will be able to see the basic details of
his/her property along with map showing its location.
The L&DO has devised a property certificate incorporating details and the outline map of
the property which is available online on the portal.Incorrect
e-Dharti Geo Portal is GIS based mapping of each and every Government
property under Land & Development Office (L&DO), whether it is allotted or still lying vacant. Through this portal the Lessee of the property will be able to see the basic details of
his/her property along with map showing its location.
The L&DO has devised a property certificate incorporating details and the outline map of
the property which is available online on the portal. - Question 5 of 14
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Fifth five-year plan’?
1. The time period for Fifth five-year plan was 1974-79.
2. Plan focus was on poverty alleviation and self-reliance.
3. Plan was abruptly ended before completing its tenure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The fifth Plan (1974–79) has its focus on poverty alleviation and self-reliance. The Janata Party came to power with a thumping victory in 1977.
As the government of the time had then complete say in the central planning in India, how could the new government continue with the Fifth Plan of the last government which had still more than one year to reach its completion.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The fifth Plan (1974–79) has its focus on poverty alleviation and self-reliance. The Janata Party came to power with a thumping victory in 1977.
As the government of the time had then complete say in the central planning in India, how could the new government continue with the Fifth Plan of the last government which had still more than one year to reach its completion.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 6 of 14
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the ‘District Rural Development Agency (DRDA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was established in1990.
2. It has been the principal organ at the district level to oversee the implementation of different poverty alleviation programmes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) has traditionally been the principal organ at the District level to oversee the implementation of different poverty alleviation programmes. The Centre established DRDA in 1980.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) has traditionally been the principal organ at the District level to oversee the implementation of different poverty alleviation programmes. The Centre established DRDA in 1980.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 7 of 14
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding “Service Area Approach (SAA)”:
1. It was introduced in sixth five-year plan for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas.
2. It is applicable to Scheduled Commercial Banks only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Service Area Approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 (7th five-year plan) for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas was applicable to all scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks.
· Under SAA, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area.
· The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels.
· The SAA scheme was reviewed from time to time and appropriate changes were made in the scheme to make it more effective.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Service Area Approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 (7th five-year plan) for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas was applicable to all scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks.
· Under SAA, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area.
· The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels.
· The SAA scheme was reviewed from time to time and appropriate changes were made in the scheme to make it more effective.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 8 of 14
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Effective Tax Rate”:
1. The effective tax rate for a corporation is the average rate at which its pre-tax profits are taxed.
2. Effective tax rate represents the percentage of their taxable income that individuals have to pay in taxes.
3. The effective tax rate is a more accurate representation of a person’s or corporations overall tax liability than their marginal tax rate, and it is typically lower.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The effective tax rate is the average tax rate paid by an individual or a corporation.
· The effective tax rate for individuals is the average rate at which their earned income, such as wages, and unearned income, such as stock dividends, is taxed.
· The effective tax rate for a corporation is the average rate at which its pre-tax profits are taxed, while the statutory tax rate is the legal percentage established by law.
· The effective tax rate is a more accurate representation of a person’s or corporations overall tax liability than their marginal tax rate, and it is typically lower.
· When considering a marginal versus an effective tax rate, bear in mind that the marginal tax rate refers to the highest tax bracket into which their income falls.
Source: Sriram’s IAS
Incorrect
The effective tax rate is the average tax rate paid by an individual or a corporation.
· The effective tax rate for individuals is the average rate at which their earned income, such as wages, and unearned income, such as stock dividends, is taxed.
· The effective tax rate for a corporation is the average rate at which its pre-tax profits are taxed, while the statutory tax rate is the legal percentage established by law.
· The effective tax rate is a more accurate representation of a person’s or corporations overall tax liability than their marginal tax rate, and it is typically lower.
· When considering a marginal versus an effective tax rate, bear in mind that the marginal tax rate refers to the highest tax bracket into which their income falls.
Source: Sriram’s IAS
- Question 9 of 14
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following plan is associated with P C Mahalanobis?
Correct
The second five-year plan period was 1956–61. The strategy of growth laid emphasis on rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy industries and capital goods.
· The plan was developed by Professor Mahalanobis.
· Due to the assumption of a closed economy, shortages of food and capital were felt during this Plan.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The second five-year plan period was 1956–61. The strategy of growth laid emphasis on rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy industries and capital goods.
· The plan was developed by Professor Mahalanobis.
· Due to the assumption of a closed economy, shortages of food and capital were felt during this Plan.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 10 of 14
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Gadgil Strategy is associated with which of the following plan?
Correct
The fourth five-year Plan period was 1969–74.
· The Plan was based on the Gadgil strategy with special focus to the ideas of growth with stability and progress towards self-reliance.
· Droughts and the Indo-Pak War of 1971–72 led the economy to capital diversions creating financial crunch for the Plan.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The fourth five-year Plan period was 1969–74.
· The Plan was based on the Gadgil strategy with special focus to the ideas of growth with stability and progress towards self-reliance.
· Droughts and the Indo-Pak War of 1971–72 led the economy to capital diversions creating financial crunch for the Plan.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 11 of 14
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the rolling plan, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was introduced by Indira Gandhi.
2. The rolling plan rejected the sixth five-year Plan of the preceding Janata government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The rolling plan was introduced by the Janata party which formed a government led by Moraarji Desai.
· The rolling plan rejected the Fifth five-year Plan of the preceding Congress government and then launched the rolling plan that could be revised as per the needs of the economy due to the inherent flexibility in the plan.
· Frequent revision of targets reduced accountability and also adversely affected the stability in the economy.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The rolling plan was introduced by the Janata party which formed a government led by Moraarji Desai.
· The rolling plan rejected the Fifth five-year Plan of the preceding Congress government and then launched the rolling plan that could be revised as per the needs of the economy due to the inherent flexibility in the plan.
· Frequent revision of targets reduced accountability and also adversely affected the stability in the economy.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 12 of 14
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“Washington Consensus” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Washington Consensus is a collective term used for 10 economic policy prescriptions (economic reforms) as a part of a “standard” reform package promoted for crisis-wracked developing countries.
Washington Consensus was advocated by Washington, D.C.-based institutions viz. International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, and the US Treasury Department.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Washington Consensus is a collective term used for 10 economic policy prescriptions (economic reforms) as a part of a “standard” reform package promoted for crisis-wracked developing countries.
Washington Consensus was advocated by Washington, D.C.-based institutions viz. International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, and the US Treasury Department.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 13 of 14
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Extended Fund Facility (EFF):
1. It is lending facility of the World Bank.
2. It was established to help countries to overcome poverty restraints.
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Extended Fund Facility is lending facility of the Fund of the IMF and it was established in 1974 to help countries address medium- and longer-term balance of payments problems.
· The EFF is prescribed for a country who is suffering from balance of payment problem caused by structural weaknesses and who need fundamental economic reforms.
· The use of the facility has increased substantially in the recent crisis period.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Extended Fund Facility is lending facility of the Fund of the IMF and it was established in 1974 to help countries address medium- and longer-term balance of payments problems.
· The EFF is prescribed for a country who is suffering from balance of payment problem caused by structural weaknesses and who need fundamental economic reforms.
· The use of the facility has increased substantially in the recent crisis period.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 14 of 14
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following methods is/are comes under privatization?
1. Sale of public enterprises to private sector.
2. Disinvestment of public enterprise equity.
3. Participation of private sector in management in public sector enterprises.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Privatization is the process of transferring an enterprise or industry from the public sector to the private sector.
· The public sector is the part of the economic system that is run by government agencies.
· Privatization may involve either sale of government-held assets or removal of restrictions preventing private individuals and businesses from participating in a given industry.
· Privatization is an ongoing trend in many parts of the developed and developing world. Proponents of privatization maintain that the competition in the private sector fosters more efficient practices, which eventually yield better service and products, lower prices and less corruption.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Privatization is the process of transferring an enterprise or industry from the public sector to the private sector.
· The public sector is the part of the economic system that is run by government agencies.
· Privatization may involve either sale of government-held assets or removal of restrictions preventing private individuals and businesses from participating in a given industry.
· Privatization is an ongoing trend in many parts of the developed and developing world. Proponents of privatization maintain that the competition in the private sector fosters more efficient practices, which eventually yield better service and products, lower prices and less corruption.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Agriculture– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Agriculture– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Industries and Industrial Policies– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Industries and Industrial Policies– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Industries and Industrial Policies– 2020 and Before that
Industries and Industrial policies
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):
1.It is a monthly production volume index.
2.It is released by Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index, measuring monthly changes in the output of industry. ICI measures collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity.
Statement 2 is correct. It is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
# The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
# India’s eight core industrial sectors contracted by 8.5% in August compared to August 2019, marking the sixth month in a row of shrinking output.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index, measuring monthly changes in the output of industry. ICI measures collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity.
Statement 2 is correct. It is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
# The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
# India’s eight core industrial sectors contracted by 8.5% in August compared to August 2019, marking the sixth month in a row of shrinking output. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
1.It is an indicator of business activity based exclusively on the value of change in production volume.
2.PMI value above 50 denotes expansion in business activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement1 is incorrect. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The most common PMI surveys are the manufacturing PMI and the services PMI.
It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before.
The most common elements include: New orders, Factory output, Employment, Suppliers’ delivery times and Stocks of purchases.
The most common answers include: Improvement, No change and Deterioration.
Statement 2 is correct. A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity. Anything below 50 denotes contraction. Higher the difference from this mid-point greater is the expansion or contraction.Incorrect
Statement1 is incorrect. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The most common PMI surveys are the manufacturing PMI and the services PMI.
It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before.
The most common elements include: New orders, Factory output, Employment, Suppliers’ delivery times and Stocks of purchases.
The most common answers include: Improvement, No change and Deterioration.
Statement 2 is correct. A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity. Anything below 50 denotes contraction. Higher the difference from this mid-point greater is the expansion or contraction. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
1. It is a direct measure of the retail inflation prevalent in the economy.
2. A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change in the economic condition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The most common PMI surveys are the manufacturing PMI and the services PMI.
The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
The most common elements include: New orders, Factory output, Employment, Suppliers’ delivery times, Stocks of purchases.
The most common answers include: Improvement, No change, Deterioration.
Statement 2 is correct. The headline PMI is a number from 0 to 100. A PMI above 50 represents an expansion when compared with the previous month. A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change. The further away from 50 the greater the level of change.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The most common PMI surveys are the manufacturing PMI and the services PMI.
The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
The most common elements include: New orders, Factory output, Employment, Suppliers’ delivery times, Stocks of purchases.
The most common answers include: Improvement, No change, Deterioration.
Statement 2 is correct. The headline PMI is a number from 0 to 100. A PMI above 50 represents an expansion when compared with the previous month. A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change. The further away from 50 the greater the level of change. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Electronics Manufacturing:
1.It provides a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain in India.
2.The scheme covers all electronics items manufacturing in India except mobile phones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain including electronic components and semiconductor packaging.
Incentive: The Scheme extends an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the base year 2019-20.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Scheme is only applicable for target segments namely mobile phones and specified electronic components.
Specified Electronic Components: SMT components, Discrete semiconductor devices including transistors, diodes, thyristors, etc., Passive components including resistors, capacitors, etc. for electronic applications, Printed Circuit Boards (PCB), PCB laminates, prepregs, photopolymer films, PCB printing inks, Sensors, transducers, actuators, crystals for electronic applications, System in Package (SIP), Micro or Nano-electronic components such as Micro Electromechanical Systems (MEMS) and Nano Electromechanical Systems (NEMS), and Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain including electronic components and semiconductor packaging.
Incentive: The Scheme extends an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the base year 2019-20.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Scheme is only applicable for target segments namely mobile phones and specified electronic components.
Specified Electronic Components: SMT components, Discrete semiconductor devices including transistors, diodes, thyristors, etc., Passive components including resistors, capacitors, etc. for electronic applications, Printed Circuit Boards (PCB), PCB laminates, prepregs, photopolymer films, PCB printing inks, Sensors, transducers, actuators, crystals for electronic applications, System in Package (SIP), Micro or Nano-electronic components such as Micro Electromechanical Systems (MEMS) and Nano Electromechanical Systems (NEMS), and Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
1. Manufacturing sector has highest weightage in IIP calculation.
2. Base year for current IIP calculations is 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Quick Estimates of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are released on 12th of every month (or previous working day if 12th is a holiday) with a six weeks lag and compiled with data received from source agencies, who in turn receive the data from the producing factories/ establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The weightage of Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity production in overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is 77.63 per cent, 14.37 per cent and 7.99 per cent respectively.
Statement 2 is correct. There have been nine revision of base year of all-India IIP since the beginning of its dissemination with first being 1937. Currently base year for IIP calculations is 2011-12.Incorrect
The Quick Estimates of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are released on 12th of every month (or previous working day if 12th is a holiday) with a six weeks lag and compiled with data received from source agencies, who in turn receive the data from the producing factories/ establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The weightage of Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity production in overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is 77.63 per cent, 14.37 per cent and 7.99 per cent respectively.
Statement 2 is correct. There have been nine revision of base year of all-India IIP since the beginning of its dissemination with first being 1937. Currently base year for IIP calculations is 2011-12. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following program(s) provide impetus to mobile phone manufacturing in India?
1. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI)
2. Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing offers a production linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components, including Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.
Option 2 is correct. The The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology had notified ‘Phased Manufacturing Programme for cellular mobile handsets and sub-assemblies/ parts thereof’ with the objective of substantially increasing the domestic value addition for establishment of arobust Cellular mobile handsets manufacturing eco-system in India. It promotes domestic production of mobile phones by providing tax relief and other incentives on components and accessories used for the devices.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing offers a production linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components, including Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.
Option 2 is correct. The The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology had notified ‘Phased Manufacturing Programme for cellular mobile handsets and sub-assemblies/ parts thereof’ with the objective of substantially increasing the domestic value addition for establishment of arobust Cellular mobile handsets manufacturing eco-system in India. It promotes domestic production of mobile phones by providing tax relief and other incentives on components and accessories used for the devices. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following organization conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)?
Correct
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation. ASI is principal source of industrial statistics in India.
The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is the principal source of industrial statistics in India. It provides statistical information to assess and evaluate, objectively and realistically, the changes in the growth, composition and structure of organized manufacturing sector comprising activities related to manufacturing processes, repair services, gas and water supply and cold storage.
From ASI 2010-11 onwards, the survey is being conducted annually under the statutory provisions of the Collection of Statistics (COS) Act, 2008.Incorrect
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation. ASI is principal source of industrial statistics in India.
The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is the principal source of industrial statistics in India. It provides statistical information to assess and evaluate, objectively and realistically, the changes in the growth, composition and structure of organized manufacturing sector comprising activities related to manufacturing processes, repair services, gas and water supply and cold storage.
From ASI 2010-11 onwards, the survey is being conducted annually under the statutory provisions of the Collection of Statistics (COS) Act, 2008. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘Regulatory Sandbox’?
Correct
A regulatory sandbox (RS) usually refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test regulatory environment for which regulators may (or may not) permit certain regulatory relaxations for the limited purpose of the testing.
It allows the regulator, the innovators, the financial service providers (as potential deployers of the technology) and the customers (as final users) to conduct field tests to collect evidence on the benefits and risks of new financial innovations, while carefully monitoring and containing their risks.Incorrect
A regulatory sandbox (RS) usually refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test regulatory environment for which regulators may (or may not) permit certain regulatory relaxations for the limited purpose of the testing.
It allows the regulator, the innovators, the financial service providers (as potential deployers of the technology) and the customers (as final users) to conduct field tests to collect evidence on the benefits and risks of new financial innovations, while carefully monitoring and containing their risks. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS):
1.The Scheme is a specific response to the unprecedented situation of COVID-19 pandemic.
2.The National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) provides hundred percent guarantee for loans under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) has been formulated as a specific response to the unprecedented situation caused by COVID-19 and the consequent lockdown, which has severely impacted manufacturing and other activities in the MSME sector.
The Scheme aims at mitigating the economic distress being faced by MSMEs by providing them additional funding of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores in the form of a fully guaranteed emergency credit line.
Under the Scheme, 100% guarantee coverage is provided by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) for additional funding of up to Rs. three lakh crores to eligible MSMEs and interested MUDRA borrowers, in the form of a Guaranteed Emergency Credit Line (GECL) facility.
The GECL is a loan for which 100% guarantee would be provided by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) has been formulated as a specific response to the unprecedented situation caused by COVID-19 and the consequent lockdown, which has severely impacted manufacturing and other activities in the MSME sector.
The Scheme aims at mitigating the economic distress being faced by MSMEs by providing them additional funding of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores in the form of a fully guaranteed emergency credit line.
Under the Scheme, 100% guarantee coverage is provided by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) for additional funding of up to Rs. three lakh crores to eligible MSMEs and interested MUDRA borrowers, in the form of a Guaranteed Emergency Credit Line (GECL) facility.
The GECL is a loan for which 100% guarantee would be provided by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs). - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP) ranking of states in India:
1. The 2019 BRAP ranking is first ever edition based on the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the top performer state under 2019 rankings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2019 rankings are the 4th edition of Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP) ranking of states.
Ranking of States based on the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan started in the year 2015. Till date, State Rankings have been released for the years 2015, 2016 and 2017-18.
The Business Reform Action Plan 2018-19 includes 180 reform points covering 12 business regulatory areas such as Access to Information, Single Window System, Labour, Environment, etc.
The larger objective of attracting investments and increasing Ease of Doing Business in each State was sought to be achieved by introducing an element of healthy competition through a system of ranking states based on their performance in the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan.
Statement 2 is correct. The top ten states under State Reform Action Plan 2019 are:
Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal and Gujarat.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2019 rankings are the 4th edition of Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP) ranking of states.
Ranking of States based on the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan started in the year 2015. Till date, State Rankings have been released for the years 2015, 2016 and 2017-18.
The Business Reform Action Plan 2018-19 includes 180 reform points covering 12 business regulatory areas such as Access to Information, Single Window System, Labour, Environment, etc.
The larger objective of attracting investments and increasing Ease of Doing Business in each State was sought to be achieved by introducing an element of healthy competition through a system of ranking states based on their performance in the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan.
Statement 2 is correct. The top ten states under State Reform Action Plan 2019 are:
Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal and Gujarat. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Doing Business Report:
1. It is a World Bank Group flagship publication measuring the regulations that enhance and constrain business activity.
2. It covers enforcing contracts and resolving insolvency, areas of business regulation in countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Doing Business is a World Bank Group flagship publication, it is a series of annual studies measuring the regulations that enhance business activity and those that constrain it. Doing Business presents quantitative indicators on business regulations and the protection of property rights that can be compared across 190 economies—from Afghanistan to Zimbabwe—and over time.
Statement 2 is correct. Doing Business covers 12 areas of business regulation. Ten of these areas—starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency.
Doing Business also measures regulation on employing workers and contracting with the government, which are not included in the ease of doing business score and ranking.
# The World Bank has paused the publication of its ‘Doing Business’ report because of statistical irregularities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Doing Business is a World Bank Group flagship publication, it is a series of annual studies measuring the regulations that enhance business activity and those that constrain it. Doing Business presents quantitative indicators on business regulations and the protection of property rights that can be compared across 190 economies—from Afghanistan to Zimbabwe—and over time.
Statement 2 is correct. Doing Business covers 12 areas of business regulation. Ten of these areas—starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency.
Doing Business also measures regulation on employing workers and contracting with the government, which are not included in the ease of doing business score and ranking.
# The World Bank has paused the publication of its ‘Doing Business’ report because of statistical irregularities. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. The Commission functions as a market regulator by preventing and regulating anti-competitive practices in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Post liberalization in the early nineties there was a paradigm shift from a regime of command and control to a facilitating regime with increased reliance on market forces.
It also led to the enactment of the Competition Act 2002 and establishment of the Competition Commission of India to lay the foundation of a competition ecosystem in the country. It replaced its predecessor the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
Statement 2 is correct. The Commission functions as a market regulator by preventing and regulating anti-competitive practices in the country. It also carries out advisory and advocacy functions. The objectives of the Commission as given under Section 18 of the Act are:
–to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition,
–to promote and sustain competition in markets,
–to protect the interests of consumers, and
–to ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets in India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Post liberalization in the early nineties there was a paradigm shift from a regime of command and control to a facilitating regime with increased reliance on market forces.
It also led to the enactment of the Competition Act 2002 and establishment of the Competition Commission of India to lay the foundation of a competition ecosystem in the country. It replaced its predecessor the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
Statement 2 is correct. The Commission functions as a market regulator by preventing and regulating anti-competitive practices in the country. It also carries out advisory and advocacy functions. The objectives of the Commission as given under Section 18 of the Act are:
–to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition,
–to promote and sustain competition in markets,
–to protect the interests of consumers, and
–to ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets in India. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Tourism sector of India:
1.Uttar Pradesh had maximum share of domestic tourists in 2019.
2.Among the foreign tourists’ arrival in India, Medical visitors were more than the Business and professional visitors in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Ministry of Tourism brings out an Annual Publication called “India Tourism Statistics” every year giving details of international and domestic tourism, including details about the classified hotels etc. In addition, “Tourism Statistics at a Glance” is also brought out, giving updated and latest key statistical data.
Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh has drawn the highest number of domestic tourists in 2019, leaving Tamil Nadu behind. Last year UP was at number two.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In the purpose-wise Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India in 2019, Leisure Holiday and recreation topped followed by Business and Professionals visitors.Incorrect
The Ministry of Tourism brings out an Annual Publication called “India Tourism Statistics” every year giving details of international and domestic tourism, including details about the classified hotels etc. In addition, “Tourism Statistics at a Glance” is also brought out, giving updated and latest key statistical data.
Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh has drawn the highest number of domestic tourists in 2019, leaving Tamil Nadu behind. Last year UP was at number two.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In the purpose-wise Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India in 2019, Leisure Holiday and recreation topped followed by Business and Professionals visitors. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Core sector of the economy:
1.Eight Core Industries comprise more than half of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
2.Refinery Products has the highest weightage in the Index of Eight Core Industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index. ICI measures collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity.
It is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Statement 2 is correct. Refinery Products has highest weightage in Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI).Incorrect
The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index. ICI measures collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity.
It is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Statement 2 is correct. Refinery Products has highest weightage in Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI). - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is a Sunrise Industry?
Correct
Emerging industry that is gaining favor with investors and is expected to be an engine of future economic growth through steadily rising generation of employment and profits is referred colloquially as Sunrise Industry.
A sunrise industry is a new business or business sector showing potential for substantial and rapid growth.
Notable characteristics of sunrise industries include high-growth rates and a lot of start-ups and venture capital funding.Incorrect
Emerging industry that is gaining favor with investors and is expected to be an engine of future economic growth through steadily rising generation of employment and profits is referred colloquially as Sunrise Industry.
A sunrise industry is a new business or business sector showing potential for substantial and rapid growth.
Notable characteristics of sunrise industries include high-growth rates and a lot of start-ups and venture capital funding. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Chunauti”- Next Generation Startup Challenge Contest:
1.It has been launched by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the PM- Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC).
2.The selected startups will be provided support from the Government through Software Technology Parks of India centers across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology recently launched “Chunauti”- Next Generation Startup Challenge Contest to further boost startups and software products with special focus on Tier-II towns of India.
Statement 2 is correct. It aims to identify around 300 startups working in identified areas such as Edu-Tech, Agri-Tech, Logistics & Transportation Management, Infrastructure & Remote monitoring, Medical Healthcare, Jobs & Skilling, Linguistic tools & technologies etc. and provide them seed fund of upto Rs. 25 Lakh and other facilities.
The startups selected through Chunauti will be provided various kinds of support from the Government through Software Technology Parks of India centers across India. They will get incubation facilities, mentorship, security testing facilities, access to venture capitalist funding, industry connect as well as advisories in legal, Human Resource (HR), IPR and Patent matters.
The startups will also be provided cloud credits from leading cloud service providers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology recently launched “Chunauti”- Next Generation Startup Challenge Contest to further boost startups and software products with special focus on Tier-II towns of India.
Statement 2 is correct. It aims to identify around 300 startups working in identified areas such as Edu-Tech, Agri-Tech, Logistics & Transportation Management, Infrastructure & Remote monitoring, Medical Healthcare, Jobs & Skilling, Linguistic tools & technologies etc. and provide them seed fund of upto Rs. 25 Lakh and other facilities.
The startups selected through Chunauti will be provided various kinds of support from the Government through Software Technology Parks of India centers across India. They will get incubation facilities, mentorship, security testing facilities, access to venture capitalist funding, industry connect as well as advisories in legal, Human Resource (HR), IPR and Patent matters.
The startups will also be provided cloud credits from leading cloud service providers. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Steel production and
consumption of India”?
1. India is the third largest steel producing country in the world after china and USA.
2. In the last ten years there is a continuous increase in the per capita consumption of
steel in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Steel production and consumption of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India stood at second position in the production of crude
steel. It is also the third largest consumer of the finished steel after China and USA.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The per capita consumption of steel in India is 74.1 kg during
2018-19. The per capita consumption was increased in last ten years except 2013-14.
Incorrect
Steel production and consumption of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India stood at second position in the production of crude
steel. It is also the third largest consumer of the finished steel after China and USA.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The per capita consumption of steel in India is 74.1 kg during
2018-19. The per capita consumption was increased in last ten years except 2013-14.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “steel sector in India”:
1. India is the 2nd largest producer of crude steel in the world from 2017 onwards.
2. The per-capita consumption of finished steel in India is less than world average.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
In CY 2019, the world crude steel production reached 1870 million tonnes (mt) and showed a growth of 3.4% over CY 2018.
• China remained world’s largest crude steel producer in same period (996 mt) followed by India (111mt), Japan (99mt) and the USA (88mt).
• Per capita finished steel consumption in 2018 was 224.5 kg for world and 590.1 kg for China (Source: World Steel Association).
• The same for India was 73.3 kg in 2018 (Source: JPC) and 75.7 kg (provisional) in 2019.The per capita consumption of India in 2018-19 was 74.1 kg and that in 2019-20 was 74.6 kg (prov.)
The Indian steel industry has entered into a new development stage, post de-regulation, riding high on the resurgent economy and rising demand for steel.
• Rapid rise in production has resulted in India becoming the 2nd largest producer of crude steel during 2018 and 2019 (prov), from its 3rd largest status in 2017.
• The country was also the largest producer of Sponge Iron or DRI in the world and the 3rd largest finished steel consumer in the world after China & USA in 2019 (prov.)Incorrect
In CY 2019, the world crude steel production reached 1870 million tonnes (mt) and showed a growth of 3.4% over CY 2018.
• China remained world’s largest crude steel producer in same period (996 mt) followed by India (111mt), Japan (99mt) and the USA (88mt).
• Per capita finished steel consumption in 2018 was 224.5 kg for world and 590.1 kg for China (Source: World Steel Association).
• The same for India was 73.3 kg in 2018 (Source: JPC) and 75.7 kg (provisional) in 2019.The per capita consumption of India in 2018-19 was 74.1 kg and that in 2019-20 was 74.6 kg (prov.)
The Indian steel industry has entered into a new development stage, post de-regulation, riding high on the resurgent economy and rising demand for steel.
• Rapid rise in production has resulted in India becoming the 2nd largest producer of crude steel during 2018 and 2019 (prov), from its 3rd largest status in 2017.
• The country was also the largest producer of Sponge Iron or DRI in the world and the 3rd largest finished steel consumer in the world after China & USA in 2019 (prov.) - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Startups in India:
1. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Delhi are the top three performers in terms of State-wise
distribution of recognized startups in India.
2. As per industry-wide distribution of recognized startups, Healthcare and life sciences
tops the list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Startups drive economic growth, create employment and foster a culture of
innovation. In order to promote innovation and entrepreneurship among enterprising youth, the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India had announced the “Startup India, Stand-up India”
initiative on August 15, 2015.
Statement 1 is correct: Maharashtra, Karnataka and Delhi are the top three
performers in terms of State-wise distribution of recognized startups in India.Statement 2 is incorrect: As per industry-wide distribution of recognized startups, IT
Services accounted for 13.9 per cent followed by Healthcare and Life Sciences (8.3 per cent)
and education (7.0 per cent).
Incorrect
Startups drive economic growth, create employment and foster a culture of
innovation. In order to promote innovation and entrepreneurship among enterprising youth, the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India had announced the “Startup India, Stand-up India”
initiative on August 15, 2015.
Statement 1 is correct: Maharashtra, Karnataka and Delhi are the top three
performers in terms of State-wise distribution of recognized startups in India.Statement 2 is incorrect: As per industry-wide distribution of recognized startups, IT
Services accounted for 13.9 per cent followed by Healthcare and Life Sciences (8.3 per cent)
and education (7.0 per cent).
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the entrepreneurship ecosystem in
India:
1. India has the 2nd largest entrepreneurship ecosystem in the world.
2. The level of education and the quality of physical infrastructure will influence
entrepreneurship ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect: The chart clearly establishes that India has the 3rd largest
entrepreneurship ecosystem in the world.
Statement 2 is correct: Literacy, education, physical infrastructure are the key areas
that will foster entrepreneurship and thereby job creation and wealth creation.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: The chart clearly establishes that India has the 3rd largest
entrepreneurship ecosystem in the world.
Statement 2 is correct: Literacy, education, physical infrastructure are the key areas
that will foster entrepreneurship and thereby job creation and wealth creation. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI):
- Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by Central Statistics Office.
- It covers formal industries only.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample Survey
Office (NSSO). ASI is principal source of industrial statistics in India. It does not cover unorganized or unregistered or informal sector enterprises.
- ASI, an annual event, not only facilitates suitable data collection based on appropriate sampling techniques but also ensures timely dissemination of statistical information to asses and evaluates the dynamics in composition, growth and structure of organized manufacturing sector.
- The structure and function of the industrial sector is an important perspective of Indian Economy. It is imperative for industries to grow both qualitatively and quantitatively to boost the economy.
- The well-being of the industries depends truly on the formulation and promotion of industrial policies framed by the policy makers.
- To frame suitable industrial policies the policy makers need to be aware about the quantified aspect of the existing scenarios in the industries in the country.
- This is where the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample
Survey Office, Government of India.
Incorrect
Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample Survey
Office (NSSO). ASI is principal source of industrial statistics in India. It does not cover unorganized or unregistered or informal sector enterprises.
- ASI, an annual event, not only facilitates suitable data collection based on appropriate sampling techniques but also ensures timely dissemination of statistical information to asses and evaluates the dynamics in composition, growth and structure of organized manufacturing sector.
- The structure and function of the industrial sector is an important perspective of Indian Economy. It is imperative for industries to grow both qualitatively and quantitatively to boost the economy.
- The well-being of the industries depends truly on the formulation and promotion of industrial policies framed by the policy makers.
- To frame suitable industrial policies the policy makers need to be aware about the quantified aspect of the existing scenarios in the industries in the country.
- This is where the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by National Sample
Survey Office, Government of India.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCIC):
1. It is part of Kolkata-Kanyakumari East Coast Economic Corridor.
2. It is funded by Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Asian Development Bank (ADB) had prepared Conceptual Development Plan (CDP) for Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCIC).
The Andhra Pradesh government has mooted development of nodes in Visakhapatnam, Machilipatnam, Donakonda and on the Yerpedu-Srikalahasti stretch.
The VCIC has been identified for development in the first phase of Kolkata-Kanyakumari East Coast Economic Corridor.
The ADB, which prepared the concept paper, has agreed to give $500 million towards multi-tranch financing facility and policy-based loan worth $125 million.
Incorrect
Asian Development Bank (ADB) had prepared Conceptual Development Plan (CDP) for Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCIC).
The Andhra Pradesh government has mooted development of nodes in Visakhapatnam, Machilipatnam, Donakonda and on the Yerpedu-Srikalahasti stretch.
The VCIC has been identified for development in the first phase of Kolkata-Kanyakumari East Coast Economic Corridor.
The ADB, which prepared the concept paper, has agreed to give $500 million towards multi-tranch financing facility and policy-based loan worth $125 million.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “Companies Fresh Start Scheme 2020” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA) has come up with the ‘Companies Fresh Start Scheme 2020’ to enable companies make good of any filing-related defaults, irrespective of duration of default, and make a fresh start as a fully compliant entity.
To provide a similar facility to Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs), the MCA has also revised the ‘LLP Settlement Scheme, 2020’, which is in vogue today.
The Fresh Start scheme and modified LLP Settlement Scheme reduce compliance burden during the unprecedented public health situation caused by Covid-19.
The USP of both the schemes is a one-time waiver of additional filing fees for delayed filings by the companies or LLPs with the Registrar of Companies during the currency of the Schemes, i.e. during the period starting from April 1 and ending on September 30.
The Schemes, apart from giving longer timelines for corporate to comply with various filing requirements under the Companies Act 2013 and LLP Act, 2008, significantly reduce the related financial burden on them, especially for those with long standing defaults, thereby giving them an opportunity to make a “fresh start”.
Both the Schemes also contain provision for giving immunity from penal proceedings, including against imposition of penalties for late submissions and also provide additional time for filing appeals before the concerned Regional Directors against imposition of penalties, if already imposed.
Incorrect
The Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA) has come up with the ‘Companies Fresh Start Scheme 2020’ to enable companies make good of any filing-related defaults, irrespective of duration of default, and make a fresh start as a fully compliant entity.
To provide a similar facility to Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs), the MCA has also revised the ‘LLP Settlement Scheme, 2020’, which is in vogue today.
The Fresh Start scheme and modified LLP Settlement Scheme reduce compliance burden during the unprecedented public health situation caused by Covid-19.
The USP of both the schemes is a one-time waiver of additional filing fees for delayed filings by the companies or LLPs with the Registrar of Companies during the currency of the Schemes, i.e. during the period starting from April 1 and ending on September 30.
The Schemes, apart from giving longer timelines for corporate to comply with various filing requirements under the Companies Act 2013 and LLP Act, 2008, significantly reduce the related financial burden on them, especially for those with long standing defaults, thereby giving them an opportunity to make a “fresh start”.
Both the Schemes also contain provision for giving immunity from penal proceedings, including against imposition of penalties for late submissions and also provide additional time for filing appeals before the concerned Regional Directors against imposition of penalties, if already imposed.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee
Scheme (ECLGS):
- The Scheme is a specific response to the unprecedented situation of COVID-19
pandemic.
- The National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) provides hundred percent
guarantee for loans under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) has been formulated as a
specific response to the unprecedented situation caused by COVID-19 and the consequent
lockdown, which has severely impacted manufacturing and other activities in the MSME
sector.
The Scheme aims at mitigating the economic distress being faced by MSMEs by providing
them additional funding of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores in the form of a fully guaranteed
emergency credit line.
Under the Scheme, 100% guarantee coverage is provided by National Credit Guarantee
Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) for additional funding of up to Rs. three lakh crores to
eligible MSMEs and interested MUDRA borrowers, in the form of a Guaranteed Emergency
Credit Line (GECL) facility.
The GECL is a loan for which 100% guarantee would be provided by National Credit
Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) has been formulated as a
specific response to the unprecedented situation caused by COVID-19 and the consequent
lockdown, which has severely impacted manufacturing and other activities in the MSME
sector.
The Scheme aims at mitigating the economic distress being faced by MSMEs by providing
them additional funding of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores in the form of a fully guaranteed
emergency credit line.
Under the Scheme, 100% guarantee coverage is provided by National Credit Guarantee
Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) for additional funding of up to Rs. three lakh crores to
eligible MSMEs and interested MUDRA borrowers, in the form of a Guaranteed Emergency
Credit Line (GECL) facility.
The GECL is a loan for which 100% guarantee would be provided by National Credit
Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive
Scheme (PLI) for Electronics Manufacturing:
- It provides a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large
investments in the electronics value chain in India.
- The scheme covers all electronics items manufacturing in India except mobile phones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain including electronic components and semiconductor packaging.
Incentive: The Scheme extends an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the base year 2019-20.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Scheme is only applicable for target segments namely mobile phones and specified electronic components.
Specified Electronic Components: SMT components, Discrete semiconductor devices including transistors, diodes, thyristors, etc., Passive components including resistors, capacitors, etc. for electronic applications, Printed Circuit Boards (PCB), PCB laminates, prepregs, photopolymer films, PCB printing inks, Sensors, transducers, actuators, crystals for electronic applications, System in Package (SIP), Micro or Nano-electronic components such as Micro Electromechanical Systems (MEMS) and Nano Electromechanical Systems (NEMS), and Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain including electronic components and semiconductor packaging.
Incentive: The Scheme extends an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the base year 2019-20.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Scheme is only applicable for target segments namely mobile phones and specified electronic components.
Specified Electronic Components: SMT components, Discrete semiconductor devices including transistors, diodes, thyristors, etc., Passive components including resistors, capacitors, etc. for electronic applications, Printed Circuit Boards (PCB), PCB laminates, prepregs, photopolymer films, PCB printing inks, Sensors, transducers, actuators, crystals for electronic applications, System in Package (SIP), Micro or Nano-electronic components such as Micro Electromechanical Systems (MEMS) and Nano Electromechanical Systems (NEMS), and Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.
Industries and Industrial policies 2
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- Question 1 of 13
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following program(s) provide impetus to mobile phone manufacturing in India?
1. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI)
2. Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large
Scale Electronics Manufacturing offers a production linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components, including Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.Option 2 is correct. The The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology had notified ‘Phased Manufacturing Programme for cellular mobile handsets and subassemblies/ parts thereof’ with the objective of substantially increasing the domestic value addition for establishment of a robust Cellular mobile handsets manufacturing ecosystem in India. It promotes domestic production of mobile phones by providing tax relief and other incentives on components and accessories used for the devices.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large
Scale Electronics Manufacturing offers a production linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components, including Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units.Option 2 is correct. The The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology had notified ‘Phased Manufacturing Programme for cellular mobile handsets and subassemblies/ parts thereof’ with the objective of substantially increasing the domestic value addition for establishment of a robust Cellular mobile handsets manufacturing ecosystem in India. It promotes domestic production of mobile phones by providing tax relief and other incentives on components and accessories used for the devices.
- Question 2 of 13
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the SCALE platform launched by
Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC):
1. It will help candidates to get assessed and certified on their knowledge and skills on a
specific qualification.
2. The platform will serve as a job portal with access to a certified talent pool of candidates
to hire from.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC) recently announced the launch of Skill Certification
Assessment for Leather Employees (SCALE) India web platform and android app.SCALE will help candidates in the skilling ecosystem to get assessed and certified on their knowledge, skills and behaviour on a specific qualification pack.
It also enables access to micro-learning modules for bridging the skill gaps that are identified and can be re-assessed and certified at the end of the learning on the specific qualification pack.
From an employer standpoint, the platform will serve as a job portal with access to a certified talent pool of candidates to hire from, leading to increase in productivity and profitability. Employers can share their skill gap requirements and check for suitable training modules available to bridge the skill gap of their workforce and raise training requests for short term/customised training that would be serviced by the LSSC.# LSSC was set up as a non-profit organisation in 2012 as one of the key sector skill councils approved by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC) recently announced the launch of Skill Certification
Assessment for Leather Employees (SCALE) India web platform and android app.SCALE will help candidates in the skilling ecosystem to get assessed and certified on their knowledge, skills and behaviour on a specific qualification pack.
It also enables access to micro-learning modules for bridging the skill gaps that are identified and can be re-assessed and certified at the end of the learning on the specific qualification pack.
From an employer standpoint, the platform will serve as a job portal with access to a certified talent pool of candidates to hire from, leading to increase in productivity and profitability. Employers can share their skill gap requirements and check for suitable training modules available to bridge the skill gap of their workforce and raise training requests for short term/customised training that would be serviced by the LSSC.# LSSC was set up as a non-profit organisation in 2012 as one of the key sector skill councils approved by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
- Question 3 of 13
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘force majeure’?
Correct
Force majeure is a common clause in contracts to remove liability for natural
and unavoidable catastrophes. It comes into play when unforeseeable circumstances that
prevent either party from fulfilling a contract.
The provisions of ‘Act of God’ also have similar effect. Generally, an “Act of God” is
understood to include only natural unforeseen circumstances, whereas force majeure
includes both naturally occurring events and events that occur due to human intervention.
However, both concepts elicit the same consequences in law.Incorrect
Force majeure is a common clause in contracts to remove liability for natural
and unavoidable catastrophes. It comes into play when unforeseeable circumstances that
prevent either party from fulfilling a contract.
The provisions of ‘Act of God’ also have similar effect. Generally, an “Act of God” is
understood to include only natural unforeseen circumstances, whereas force majeure
includes both naturally occurring events and events that occur due to human intervention.
However, both concepts elicit the same consequences in law. - Question 4 of 13
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Business Reform Action Plan
(BRAP) ranking of states in India:
1. The 2019 BRAP ranking is first ever edition based on the implementation of Business
Reform Action Plan.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the top performer state under 2019 rankings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2019 rankings are the 4th edition of Business
Reform Action Plan (BRAP) ranking of states.
Ranking of States based on the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan started in
the year 2015. Till date, State Rankings have been released for the years 2015, 2016 and
2017-18.
The Business Reform Action Plan 2018-19 includes 180 reform points covering 12
business regulatory areas such as Access to Information, Single Window System, Labour,
Environment, etc.
The larger objective of attracting investments and increasing Ease of Doing Business in
each State was sought to be achieved by introducing an element of healthy competition
through a system of ranking states based on their performance in the implementation of
Business Reform Action Plan.Statement 2 is correct. The top ten states under State Reform Action Plan 2019 are:
Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal and Gujarat.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2019 rankings are the 4th edition of Business
Reform Action Plan (BRAP) ranking of states.
Ranking of States based on the implementation of Business Reform Action Plan started in
the year 2015. Till date, State Rankings have been released for the years 2015, 2016 and
2017-18.
The Business Reform Action Plan 2018-19 includes 180 reform points covering 12
business regulatory areas such as Access to Information, Single Window System, Labour,
Environment, etc.
The larger objective of attracting investments and increasing Ease of Doing Business in
each State was sought to be achieved by introducing an element of healthy competition
through a system of ranking states based on their performance in the implementation of
Business Reform Action Plan.Statement 2 is correct. The top ten states under State Reform Action Plan 2019 are:
Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal and Gujarat. - Question 5 of 13
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship
Programme (SVEP):
1. It is a sub-scheme under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NRLM).
2. It promotes individual and group enterprises majorly in manufacturing, trading and
service sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme
(SVEP) is implemented by Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana –National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NRLM), Ministry of Rural Development, as a sub-scheme since 2016.
Activities under SVEP are designed to promote rural enterprises, one of the key areas is to
develop pool of community resource persons – enterprise promotion (CRP-EP) who are
local and support entrepreneurs setting-up rural enterprises.
Another key area is to promote the block resource center (BRC) in SVEP blocks, to
monitor and manage the community resource persons, appraise SVEP loan application and
acts as the repository of enterprise related information in the concern block.
Statement 2 is correct. SVEP promotes both individual and group enterprises, set-up and
promote enterprises majorly on manufacturing, trading and service sectors. The program
invested largely on building the capacities of the entrepreneurs to run the businesses
profitably based on the local demand and eco-system.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme
(SVEP) is implemented by Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana –National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NRLM), Ministry of Rural Development, as a sub-scheme since 2016.
Activities under SVEP are designed to promote rural enterprises, one of the key areas is to
develop pool of community resource persons – enterprise promotion (CRP-EP) who are
local and support entrepreneurs setting-up rural enterprises.
Another key area is to promote the block resource center (BRC) in SVEP blocks, to
monitor and manage the community resource persons, appraise SVEP loan application and
acts as the repository of enterprise related information in the concern block.
Statement 2 is correct. SVEP promotes both individual and group enterprises, set-up and
promote enterprises majorly on manufacturing, trading and service sectors. The program
invested largely on building the capacities of the entrepreneurs to run the businesses
profitably based on the local demand and eco-system. - Question 6 of 13
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Ranking of States on Support to
Startup Ecosystems:
1. The ranking exercise has been conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
2. Gujarat is the Best Performer state in the States Startup Ranking Results 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Recently the Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade (DPIIT) conducted the second edition of the States’ Startup Ranking
Exercise, with the key objective to foster competitiveness and propel States and Union
Territories to work proactively towards uplifting the startup ecosystem.
A National Report which highlights the vision, trajectory, methodology and the future
roadmap of the States Ranking Exercise has been released. A State Specific Report for each
of the 25 participating entities has also been released, containing a comprehensive analysis
of respective ecosystem, which highlights strengths and priority areas for future.
Statement 2 is correct. Gujarat is the ‘Best Performer’ state, while Karnataka and Kerala
are the ‘Top Performers’.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Recently the Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade (DPIIT) conducted the second edition of the States’ Startup Ranking
Exercise, with the key objective to foster competitiveness and propel States and Union
Territories to work proactively towards uplifting the startup ecosystem.
A National Report which highlights the vision, trajectory, methodology and the future
roadmap of the States Ranking Exercise has been released. A State Specific Report for each
of the 25 participating entities has also been released, containing a comprehensive analysis
of respective ecosystem, which highlights strengths and priority areas for future.
Statement 2 is correct. Gujarat is the ‘Best Performer’ state, while Karnataka and Kerala
are the ‘Top Performers’. - Question 7 of 13
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Central Consumer Protection
Authority (CCPA):
1. It has been established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
2. It will be empowered to impose penalties on endorsers of misleading advertisements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Central Government has established the Central
Consumer Protection Authority as a body corporate in exercise of the powers conferred
by section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Statement 2 is correct. CCPA will carry out the following functions:
-inquiring into violations of consumer rights, investigating and launching prosecution at the
appropriate forum;
-passing orders to recall goods or withdraw services that are hazardous, reimbursement of
the price paid, and discontinuation of the unfair trade practices, as defined in the Bill;
-issuing directions to the concerned trader/ manufacturer/ endorser/ advertiser/ publisher
to either discontinue a false or misleading advertisement, or modify it;
-order discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements, impose
penalties on manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Central Government has established the Central
Consumer Protection Authority as a body corporate in exercise of the powers conferred
by section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Statement 2 is correct. CCPA will carry out the following functions:
-inquiring into violations of consumer rights, investigating and launching prosecution at the
appropriate forum;
-passing orders to recall goods or withdraw services that are hazardous, reimbursement of
the price paid, and discontinuation of the unfair trade practices, as defined in the Bill;
-issuing directions to the concerned trader/ manufacturer/ endorser/ advertiser/ publisher
to either discontinue a false or misleading advertisement, or modify it;
-order discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements, impose
penalties on manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements. - Question 8 of 13
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Companies (Amendment) Bill,
2020:
1. It empowers the central government to allow certain classes of public companies to list
classes of securities in foreign jurisdictions.
2. Excess spending under CSR obligation by a company in a financial year can offset its
CSR obligations in subsequent financial years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2020 has been passed by the parliament
recently.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill empowers the central government to allow certain classes
of public companies to list classes of securities (as may be prescribed) in foreign
jurisdictions.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the Companies Act, 2013, companies with net worth,
turnover or profits above a specified amount are required to constitute Corporate social
responsibility (CSR) Committees and spend 2% of their average net profits in the last three
financial years, towards its CSR policy.
The Bill exempts companies with a CSR liability of up to Rs 50 lakh a year from setting up
CSR Committees. Further, companies which spend any amount in excess of their CSR
obligation in a financial year can set off the excess amount towards their CSR obligations
in subsequent financial years.Incorrect
The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2020 has been passed by the parliament
recently.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill empowers the central government to allow certain classes
of public companies to list classes of securities (as may be prescribed) in foreign
jurisdictions.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the Companies Act, 2013, companies with net worth,
turnover or profits above a specified amount are required to constitute Corporate social
responsibility (CSR) Committees and spend 2% of their average net profits in the last three
financial years, towards its CSR policy.
The Bill exempts companies with a CSR liability of up to Rs 50 lakh a year from setting up
CSR Committees. Further, companies which spend any amount in excess of their CSR
obligation in a financial year can set off the excess amount towards their CSR obligations
in subsequent financial years. - Question 9 of 13
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Technical Textiles:
- These are textile products manufactured primarily for technical performance and functional properties rather than aesthetic characteristics.
- India is the largest global producer of technical textiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Technical textiles are textiles materials and products manufactured primarily for technical performance and functional properties rather than aesthetic characteristics.
Technical Textiles products are divided into 12 broad categories (Agrotech, Buildtech, Clothtech, Geotech, Hometech, Indutech, Mobiltech, Meditech, Protech, Sportstech, Oekotech, Packtech) depending upon their application areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect. United States of America is the world’s largest producer and consumer of technical textiles having 23% share followed by Western Europe having 22 % share, China having 13% and Japan having 7% share.
India shares nearly 6% of world market size of 250 Billion USD. However, the annual average growth of the segment is 12%, as compared to 4% world average growth.
# Ministry of Textiles has invited proposals for constitution of a dedicated Export Promotion Council (EPC) for Technical Textiles.
# The National Technical Textiles Mission has a four year implementation period from FY 2020-21 to 2023-24. Constitution of an Export Promotion Council for Technical Textiles is part of one of the components of the National Technical Textiles Mission.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Technical textiles are textiles materials and products manufactured primarily for technical performance and functional properties rather than aesthetic characteristics.
Technical Textiles products are divided into 12 broad categories (Agrotech, Buildtech, Clothtech, Geotech, Hometech, Indutech, Mobiltech, Meditech, Protech, Sportstech, Oekotech, Packtech) depending upon their application areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect. United States of America is the world’s largest producer and consumer of technical textiles having 23% share followed by Western Europe having 22 % share, China having 13% and Japan having 7% share.
India shares nearly 6% of world market size of 250 Billion USD. However, the annual average growth of the segment is 12%, as compared to 4% world average growth.
# Ministry of Textiles has invited proposals for constitution of a dedicated Export Promotion Council (EPC) for Technical Textiles.
# The National Technical Textiles Mission has a four year implementation period from FY 2020-21 to 2023-24. Constitution of an Export Promotion Council for Technical Textiles is part of one of the components of the National Technical Textiles Mission.
- Question 10 of 13
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Consumer Protection Act 2019:
- It covers offline as well as online transactions for sale/purchase.
- The Central Consumer Protection Authority can impose penalties on violations consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A consumer is defined under the Consumer Protection Act 2019 as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration. It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling.
Statement 2 is correct. Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is to regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.
CCPA will carry out the following functions, including: (i) inquiring into violations of consumer rights, investigating and launching prosecution at the appropriate forum; (ii) passing orders to recall goods or withdraw services that are hazardous, reimbursement of the price paid, and discontinuation of the unfair trade practices, as defined in the Bill; (iii) issuing directions to the concerned trader/ manufacturer/ endorser/ advertiser/ publisher to either discontinue a false or misleading advertisement, or modify it; (iv) imposing penalties, and; (v) issuing safety notices to consumers against unsafe goods and services.
# The CCPA has referred the recent complaints of Honey adulteration to FSSAI.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A consumer is defined under the Consumer Protection Act 2019 as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration. It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling.
Statement 2 is correct. Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is to regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.
CCPA will carry out the following functions, including: (i) inquiring into violations of consumer rights, investigating and launching prosecution at the appropriate forum; (ii) passing orders to recall goods or withdraw services that are hazardous, reimbursement of the price paid, and discontinuation of the unfair trade practices, as defined in the Bill; (iii) issuing directions to the concerned trader/ manufacturer/ endorser/ advertiser/ publisher to either discontinue a false or misleading advertisement, or modify it; (iv) imposing penalties, and; (v) issuing safety notices to consumers against unsafe goods and services.
# The CCPA has referred the recent complaints of Honey adulteration to FSSAI.
- Question 11 of 13
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are explicitly included in the definition of ‘service’ under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- Telecom
- Banking
- Transport
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Consumer Protection Act 2019 aims at protecting and strengthening the rights of the consumers by establishing authorities, imposing strict liabilities and penalties on product manufacturers, electronic service providers, misleading advertisers, and by providing additional settlement of consumer disputes through mediation.
Article 2(42) of the act defines “service” as service of any description which is made available to potential users and includes, but not limited to, the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but does not include the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
Incorrect
The Consumer Protection Act 2019 aims at protecting and strengthening the rights of the consumers by establishing authorities, imposing strict liabilities and penalties on product manufacturers, electronic service providers, misleading advertisers, and by providing additional settlement of consumer disputes through mediation.
Article 2(42) of the act defines “service” as service of any description which is made available to potential users and includes, but not limited to, the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing, insurance, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both, housing construction, entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but does not include the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
- Question 12 of 13
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Startup Awards (NSA) 2021:
- It is the first-ever edition of National Startup Awards ‘NSA) to be organized.
- It is an initiative of the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. First-ever National Startup Awards (‘NSA’) were concluded in October 2020, to recognize and reward outstanding startups and ecosystem enablers that are building innovative products or solutions and scalable enterprises, with high potential of employment generation or wealth creation, demonstrating measurable social impact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce. Only DPIIT registered startup entities are eligible for participation.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. First-ever National Startup Awards (‘NSA’) were concluded in October 2020, to recognize and reward outstanding startups and ecosystem enablers that are building innovative products or solutions and scalable enterprises, with high potential of employment generation or wealth creation, demonstrating measurable social impact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce. Only DPIIT registered startup entities are eligible for participation.
- Question 13 of 13
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Consumer Protection Bill, 2019”:
- Under the new bill, definition of consumer as a person who buys any good or resale good or avails a service for a consideration.
- Penalty up to 1crore for misleading advertisements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Mr. Ram Vilas Paswan on July 8, 2019. The Bill replaces the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Key features of the Bill include:
A consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration. It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling.
Six consumer rights have been defined in the Bill, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.
The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.
The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions (CDRCs) will be set up at the district, state, and national levels.
Complaints against an unfair contract can be filed with only the State and National Appeals from a District CDRC will be heard by the State CDRC. Appeals from the State CDRC will be heard by the National CDRC. Final appeal will lie before the Supreme Court.
Incorrect
The Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Mr. Ram Vilas Paswan on July 8, 2019. The Bill replaces the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Key features of the Bill include:
A consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration. It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling.
Six consumer rights have been defined in the Bill, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.
The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.
The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions (CDRCs) will be set up at the district, state, and national levels.
Complaints against an unfair contract can be filed with only the State and National Appeals from a District CDRC will be heard by the State CDRC. Appeals from the State CDRC will be heard by the National CDRC. Final appeal will lie before the Supreme Court.
Services– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Services– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Services– 2020 and Before that
Services
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- Question 1 of 16
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Tourism sector of India:
1.Uttar Pradesh had maximum share of domestic tourists in 2019.
2.Among the foreign tourists’ arrival in India, Medical visitors were more than the Business and professional visitors in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Ministry of Tourism brings out an Annual Publication called “India Tourism Statistics” every year giving details of international and domestic tourism, including details about the classified hotels etc. In addition, “Tourism Statistics at a Glance” is also brought out, giving updated and latest key statistical data.
Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh has drawn the highest number of domestic tourists in 2019, leaving Tamil Nadu behind. Last year UP was at number two.Statement 2 is incorrect. In the purpose-wise Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India in 2019, Leisure Holiday and recreation topped followed by Business and Professionals visitors.
Incorrect
The Ministry of Tourism brings out an Annual Publication called “India Tourism Statistics” every year giving details of international and domestic tourism, including details about the classified hotels etc. In addition, “Tourism Statistics at a Glance” is also brought out, giving updated and latest key statistical data.
Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh has drawn the highest number of domestic tourists in 2019, leaving Tamil Nadu behind. Last year UP was at number two.Statement 2 is incorrect. In the purpose-wise Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India in 2019, Leisure Holiday and recreation topped followed by Business and Professionals visitors.
- Question 2 of 16
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following most correctly defines MICE Tourism?
Correct
In tourism, travelling for business is referred to as MICE tourism; which
stands for Meetings, Incentives, Conference/ Conventions and Exhibitions/ Events.
It is also referred to as the Meetings Industry. The travel sellers specializing in MICE are
usually affiliated with large corporate agencies because it requires advance planning and
organization. There are Conventions and Visitor Bureau (CVB), India Convention promotion
Bureau (ICPB) and others, which are working for the promotion of MICE in India.Incorrect
In tourism, travelling for business is referred to as MICE tourism; which
stands for Meetings, Incentives, Conference/ Conventions and Exhibitions/ Events.
It is also referred to as the Meetings Industry. The travel sellers specializing in MICE are
usually affiliated with large corporate agencies because it requires advance planning and
organization. There are Conventions and Visitor Bureau (CVB), India Convention promotion
Bureau (ICPB) and others, which are working for the promotion of MICE in India. - Question 3 of 16
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the System for Assessment,
Awareness & Training for Hospitality Industry (SAATHI) initiative:
1. It has been launched by NITI Aayog in collaboration with Hospitality Industry.
2. It aims for effective implementation of Guidelines issued for safe operations of Hospitality
Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Ministry of Tourism with Quality Council of
India has developed an initiative called SAATHI (System for Assessment, Awareness &
Training for Hospitality Industry) to assist the hospitality industry to continue to operate
safely and thereby instill confidence among the Staff, employees and the guests about the
safety of the hotel/unit.
Statement 2 is correct. SAATHI aims for effective implementation of Guidelines/SOPs
issued with reference to COVID 19 and beyond for safe operations of Hotels, Restaurants
and other units.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Ministry of Tourism with Quality Council of
India has developed an initiative called SAATHI (System for Assessment, Awareness &
Training for Hospitality Industry) to assist the hospitality industry to continue to operate
safely and thereby instill confidence among the Staff, employees and the guests about the
safety of the hotel/unit.
Statement 2 is correct. SAATHI aims for effective implementation of Guidelines/SOPs
issued with reference to COVID 19 and beyond for safe operations of Hotels, Restaurants
and other units. - Question 4 of 16
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution is organizing the India Mobile Congress 2020?
Correct
India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2020 is being organised by the Department of Telecommunications, Government of India, and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI). It will be held from 8th to 10th December 2020.
The theme for IMC 2020 is “Inclusive Innovation – Smart, Secure, Sustainable”. It also aims to drive foreign and local investments, encourage R&D in the telecom and emerging technology sectors.
IMC 2020 will see the participation from various Ministries, the telecom CEOs, global CEOs, and domain experts in 5G, Artificial Intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), Data Analytics, Cloud and Edge computing, Blockchain, Cyber-security, Smart Cities and Automation.Incorrect
India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2020 is being organised by the Department of Telecommunications, Government of India, and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI). It will be held from 8th to 10th December 2020.
The theme for IMC 2020 is “Inclusive Innovation – Smart, Secure, Sustainable”. It also aims to drive foreign and local investments, encourage R&D in the telecom and emerging technology sectors.
IMC 2020 will see the participation from various Ministries, the telecom CEOs, global CEOs, and domain experts in 5G, Artificial Intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), Data Analytics, Cloud and Edge computing, Blockchain, Cyber-security, Smart Cities and Automation. - Question 5 of 16
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyMeghdoot Awards are given in which of the following category?
Correct
With the view of recognizing outstanding performance by the Postal service employees, ‘Meghdoot Award’, presented at national level, was introduced in the year 1984 by the Department of Posts.
A cash award, Gold Medallion and a Citation are presented as Meghdoot Award. Keeping in view the nature of work for various levels, employees have been divided in the eight categories for presenting Meghdoot Award.
Mehdoot Awards 2020 were recently organised by the Department of Posts.Incorrect
With the view of recognizing outstanding performance by the Postal service employees, ‘Meghdoot Award’, presented at national level, was introduced in the year 1984 by the Department of Posts.
A cash award, Gold Medallion and a Citation are presented as Meghdoot Award. Keeping in view the nature of work for various levels, employees have been divided in the eight categories for presenting Meghdoot Award.
Mehdoot Awards 2020 were recently organised by the Department of Posts. - Question 6 of 16
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Security Directive on Telecommunication Sector:
1.The list of the trusted source and product will be decided based on approval of a committee headed by the deputy national security advisor.
2.The directive envisages a mandatory replacement of the existing equipment already inducted in the network of Telecom Service Providers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Cabinet Committee on Security has announced the National Security Directive on Telecommunication Sector, which will mandate service providers to purchase equipment from trusted sources.
The list of the trusted source and product will be decided based on approval of a committee headed by the deputy national security advisor. The committee will consist of members from relevant departments, ministries and will also have two members from the industry and independent experts. The committee will be called the national security committee on telecom.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Telecom service providers (TSPs) are required to connect new devices that are designated trusted products. The present directive does not envisage mandatory replacement of the existing equipment already inducted in the network of TSPs.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Cabinet Committee on Security has announced the National Security Directive on Telecommunication Sector, which will mandate service providers to purchase equipment from trusted sources.
The list of the trusted source and product will be decided based on approval of a committee headed by the deputy national security advisor. The committee will consist of members from relevant departments, ministries and will also have two members from the industry and independent experts. The committee will be called the national security committee on telecom.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Telecom service providers (TSPs) are required to connect new devices that are designated trusted products. The present directive does not envisage mandatory replacement of the existing equipment already inducted in the network of TSPs. - Question 7 of 16
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “gig economy”:
1. It undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers who rarely change positions and instead focus on a lifetime career.
2. India is the 5th largest country for flexi-staffing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Gig economy can be defined as a work engagement where on one side, there is a service seeker i.e., a consumer with a demand for a specific task, and on the other side, and there is a service provider i.e., a gig worker who can perform that specific task.
· A gig economy undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers who rarely change positions and instead focus on a lifetime career.
· In this economy, tech-enabled platforms connect the consumer to the gig worker to hire services on a short-term basis.
· Gig workers include self-employed, freelancers, independent contributors and part-time workers.
· The digital gig economy generated a gross volume of approximately $204 bn from worldwide customers in 2018.
· Transportation-based services contributed to over 50% of this value. The size of the gig economy is projected to grow by a 17% CAGR and generate a gross volume of ~$455 bn by 2023.
· India has emerged as the 5th largest country for flexi-staffing after US, China, Brazil and Japan.
· Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Telangana have most opportunities in terms of growth for the flexi-workers.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Gig economy can be defined as a work engagement where on one side, there is a service seeker i.e., a consumer with a demand for a specific task, and on the other side, and there is a service provider i.e., a gig worker who can perform that specific task.
· A gig economy undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers who rarely change positions and instead focus on a lifetime career.
· In this economy, tech-enabled platforms connect the consumer to the gig worker to hire services on a short-term basis.
· Gig workers include self-employed, freelancers, independent contributors and part-time workers.
· The digital gig economy generated a gross volume of approximately $204 bn from worldwide customers in 2018.
· Transportation-based services contributed to over 50% of this value. The size of the gig economy is projected to grow by a 17% CAGR and generate a gross volume of ~$455 bn by 2023.
· India has emerged as the 5th largest country for flexi-staffing after US, China, Brazil and Japan.
· Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Telangana have most opportunities in terms of growth for the flexi-workers.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 8 of 16
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following are the objectives of the “National Digital Communications Policy”?
1. Broadband for all by 2022.
2. Creating 10 Million additional jobs in the Digital Communications sector.
3. Enhancing the contribution of the Digital Communications sector to 8% of India’s GDP from 6% in 2017.
4. Ensuring Digital Sovereignty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The National Digital Communications Policy, 2018 seeks to unlock the transformative power of digital communications networks – to achieve the goal of digital empowerment and improved well-being of the people of India; and towards this end, attempts to outline a set of goals, initiatives, strategies and intended policy outcomes.
The National Communications Policy aims to accomplish the following Strategic Objectives by 2022:
· Provisioning of Broadband for All
· Creating 4 Million additional jobs in the Digital Communications sector
· Enhancing the contribution of the Digital Communications sector to 8% of India’s GDP from ~ 6% in 2017
· Propelling India to the Top 50 Nations in the ICT Development Index of ITU from 134 in 2017
· Enhancing India’s contribution to Global Value Chains
· Ensuring Digital Sovereignty
Source: Sriram’s IAS
Incorrect
The National Digital Communications Policy, 2018 seeks to unlock the transformative power of digital communications networks – to achieve the goal of digital empowerment and improved well-being of the people of India; and towards this end, attempts to outline a set of goals, initiatives, strategies and intended policy outcomes.
The National Communications Policy aims to accomplish the following Strategic Objectives by 2022:
· Provisioning of Broadband for All
· Creating 4 Million additional jobs in the Digital Communications sector
· Enhancing the contribution of the Digital Communications sector to 8% of India’s GDP from ~ 6% in 2017
· Propelling India to the Top 50 Nations in the ICT Development Index of ITU from 134 in 2017
· Enhancing India’s contribution to Global Value Chains
· Ensuring Digital Sovereignty
Source: Sriram’s IAS
- Question 9 of 16
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following measures will spur the economic growth?
1. Transparent and hassle-free land acquiring.
2. Availability of Skilled labour.
3. Lower interest rates in the economy.
4. Decrease in effective demand.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The traditional argument is that the lower the interest rate, the better for businesses as it brings down the cost of capital, making investments more attractive.
· Any government would love this as the country would then draw higher investments leading to higher growth and more job creation.
· Governments abhor higher interest rates as, theoretically, these push up project costs and keep investors away.
· Capital is one of the three main factors of production, which are critical to the growth of a commercial entity, the other two being land and labour.
· But capital is only a necessary, not sufficient, condition. Land, unless allocated by the local government, is too costly for investors seeking to set up shop.
· On labour, even if adequate hands are available for a job, the skill quotient is still low. Training graduates to be job-ready is a form of tax that companies pay.
· Also, to be taken into account is the market environment and demand. If end users are seeing lesser money in hand than earlier, demand will certainly be impacted.
· Therefore, in an environment where the other factors of production are not favourable for an investor, low interest rates by themselves may not prove attractive enough.
· Any revival of economic activity will be contingent on joint efforts by the government on the fiscal front to stimulate demand, and the RBI, to keep interest rates low.
Source: Sriram’s IAS
Incorrect
The traditional argument is that the lower the interest rate, the better for businesses as it brings down the cost of capital, making investments more attractive.
· Any government would love this as the country would then draw higher investments leading to higher growth and more job creation.
· Governments abhor higher interest rates as, theoretically, these push up project costs and keep investors away.
· Capital is one of the three main factors of production, which are critical to the growth of a commercial entity, the other two being land and labour.
· But capital is only a necessary, not sufficient, condition. Land, unless allocated by the local government, is too costly for investors seeking to set up shop.
· On labour, even if adequate hands are available for a job, the skill quotient is still low. Training graduates to be job-ready is a form of tax that companies pay.
· Also, to be taken into account is the market environment and demand. If end users are seeing lesser money in hand than earlier, demand will certainly be impacted.
· Therefore, in an environment where the other factors of production are not favourable for an investor, low interest rates by themselves may not prove attractive enough.
· Any revival of economic activity will be contingent on joint efforts by the government on the fiscal front to stimulate demand, and the RBI, to keep interest rates low.
Source: Sriram’s IAS
- Question 10 of 16
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the new hydro policy 2019, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
1. It includes large hydro projects within the ambit of renewable energy.
2. It created additional resources for the development of large hydro projects.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Union Cabinet approved a new hydroelectricity policy that, among other things, included large hydro projects within the ambit of renewable energy.
· Prior to the policy, only small hydro projects of a capacity of less than 25 MW were treated as renewable energy. Large hydro projects were treated as a separate source of energy.
· India’s renewable energy sector had an installed capacity of 75,055.92 MW as of February 2019, according to data with the Central Electricity Authority.
· This made up about 21.4% of the overall energy mix, with the rest coming from thermal, nuclear and large hydro sources.
· With the inclusion of large hydro in renewable energy, the energy mix changes drastically.
· Renewable energy capacity would now be 1,20,455.14 MW or 34.4% of the overall energy mix.
Incorrect
The Union Cabinet approved a new hydroelectricity policy that, among other things, included large hydro projects within the ambit of renewable energy.
· Prior to the policy, only small hydro projects of a capacity of less than 25 MW were treated as renewable energy. Large hydro projects were treated as a separate source of energy.
· India’s renewable energy sector had an installed capacity of 75,055.92 MW as of February 2019, according to data with the Central Electricity Authority.
· This made up about 21.4% of the overall energy mix, with the rest coming from thermal, nuclear and large hydro sources.
· With the inclusion of large hydro in renewable energy, the energy mix changes drastically.
· Renewable energy capacity would now be 1,20,455.14 MW or 34.4% of the overall energy mix.
- Question 11 of 16
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “GATI portal” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Terming delays in highway projects as “unacceptable”, Road Transport and Highways Minister, asked officials and developers to strictly adhere to project schedules.
· Minister also launched online web portal ‘GATI’ on the pattern of ‘PRAGATI’, the portal used by the Prime Ministers’ Office for monitoring projects.
· The portal ‘GATI’ can be accessed from NHAI’s website, and contractors and concessionaires can raise any project-related issues on the platform, according to a statement by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
· The issues raised on ‘GATI’ will be daily monitored by a team of NHAI officers and will be constantly reviewed by the senior officers of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Terming delays in highway projects as “unacceptable”, Road Transport and Highways Minister, asked officials and developers to strictly adhere to project schedules.
· Minister also launched online web portal ‘GATI’ on the pattern of ‘PRAGATI’, the portal used by the Prime Ministers’ Office for monitoring projects.
· The portal ‘GATI’ can be accessed from NHAI’s website, and contractors and concessionaires can raise any project-related issues on the platform, according to a statement by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
· The issues raised on ‘GATI’ will be daily monitored by a team of NHAI officers and will be constantly reviewed by the senior officers of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 12 of 16
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Silver line project is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following state?
Correct
The Kerala Rail Development Corporation (KRDCL) is confident that the ₹66,405-crore Thiruvananthapuram-Kasaragod semi-high-speed rail corridor project (named Silver Line) for which year 2024 has been set as the deadline, will be economically feasible and attain operational break-even within 10 years of being commissioned.
· Of the total cost of the 532-km project, around 50% will be loan at less than 1% interest from multilateral lending agencies such as KfW, AIIB (Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank), JICA (Japan International Cooperation Agency), or ADB (Asian Development Bank).
· Repayment is assured since there will be a rate of return of 8.1% on the investment. The balance amount will be raised from equity and (subordinate) debt from from the State and Central governments.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The Kerala Rail Development Corporation (KRDCL) is confident that the ₹66,405-crore Thiruvananthapuram-Kasaragod semi-high-speed rail corridor project (named Silver Line) for which year 2024 has been set as the deadline, will be economically feasible and attain operational break-even within 10 years of being commissioned.
· Of the total cost of the 532-km project, around 50% will be loan at less than 1% interest from multilateral lending agencies such as KfW, AIIB (Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank), JICA (Japan International Cooperation Agency), or ADB (Asian Development Bank).
· Repayment is assured since there will be a rate of return of 8.1% on the investment. The balance amount will be raised from equity and (subordinate) debt from from the State and Central governments.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 13 of 16
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “Draft Scheme of Reconstruction” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
RBI has placed the financially troubled Yes Bank under a moratorium (temporary suspension).
· After placing this bank under a moratorium, the RBI announced a draft Scheme of Reconstruction.
· This scheme entails the State Bank of India (SBI) investing capital to acquire a 49% stake in the restructured private lender.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
RBI has placed the financially troubled Yes Bank under a moratorium (temporary suspension).
· After placing this bank under a moratorium, the RBI announced a draft Scheme of Reconstruction.
· This scheme entails the State Bank of India (SBI) investing capital to acquire a 49% stake in the restructured private lender.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 14 of 16
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following Insurance companies are works under General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC)?
1. National Insurance Company Ltd.
2. New India assurance Company Ltd.
3. Oriental Fire and Insurance Company Ltd.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
In 1971, the government nationalised the private sector companies (107 Indian and foreign companies) playing in the general insurance segment and a government company, the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) was formed in 1972. The GIC started operation on January 1, 1973 with its four holding companies:
· National Insurance Company Ltd.
· New India Assurance Company Ltd.
· Oriental Fire and Insurance Comany Ltd.
· United India Insurance Company Ltd.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
In 1971, the government nationalised the private sector companies (107 Indian and foreign companies) playing in the general insurance segment and a government company, the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) was formed in 1972. The GIC started operation on January 1, 1973 with its four holding companies:
· National Insurance Company Ltd.
· New India Assurance Company Ltd.
· Oriental Fire and Insurance Comany Ltd.
· United India Insurance Company Ltd.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 15 of 16
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AICIL)?
1. It was set up in 1962 to secure farmers who are promoting green revolution.
2. It is fully owned by General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The public sector insurance company, Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AICIL) was set up by the Government of India in December 2002 (commenced its business in April 2003).
· This is a dedicated agri-insurance company and aims “to serve the needs of farmers better and to move towards a sustainable actuarial regime”.
· This company was responsible to look after the National Agriculture Insurance Scheme (NAIS) which was launched in 1999.
· Since January 2016, the company is looking after the newly launched PMFBY (Prime Minister Fasal Bima Yojana) which subsumed the existing agri-insurance schemes— the NAIS and the Modified NAIS (of 2010).
· Till the AICIL was not set up, the agri-insurance responsibility of the government was being looked after by the General Insurance Corporation (GIC).
· AICIL is jointly promoted by public sector insurance companies and development financial institutions—majority shares owned by the GIC (35 per cent) and NABARD (30 per cent) while the four public sectors general insurance companies own 8.75 per cent each in it.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The public sector insurance company, Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AICIL) was set up by the Government of India in December 2002 (commenced its business in April 2003).
· This is a dedicated agri-insurance company and aims “to serve the needs of farmers better and to move towards a sustainable actuarial regime”.
· This company was responsible to look after the National Agriculture Insurance Scheme (NAIS) which was launched in 1999.
· Since January 2016, the company is looking after the newly launched PMFBY (Prime Minister Fasal Bima Yojana) which subsumed the existing agri-insurance schemes— the NAIS and the Modified NAIS (of 2010).
· Till the AICIL was not set up, the agri-insurance responsibility of the government was being looked after by the General Insurance Corporation (GIC).
· AICIL is jointly promoted by public sector insurance companies and development financial institutions—majority shares owned by the GIC (35 per cent) and NABARD (30 per cent) while the four public sectors general insurance companies own 8.75 per cent each in it.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
- Question 16 of 16
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a statutory body.
2. The chairman and its members are appointed by government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was set up in 2000 (the Act was passed in 1999) with one chairman and five members (two as full time and three as part-time members) appointed and nominated by the government.
The authority is responsible for the regulation, development and supervision of the Indian insurance industry.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was set up in 2000 (the Act was passed in 1999) with one chairman and five members (two as full time and three as part-time members) appointed and nominated by the government.
The authority is responsible for the regulation, development and supervision of the Indian insurance industry.
Source: TMH Ramesh Singh
Inflation and Employment– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Inflation and Employment– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Inflation and Employment– 2020 and Before that
Employment
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- Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Platform work:
1.Platform workers use an online platform to access other organizations or individuals to solve specific problems or to provide specific services.
2.As per Code on Social Security 2020, central government will set up social security fund for platform workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Code on Social Security provides definition of Platform Work as a work arrangement outside of a traditional employer-employee relationship in which organizations or individuals use an online platform to access other organizations or individuals to solve specific problems or to provide specific services.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code on Social Security, 2020 states that the central government will set up social security funds for unorganized workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds for unorganized workers. It also makes provisions for registration of all three categories of workers – unorganized workers, gig workers and platform workers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Code on Social Security provides definition of Platform Work as a work arrangement outside of a traditional employer-employee relationship in which organizations or individuals use an online platform to access other organizations or individuals to solve specific problems or to provide specific services.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code on Social Security, 2020 states that the central government will set up social security funds for unorganized workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds for unorganized workers. It also makes provisions for registration of all three categories of workers – unorganized workers, gig workers and platform workers. - Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the SCALE platform launched by Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC):
1.It will help candidates to get assessed and certified on their knowledge and skills on a specific qualification.
2.The platform will serve as a job portal with access to a certified talent pool of candidates to hire from.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC) recently announced the launch of Skill Certification Assessment for Leather Employees (SCALE) India web platform and android app.
SCALE will help candidates in the skilling ecosystem to get assessed and certified on their knowledge, skills and behaviour on a specific qualification pack.
It also enables access to micro-learning modules for bridging the skill gaps that are identified and can be re-assessed and certified at the end of the learning on the specific qualification pack.
From an employer standpoint, the platform will serve as a job portal with access to a certified talent pool of candidates to hire from, leading to increase in productivity and profitability. Employers can share their skill gap requirements and check for suitable training modules available to bridge the skill gap of their workforce and raise training requests for short term/customised training that would be serviced by the LSSC.
# LSSC was set up as a non-profit organisation in 2012 as one of the key sector skill councils approved by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC) recently announced the launch of Skill Certification Assessment for Leather Employees (SCALE) India web platform and android app.
SCALE will help candidates in the skilling ecosystem to get assessed and certified on their knowledge, skills and behaviour on a specific qualification pack.
It also enables access to micro-learning modules for bridging the skill gaps that are identified and can be re-assessed and certified at the end of the learning on the specific qualification pack.
From an employer standpoint, the platform will serve as a job portal with access to a certified talent pool of candidates to hire from, leading to increase in productivity and profitability. Employers can share their skill gap requirements and check for suitable training modules available to bridge the skill gap of their workforce and raise training requests for short term/customised training that would be serviced by the LSSC.
# LSSC was set up as a non-profit organisation in 2012 as one of the key sector skill councils approved by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). - Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat does Phillips Curve indicate?
Correct
The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less unemployment.
# A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income inequality.
# The Laffer Curve is a theory developed by supply-side economist Arthur Laffer to show the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.Incorrect
The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less unemployment.
# A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income inequality.
# The Laffer Curve is a theory developed by supply-side economist Arthur Laffer to show the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments. - Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1.The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) covers establishments in which 20 or more persons are employed.
2.The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is applicable to non-seasonal, manufacturing establishments.
3.National Pension scheme is not applicable to corporate sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
–It covers every establishment in which 20 or more persons are employed (and certain other establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each), subject to certain conditions and exemptions as provided for in the Act.
–The pay ceiling is Rs.15000/- per month. Persons drawing pay above Rs. 15,000/- are exempted or can be enrolled with some permission or on voluntary basis.
Statement 2 is correct. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is applicable to non-seasonal, manufacturing establishments (other than a mine subject to the operation of the Mines Act, 1952, or a railway running shed) employing 10 or more workers. For health and medical institutions, the threshold limit is 20 workers.
–ESI Scheme for India is an integrated social security scheme for the workers in the organized sector and their dependents, in contingencies, such as Sickness, Maternity and Death or Disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.
–The wage ceiling is Rs.21000/- per month. Subscribers are termed as Insured Persons (IP) and a new IP number can also arise due to change in employment.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)’s National Pension scheme (NPS) is an easily accessible, low cost, tax-efficient, flexible and portable retirement account.
— From 1st January 2004, the Central and the State Governments have adopted this scheme for new employees except for armed forces.
–.NPS was extended to Corporate Sector from 2009 onwards and it provides platform for Corporates to make co-contribution in NPS accounts of their subscribers or facilitate them to make their own contributions for their NPS accounts.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
–It covers every establishment in which 20 or more persons are employed (and certain other establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each), subject to certain conditions and exemptions as provided for in the Act.
–The pay ceiling is Rs.15000/- per month. Persons drawing pay above Rs. 15,000/- are exempted or can be enrolled with some permission or on voluntary basis.
Statement 2 is correct. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is applicable to non-seasonal, manufacturing establishments (other than a mine subject to the operation of the Mines Act, 1952, or a railway running shed) employing 10 or more workers. For health and medical institutions, the threshold limit is 20 workers.
–ESI Scheme for India is an integrated social security scheme for the workers in the organized sector and their dependents, in contingencies, such as Sickness, Maternity and Death or Disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.
–The wage ceiling is Rs.21000/- per month. Subscribers are termed as Insured Persons (IP) and a new IP number can also arise due to change in employment.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)’s National Pension scheme (NPS) is an easily accessible, low cost, tax-efficient, flexible and portable retirement account.
— From 1st January 2004, the Central and the State Governments have adopted this scheme for new employees except for armed forces.
–.NPS was extended to Corporate Sector from 2009 onwards and it provides platform for Corporates to make co-contribution in NPS accounts of their subscribers or facilitate them to make their own contributions for their NPS accounts. - Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the PM SVANidhi scheme:
1. This is a Central Sector Scheme to facilitate street vendors to access affordable working capital loan.
2. Credit can be availed from the Scheduled Commercial Banks as well as Regional Rural Banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) is a Central Sector Scheme of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to facilitate street vendors to access affordable working capital loan for resuming their livelihoods activities, after easing of lockdown.
Statement 2 is correct. The credit is being provided by Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Small Finance Banks, Cooperative Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies, Micro-Finance Institutions and SHG Banks.
Salient features of the Scheme:
-Initial working capital of up to `10,000/-
-Interest subsidy on timely/ early repayment at 7%
-Monthly cash-back incentive on digital transactions
-Higher loan eligibility on timely repayment of the first loan.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) is a Central Sector Scheme of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to facilitate street vendors to access affordable working capital loan for resuming their livelihoods activities, after easing of lockdown.
Statement 2 is correct. The credit is being provided by Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Small Finance Banks, Cooperative Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies, Micro-Finance Institutions and SHG Banks.
Salient features of the Scheme:
-Initial working capital of up to `10,000/-
-Interest subsidy on timely/ early repayment at 7%
-Monthly cash-back incentive on digital transactions
-Higher loan eligibility on timely repayment of the first loan. - Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Code on Wages, 2019:
1.The central government may set different floor wages for different geographical areas.
2.The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the floor wage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Code on Wages, 2019 replaced the four laws: (i) the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, (ii) the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, (iii) the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and (iv) the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.As per the Code, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living standards of workers. It may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. Before fixing the floor wage, the central government may obtain the advice of the Central Advisory Board and may consult with state governments.
The Code prohibits employers from paying wages less than the minimum wages. Minimum wages will be notified by the central or state governments. Further, the minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the floor wage.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Code on Wages, 2019 replaced the four laws: (i) the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, (ii) the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, (iii) the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and (iv) the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.As per the Code, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living standards of workers. It may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. Before fixing the floor wage, the central government may obtain the advice of the Central Advisory Board and may consult with state governments.
The Code prohibits employers from paying wages less than the minimum wages. Minimum wages will be notified by the central or state governments. Further, the minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the floor wage.
- Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Platform work:
1. Platform workers use an online platform to access other organizations or individuals to
solve specific problems or to provide specific services.
2. As per Code on Social Security 2020, central government will set up social security fund
for platform workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Code on Social Security provides definition of
Platform Work as a work arrangement outside of a traditional employer-employee
relationship in which organizations or individuals use an online platform to access other
organizations or individuals to solve specific problems or to provide specific services.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code on Social Security, 2020 states that the central
government will set up social security funds for unorganized workers, gig workers and
platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds
for unorganized workers. It also makes provisions for registration of all three categories of
workers – unorganized workers, gig workers and platform workers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Code on Social Security provides definition of
Platform Work as a work arrangement outside of a traditional employer-employee
relationship in which organizations or individuals use an online platform to access other
organizations or individuals to solve specific problems or to provide specific services.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code on Social Security, 2020 states that the central
government will set up social security funds for unorganized workers, gig workers and
platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds
for unorganized workers. It also makes provisions for registration of all three categories of
workers – unorganized workers, gig workers and platform workers. - Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following organization has published the Future of Jobs Report
2020?Correct
The Future of Jobs report by World Economic Forum maps the jobs and
skills of the future, tracking the pace of change.
The report’s key findings include:
–The pace of technology adoption is expected to remain unabated and may accelerate in
some areas.
–Automation, in tandem with the COVID-19 recession, is creating a ‘double-disruption’
scenario for workers. In addition to the current disruption from the pandemic-induced
lockdowns and economic contraction, technological adoption by companies will transform
tasks, jobs and skills by 2025.
–Although the number of jobs destroyed will be surpassed by the number of ‘jobs of
tomorrow’ created, in contrast to previous years, job creation is slowing while job
destruction accelerates.
–In the absence of proactive efforts, inequality is likely to be exacerbated by the dual
impact of technology and the pandemic recession.Incorrect
The Future of Jobs report by World Economic Forum maps the jobs and
skills of the future, tracking the pace of change.
The report’s key findings include:
–The pace of technology adoption is expected to remain unabated and may accelerate in
some areas.
–Automation, in tandem with the COVID-19 recession, is creating a ‘double-disruption’
scenario for workers. In addition to the current disruption from the pandemic-induced
lockdowns and economic contraction, technological adoption by companies will transform
tasks, jobs and skills by 2025.
–Although the number of jobs destroyed will be surpassed by the number of ‘jobs of
tomorrow’ created, in contrast to previous years, job creation is slowing while job
destruction accelerates.
–In the absence of proactive efforts, inequality is likely to be exacerbated by the dual
impact of technology and the pandemic recession. - Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1. The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) covers establishments in which 20 or more persons are employed.
2. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is applicable to non-seasonal, manufacturing establishments.
3. National Pension scheme is not applicable to corporate sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
–It covers every establishment in which 20 or more persons are employed (and certain other establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each), subject to certain conditions and exemptions as provided for in the Act.
–The pay ceiling is Rs.15000/- per month. Persons drawing pay above Rs. 15,000/- are exempted or can be enrolled with some permission or on voluntary basis.Statement 2 is correct. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is applicable to non-seasonal, manufacturing establishments (other than a mine subject to the operation of the Mines Act, 1952, or a railway running shed) employing 10 or more workers. For health and medical institutions, the threshold limit is 20 workers.
–ESI Scheme for India is an integrated social security scheme for the workers in the organized sector and their dependents, in contingencies, such as Sickness, Maternity and Death or Disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.
–The wage ceiling is Rs.21000/- per month. Subscribers are termed as Insured Persons (IP) and a new IP number can also arise due to change in employment.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)’s National Pension scheme (NPS) is an easily accessible, low cost, tax-efficient, flexible and portable retirement account.
— From 1st January 2004, the Central and the State Governments have adopted this scheme for new employees except for armed forces.
–.NPS was extended to Corporate Sector from 2009 onwards and it provides platform for Corporates to make co-contribution in NPS accounts of their subscribers or facilitate them to make their own contributions for their NPS accounts.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
–It covers every establishment in which 20 or more persons are employed (and certain other establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each), subject to certain conditions and exemptions as provided for in the Act.
–The pay ceiling is Rs.15000/- per month. Persons drawing pay above Rs. 15,000/- are exempted or can be enrolled with some permission or on voluntary basis.Statement 2 is correct. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is applicable to non-seasonal, manufacturing establishments (other than a mine subject to the operation of the Mines Act, 1952, or a railway running shed) employing 10 or more workers. For health and medical institutions, the threshold limit is 20 workers.
–ESI Scheme for India is an integrated social security scheme for the workers in the organized sector and their dependents, in contingencies, such as Sickness, Maternity and Death or Disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.
–The wage ceiling is Rs.21000/- per month. Subscribers are termed as Insured Persons (IP) and a new IP number can also arise due to change in employment.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)’s National Pension scheme (NPS) is an easily accessible, low cost, tax-efficient, flexible and portable retirement account.
— From 1st January 2004, the Central and the State Governments have adopted this scheme for new employees except for armed forces.
–.NPS was extended to Corporate Sector from 2009 onwards and it provides platform for Corporates to make co-contribution in NPS accounts of their subscribers or facilitate them to make their own contributions for their NPS accounts.
- Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Code on Wages, 2019:
1. The central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living standards of
workers.
2. It prohibits gender discrimination in matters related to wages and recruitment of
employees for the work of similar nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Code on Wages, 2019 replaces the Payment of Wages Act, 1936,
Minimum Wages Act, 1948, Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act,
1976.
Statement 1 is correct. According to the Code, the central government will fix a floor
wage, taking into account living standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor
wages for different geographical areas.
The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the
floor wage.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code on Wages, 2019 prohibits gender discrimination in
matters related to wages and recruitment of employees for the same work or work of similar
nature. Work of similar nature is defined as work for which the skill, effort, experience,
and responsibility required are the same.Incorrect
The Code on Wages, 2019 replaces the Payment of Wages Act, 1936,
Minimum Wages Act, 1948, Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act,
1976.
Statement 1 is correct. According to the Code, the central government will fix a floor
wage, taking into account living standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor
wages for different geographical areas.
The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the
floor wage.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code on Wages, 2019 prohibits gender discrimination in
matters related to wages and recruitment of employees for the same work or work of similar
nature. Work of similar nature is defined as work for which the skill, effort, experience,
and responsibility required are the same. - Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY):
1.It aims to boost employment in formal sector.
2.Government of India will provide subsidy for two years in respect of new employees engaged between October, 2020 and June, 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Booth statements are correct.
The Union Cabinet has given its approval for Atmanirbhar Bharat RojgarYojana (ABRY) to boost employment in formal sector and incentivize creation of new employment opportunities during the Covid recovery phase under Atmanirbhar Bharat Package 3.0.
–Government of India will provide subsidy for two years in respect of new employees engaged on or after 1st October, 2020 and upto 30th June, 2021
–Government will pay both 12% employees’ contribution and 12% employers’ contribution towards EPF in respect of new employees in establishments employing upto 1000 employees for two years; and only employees’ share of EPF contribution in establishments employing more than 1000 employee for two years.
–An employee drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who was not working in any establishment registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) before 1st October, 2020 and did not have a Universal Account Number or EPF Member account number prior to 1stOctober 2020 will be eligible for the benefit,
–Any EPF member possessing Universal Account Number (UAN) drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who made exit from employment during Covid pandemic from 01.03.2020 to 30.09.2020 and did not join employment in any EPF covered establishment up to 30.09.2020 will also be eligible to avail benefit,Incorrect
Booth statements are correct.
The Union Cabinet has given its approval for Atmanirbhar Bharat RojgarYojana (ABRY) to boost employment in formal sector and incentivize creation of new employment opportunities during the Covid recovery phase under Atmanirbhar Bharat Package 3.0.
–Government of India will provide subsidy for two years in respect of new employees engaged on or after 1st October, 2020 and upto 30th June, 2021
–Government will pay both 12% employees’ contribution and 12% employers’ contribution towards EPF in respect of new employees in establishments employing upto 1000 employees for two years; and only employees’ share of EPF contribution in establishments employing more than 1000 employee for two years.
–An employee drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who was not working in any establishment registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) before 1st October, 2020 and did not have a Universal Account Number or EPF Member account number prior to 1stOctober 2020 will be eligible for the benefit,
–Any EPF member possessing Universal Account Number (UAN) drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who made exit from employment during Covid pandemic from 01.03.2020 to 30.09.2020 and did not join employment in any EPF covered establishment up to 30.09.2020 will also be eligible to avail benefit, - Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1.Labour dispute is a subject in the Concurrent List under the Constitution.
2.As per the Code on Wages, 2019 State governments will fix a floor wages, taking into account living standards of workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre.
Entry 22: Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes.
Entry 23: Social Security and insurance, employment and unemployment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. According to the Code on Wages 2019, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. Before fixing the floor wage, the central government may obtain the advice of the Central Advisory Board and may consult with state governments.
The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the floor wage. In case the existing minimum wages fixed by the central or state governments are higher than the floor wage, they cannot reduce the minimum wages.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre.
Entry 22: Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes.
Entry 23: Social Security and insurance, employment and unemployment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. According to the Code on Wages 2019, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. Before fixing the floor wage, the central government may obtain the advice of the Central Advisory Board and may consult with state governments.
The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the floor wage. In case the existing minimum wages fixed by the central or state governments are higher than the floor wage, they cannot reduce the minimum wages. - Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Code on Wages, 2019:
1.The Code prohibits gender discrimination in matters related to wages and recruitment of employees for the same work or work of similar nature.
2.The Code specifies paying less than the due wages as an offence by the employer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Code on Wages 2019 prohibits gender discrimination in matters related to wages and recruitment of employees for the same work or work of similar nature. Work of similar nature is defined as work for which the skill, effort, experience, and responsibility required are the same.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code specifies penalties for offences committed by an employer, such as (i) paying less than the due wages, or (ii) for contravening any provision of the Code. Penalties vary depending on the nature of offence, with the maximum penalty being imprisonment for three months along with a fine of up to one lakh rupees.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Code on Wages 2019 prohibits gender discrimination in matters related to wages and recruitment of employees for the same work or work of similar nature. Work of similar nature is defined as work for which the skill, effort, experience, and responsibility required are the same.
Statement 2 is correct. The Code specifies penalties for offences committed by an employer, such as (i) paying less than the due wages, or (ii) for contravening any provision of the Code. Penalties vary depending on the nature of offence, with the maximum penalty being imprisonment for three months along with a fine of up to one lakh rupees. - Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyAccording to the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), which of the following five states account for more than half of the growth in the labour force in India?
- Bihar
- West Bengal
- Madhya Pradesh
- Rajasthan
- Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
There is a clear demographic divergence between north-central and south-western regions; one is a young hinterland with vast labour force and the other ones are ageing with decreasing working age population.
Most of the current and future demographic potential is locked in the north-central States, and largely located in Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
As per population projections by UNFPA, these five States will account for more than half of the growth in the labour force in India.
Those who are under 15 years of age today will become India’s working population in coming decades. Almost every second person in this age group resides in these five States.
The accompanying figure shows that there is a gap of almost 20 years between the northern hinterland and southern States in terms of the peak of the working age ratios in these regions.
Incorrect
There is a clear demographic divergence between north-central and south-western regions; one is a young hinterland with vast labour force and the other ones are ageing with decreasing working age population.
Most of the current and future demographic potential is locked in the north-central States, and largely located in Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
As per population projections by UNFPA, these five States will account for more than half of the growth in the labour force in India.
Those who are under 15 years of age today will become India’s working population in coming decades. Almost every second person in this age group resides in these five States.
The accompanying figure shows that there is a gap of almost 20 years between the northern hinterland and southern States in terms of the peak of the working age ratios in these regions.
- Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following acts relevant provisions are subsumed by Code on Wages Bill, 2019?
- The Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
- The Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
- The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.
- The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Lok Sabha passed the Code on Wages Bill, 2019, which amends and consolidates laws relating to wages/bonus and universalizes the provisions of minimum wages and timely payment of wages to all employees irrespective of the sector and wage ceiling.
At present, the provisions of both Minimum Wages Act and Payment of Wages Act apply to workers below a particular wage ceiling working in Scheduled Employments only.
- “This Bill would ensure Right to Sustenance for every worker and intends to increase the legislative protection of minimum wage from existing about 40% to 100% workforce.”
A release issued by the Ministry noted that the Code on Wages Bill, 2019, subsumes relevant provisions of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
After the enactment of the Bill, all these four Acts will get repealed.
Incorrect
Lok Sabha passed the Code on Wages Bill, 2019, which amends and consolidates laws relating to wages/bonus and universalizes the provisions of minimum wages and timely payment of wages to all employees irrespective of the sector and wage ceiling.
At present, the provisions of both Minimum Wages Act and Payment of Wages Act apply to workers below a particular wage ceiling working in Scheduled Employments only.
- “This Bill would ensure Right to Sustenance for every worker and intends to increase the legislative protection of minimum wage from existing about 40% to 100% workforce.”
A release issued by the Ministry noted that the Code on Wages Bill, 2019, subsumes relevant provisions of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
After the enactment of the Bill, all these four Acts will get repealed.
Energy– 2020 and Before that
Energy
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- Question 1 of 18
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS):
1. It is an initiative of the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA).
2. It provides a knowledge sharing platform for the States in renewable energy sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS) is an initiative of the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Statement 2 is correct. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal agency at the central level for promotion of grid-connected and off-grid renewable energy in the country. Ministry’s programmes are implemented in close coordination with State Nodal Agencies (SNAs) for renewable energy (RE).
Over the period the SNAs have developed considerable knowledge and experience in planning and implementation of RE programmes. For SNAs to interact and learn from each other’s experiences and also share their best practices and knowledge regarding technologies and schemes/programmes, MNRE took an initiative in this regard in consultation with SNAs, and Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS) was formed and registered as a society in 2014.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS) is an initiative of the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Statement 2 is correct. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal agency at the central level for promotion of grid-connected and off-grid renewable energy in the country. Ministry’s programmes are implemented in close coordination with State Nodal Agencies (SNAs) for renewable energy (RE).
Over the period the SNAs have developed considerable knowledge and experience in planning and implementation of RE programmes. For SNAs to interact and learn from each other’s experiences and also share their best practices and knowledge regarding technologies and schemes/programmes, MNRE took an initiative in this regard in consultation with SNAs, and Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS) was formed and registered as a society in 2014. - Question 2 of 18
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the recently approved ‘Natural Gas Marketing Reforms’:
1.The affiliate companies can participate in the bidding process for sale of gas.
2.It will grant marketing freedom to the Field Development Plans (FDPs) of certain Blocks with Production Sharing Contracts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has recently approved ‘Natural Gas Marketing Reforms’.
— The policy aims to provide standard procedure for sale of natural gas in a transparent and competitive manner to discover market price by issuing guidelines for sale by contractor through e-bidding.
— The policy has also permitted Affiliate companies to participate in the bidding process in view of the open, transparent and electronic bidding. This will facilitate and promote more competition in marketing of gas. However, rebidding will have to be done in case only affiliates participate, and there are no other bidders.
— The policy will also grant marketing freedom to the Field Development Plans (FDPs) of those Blocks in which Production Sharing Contracts already provide pricing freedom.Incorrect
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has recently approved ‘Natural Gas Marketing Reforms’.
— The policy aims to provide standard procedure for sale of natural gas in a transparent and competitive manner to discover market price by issuing guidelines for sale by contractor through e-bidding.
— The policy has also permitted Affiliate companies to participate in the bidding process in view of the open, transparent and electronic bidding. This will facilitate and promote more competition in marketing of gas. However, rebidding will have to be done in case only affiliates participate, and there are no other bidders.
— The policy will also grant marketing freedom to the Field Development Plans (FDPs) of those Blocks in which Production Sharing Contracts already provide pricing freedom. - Question 3 of 18
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the PM- Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyaan (PM KUSUM):
1. Renewable power plants will be setup by individual farmers, cooperatives, panchayats, farmer producer organisations (FPO) on their barren or cultivable lands.
2. Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar pumps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The PM KUSUM scheme aims to add solar and other renewable capacity of 25,750 MW by 2022.
The Scheme consists of three components:
Component A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants of individual plant size up to 2 MW.
-Renewable power plants of capacity 500 KW to 2 MW will be setup by individual farmers/ cooperatives/panchayats /farmer producer organisations (FPO) on their barren or cultivable lands. The power generated will be purchased by the DISCOMs at Feed in tariffs determined by respective SERC.
Component B: Installation of 17.50 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps of individual pump.
-Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps of capacity up to 7.5 HP.
Component C: Solarisation of 10 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps of individual pump capacity up to 7.5 HP.
-Individual farmers will be supported to solarise pumps of capacity up to 7.5 HP.
For both Component-B and Component-C, central financial assistance (CFA) of 30% of the benchmark cost or the tender cost, whichever is lower, will be provided. The State Government will give a subsidy of 30%; and the remaining 40% will be provided by the farmer.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The PM KUSUM scheme aims to add solar and other renewable capacity of 25,750 MW by 2022.
The Scheme consists of three components:
Component A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants of individual plant size up to 2 MW.
-Renewable power plants of capacity 500 KW to 2 MW will be setup by individual farmers/ cooperatives/panchayats /farmer producer organisations (FPO) on their barren or cultivable lands. The power generated will be purchased by the DISCOMs at Feed in tariffs determined by respective SERC.
Component B: Installation of 17.50 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps of individual pump.
-Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps of capacity up to 7.5 HP.
Component C: Solarisation of 10 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps of individual pump capacity up to 7.5 HP.
-Individual farmers will be supported to solarise pumps of capacity up to 7.5 HP.
For both Component-B and Component-C, central financial assistance (CFA) of 30% of the benchmark cost or the tender cost, whichever is lower, will be provided. The State Government will give a subsidy of 30%; and the remaining 40% will be provided by the farmer. - Question 4 of 18
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the electricity sector of India:
1. Central sector installed capacity accounts for more than half of India’s total installed capacity.
2. Coal based thermal power plants account for more than half of India’s total installed capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Central Sector having an installed capacity of 94,027 MW accounts for about 25.2% of total installed capacity.
Statement 2 is correct. Coal based thermal power plants having 1,99,595 MW installed capacity account for 53.6% of total installed capacity.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Central Sector having an installed capacity of 94,027 MW accounts for about 25.2% of total installed capacity.
Statement 2 is correct. Coal based thermal power plants having 1,99,595 MW installed capacity account for 53.6% of total installed capacity. - Question 5 of 18
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the coal production in India:
1. Overall production of raw coal in India has continuously increased from 2008 to 2018.
2. The coal imports of India has continuously increased from 2008 to 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
According to the economic survey 2018-19, the overall production of raw coal
in India is increased from 2008 to 2018.Incorrect
According to the economic survey 2018-19, the overall production of raw coal
in India is increased from 2008 to 2018. - Question 6 of 18
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the recently approved ‘Natural Gas
Marketing Reforms’:
1. The affiliate companies can participate in the bidding process for sale of gas.
2. It will grant marketing freedom to the Field Development Plans (FDPs) of certain Blocks with Production Sharing Contracts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has recently approved ‘Natural Gas Marketing Reforms’.
— The policy aims to provide standard procedure for sale of natural gas in a transparent and competitive manner to discover market price by issuing guidelines for sale by contractor through e-bidding.
— The policy has also permitted Affiliate companies to participate in the bidding process in view of the open, transparent and electronic bidding. This will facilitate and promote competition in marketing of gas. However, rebidding will have to be done in case only affiliates participate, and there are no other bidders.
— The policy will also grant marketing freedom to the Field Development Plans (FDPs) of those Blocks in which Production Sharing Contracts already provide pricing freedom.Incorrect
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has recently approved ‘Natural Gas Marketing Reforms’.
— The policy aims to provide standard procedure for sale of natural gas in a transparent and competitive manner to discover market price by issuing guidelines for sale by contractor through e-bidding.
— The policy has also permitted Affiliate companies to participate in the bidding process in view of the open, transparent and electronic bidding. This will facilitate and promote competition in marketing of gas. However, rebidding will have to be done in case only affiliates participate, and there are no other bidders.
— The policy will also grant marketing freedom to the Field Development Plans (FDPs) of those Blocks in which Production Sharing Contracts already provide pricing freedom. - Question 7 of 18
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Kisan Suryodaya Yojana:
1. It is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy.
2. The scheme aims at providing solar power to farmers for irrigation during daytime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is a scheme of the Gujarat government.
Prime Minister inaugurated three projects, including Kisan Suryodaya Yojana for the
farmers in Gujarat recently.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the scheme, farmers will be able to avail power supply from
5am to 9pm for irrigation purposes. The state government has allocated a budget of Rs
3,500 crores for installing transmission infrastructure under this scheme by 2023.
Dahod, Patan, Mahisagar, Panchmahal, Chhota Udepur, Kheda, Tapi, Valsad, Anand and
Gir-Somnath districts have been covered under the scheme for 2020-21. The rest will be
included in a phased manner by 2022-23.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is a scheme of the Gujarat government.
Prime Minister inaugurated three projects, including Kisan Suryodaya Yojana for the
farmers in Gujarat recently.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the scheme, farmers will be able to avail power supply from
5am to 9pm for irrigation purposes. The state government has allocated a budget of Rs
3,500 crores for installing transmission infrastructure under this scheme by 2023.
Dahod, Patan, Mahisagar, Panchmahal, Chhota Udepur, Kheda, Tapi, Valsad, Anand and
Gir-Somnath districts have been covered under the scheme for 2020-21. The rest will be
included in a phased manner by 2022-23. - Question 8 of 18
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution has released the ‘Electricity Access in India and
Benchmarking Distribution Utilities’ report?Correct
NITI Aayog, Ministry of Power, Rockefeller Foundation, and Smart Power
India launched the ‘Electricity Access in India and Benchmarking Distribution
Utilities’ report recently.
Based on a primary survey conducted across 10 states––representing about 65% of the total
rural population of India and with a sample size of more than 25,000, including
households, commercial enterprises and institutions––the report assesses 25 distribution
utilities.
Key findings of the report:
— As much as 92% of customers reported the overall availability of electricity infrastructure
within 50 metres of their premises; however, not all have connections, the primary reason
being the distance of households from the nearest pole.
— Overall, 87% of the surveyed customers have access to grid-based electricity. The
remaining 13% either use non-grid sources or don’t use any electricity at all.
— The hours of supply have improved significantly across the customer categories to nearly
17 hours per day.
— Nearly 85% of customers reported to have a metered electricity connection.
— Access to electricity is observed in 83% of household customers.
— A satisfaction index was created to assess the overall satisfaction level of customers with
utility services. The study suggested that a total of 66% of those surveyed were satisfied––
74% of customers in urban areas and 60% in rural areas.Incorrect
NITI Aayog, Ministry of Power, Rockefeller Foundation, and Smart Power
India launched the ‘Electricity Access in India and Benchmarking Distribution
Utilities’ report recently.
Based on a primary survey conducted across 10 states––representing about 65% of the total
rural population of India and with a sample size of more than 25,000, including
households, commercial enterprises and institutions––the report assesses 25 distribution
utilities.
Key findings of the report:
— As much as 92% of customers reported the overall availability of electricity infrastructure
within 50 metres of their premises; however, not all have connections, the primary reason
being the distance of households from the nearest pole.
— Overall, 87% of the surveyed customers have access to grid-based electricity. The
remaining 13% either use non-grid sources or don’t use any electricity at all.
— The hours of supply have improved significantly across the customer categories to nearly
17 hours per day.
— Nearly 85% of customers reported to have a metered electricity connection.
— Access to electricity is observed in 83% of household customers.
— A satisfaction index was created to assess the overall satisfaction level of customers with
utility services. The study suggested that a total of 66% of those surveyed were satisfied––
74% of customers in urban areas and 60% in rural areas. - Question 9 of 18
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding India Energy Forum 2020:
1. It is the inaugural edition being organized by the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
2. It is an intergovernmental summit having participation of heads of governments from ISA
countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
The 2020 edition of the India Energy Forum by CERAWeek is its fourth edition. The event
is hosted by IHS Markit. The theme of this edition is “India’s Energy Future in a world of
Change”.
It is not an intergovernmental summit, rather the event will convene an international group
of speakers and a community of over a a thousand delegates from India and over 30
countries, including from regional energy companies, energy-related industries, institutions
and governments.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
The 2020 edition of the India Energy Forum by CERAWeek is its fourth edition. The event
is hosted by IHS Markit. The theme of this edition is “India’s Energy Future in a world of
Change”.
It is not an intergovernmental summit, rather the event will convene an international group
of speakers and a community of over a a thousand delegates from India and over 30
countries, including from regional energy companies, energy-related industries, institutions
and governments. - Question 10 of 18
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the H-CNG:
1. It is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the hydrogen concentration being 18 percent.
2. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has allowed use of H-CNG in CNG
engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. CNG is compressed natural gas. Natural Gas is
mainly composed of methane, it emits less air pollutants — carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, nitrogen oxides and particulate matter — than petrol or diesel.
H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%.
Tests by the Automotive Research Association of India and Indian Oil Corporation Ltd
(IOCL) have found that compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce emission
of carbon monoxide up to 70%, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has recently
allowed use of H-CNG (18% mix of hydrogen) in CNG engines. A notification for
amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989, for inclusion of H-CNG as an
automotive fuel has been published by the Ministry.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has also developed specifications (IS 17314:2019) of
Hydrogen enriched Compressed Natural Gas (H-CNG) for automotive purposes, as a fuel.
Certain CNG-engine were tested to understand the emission reduction using H-CNG as
compared to ‘neat’ CNG.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. CNG is compressed natural gas. Natural Gas is
mainly composed of methane, it emits less air pollutants — carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, nitrogen oxides and particulate matter — than petrol or diesel.
H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%.
Tests by the Automotive Research Association of India and Indian Oil Corporation Ltd
(IOCL) have found that compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce emission
of carbon monoxide up to 70%, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has recently
allowed use of H-CNG (18% mix of hydrogen) in CNG engines. A notification for
amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989, for inclusion of H-CNG as an
automotive fuel has been published by the Ministry.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has also developed specifications (IS 17314:2019) of
Hydrogen enriched Compressed Natural Gas (H-CNG) for automotive purposes, as a fuel.
Certain CNG-engine were tested to understand the emission reduction using H-CNG as
compared to ‘neat’ CNG. - Question 11 of 18
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Coal Gasification:
- The gasification of coal can produce synthesis gas, a mixture primarily consisting carbon
monoxide and hydrogen.
- Emission control is easier and simpler in coal gasification than in combustion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Coal is a complex and highly variable substance that can be converted into a variety of
products. The gasification of coal is one method that can produce power, liquid fuels,
chemicals, and hydrogen.
Coal gasification is the process of producing synthesis gas (syngas)—a mixture
consisting primarily of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, natural gas, and water
vapour—from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
After the impurities are removed from the synthesis gas, the carbon monoxide in the gas
mixture is reacted with steam through the water-gas shift reaction to produce additional
hydrogen and carbon dioxide. Hydrogen is removed by a separation system, and the highly
concentrated carbon dioxide stream can subsequently be captured and stored.
The gasification has inherent advantages over combustion for emissions control.
Emission control is simpler in gasification than in combustion because the produced
syngas in gasification is at higher temperature and pressure than the exhaust gases
produced in combustion. These higher temperatures and pressures allow for easier
removal of sulfur and nitrous oxides (SOx, and NOx), and volatile trace contaminants
such as mercury, arsenic, selenium, cadmium, etc.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Coal is a complex and highly variable substance that can be converted into a variety of
products. The gasification of coal is one method that can produce power, liquid fuels,
chemicals, and hydrogen.
Coal gasification is the process of producing synthesis gas (syngas)—a mixture
consisting primarily of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, natural gas, and water
vapour—from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
After the impurities are removed from the synthesis gas, the carbon monoxide in the gas
mixture is reacted with steam through the water-gas shift reaction to produce additional
hydrogen and carbon dioxide. Hydrogen is removed by a separation system, and the highly
concentrated carbon dioxide stream can subsequently be captured and stored.
The gasification has inherent advantages over combustion for emissions control.
Emission control is simpler in gasification than in combustion because the produced
syngas in gasification is at higher temperature and pressure than the exhaust gases
produced in combustion. These higher temperatures and pressures allow for easier
removal of sulfur and nitrous oxides (SOx, and NOx), and volatile trace contaminants
such as mercury, arsenic, selenium, cadmium, etc.
- Question 12 of 18
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM):
- The Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) has launched the GTAM on its platform.
- The pan India GTAM benefits buyers of Renewable Energy through competitive prices
and sellers by providing access to nation-wide market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Energy Exchange recently launched the
GTAM on its power trading platform after receiving approval from the Central Electricity
Regulatory Commission (CERC).
The market will offer trade in four types of green term-ahead contracts -Green Intra-day
contracts, Day-ahead Contingency contracts, Daily Contracts and Weekly contracts. There
will be separate contracts for Solar and Non-Solar energy to facilitate Solar and Non-Solar
Renewable Purchase Obligations fulfillment.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on
RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own renewable
purchase obligations. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in
achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country.
The GTAM platform will lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy
sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible
procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Energy Exchange recently launched the
GTAM on its power trading platform after receiving approval from the Central Electricity
Regulatory Commission (CERC).
The market will offer trade in four types of green term-ahead contracts -Green Intra-day
contracts, Day-ahead Contingency contracts, Daily Contracts and Weekly contracts. There
will be separate contracts for Solar and Non-Solar energy to facilitate Solar and Non-Solar
Renewable Purchase Obligations fulfillment.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on
RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own renewable
purchase obligations. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in
achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country.
The GTAM platform will lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy
sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible
procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market.
- Question 13 of 18
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are feature(s) of the ‘Saubhagya’ scheme?
- Free electricity connections to all households in rural areas and poor families in urban
areas.
- Solar Photovoltaic (SPV) based standalone system for un-electrified households located in
remote and inaccessible habitations.
- Beneficiary households under the scheme are identified using Socio Economic and Caste
Census (SECC) 2011 data.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana – “Saubhagya” was launched
with an aim to achieve universal household electrification.
Statement 1 is correct. Under Saubhagya free electricity connections to all households
(both APL and poor families) in rural areas and poor families in urban areas will be
provided. Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) has been designated as nodal agency for
the Saubhagya scheme.
Statement 2 is correct. Schemes targets for providing Solar Photovoltaic (SPV) based
standalone system for un-electrified households located in remote and inaccessible villages
/ habitations, where grid extension is not feasible or cost effective.
Statement 3 is correct. The prospective beneficiary households for free electricity
connections under the scheme would be identified using SECC 2011 data. However, unelectrified
households not covered under SECC data would also be provided electricity
connections under the scheme on payment of Rs. 500 which shall be recovered by
DISCOMs in 10 instalments through electricity bill.
Incorrect
Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana – “Saubhagya” was launched
with an aim to achieve universal household electrification.
Statement 1 is correct. Under Saubhagya free electricity connections to all households
(both APL and poor families) in rural areas and poor families in urban areas will be
provided. Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) has been designated as nodal agency for
the Saubhagya scheme.
Statement 2 is correct. Schemes targets for providing Solar Photovoltaic (SPV) based
standalone system for un-electrified households located in remote and inaccessible villages
/ habitations, where grid extension is not feasible or cost effective.
Statement 3 is correct. The prospective beneficiary households for free electricity
connections under the scheme would be identified using SECC 2011 data. However, unelectrified
households not covered under SECC data would also be provided electricity
connections under the scheme on payment of Rs. 500 which shall be recovered by
DISCOMs in 10 instalments through electricity bill.
- Question 14 of 18
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statements correctly defines Uranium enrichment?
Correct
Natural uranium deposits exist all over the world, but uranium in this form is not suitable for nuclear weapons, and cannot be used in most nuclear reactors for either electricity or plutonium production.
Natural uranium is composed of various isotopes, or different types of uranium. It contains approximately 99.3% of the isotope uranium-238, and has only very small concentrations, about 0.7%, of the fissile isotope uranium-235. An isotope is considered fissile if it can be split by a slow-moving neutron.
Uranium-235 is the most significant fissile isotope of uranium for reactor fuel and nuclear weapons. To be useful for either of these purposes, the concentration of uranium-235 must be increased by separating it from uranium-238 through a process known as enrichment.
Incorrect
Natural uranium deposits exist all over the world, but uranium in this form is not suitable for nuclear weapons, and cannot be used in most nuclear reactors for either electricity or plutonium production.
Natural uranium is composed of various isotopes, or different types of uranium. It contains approximately 99.3% of the isotope uranium-238, and has only very small concentrations, about 0.7%, of the fissile isotope uranium-235. An isotope is considered fissile if it can be split by a slow-moving neutron.
Uranium-235 is the most significant fissile isotope of uranium for reactor fuel and nuclear weapons. To be useful for either of these purposes, the concentration of uranium-235 must be increased by separating it from uranium-238 through a process known as enrichment.
- Question 15 of 18
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Hydrology Project (NHP):
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with 50:50 cost shared between the States and Center.
- It aims to improve the extent, quality, and accessibility of water resources information, decision support system for floods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Hydrology Project (World Bank supported initiative of Ministry of Jal Shakti) is a Central Sector Scheme, with 100% grant to the States. Its Budget Outlay is about Rs3,680 Crore, with World Bank Assistance to the tune of 50% of the project cost.
Project Timeline: 8 years from 2016-17 to 2023-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Project Objective is to improve the extent, quality, and accessibility of water resources information, decision support system for floods and basin level resource assessment/planning and to strengthen the capacity of targeted water resources professionals and management institutions in India.
The Project, in its mid-term, has made significant progress in the fields of Water resource monitoring system, water resource information system (WRIS), water resource operation and planning systems and institutional capacity enhancement. Under the NHP, a nationwide repository of water resources data – NWIC has been established. NHP is focusing on establishment of real time data acquisition system (RTDAS) on pan India basis.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Hydrology Project (World Bank supported initiative of Ministry of Jal Shakti) is a Central Sector Scheme, with 100% grant to the States. Its Budget Outlay is about Rs3,680 Crore, with World Bank Assistance to the tune of 50% of the project cost.
Project Timeline: 8 years from 2016-17 to 2023-24.
Statement 2 is correct. Project Objective is to improve the extent, quality, and accessibility of water resources information, decision support system for floods and basin level resource assessment/planning and to strengthen the capacity of targeted water resources professionals and management institutions in India.
The Project, in its mid-term, has made significant progress in the fields of Water resource monitoring system, water resource information system (WRIS), water resource operation and planning systems and institutional capacity enhancement. Under the NHP, a nationwide repository of water resources data – NWIC has been established. NHP is focusing on establishment of real time data acquisition system (RTDAS) on pan India basis.
- Question 16 of 18
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is E20 fuel, for adoption of which the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is seeking comments from the public?
Correct
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is seeking comments from the public for adoption of E20 fuel, i.e, blend of 20% of ethanol with gasoline, as an automotive fuel and for the adoption of mass emission standards for this fuel.
The notification facilitates the development of E20 compliant vehicles. It will also help in reducing emissions of carbon dioxide, hydrocarbons, etc. It will help reduce the oil import bill, thereby saving foreign exchange and boosting energy security.
The compatibility of the vehicle to the percentage of ethanol in the blend of ethanol and gasoline shall be defined by the vehicle manufacturer and the same shall be displayed on the vehicle by putting a clearly visible sticker.
Incorrect
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is seeking comments from the public for adoption of E20 fuel, i.e, blend of 20% of ethanol with gasoline, as an automotive fuel and for the adoption of mass emission standards for this fuel.
The notification facilitates the development of E20 compliant vehicles. It will also help in reducing emissions of carbon dioxide, hydrocarbons, etc. It will help reduce the oil import bill, thereby saving foreign exchange and boosting energy security.
The compatibility of the vehicle to the percentage of ethanol in the blend of ethanol and gasoline shall be defined by the vehicle manufacturer and the same shall be displayed on the vehicle by putting a clearly visible sticker.
- Question 17 of 18
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhere is the R Cluster of the KGD6 basin located?
Correct
Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) and British multinational oil and gas major BP Plc have announced their first gas finding in what is Asia’s deepest offshore field.
The combine has struck gas at the ultra-deep-water gas field called R Cluster of the Krishna Godavari (KG) D6 basin. Other than this, the combine is also developing two more deep-water gas fields in KG D6 block, called the Satellites Cluster and MJ.
The field (R cluster) is located about 60 kilometers from the existing KG D6 Control & Riser Platform (CRP) off the Kakinada coast and comprises a subsea production system tied back to CRP via a subsea pipeline.
Incorrect
Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) and British multinational oil and gas major BP Plc have announced their first gas finding in what is Asia’s deepest offshore field.
The combine has struck gas at the ultra-deep-water gas field called R Cluster of the Krishna Godavari (KG) D6 basin. Other than this, the combine is also developing two more deep-water gas fields in KG D6 block, called the Satellites Cluster and MJ.
The field (R cluster) is located about 60 kilometers from the existing KG D6 Control & Riser Platform (CRP) off the Kakinada coast and comprises a subsea production system tied back to CRP via a subsea pipeline.
- Question 18 of 18
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is the major component of the Piped Natural Gas (PNG)?
Correct
Natural gas as its name indicates is a Gaseous fuel, consisting of 87-92% of Methane with a small percentage of other higher hydrocarbons.
PNG, CNG & LNG are different forms of Natural gas under varied temperature & pressure.
Piped Natural Gas (PNG) is generally under atmospheric temperatures but the pressure can up to as high as 90 Kg/cm2 in transmission lines and limited to less than 24 Kg/cm2 in City Gas grids due to risk involved in movement of high-pressure gas inside crowded cities/towns.
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) means natural gas used as fuel for vehicles, typically compressed to the pressure ranging from 200 to 250 kg/cm2 in the gaseous state.
Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquid form of Natural gas, generally intended for transportation of large volumes through ships, where cross country pipelines are not feasible. There will be high degree of economy in transportation logistics due to large scale of operations involved.
Incorrect
Natural gas as its name indicates is a Gaseous fuel, consisting of 87-92% of Methane with a small percentage of other higher hydrocarbons.
PNG, CNG & LNG are different forms of Natural gas under varied temperature & pressure.
Piped Natural Gas (PNG) is generally under atmospheric temperatures but the pressure can up to as high as 90 Kg/cm2 in transmission lines and limited to less than 24 Kg/cm2 in City Gas grids due to risk involved in movement of high-pressure gas inside crowded cities/towns.
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) means natural gas used as fuel for vehicles, typically compressed to the pressure ranging from 200 to 250 kg/cm2 in the gaseous state.
Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquid form of Natural gas, generally intended for transportation of large volumes through ships, where cross country pipelines are not feasible. There will be high degree of economy in transportation logistics due to large scale of operations involved.
Infrastructure– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Infrastructure– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Infrastructure– 2020 and Before that
Infrastructure
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is proposed on which of the following River?
Correct
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana.
Its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers. The Pranahita River is itself a confluence of various smaller tributaries including the Wardha, Painganga, and Wainganga rivers.
# The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has held that environmental clearance (EC) to Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) was granted ex post facto, after completion of substantial work, by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) “in violation of law”.Incorrect
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana.
Its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers. The Pranahita River is itself a confluence of various smaller tributaries including the Wardha, Painganga, and Wainganga rivers.
# The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has held that environmental clearance (EC) to Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) was granted ex post facto, after completion of substantial work, by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) “in violation of law”. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Atal Tunnel:
1.The tunnel is to connect Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year.
2.The Railway Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The recently inaugurated 9.02 Km long Atal tunnel connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year. Earlier the valley was cut off for about 6 months each year owing to heavy snowfall.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is horse shoe shaped, single tube double lane highway tunnel (not railway). The Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas at an altitude of 3000 Mtrs (10,000 Feet) from the Mean Sea Level (MSL).Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The recently inaugurated 9.02 Km long Atal tunnel connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year. Earlier the valley was cut off for about 6 months each year owing to heavy snowfall.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is horse shoe shaped, single tube double lane highway tunnel (not railway). The Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas at an altitude of 3000 Mtrs (10,000 Feet) from the Mean Sea Level (MSL). - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhere is Dhaulasidh Hydro Project located?
Correct
The Union Government has recently given approval for the construction of 66 Megawatt Dhaulasidh hydroelectric projects in Hamirpur district, Himachal Pradesh.
It is a run of river scheme on river Beas with a concrete gravity dam. The dam would create a reservoir of about 20 Kilometer. The project is being implemented by the Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited (SJVNL).Incorrect
The Union Government has recently given approval for the construction of 66 Megawatt Dhaulasidh hydroelectric projects in Hamirpur district, Himachal Pradesh.
It is a run of river scheme on river Beas with a concrete gravity dam. The dam would create a reservoir of about 20 Kilometer. The project is being implemented by the Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited (SJVNL). - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Char Dham Pariyojna:
1. The projects under it lie within the State of Uttarakhand only.
2. The Border Road Organization (BRO) is executing the complete project by itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Char Dham National Highway (NH) connectivity programme comprises projects of improvement/development of 889 km length of NHs leading to Yamunotri Dham, Gangotri Dham, Kedarnath Dham, Badrinath Dham. Projects under Char Dham lie within the State of Uttarakhand only.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The works under Char Dham Pariyojna are being implemented on Engineering Procurement and Construction (EPC) mode of contract. These projects are being implemented by 3 executing agencies of Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, viz, Uttarakhand State PWD, Border Road Organization (BRO) and National Highway & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL).Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Char Dham National Highway (NH) connectivity programme comprises projects of improvement/development of 889 km length of NHs leading to Yamunotri Dham, Gangotri Dham, Kedarnath Dham, Badrinath Dham. Projects under Char Dham lie within the State of Uttarakhand only.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The works under Char Dham Pariyojna are being implemented on Engineering Procurement and Construction (EPC) mode of contract. These projects are being implemented by 3 executing agencies of Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, viz, Uttarakhand State PWD, Border Road Organization (BRO) and National Highway & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL). - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Farzad B Gas Field– Iran
2. Baghjan Oil Field– India
3. Ghawar Oil Field– Saudi Arabia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above gas/oil fields are correctly matched.
Farzad B Gas Field is located in Persian Gulf under the control of Iran. India has plans to invest in the exploration of this oilfield.
Baghjan Oil field is in Tinsukia district of Assam. Recently a massive fire engulfed the damaged Baghjan oil well in Assam.
Ghawar Oil Field is located in Eastern Province, Saudi Arabia, owned and operated by state-owned Saudi Aramco. It is one of the largest conventional oil field in the world, and accounts for roughly a third of the cumulative oil production of Saudi Arabia.Incorrect
All of the above gas/oil fields are correctly matched.
Farzad B Gas Field is located in Persian Gulf under the control of Iran. India has plans to invest in the exploration of this oilfield.
Baghjan Oil field is in Tinsukia district of Assam. Recently a massive fire engulfed the damaged Baghjan oil well in Assam.
Ghawar Oil Field is located in Eastern Province, Saudi Arabia, owned and operated by state-owned Saudi Aramco. It is one of the largest conventional oil field in the world, and accounts for roughly a third of the cumulative oil production of Saudi Arabia. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Bharatmala Pariyojana:
1. It focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country.
2. It aims to promote port-led development in the country by harnessing India’s coastline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions like development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads, Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways.
# A multi-modal logistic park is being developed in Assam under the Bharatmala Pariyojna.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sagarmala programme aims to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions like development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads, Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways.
# A multi-modal logistic park is being developed in Assam under the Bharatmala Pariyojna.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sagarmala programme aims to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme:
1.The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is the Implementing Agency for the Scheme.
2.It provides Viability Gap Funding to selected airline operators for passenger as well as cargo operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. RCS-UDAN, “Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik” is a Government of India’s flagship program which aims to provide affordable, economically viable and profitable air travel on regional routes. This Regional Connectivity Scheme offers unique opportunity to a common man to fly at an affordable price.
The Airports Authority of India (AAI) has been designated as the Implementing Agency under this Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under this Scheme, support is provided to Selected Airline Operator(s) in the form of Viability Gap Funding and other concessions / support offered by the Central Government, State Governments and airport operators but the VGF support is not provided for cargo operations.
# UDAN has played a major role in adding new airports and routes to the aviation landscape of the country. 50 unserved and underserved airports (including 5 heliports) with 285 routes have been added under UDAN across the length and breadth of India. AAI has an ambitious plan to develop at least 100 airports/waterdromes/heliports by 2024 under the Scheme.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. RCS-UDAN, “Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik” is a Government of India’s flagship program which aims to provide affordable, economically viable and profitable air travel on regional routes. This Regional Connectivity Scheme offers unique opportunity to a common man to fly at an affordable price.
The Airports Authority of India (AAI) has been designated as the Implementing Agency under this Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under this Scheme, support is provided to Selected Airline Operator(s) in the form of Viability Gap Funding and other concessions / support offered by the Central Government, State Governments and airport operators but the VGF support is not provided for cargo operations.
# UDAN has played a major role in adding new airports and routes to the aviation landscape of the country. 50 unserved and underserved airports (including 5 heliports) with 285 routes have been added under UDAN across the length and breadth of India. AAI has an ambitious plan to develop at least 100 airports/waterdromes/heliports by 2024 under the Scheme. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP):
1. The scheme aims at strengthening dam safety in the Himalayan region of India only.
2. The project is supported by the financial assistance from the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The project originally [2011] envisaged the rehabilitation and improvement of 223 dam projects in four states namely, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu. Later Karnataka, Uttarakhand (UJVNL) and Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) joined the DRIP.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages comprehensive rehabilitation of 736 existing dams located across the country.
Statement 2 is correct. The Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) started with financial assistance from World Bank in 2011.
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the DRIP Phase II & Phase III with the financial assistance of the World Bank (WB), and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) to improve the safety and operational performance of selected dams across the whole country, along with institutional strengthening with system wide management approach.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages the following objectives:
— To improve the safety and performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
— To strengthen the dam safety institutional setup in participating states as well as at central level, and
— To explore the alternative incidental means at few of selected dams to generate the incidental revenue for sustainable operation and maintenance of damsIncorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The project originally [2011] envisaged the rehabilitation and improvement of 223 dam projects in four states namely, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu. Later Karnataka, Uttarakhand (UJVNL) and Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) joined the DRIP.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages comprehensive rehabilitation of 736 existing dams located across the country.
Statement 2 is correct. The Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) started with financial assistance from World Bank in 2011.
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the DRIP Phase II & Phase III with the financial assistance of the World Bank (WB), and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) to improve the safety and operational performance of selected dams across the whole country, along with institutional strengthening with system wide management approach.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages the following objectives:
— To improve the safety and performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
— To strengthen the dam safety institutional setup in participating states as well as at central level, and
— To explore the alternative incidental means at few of selected dams to generate the incidental revenue for sustainable operation and maintenance of dams - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Meri Saheli” initiative of Indian Railways:
1.This initiative provides a fifty percent reservation for female passengers on selected routes.
2.The initiative is based on feedback from female passengers and corrective actions thereon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian Railways has launched “Meri Saheli” initiative for focused action on security of women across all zones with an objective to provide safety and security to lady passengers travelling by trains for their entire journey from starting station to destination station.
Statement 2 is correct. An initiative of RPF, the Strategy entails interaction with lady passengers especially those travelling alone by a team of young lady RPF personnel at the originating station.
RPF teams at the destination collect the feedback from the identified lady passengers. The feedback is then analysed and corrective action, if any, is taken. If some distress call comes from a train covered under “Meri Saheli” initiative, the disposal of the call is monitored at the level of senior officers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian Railways has launched “Meri Saheli” initiative for focused action on security of women across all zones with an objective to provide safety and security to lady passengers travelling by trains for their entire journey from starting station to destination station.
Statement 2 is correct. An initiative of RPF, the Strategy entails interaction with lady passengers especially those travelling alone by a team of young lady RPF personnel at the originating station.
RPF teams at the destination collect the feedback from the identified lady passengers. The feedback is then analysed and corrective action, if any, is taken. If some distress call comes from a train covered under “Meri Saheli” initiative, the disposal of the call is monitored at the level of senior officers. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are proposals under the draft Coastal Shipping Bill, 2020?
1.It is proposed to do away with the requirement of trading licence for Indian flag vessels for coastal trade.
2.Integration of coastal maritime transport with inland waterways.
3.National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan to be implemented.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Ministry of Shipping has issued the draft of Coastal Shipping Bill, 2020 for suggestions from the stakeholders and general public
As the shipping sector grows and evolves in the country, a need was felt to have a separate legislation on coastal shipping, which considers it an integral part of the transport chain and recognizes the policy priorities of the sector to meet the demands of the Indian shipping industry. While drafting this Bill, the global best practices have also been considered.
–The definition of coastal shipping and coastal waters has been expanded.
–It is proposed to do away with the requirement of trading licence for Indian flag vessels for coastal trade.
–The Bill seeks to create a competitive environment and reduce transportation costs, while encouraging Indian vessels to increase their share in coastal shipping.
–The Bill also proposes integration of coastal maritime transport with inland waterways.
–There is a provision for a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan.Incorrect
Ministry of Shipping has issued the draft of Coastal Shipping Bill, 2020 for suggestions from the stakeholders and general public
As the shipping sector grows and evolves in the country, a need was felt to have a separate legislation on coastal shipping, which considers it an integral part of the transport chain and recognizes the policy priorities of the sector to meet the demands of the Indian shipping industry. While drafting this Bill, the global best practices have also been considered.
–The definition of coastal shipping and coastal waters has been expanded.
–It is proposed to do away with the requirement of trading licence for Indian flag vessels for coastal trade.
–The Bill seeks to create a competitive environment and reduce transportation costs, while encouraging Indian vessels to increase their share in coastal shipping.
–The Bill also proposes integration of coastal maritime transport with inland waterways.
–There is a provision for a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020:
1. The Bill will apply to New Mangalore and Mormugao ports among other the major ports of India.
2. It provides for the creation of a Board of Major Port Authority for each major port replacing the existing Port Trusts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020seeks to provide for regulation, operation and planning of major ports in India and provide greater autonomy to these ports. It seeks to replace the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill will apply to the major ports of Chennai, Cochin, Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Kandla, Kolkata, Mumbai, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Paradip, V.O. Chidambaranar, and Vishakhapatnam.
Statement 2 is correct. The Bill provides for the creation of a Board of Major Port Authority for each major port. These Boards will replace the existing Port Trusts of 1963 Act.
The Board will comprise of a Chairperson and a deputy Chairperson, both appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a selection committee; one member each from (i) the respective state governments, (ii) the Railways Ministry, (iii) the Defence Ministry, and (iv) the Customs Department The Board will also include two to four independent members, and two members representing the interests of the employees of the Major Port Authority.Incorrect
Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020seeks to provide for regulation, operation and planning of major ports in India and provide greater autonomy to these ports. It seeks to replace the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill will apply to the major ports of Chennai, Cochin, Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Kandla, Kolkata, Mumbai, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Paradip, V.O. Chidambaranar, and Vishakhapatnam.
Statement 2 is correct. The Bill provides for the creation of a Board of Major Port Authority for each major port. These Boards will replace the existing Port Trusts of 1963 Act.
The Board will comprise of a Chairperson and a deputy Chairperson, both appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a selection committee; one member each from (i) the respective state governments, (ii) the Railways Ministry, (iii) the Defence Ministry, and (iv) the Customs Department The Board will also include two to four independent members, and two members representing the interests of the employees of the Major Port Authority. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the SAROD-Ports:
1. It is a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
2. It will advise and assist in settlement of disputes through arbitrations in the maritime sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. SAROD-Ports (Society for Affordable Redressal of Disputes – Ports) is established under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Statement 2 is correct. SAROD-Ports objectives:
-Affordable and timely resolution of disputes in fair manner
-Enrichment of Dispute Resolution Mechanism with the panel of technical experts as arbitrators.
SAROD-Ports consists members from Indian Ports Association (IPA) and Indian Private Ports and Terminals Association (IPTTA).
SAROD-Ports will advise and assist in settlement of disputes through arbitrations in the maritime sector, including ports and shipping sector in Major Port Trusts, Non-major Ports, including private ports, jetties, terminals and harbours. It will also cover disputes between granting authority and Licensee/Concessionaire /Contractor and also disputes between Licensee/Concessionaire and their contractors arising out of and during the course of execution of various contracts.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. SAROD-Ports (Society for Affordable Redressal of Disputes – Ports) is established under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Statement 2 is correct. SAROD-Ports objectives:
-Affordable and timely resolution of disputes in fair manner
-Enrichment of Dispute Resolution Mechanism with the panel of technical experts as arbitrators.
SAROD-Ports consists members from Indian Ports Association (IPA) and Indian Private Ports and Terminals Association (IPTTA).
SAROD-Ports will advise and assist in settlement of disputes through arbitrations in the maritime sector, including ports and shipping sector in Major Port Trusts, Non-major Ports, including private ports, jetties, terminals and harbours. It will also cover disputes between granting authority and Licensee/Concessionaire /Contractor and also disputes between Licensee/Concessionaire and their contractors arising out of and during the course of execution of various contracts. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe proposed Kra Isthmus canal would connect which of the following water bodies?
Correct
The Thai Canal or Kra Isthmus Canal is a project that would connect the Gulf of Thailand with the Andaman Sea across the Kra Isthmus in southern Thailand.
The canal would provide an alternative to transit through the Straits of Malacca and shorten transit for shipments of oil to Japan and China.Incorrect
The Thai Canal or Kra Isthmus Canal is a project that would connect the Gulf of Thailand with the Andaman Sea across the Kra Isthmus in southern Thailand.
The canal would provide an alternative to transit through the Straits of Malacca and shorten transit for shipments of oil to Japan and China. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Air Transport Bubbles:
1. These are temporary arrangements between two countries for restarting international flight services which are suspended due to COVID-19 pandemic.
2. India has not entered any Air Bubble agreement in view of rising spread of the COVID-19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. “Transport Bubbles” or “Air Travel Arrangements” are temporary arrangements between two countries aimed at restarting commercial passenger services when regular international flights are suspended as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic.
They are reciprocal in nature, meaning airlines from both countries enjoy similar benefits.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has entered into Air Bubble agreements with 10 countries viz. USA, Canada, France, Germany, UK, Maldives, UAE, Qatar, Afghanistan and Bahrain, till 13.09.2020.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. “Transport Bubbles” or “Air Travel Arrangements” are temporary arrangements between two countries aimed at restarting commercial passenger services when regular international flights are suspended as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic.
They are reciprocal in nature, meaning airlines from both countries enjoy similar benefits.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has entered into Air Bubble agreements with 10 countries viz. USA, Canada, France, Germany, UK, Maldives, UAE, Qatar, Afghanistan and Bahrain, till 13.09.2020. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
- It is a five-year investment plan to provide world-class infrastructure across the country and improve the quality of life for all citizens.
- The NIP will be completely funded from domestic resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Infrastructure Pipeline is an effort to augment India’s infrastructure through an identified investment of INR 111 Lakh crores between FY 2020-25. It is a first-of-its-kind, whole-of-government exercise to provide world-class infrastructure across the country, and improve the quality of life for all citizens.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It aims to improve project preparation, attract investments (both domestic and foreign) into infrastructure, and will be crucial for target of becoming a $5 trillion economy by FY 2025.
The NIP project database is hosted on India Investment Grid (IIG) and the online dashboard as a one-stop solution for all stakeholders looking for information on infrastructure projects in India has been recently unveiled by the Finance Minister.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Infrastructure Pipeline is an effort to augment India’s infrastructure through an identified investment of INR 111 Lakh crores between FY 2020-25. It is a first-of-its-kind, whole-of-government exercise to provide world-class infrastructure across the country, and improve the quality of life for all citizens.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It aims to improve project preparation, attract investments (both domestic and foreign) into infrastructure, and will be crucial for target of becoming a $5 trillion economy by FY 2025.
The NIP project database is hosted on India Investment Grid (IIG) and the online dashboard as a one-stop solution for all stakeholders looking for information on infrastructure projects in India has been recently unveiled by the Finance Minister.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- The Green Highways Policy 2015 promotes greening of Highway corridors with participation of the community, private sector, NGOs, and government.
- The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has developed a mobile App ‘Harit Path’ to track plantation along national highways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Green Highways (Plantation, Transplantation, Beautification & Maintenance) Policy, 2015 of the Ministry Road Transport & Highways and Shipping promotes greening and development eco-friendly National Highway corridors across the country with participation of farmers, private sector and government institutions including Forest Department.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, has developed a mobile App called ‘Harit Path’ to monitor location, growth, species details, maintenance activities, targets and achievements of each of its field units for each and every plant under all plantation projects.
In order to track the growth and health of the plants, photographs along with data of the plants captured using Harit Path shall be uploaded every 3 months on NHAI’s AI powered Big Data Analytics platform – Data Lake.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Green Highways (Plantation, Transplantation, Beautification & Maintenance) Policy, 2015 of the Ministry Road Transport & Highways and Shipping promotes greening and development eco-friendly National Highway corridors across the country with participation of farmers, private sector and government institutions including Forest Department.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, has developed a mobile App called ‘Harit Path’ to monitor location, growth, species details, maintenance activities, targets and achievements of each of its field units for each and every plant under all plantation projects.
In order to track the growth and health of the plants, photographs along with data of the plants captured using Harit Path shall be uploaded every 3 months on NHAI’s AI powered Big Data Analytics platform – Data Lake.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term “Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR)” often seen news is related to which of the
following?
Correct
Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR).
- The telecom sector was liberalized under the National Telecom Policy, 1994 after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
- To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
- Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
- License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
- AGR is then computed after allowing for certain deductions spelt out in these license agreements.
- The LF and SUC were set at 8 per cent and between 3-5 per cent of AGR respectively, based on the agreement.
Incorrect
Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR).
- The telecom sector was liberalized under the National Telecom Policy, 1994 after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
- To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
- Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
- License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
- AGR is then computed after allowing for certain deductions spelt out in these license agreements.
- The LF and SUC were set at 8 per cent and between 3-5 per cent of AGR respectively, based on the agreement.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Silver line project, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following state?
Correct
The Kerala Rail Development Corporation (KRDCL) is confident that the ₹66,405-crore Thiruvananthapuram-Kasaragod semi-high-speed rail corridor project (named Silver Line) for which year 2024 has been set as the deadline, will be economically feasible and attain operational break-even within 10 years of being commissioned.
Of the total cost of the 532-km project, around 50% will be loan at less than 1% interest from multilateral lending agencies such as KfW, AIIB (Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank), JICA (Japan International Cooperation Agency), or ADB (Asian Development Bank).
Repayment is assured since there will be a rate of return of 8.1% on the investment. The balance amount will be raised from equity and (subordinate) debt from from the State and Central governments
Incorrect
The Kerala Rail Development Corporation (KRDCL) is confident that the ₹66,405-crore Thiruvananthapuram-Kasaragod semi-high-speed rail corridor project (named Silver Line) for which year 2024 has been set as the deadline, will be economically feasible and attain operational break-even within 10 years of being commissioned.
Of the total cost of the 532-km project, around 50% will be loan at less than 1% interest from multilateral lending agencies such as KfW, AIIB (Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank), JICA (Japan International Cooperation Agency), or ADB (Asian Development Bank).
Repayment is assured since there will be a rate of return of 8.1% on the investment. The balance amount will be raised from equity and (subordinate) debt from from the State and Central governments
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“Mission Purvodaya” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Mission Purvodaya in steel sector envisions creating an integrated steel hub in Eastern India.
With abundance of raw materials, strategic geographical location and strong and developing connectivity, Odisha is well poised to be the heart of this eastern steel hub.
The Mission is rolled out by Union Petroleum and Natural Gas & Steel Ministry.
More than 75% of India‘s envisioned incremental steel capacity will come from eastern India, with Odisha alone crossing 100 MTPA.
In Odisha, Kalinganagar will be developed as the epicenter of Mission Purvodaya
Incorrect
Mission Purvodaya in steel sector envisions creating an integrated steel hub in Eastern India.
With abundance of raw materials, strategic geographical location and strong and developing connectivity, Odisha is well poised to be the heart of this eastern steel hub.
The Mission is rolled out by Union Petroleum and Natural Gas & Steel Ministry.
More than 75% of India‘s envisioned incremental steel capacity will come from eastern India, with Odisha alone crossing 100 MTPA.
In Odisha, Kalinganagar will be developed as the epicenter of Mission Purvodaya
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “PRAKASH portal”, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The ministries of Power, Coal and Railways have formed a web portal to track the movement of coal from the coal mines to power plants.
The portal is named PRAKASH — an abbreviation for Power Rail Koyla Availability through Supply Harmony.
Speaking at the launch event, Minister for Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs, said: “This portal will help avoid any blame game between ministries on the supply and availability of coal. It will also help coal better plan better coal supplies.”
“Coal supplies this year were disrupted because of unprecedented rains and strikes. Coal India has been increasing its supplies considerably and we expect to meet all demands of power plants”.
This portal is designed to help in mapping and monitoring entire the coal supply chain for power plants, through coal stock at the supply end (mines), coal quantities/rakes planned, coal quantity in transit and coal availability at power generating station.
It aims at bringing better coordination for coal supplies among all stakeholders, namely the Ministry of Power, Ministry of Coal, Coal India, Railways and power utilities.
Incorrect
The ministries of Power, Coal and Railways have formed a web portal to track the movement of coal from the coal mines to power plants.
The portal is named PRAKASH — an abbreviation for Power Rail Koyla Availability through Supply Harmony.
Speaking at the launch event, Minister for Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs, said: “This portal will help avoid any blame game between ministries on the supply and availability of coal. It will also help coal better plan better coal supplies.”
“Coal supplies this year were disrupted because of unprecedented rains and strikes. Coal India has been increasing its supplies considerably and we expect to meet all demands of power plants”.
This portal is designed to help in mapping and monitoring entire the coal supply chain for power plants, through coal stock at the supply end (mines), coal quantities/rakes planned, coal quantity in transit and coal availability at power generating station.
It aims at bringing better coordination for coal supplies among all stakeholders, namely the Ministry of Power, Ministry of Coal, Coal India, Railways and power utilities.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe “GATI portal” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Terming delays in highway projects as “unacceptable”, Road Transport and Highways Minister, asked officials and developers to strictly adhere to project schedules.
Minister also launched online web portal ‘GATI’ on the pattern of ‘PRAGATI’, the portal used by the Prime Ministers’ Office for monitoring projects.
The portal ‘GATI’ can be accessed from NHAI’s website, and contractors and concessionaires can raise any project-related issues on the platform, according to a statement by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
The issues raised on ‘GATI’ will be daily monitored by a team of NHAI officers and will be constantly reviewed by the senior officers of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Incorrect
Terming delays in highway projects as “unacceptable”, Road Transport and Highways Minister, asked officials and developers to strictly adhere to project schedules.
Minister also launched online web portal ‘GATI’ on the pattern of ‘PRAGATI’, the portal used by the Prime Ministers’ Office for monitoring projects.
The portal ‘GATI’ can be accessed from NHAI’s website, and contractors and concessionaires can raise any project-related issues on the platform, according to a statement by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
The issues raised on ‘GATI’ will be daily monitored by a team of NHAI officers and will be constantly reviewed by the senior officers of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Dam Rehabilitation and
Improvement Project (DRIP):
- The scheme aims at strengthening dam safety in the Himalayan region of India only.
- The project is supported by the financial assistance from the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The project originally [2011] envisaged the
rehabilitation and improvement of 223 dam projects in four states namely, Kerala, Madhya
Pradesh, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu. Later Karnataka, Uttarakhand (UJVNL) and Damodar
Valley Corporation (DVC) joined the DRIP.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages comprehensive rehabilitation of 736 existing dams
located across the country.
Statement 2 is correct. The Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) started
with financial assistance from World Bank in 2011.
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has
approved the DRIP Phase II & Phase III with the financial assistance of the World Bank
(WB), and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) to improve the safety and
operational performance of selected dams across the whole country, along with institutional
strengthening with system wide management approach.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages the following objectives:
— To improve the safety and performance of selected existing dams and associated
appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
— To strengthen the dam safety institutional setup in participating states as well as at
central level, and
— To explore the alternative incidental means at few of selected dams to generate the
incidental revenue for sustainable operation and maintenance of dams
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The project originally [2011] envisaged the
rehabilitation and improvement of 223 dam projects in four states namely, Kerala, Madhya
Pradesh, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu. Later Karnataka, Uttarakhand (UJVNL) and Damodar
Valley Corporation (DVC) joined the DRIP.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages comprehensive rehabilitation of 736 existing dams
located across the country.
Statement 2 is correct. The Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) started
with financial assistance from World Bank in 2011.
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has
approved the DRIP Phase II & Phase III with the financial assistance of the World Bank
(WB), and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) to improve the safety and
operational performance of selected dams across the whole country, along with institutional
strengthening with system wide management approach.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages the following objectives:
— To improve the safety and performance of selected existing dams and associated
appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
— To strengthen the dam safety institutional setup in participating states as well as at
central level, and
— To explore the alternative incidental means at few of selected dams to generate the
incidental revenue for sustainable operation and maintenance of dams
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are proposals under the draft Coastal Shipping Bill,
2020?
- It is proposed to do away with the requirement of trading licence for Indian flag vessels
for coastal trade.
- Integration of coastal maritime transport with inland waterways.
- National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan to be implemented.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ministry of Shipping has issued the draft of Coastal Shipping Bill, 2020 for suggestions from the stakeholders and general public As the shipping sector grows and evolves in the country, a need was felt to have a separate legislation on coastal shipping, which considers it an integral part of the transport chain and recognizes the policy priorities of the sector to meet the demands of the Indian shipping industry. While drafting this Bill, the global best practices have also been considered.
–The definition of coastal shipping and coastal waters has been expanded.
–It is proposed to do away with the requirement of trading licence for Indian flag vessels for coastal trade.
–The Bill seeks to create a competitive environment and reduce transportation costs, while encouraging Indian vessels to increase their share in coastal shipping.
–The Bill also proposes integration of coastal maritime transport with inland waterways.
–There is a provision for a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan.
Incorrect
Ministry of Shipping has issued the draft of Coastal Shipping Bill, 2020 for suggestions from the stakeholders and general public As the shipping sector grows and evolves in the country, a need was felt to have a separate legislation on coastal shipping, which considers it an integral part of the transport chain and recognizes the policy priorities of the sector to meet the demands of the Indian shipping industry. While drafting this Bill, the global best practices have also been considered.
–The definition of coastal shipping and coastal waters has been expanded.
–It is proposed to do away with the requirement of trading licence for Indian flag vessels for coastal trade.
–The Bill seeks to create a competitive environment and reduce transportation costs, while encouraging Indian vessels to increase their share in coastal shipping.
–The Bill also proposes integration of coastal maritime transport with inland waterways.
–There is a provision for a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the recently launched ‘National
Program and Project Management Policy Framework‘:
- It has been launched by Quality Council of India (QCI) in collaboration with NITI Aayog.
- It aims to bring reforms in the way infrastructure projects are executed in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
India will require an investment of around $4.5 trillion by 2040 to develop the
infrastructure for sustaining its economic growth. However, the challenges in infrastructure
development that obstruct the smooth execution of projects can be a deterrent.
NITI Aayog and Quality Council of India (QCI) recently launched the ‘National Program
and Project Management Policy Framework’ (NPMPF), with the aim of bringing radical
reforms in the way infrastructure projects are executed in India.
The Indian Infrastructure Body of Knowledge (InBoK), a book on the practice of program
and project management in India was also unveiled.
Further, a task force was also constituted to lay down a national program and project
management policy framework.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
India will require an investment of around $4.5 trillion by 2040 to develop the
infrastructure for sustaining its economic growth. However, the challenges in infrastructure
development that obstruct the smooth execution of projects can be a deterrent.
NITI Aayog and Quality Council of India (QCI) recently launched the ‘National Program
and Project Management Policy Framework’ (NPMPF), with the aim of bringing radical
reforms in the way infrastructure projects are executed in India.
The Indian Infrastructure Body of Knowledge (InBoK), a book on the practice of program
and project management in India was also unveiled.
Further, a task force was also constituted to lay down a national program and project
management policy framework.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Atal Tunnel:
- The tunnel is to connect Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year.
- The Railway Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of
Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The recently inaugurated 9.02 Km long Atal tunnel
connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year. Earlier the valley was cut off
for about 6 months each year owing to heavy snowfall.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is horse shoe shaped, single tube double lane highway tunnel
(not railway). The Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of
Himalayas at an altitude of 3000 Mtrs (10,000 Feet) from the Mean Sea Level (MSL).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The recently inaugurated 9.02 Km long Atal tunnel
connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year. Earlier the valley was cut off
for about 6 months each year owing to heavy snowfall.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is horse shoe shaped, single tube double lane highway tunnel
(not railway). The Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of
Himalayas at an altitude of 3000 Mtrs (10,000 Feet) from the Mean Sea Level (MSL).
Infrastructure II
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- Question 1 of 9
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Bharatmala Pariyojana:
1. It focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country.
2. It aims to promote port-led development in the country by harnessing India’s coastline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for
the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger
movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective
interventions like development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes,
National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads,
Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways.
# A multi-modal logistic park is being developed in Assam under the Bharatmala Pariyojna.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sagarmala programme aims to promote port-led development
in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14500 km of potentially
navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for
the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger
movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective
interventions like development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes,
National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads,
Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways.
# A multi-modal logistic park is being developed in Assam under the Bharatmala Pariyojna.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sagarmala programme aims to promote port-led development
in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14500 km of potentially
navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes. - Question 2 of 9
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the SAROD-Ports:
1. It is a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
2. It will advise and assist in settlement of disputes through arbitrations in the maritime
sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. SAROD-Ports (Society for Affordable Redressal of
Disputes – Ports) is established under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Statement 2 is correct. SAROD-Ports objectives:
-Affordable and timely resolution of disputes in fair manner
-Enrichment of Dispute Resolution Mechanism with the panel of technical experts as
arbitrators.
SAROD-Ports consists members from Indian Ports Association (IPA) and Indian Private
Ports and Terminals Association (IPTTA).
SAROD-Ports will advise and assist in settlement of disputes through arbitrations in the
maritime sector, including ports and shipping sector in Major Port Trusts, Non-major Ports,
including private ports, jetties, terminals and harbours. It will also cover disputes between
granting authority and Licensee/Concessionaire /Contractor and also disputes between
Licensee/Concessionaire and their contractors arising out of and during the course of
execution of various contracts.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. SAROD-Ports (Society for Affordable Redressal of
Disputes – Ports) is established under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Statement 2 is correct. SAROD-Ports objectives:
-Affordable and timely resolution of disputes in fair manner
-Enrichment of Dispute Resolution Mechanism with the panel of technical experts as
arbitrators.
SAROD-Ports consists members from Indian Ports Association (IPA) and Indian Private
Ports and Terminals Association (IPTTA).
SAROD-Ports will advise and assist in settlement of disputes through arbitrations in the
maritime sector, including ports and shipping sector in Major Port Trusts, Non-major Ports,
including private ports, jetties, terminals and harbours. It will also cover disputes between
granting authority and Licensee/Concessionaire /Contractor and also disputes between
Licensee/Concessionaire and their contractors arising out of and during the course of
execution of various contracts. - Question 3 of 9
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding Air Transport Bubbles:
1. These are temporary arrangements between two countries for restarting international
flight services which are suspended due to COVID-19 pandemic.
2. India has not entered any Air Bubble agreement in view of rising spread of the COVID-
19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. “Transport Bubbles” or “Air Travel Arrangements”
are temporary arrangements between two countries aimed at restarting commercial
passenger services when regular international flights are suspended as a result of the
COVID-19 pandemic.
They are reciprocal in nature, meaning airlines from both countries enjoy similar benefits.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has entered into Air Bubble agreements with 10
countries viz. USA, Canada, France, Germany, UK, Maldives, UAE, Qatar, Afghanistan and
Bahrain, till 13.09.2020.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. “Transport Bubbles” or “Air Travel Arrangements”
are temporary arrangements between two countries aimed at restarting commercial
passenger services when regular international flights are suspended as a result of the
COVID-19 pandemic.
They are reciprocal in nature, meaning airlines from both countries enjoy similar benefits.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has entered into Air Bubble agreements with 10
countries viz. USA, Canada, France, Germany, UK, Maldives, UAE, Qatar, Afghanistan and
Bahrain, till 13.09.2020. - Question 4 of 9
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020:
1. The Bill will apply to New Mangalore and Mormugao ports among other the major ports
of India.
2. It provides for the creation of a Board of Major Port Authority for each major port
replacing the existing Port Trusts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020 seeks to provide for regulation, operation
and planning of major ports in India and provide greater autonomy to these ports. It seeks
to replace the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill will apply to the major ports of Chennai, Cochin,
Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Kandla, Kolkata, Mumbai, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Paradip,
V.O. Chidambaranar, and Vishakhapatnam.
Statement 2 is correct. The Bill provides for the creation of a Board of Major Port
Authority for each major port. These Boards will replace the existing Port Trusts of 1963
Act.
The Board will comprise of a Chairperson and a deputy Chairperson, both appointed by the
central government on the recommendation of a selection committee; one member each
from (i) the respective state governments, (ii) the Railways Ministry, (iii) the Defence
Ministry, and (iv) the Customs Department The Board will also include two to four
independent members, and two members representing the interests of the employees of the
Major Port Authority.Incorrect
Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020 seeks to provide for regulation, operation
and planning of major ports in India and provide greater autonomy to these ports. It seeks
to replace the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill will apply to the major ports of Chennai, Cochin,
Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Kandla, Kolkata, Mumbai, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Paradip,
V.O. Chidambaranar, and Vishakhapatnam.
Statement 2 is correct. The Bill provides for the creation of a Board of Major Port
Authority for each major port. These Boards will replace the existing Port Trusts of 1963
Act.
The Board will comprise of a Chairperson and a deputy Chairperson, both appointed by the
central government on the recommendation of a selection committee; one member each
from (i) the respective state governments, (ii) the Railways Ministry, (iii) the Defence
Ministry, and (iv) the Customs Department The Board will also include two to four
independent members, and two members representing the interests of the employees of the
Major Port Authority. - Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding FASTag:
1. It enables automatic deduction of toll charges at toll plazas.
2. The tag employs Radio-frequency Identification (RFID) technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
To reduce vehicular traffic at the toll plazas, the Government of India (GOI) has mandated all toll plazas, pan India, to make toll payments electronic.
FASTag is a simple to use, reloadable tag which enables automatic deduction of toll charges and lets you pass through the toll plaza without stopping for the cash transaction. FASTag is linked to a prepaid account from which the applicable toll amount is deducted. The tag employs Radio-frequency Identification (RFID) technology and is affixed on the vehicle’s windscreen after the tag account is active.
# The government has enforced the use of FASTag mandatorily for all vehicles starting from January 1, 2021.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
To reduce vehicular traffic at the toll plazas, the Government of India (GOI) has mandated all toll plazas, pan India, to make toll payments electronic.
FASTag is a simple to use, reloadable tag which enables automatic deduction of toll charges and lets you pass through the toll plaza without stopping for the cash transaction. FASTag is linked to a prepaid account from which the applicable toll amount is deducted. The tag employs Radio-frequency Identification (RFID) technology and is affixed on the vehicle’s windscreen after the tag account is active.
# The government has enforced the use of FASTag mandatorily for all vehicles starting from January 1, 2021. - Question 6 of 9
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the “Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules, 2020”?
1.It is the right of consumer to have minimum standards of service for supply of electricity from the distribution licensee.
2.Maximum time period of 7 days in metro cities and 30 days in rural areas identified to provide new connection and modify an existing connection.
3.No connection shall be given without a meter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Union Ministry of Power has promulgated Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules, 2020 laying down the rights of power consumers in the country.
Rights and Obligations:
–It is the duty of every distribution licensee to supply electricity on request made by an owner or occupier of any premises in line with the provisions of Act.
–It is the right of consumer to have minimum standards of service for supply of electricity from the distribution licensee.
Release of new connection and modification in existing connection:
–Transparent, simple and time bound processes,
–Applicant has option for online application,
–Maximum time period of 7 days in metro cities and 15 days in other municipal areas and 30 days in rural areas identified to provide new connection and modify an existing connection:
Metering: No connection shall be given without a meter, Provision of Testing of meters, Provisions for replacement of defective or burnt or stolen meters specified.Incorrect
Union Ministry of Power has promulgated Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules, 2020 laying down the rights of power consumers in the country.
Rights and Obligations:
–It is the duty of every distribution licensee to supply electricity on request made by an owner or occupier of any premises in line with the provisions of Act.
–It is the right of consumer to have minimum standards of service for supply of electricity from the distribution licensee.
Release of new connection and modification in existing connection:
–Transparent, simple and time bound processes,
–Applicant has option for online application,
–Maximum time period of 7 days in metro cities and 15 days in other municipal areas and 30 days in rural areas identified to provide new connection and modify an existing connection:
Metering: No connection shall be given without a meter, Provision of Testing of meters, Provisions for replacement of defective or burnt or stolen meters specified. - Question 7 of 9
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Green National Highways Corridors Project:
1.It aims to reduce Green House Gas emissions by integrating local materials, industrial byproducts, and bioengineering solutions in highways construction.
2.The project in India is being financially supported by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Government of India and the World Bank recently signed a $500 million project to build safe and green national highway corridors in the states of Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.
The Green National Highways Corridors Project will support MoRTH construct 783 km of highways in various geographies by integrating safe and green technology designs such as local and marginal materials, industrial byproducts, and other bioengineering solutions. The project will help reduce GHG emissions in the construction and maintenance of highways.
The $500 million loan from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a maturity of 18.5 years including a grace period of five years.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Government of India and the World Bank recently signed a $500 million project to build safe and green national highway corridors in the states of Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.
The Green National Highways Corridors Project will support MoRTH construct 783 km of highways in various geographies by integrating safe and green technology designs such as local and marginal materials, industrial byproducts, and other bioengineering solutions. The project will help reduce GHG emissions in the construction and maintenance of highways.
The $500 million loan from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a maturity of 18.5 years including a grace period of five years. - Question 8 of 9
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Sagarmala programme:
1.It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led development in the country.
2.The program includes development of coastal communities through skill development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.
Statement 2 is correct. Components of Sagarmala Programme are:
Port Modernization & New Port Development: De-bottlenecking and capacity expansion of existing ports and development of new greenfield ports
Port Connectivity Enhancement: Enhancing the connectivity of the ports to the hinterland, optimizing cost and time of cargo movement through multi-modal logistics solutions including domestic waterways
Port-linked Industrialization: Developing port-proximate industrial clusters and Coastal Economic Zones to reduce logistics cost and time of EXIM and domestic cargo
Coastal Community Development: Promoting sustainable development of coastal communities through skill development & livelihood generation activities, fisheries development, coastal tourism etc.
Coastal Shipping & Inland Waterways Transport: Impetus to move cargo through the sustainable and environment-friendly coastal and inland waterways mode.
# Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) intends to create Product Specific Warehouses/Silos at various Ports, Multi Modal Logistics Parks located near Port area and alongside the National Waterways.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.
Statement 2 is correct. Components of Sagarmala Programme are:
Port Modernization & New Port Development: De-bottlenecking and capacity expansion of existing ports and development of new greenfield ports
Port Connectivity Enhancement: Enhancing the connectivity of the ports to the hinterland, optimizing cost and time of cargo movement through multi-modal logistics solutions including domestic waterways
Port-linked Industrialization: Developing port-proximate industrial clusters and Coastal Economic Zones to reduce logistics cost and time of EXIM and domestic cargo
Coastal Community Development: Promoting sustainable development of coastal communities through skill development & livelihood generation activities, fisheries development, coastal tourism etc.
Coastal Shipping & Inland Waterways Transport: Impetus to move cargo through the sustainable and environment-friendly coastal and inland waterways mode.
# Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) intends to create Product Specific Warehouses/Silos at various Ports, Multi Modal Logistics Parks located near Port area and alongside the National Waterways. - Question 9 of 9
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently the union cabinet approved a proposal to set up a major port at Vadhavan is located in which of the following state?
Correct
The Union Cabinet approved a proposal to set up a major port at Vadhavan near Dahanu in Maharashtra with a total cost of ₹65,545 crore, including about ₹14,500 crore of GST.
This is part of the government’s plan to develop infrastructure projects with a cost of ₹100-lakh crore over the next five years.
Incorrect
The Union Cabinet approved a proposal to set up a major port at Vadhavan near Dahanu in Maharashtra with a total cost of ₹65,545 crore, including about ₹14,500 crore of GST.
This is part of the government’s plan to develop infrastructure projects with a cost of ₹100-lakh crore over the next five years.
International Trade– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
International Trade– 2021
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
International Trade– 2020 and Before that
International trade
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding External Debt of India:
1. Bilateral debt is the largest component of external debt of India.
2. More than 90 percent of the external debt is denominated in US dollar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1is incorrect. Multilateral Debt is the largest contributor to the external debt of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The US dollar is the leading currency of denomination in External Debt of India accounting (about 54 per cent of the total as at-end March 2020).
Indian rupee is the second leading currency with a share of 32 per cent followed by Japanese Yen (5.6 per cent), SDRs (4.5 per cent) and Euro (3.5 per cent).
Data Source: India’s External Debt: A Status Report 2019-20 by Ministry of Finance.Incorrect
Statement 1is incorrect. Multilateral Debt is the largest contributor to the external debt of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The US dollar is the leading currency of denomination in External Debt of India accounting (about 54 per cent of the total as at-end March 2020).
Indian rupee is the second leading currency with a share of 32 per cent followed by Japanese Yen (5.6 per cent), SDRs (4.5 per cent) and Euro (3.5 per cent).
Data Source: India’s External Debt: A Status Report 2019-20 by Ministry of Finance. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are potential reason(s) for a Current Account Surplus under Balance of Payments?
1. Decline in imports
2. High foreign direct investments
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The balance of payments (BOP) is a statement of all transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time, such as a quarter or a year.
Option 1 is correct. Under current account of the BoP, transactions are classified into merchandise (exports and imports) and invisibles. Lower import bill can lead to a Surplus Current Account.
Option 2 is incorrect. FDI is not part of the Current Account. The main components of capital and financial account include foreign investment, loans and banking capital.
Foreign investment comprising foreign direct investment (FDI) and portfolio investment represents non-debt liabilities, while loans (external assistance, external commercial borrowings and trade credit) and banking capital including non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits are debt liabilities.
# A new convention splits the Capital Account into financial account and capital account. The financial account measures change in international ownership of assets, whether they be individuals, businesses, governments, or central banks. These assets include foreign direct investments, securities like stocks and bonds, and gold and foreign exchange reserves. The capital account measures financial transactions that do not affect income, production, or savings, such as international transfers of drilling rights, trademarks, and copyrights.Incorrect
The balance of payments (BOP) is a statement of all transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time, such as a quarter or a year.
Option 1 is correct. Under current account of the BoP, transactions are classified into merchandise (exports and imports) and invisibles. Lower import bill can lead to a Surplus Current Account.
Option 2 is incorrect. FDI is not part of the Current Account. The main components of capital and financial account include foreign investment, loans and banking capital.
Foreign investment comprising foreign direct investment (FDI) and portfolio investment represents non-debt liabilities, while loans (external assistance, external commercial borrowings and trade credit) and banking capital including non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits are debt liabilities.
# A new convention splits the Capital Account into financial account and capital account. The financial account measures change in international ownership of assets, whether they be individuals, businesses, governments, or central banks. These assets include foreign direct investments, securities like stocks and bonds, and gold and foreign exchange reserves. The capital account measures financial transactions that do not affect income, production, or savings, such as international transfers of drilling rights, trademarks, and copyrights. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Foreign Investments in the Defence Sector:
1. Hundred Percent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) under automatic route is permitted for companies seeking new industrial licenses.
2. Foreign Investments in the Defence Sector is subject to scrutiny on grounds of National Security
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Government of India has recently reviewed the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in Defence sector.
Statement 1 is incorrect. 100 percent FDI is allowed: Automatic up to 74% and Government route beyond 74% wherever it is likely to result in access to modern technology or for other reasons to be recorded.
FDI up to 74% under automatic route shall be permitted for companies seeking new industrial licenses.
The existing licensees require mandatory submission of a declaration with the Ministry of Defence in case change in equity/shareholding pattern or transfer of stake by existing investor to new foreign investor for FDI up to 49%, within 30 days of such change. Proposals for raising FDI beyond 49% from such companies will require Government approval.
Statement 2 is correct. Foreign Investments in the Defence Sector shall be subject to scrutiny on grounds of National Security and Government reserves the right to review any foreign investment in the Defence Sector that affects or may affect national security.Incorrect
The Government of India has recently reviewed the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in Defence sector.
Statement 1 is incorrect. 100 percent FDI is allowed: Automatic up to 74% and Government route beyond 74% wherever it is likely to result in access to modern technology or for other reasons to be recorded.
FDI up to 74% under automatic route shall be permitted for companies seeking new industrial licenses.
The existing licensees require mandatory submission of a declaration with the Ministry of Defence in case change in equity/shareholding pattern or transfer of stake by existing investor to new foreign investor for FDI up to 49%, within 30 days of such change. Proposals for raising FDI beyond 49% from such companies will require Government approval.
Statement 2 is correct. Foreign Investments in the Defence Sector shall be subject to scrutiny on grounds of National Security and Government reserves the right to review any foreign investment in the Defence Sector that affects or may affect national security. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010:
1. Any transfer received from a foreign source whether in rupees or foreign currency is construed as ‘foreign contribution’ under the Act.
2. A United Nations specialized agency is not treated as a foreign source under the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Any donation, delivery or transfer received from a ‘foreign source’ whether in rupees or in foreign currency is construed as ‘foreign contribution’ under FCRA, 2010. Such transactions even in rupees term are considered as foreign contribution.
Statement 2 is correct. United Nations or any of its specialized agencies, the World Bank, International Monetary Fund or such other agency as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf are not treated as ‘foreign source’ under the act.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Any donation, delivery or transfer received from a ‘foreign source’ whether in rupees or in foreign currency is construed as ‘foreign contribution’ under FCRA, 2010. Such transactions even in rupees term are considered as foreign contribution.
Statement 2 is correct. United Nations or any of its specialized agencies, the World Bank, International Monetary Fund or such other agency as the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf are not treated as ‘foreign source’ under the act. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding a country’s Terms of Trade (ToT):
1. It is the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of import prices.
2. A country’s ToT is less than hundred percent if more capital is leaving the country than is entering into it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Terms of trade are defined as the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of import prices. It measures how many units of exports are required to purchase a single unit of imports.
If the export prices increase more than the import prices, a country has a positive Terms of Trade, as for the same amount of exports, it can purchase more imports.
The ratio is calculated by dividing the price of the exports by the price of the imports and multiplying the result by 100.
When more capital is leaving the country than is entering into the country then the country’s TOT is less than 100%. When the TOT is greater than 100%, the country is accumulating more capital from exports than it is spending on imports.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Terms of trade are defined as the ratio between the index of export prices and the index of import prices. It measures how many units of exports are required to purchase a single unit of imports.
If the export prices increase more than the import prices, a country has a positive Terms of Trade, as for the same amount of exports, it can purchase more imports.
The ratio is calculated by dividing the price of the exports by the price of the imports and multiplying the result by 100.
When more capital is leaving the country than is entering into the country then the country’s TOT is less than 100%. When the TOT is greater than 100%, the country is accumulating more capital from exports than it is spending on imports. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the India International Exchange
(INDIA INX):
1. It is India’s first international exchange in International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) located at the Gujarat International Finance-Tec City (GIFT City).
2. It is a subsidiary of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The India International Exchange (IFSC) Limited (India INX) is India’s first international exchange in International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) located at the Gujarat International Finance-Tec City (GIFT City). India INX is a subsidiary of BSE Limited. The Exchange commenced its operations from Jan 16, 2017.
It has recently signed MoU with the Luxembourg Stock Exchange for cooperation in financial services industry, maintenance of orderly markets in securities respective country, ESG (environmental, social and governance) and green finance in the local market.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The India International Exchange (IFSC) Limited (India INX) is India’s first international exchange in International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) located at the Gujarat International Finance-Tec City (GIFT City). India INX is a subsidiary of BSE Limited. The Exchange commenced its operations from Jan 16, 2017.
It has recently signed MoU with the Luxembourg Stock Exchange for cooperation in financial services industry, maintenance of orderly markets in securities respective country, ESG (environmental, social and governance) and green finance in the local market. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Flows to India in last five years:
1. Manufacturing Sector received lower FDI than the Financial Services sector.
2. United States of America is among the top five sources of FDI inflows to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Manufacturing sector has consistently received more FDI inflows than the Financial Services.
Statement 2 is correct. Singapore, Mauritius, Netherlands, Cayman Islands and USA are the top sources of FDI inflows to India.
# The data source is recently released Annual Report of the Reserve Bank of India for the Year 2019-20 (Snapshot below).Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Manufacturing sector has consistently received more FDI inflows than the Financial Services.
Statement 2 is correct. Singapore, Mauritius, Netherlands, Cayman Islands and USA are the top sources of FDI inflows to India.
# The data source is recently released Annual Report of the Reserve Bank of India for the Year 2019-20 (Snapshot below). - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the International Financial Services Centres Authority:
1.It is a statutory body.
2.Its mandate is to regulate financial products & services approved by any appropriate regulator in an IFSC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The IFSCA is a statutory authority established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019.
The Authority will regulate financial products (such as securities, deposits or contracts of insurance), financial services, and financial institutions which have been previously approved by any appropriate regulator (such as RBI or SEBI), in an IFSC.
The appropriate regulators are listed in a Schedule to the Bill, and include the RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The IFSCA is a statutory authority established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019.
The Authority will regulate financial products (such as securities, deposits or contracts of insurance), financial services, and financial institutions which have been previously approved by any appropriate regulator (such as RBI or SEBI), in an IFSC.
The appropriate regulators are listed in a Schedule to the Bill, and include the RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding recently released the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2020?
1.It has been prepared by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute of Competitiveness.
2.Gujarat emerged as the top-performing state in the ‘Coastal States’ category.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Both statements are correct.
NITI Aayog in partnership with the Institute of Competitiveness recently released the first Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2020.
-Gujarat emerged as the top-performing state in the ‘Coastal States’ category, followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
-In the category of ‘Landlocked States’, Rajasthan is the best-performing state. Among ‘Himalayan States’ and ‘City-States’, Uttarakhand and Delhi are the top performing states respectively.
The index ranked states on four key parameters: Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem and Export Performance.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
NITI Aayog in partnership with the Institute of Competitiveness recently released the first Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2020.
-Gujarat emerged as the top-performing state in the ‘Coastal States’ category, followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
-In the category of ‘Landlocked States’, Rajasthan is the best-performing state. Among ‘Himalayan States’ and ‘City-States’, Uttarakhand and Delhi are the top performing states respectively.
The index ranked states on four key parameters: Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem and Export Performance. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following areas of business regulation are covered in Doing Business Report (DB) of the World Bank?
1. Getting Electricity
2. Protecting Minority Investors
3. Resolving Insolvency
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Doing Business Report, a World Bank Group flagship publication, is a series of annual studies measuring the regulations that enhance business activity and those that constrain it. Doing Business presents quantitative indicators on business regulations and the protection of property rights that can be compared across 190 economies.
Doing Business covers 12 areas of business regulation. Ten of these areas—starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency—are included in the ease of doing business score and ease of doing business ranking.
Doing Business also measures regulation on employing workers and contracting with the government, which are not included in the ease of doing business score and ranking.
# The World Bank Group has ‘paused’ the publication of the Doing Business report to assess the irregularities that have been reported regarding changes to the data used in the report.Incorrect
Doing Business Report, a World Bank Group flagship publication, is a series of annual studies measuring the regulations that enhance business activity and those that constrain it. Doing Business presents quantitative indicators on business regulations and the protection of property rights that can be compared across 190 economies.
Doing Business covers 12 areas of business regulation. Ten of these areas—starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency—are included in the ease of doing business score and ease of doing business ranking.
Doing Business also measures regulation on employing workers and contracting with the government, which are not included in the ease of doing business score and ranking.
# The World Bank Group has ‘paused’ the publication of the Doing Business report to assess the irregularities that have been reported regarding changes to the data used in the report. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term “Autarky” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Autarky: The idea of self-sufficiency and ‘no’ international trade by a
country. None of the countries of the world has been able to produce all the goods and
services required by its population at competitive prices, however, some tried to live it up at
the cost of inefficiency and comparative poverty.Incorrect
Autarky: The idea of self-sufficiency and ‘no’ international trade by a
country. None of the countries of the world has been able to produce all the goods and
services required by its population at competitive prices, however, some tried to live it up at
the cost of inefficiency and comparative poverty. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe International Monetary Fund (IMF) defines the Balance of Payments (BoP) as a statistical statement that summarizes economic transactions between residents and non-residents during a specific time period. Which of the following transactions is/are consists of BoP?
1. Transactions in goods, services and income between an economy and the rest of the world.
2. Changes of ownership and other changes in economy’s monetary gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and financial claims on and liabilities to the rest of the world.
3. Unrequited transfers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
: The Balance of Payments and International Investment Position Manual (BPM6) of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) defines the Balance of Payments (BoP) as a statistical statement that summarizes economic transactions between residents and non-residents during a specific time period.
The BoP, thus, includes all transactions showing:
• transactions in goods, services and income between an economy and the rest of the world,
• changes of ownership and other changes in that economy’s monetary gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and financial claims on and liabilities to the rest of the world, and
• Unrequited transfers.These transactions are categorized into
• The “current account” including “goods and services”, the “primary income”, and the “secondary income”,
• The “capital account”, and
• The “financial account”.Incorrect
: The Balance of Payments and International Investment Position Manual (BPM6) of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) defines the Balance of Payments (BoP) as a statistical statement that summarizes economic transactions between residents and non-residents during a specific time period.
The BoP, thus, includes all transactions showing:
• transactions in goods, services and income between an economy and the rest of the world,
• changes of ownership and other changes in that economy’s monetary gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and financial claims on and liabilities to the rest of the world, and
• Unrequited transfers.These transactions are categorized into
• The “current account” including “goods and services”, the “primary income”, and the “secondary income”,
• The “capital account”, and
• The “financial account”. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) organization:
1. Its mandate is to formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting India’s exports.
2. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) organization is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade.
• Right from its inception till 1991, when liberalization in the economic policies of the Government took place, this organization has been essentially involved in the regulation and promotion of foreign trade through regulation.
• Keeping in line with liberalization and globalization and the overall objective of increasing of exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of “facilitator”.
• The shift was from prohibition and control of imports/exports to promotion and facilitation of exports/imports, keeping in view the interests of the country.
• This Directorate, with headquarters at New Delhi, is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting India’s exports.
• The DGFT also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 38 regional offices and an extension counter at Indore.Incorrect
Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) organization is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade.
• Right from its inception till 1991, when liberalization in the economic policies of the Government took place, this organization has been essentially involved in the regulation and promotion of foreign trade through regulation.
• Keeping in line with liberalization and globalization and the overall objective of increasing of exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of “facilitator”.
• The shift was from prohibition and control of imports/exports to promotion and facilitation of exports/imports, keeping in view the interests of the country.
• This Directorate, with headquarters at New Delhi, is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting India’s exports.
• The DGFT also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 38 regional offices and an extension counter at Indore. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM) extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to promote export and imports. Which of the following is/are eligible for EXIM Lines of Credits?
1. Overseas financial institutions
2. Regional development banks
3. Sovereign governments
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) is a specialized financial institution, wholly owned by Government of India, set up in 1982, for financing, facilitating and promoting foreign trade of India.
EXIM Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to
• overseas financial institutions,
• regional development banks,
• sovereign governments and
• other entities overseas,to enable buyers in those countries to import developmental and infrastructure projects, equipments, goods and services from India, on deferred credit terms.
Incorrect
Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) is a specialized financial institution, wholly owned by Government of India, set up in 1982, for financing, facilitating and promoting foreign trade of India.
EXIM Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to
• overseas financial institutions,
• regional development banks,
• sovereign governments and
• other entities overseas,to enable buyers in those countries to import developmental and infrastructure projects, equipments, goods and services from India, on deferred credit terms.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently which of the following country removed India from its list of countries that are classified as “developing” economies for trade purposes?
Correct
On February 10 – 2020, the U.S. removed more than a dozen countries, including India, from its list of countries that are classified as “developing” for trade purposes.
• These countries will now be classified instead as “developed” economies, thus stripping them of various trade benefits.
• The office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) maintains a list of countries that it classifies as “developing”, “developed”, and “least-developed”.•Countries that are classified as “developing” are allowed to export certain goods to the U.S. without being hit by punitive tariffs that are usually imposed on goods from “developed” countries.
• The “developing country” status owes its origin to the U.S. Trade Act of 1974, which authorised the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) to help poor countries develop faster.
• These benefits were extended further under the World Trade Organization wherein rich countries agreed to grant trade benefits to countries that classified themselves as poor.
• It is worth noting that about two-thirds of countries that are members of the WTO classify themselves as “developing” countries and avail benefits.Incorrect
On February 10 – 2020, the U.S. removed more than a dozen countries, including India, from its list of countries that are classified as “developing” for trade purposes.
• These countries will now be classified instead as “developed” economies, thus stripping them of various trade benefits.
• The office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) maintains a list of countries that it classifies as “developing”, “developed”, and “least-developed”.•Countries that are classified as “developing” are allowed to export certain goods to the U.S. without being hit by punitive tariffs that are usually imposed on goods from “developed” countries.
• The “developing country” status owes its origin to the U.S. Trade Act of 1974, which authorised the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) to help poor countries develop faster.
• These benefits were extended further under the World Trade Organization wherein rich countries agreed to grant trade benefits to countries that classified themselves as poor.
• It is worth noting that about two-thirds of countries that are members of the WTO classify themselves as “developing” countries and avail benefits. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyRecently which international institution announced the first global consortium focused on designing a framework for the governance of digital currencies?
Correct
The World Economic Forum announced the first global consortium focused on designing a framework for the governance of digital currencies, including stablecoins.
• The Global Consortium for Digital Currency Governance will aim to increase access to the financial system through innovative policy solutions that are inclusive and interoperable.
• This is the first initiative to bring together leading companies, financial institutions, government representatives, technical experts, academics, international organizations, NGOs and members of the Forum’s communities on a global level.
• This consortium will focus on solutions for a fragmented regulatory system. Efficiency, speed, interoperability, inclusivity and transparency will be at the heart of this initiative.
• It will call for innovative regulatory approaches to achieve these goals and build trust.
• A set of guiding principles will be co-designed to support public and private actors exploring the opportunities that digital currencies present.Incorrect
The World Economic Forum announced the first global consortium focused on designing a framework for the governance of digital currencies, including stablecoins.
• The Global Consortium for Digital Currency Governance will aim to increase access to the financial system through innovative policy solutions that are inclusive and interoperable.
• This is the first initiative to bring together leading companies, financial institutions, government representatives, technical experts, academics, international organizations, NGOs and members of the Forum’s communities on a global level.
• This consortium will focus on solutions for a fragmented regulatory system. Efficiency, speed, interoperability, inclusivity and transparency will be at the heart of this initiative.
• It will call for innovative regulatory approaches to achieve these goals and build trust.
• A set of guiding principles will be co-designed to support public and private actors exploring the opportunities that digital currencies present. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“Nirvik Scheme” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) is optimistic that the Nirvik scheme announced by the Union Government would give a fillip to export lending and insurance cover for export credit.
Under the Nirvik scheme, ECGC will provide 90% cover.
The additional outgo, if any, due to the enhanced cover would be supported by the government and the scheme would be valid for five years.
Currently, the average cover given to banks by the ECGC is 60%.
Incorrect
The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) is optimistic that the Nirvik scheme announced by the Union Government would give a fillip to export lending and insurance cover for export credit.
Under the Nirvik scheme, ECGC will provide 90% cover.
The additional outgo, if any, due to the enhanced cover would be supported by the government and the scheme would be valid for five years.
Currently, the average cover given to banks by the ECGC is 60%.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term “Fully Accessible Route” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a separate channel, namely ‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR), to enable non-residents to invest in specified government bonds with effect from April 1, 2020.
The move follows the Union Budget announcement that certain specified categories of government bonds would be opened fully for non-resident investors without any restrictions.
Under FAR, eligible investors can invest in specified government securities without being subject to any investment ceilings.
This scheme shall operate along with the two existing routes, viz., the Medium Term Framework (MTF) and the Voluntary Retention Route (VRR).
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a separate channel, namely ‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR), to enable non-residents to invest in specified government bonds with effect from April 1, 2020.
The move follows the Union Budget announcement that certain specified categories of government bonds would be opened fully for non-resident investors without any restrictions.
Under FAR, eligible investors can invest in specified government securities without being subject to any investment ceilings.
This scheme shall operate along with the two existing routes, viz., the Medium Term Framework (MTF) and the Voluntary Retention Route (VRR).
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Economy“FERA and FEMA” are often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
FERA was mainly formulated to deal with deep crunch of foreign exchange post world war II and hence was a rigid piece of legislation which have left all the businesspeople and Indian citizens at the mercy of Enforcement Directorate as violence of FERA was considered a criminal act and there were major penalties associated with it.
FEMA or Foreign Exchange Management Act was introduced in the year 1999 to replace FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulations Act). FEMA came into act on 1st of June 2000.
The Scope and Objective of FEMA was mainly to amend the laws related to foreign exchange to facilitate external trade and payments and to develop the foreign exchange market in India.
FEMA was a liberal from of its prior version (FERA). It extends to whole of the country. It introduced resident ship in place of citizenship.
FEMA is more human and natural in nature and removed all kinds of restrictions on withdrawal of foreign exchange.
FEMA also introduced RFC (Resident foreign currency account). It specifically deals with possession and retention of foreign currency and includes all kinds of foreign securities and immovable property.
Incorrect
FERA was mainly formulated to deal with deep crunch of foreign exchange post world war II and hence was a rigid piece of legislation which have left all the businesspeople and Indian citizens at the mercy of Enforcement Directorate as violence of FERA was considered a criminal act and there were major penalties associated with it.
FEMA or Foreign Exchange Management Act was introduced in the year 1999 to replace FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulations Act). FEMA came into act on 1st of June 2000.
The Scope and Objective of FEMA was mainly to amend the laws related to foreign exchange to facilitate external trade and payments and to develop the foreign exchange market in India.
FEMA was a liberal from of its prior version (FERA). It extends to whole of the country. It introduced resident ship in place of citizenship.
FEMA is more human and natural in nature and removed all kinds of restrictions on withdrawal of foreign exchange.
FEMA also introduced RFC (Resident foreign currency account). It specifically deals with possession and retention of foreign currency and includes all kinds of foreign securities and immovable property.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Extended Fund Facility (EFF)”:
1. It is a lending facility of the World Bank.
2. It was established to help countries address medium and longer-term balance of payments problems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Extended Fund Facility is lending facility of the Fund of the IMF and it was established in 1974 to help countries address medium- and longer-term balance of payments problems.
The EFF is prescribed for a country who is suffering from balance of payment problem caused by structural weaknesses and who need fundamental economic reforms.
The use of the facility has increased substantially in the recent crisis period.
Incorrect
The Extended Fund Facility is lending facility of the Fund of the IMF and it was established in 1974 to help countries address medium- and longer-term balance of payments problems.
The EFF is prescribed for a country who is suffering from balance of payment problem caused by structural weaknesses and who need fundamental economic reforms.
The use of the facility has increased substantially in the recent crisis period.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe term “Harmonized System (HS)” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Harmonized System, or simply ‘HS’, is a six-digit identification code developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO).
Called the “universal economic language” for goods, it is a multipurpose international product nomenclature.
Over 200 countries use the system as a basis for their customs tariffs, gathering international trade statistics, making trade policies, and for monitoring goods.
The system helps in harmonizing of customs and trade procedures, thus reducing costs in international trade.
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry allocated a separate Harmonized System (HS) code for Khadi, India’s signature handspun and hand-woven cloth that was made iconic by Mahatma Gandhi during the freedom struggle.
The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) in its press release said, “Khadi has once again come out of its customary veil, marking its presence in the exclusive HS code bracket, issued by the central government on November 4, 2019, to categorize its products in export.”
Incorrect
The Harmonized System, or simply ‘HS’, is a six-digit identification code developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO).
Called the “universal economic language” for goods, it is a multipurpose international product nomenclature.
Over 200 countries use the system as a basis for their customs tariffs, gathering international trade statistics, making trade policies, and for monitoring goods.
The system helps in harmonizing of customs and trade procedures, thus reducing costs in international trade.
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry allocated a separate Harmonized System (HS) code for Khadi, India’s signature handspun and hand-woven cloth that was made iconic by Mahatma Gandhi during the freedom struggle.
The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) in its press release said, “Khadi has once again come out of its customary veil, marking its presence in the exclusive HS code bracket, issued by the central government on November 4, 2019, to categorize its products in export.”
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyThe word “Special 301 Report” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The United States Trade Representative has, in its “2019 Special 301 Report”, placed India on the “priority watch list”, again.
A move that has been labelled ‘anti public health’ by international humanitarian organisation Médecins Sans Frontières or the Doctors Without Borders.
The “Special 301 report” assesses US trading partners on their track record when it comes to protecting and enforcing intellectual property.
And, India has always received a critical review for reasons, including its balancing act between granting pharmaceutical patents and taking policy decisions to keep medicines affordable.
Incorrect
The United States Trade Representative has, in its “2019 Special 301 Report”, placed India on the “priority watch list”, again.
A move that has been labelled ‘anti public health’ by international humanitarian organisation Médecins Sans Frontières or the Doctors Without Borders.
The “Special 301 report” assesses US trading partners on their track record when it comes to protecting and enforcing intellectual property.
And, India has always received a critical review for reasons, including its balancing act between granting pharmaceutical patents and taking policy decisions to keep medicines affordable.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the “Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC)”:
1. It was established in the 2nd five year plan to promote exports.
2. It is managed by a Board of Directors comprising representatives of the Government, Reserve Bank of India, banking, and insurance and exporting community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
ECGC Ltd. (Formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd.), wholly owned by Government of India, was set up in 1957 with the objective of promoting exports from the country by providing Credit Risk Insurance and related services for exports.
It functions under the administrative control of Ministry of Commerce & Industry, and is managed by a Board of Directors comprising representatives of the Government, Reserve Bank of India, banking, and insurance and exporting community.
Over the years it has designed different export credit risk insurance products to suit the requirements of Indian exporters and commercial banks extending export credit.
ECGC is essentially an export promotion organization, seeking to improve the competitiveness of the Indian exporters by providing them with credit insurance covers. ECGC keeps its premium rates at the optimal level.
Incorrect
ECGC Ltd. (Formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd.), wholly owned by Government of India, was set up in 1957 with the objective of promoting exports from the country by providing Credit Risk Insurance and related services for exports.
It functions under the administrative control of Ministry of Commerce & Industry, and is managed by a Board of Directors comprising representatives of the Government, Reserve Bank of India, banking, and insurance and exporting community.
Over the years it has designed different export credit risk insurance products to suit the requirements of Indian exporters and commercial banks extending export credit.
ECGC is essentially an export promotion organization, seeking to improve the competitiveness of the Indian exporters by providing them with credit insurance covers. ECGC keeps its premium rates at the optimal level.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following sector (s) is/are permitted 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?
- Coal sector
- Contract Manufacturing sector
- Digital Media sector
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The government on August 28, 2019 relaxed FDI rule for foreign single brand retailers and also permitted foreign investment in contract manufacturing and coal mining.
List of the important decisions on FDI by the Cabinet:
Allows 100% FDI under automatic route in coal mining and associated infrastructure
Allows 100% FDI in contract manufacturing under automatic route
Relaxes FDI rules for single brand retail; expands definition of 30% domestic sourcing
- Allows online retailing under single-brand retail; relaxes rule of mandatory brick-and-mortar store
Approves 26% FDI in digital media
Incorrect
The government on August 28, 2019 relaxed FDI rule for foreign single brand retailers and also permitted foreign investment in contract manufacturing and coal mining.
List of the important decisions on FDI by the Cabinet:
Allows 100% FDI under automatic route in coal mining and associated infrastructure
Allows 100% FDI in contract manufacturing under automatic route
Relaxes FDI rules for single brand retail; expands definition of 30% domestic sourcing
- Allows online retailing under single-brand retail; relaxes rule of mandatory brick-and-mortar store
Approves 26% FDI in digital media
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWith reference to the International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) general quota, which of the following roles played by quota of a member country?
- It determines resource contributions to IMF.
- It determines voting power of a member country.
- It determines maximum amount of financing a member country can obtain from IMF.
- It determines SDR allocation to a member country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The IMF is a quota-based institution. Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy. Quotas are denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s unit of account.
Incorrect
The IMF is a quota-based institution. Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy. Quotas are denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s unit of account.
International trade II
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding International Financial Services
Centre (IFSC):
1. An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy.
2. India’s first IFSC’s is being set up in GIFT City in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. Such
centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. London,
New York and Singapore can be counted as global financial centres.
An expert panel headed by former World Bank economist Percy Mistry submitted a report
on making Mumbai an international financial centre in 2007. However, the global financial
crisis that unfolded in 2008 made countries including India cautious about rapidly opening
up their financial sectors.
Finance Minister announced in the Union Budget 2015 that India’s first IFSC’s would be set
up in GIFT City in Gujarat.
# The United Kingdom has entered into a strategic partnership to develop India’s fledgling
international financial services centre GIFT City, and agreed to set up a new Fund of Funds to
be managed by the State Bank of India group in order to route U.K.’s future capital
investments into India.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. Such
centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. London,
New York and Singapore can be counted as global financial centres.
An expert panel headed by former World Bank economist Percy Mistry submitted a report
on making Mumbai an international financial centre in 2007. However, the global financial
crisis that unfolded in 2008 made countries including India cautious about rapidly opening
up their financial sectors.
Finance Minister announced in the Union Budget 2015 that India’s first IFSC’s would be set
up in GIFT City in Gujarat.
# The United Kingdom has entered into a strategic partnership to develop India’s fledgling
international financial services centre GIFT City, and agreed to set up a new Fund of Funds to
be managed by the State Bank of India group in order to route U.K.’s future capital
investments into India. - Question 2 of 7
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyGlobal Network of Advanced Manufacturing Hubs (AMHUBs) is a project of which
of the following organisation?Correct
The Advanced Manufacturing HUB or AMHUB is one of the 19 platforms designed by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This platform focuses on engaging entire regional production ecosystems to identify and address regional opportunities and challenges brought by the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) by amplifying regional success stories, sharing best practices & incubating new partnerships
The Global Network of AMHUBs uses the Forum’s platform to aggregate and accelerate regional efforts to adapt to the future of advanced manufacturing and production and highlight key regional case examples on the global stage, while creating a feedback loop wherein best practices from around the world are conveyed to the regional level to further amplify the impact potential of this network.
# Guidance, nodal investment promotion and facilitation agency of the state of Tamil Nadu has partnered with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish India’s first advanced manufacturing hub (AMHUB) in Tamil Nadu.Incorrect
The Advanced Manufacturing HUB or AMHUB is one of the 19 platforms designed by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This platform focuses on engaging entire regional production ecosystems to identify and address regional opportunities and challenges brought by the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) by amplifying regional success stories, sharing best practices & incubating new partnerships
The Global Network of AMHUBs uses the Forum’s platform to aggregate and accelerate regional efforts to adapt to the future of advanced manufacturing and production and highlight key regional case examples on the global stage, while creating a feedback loop wherein best practices from around the world are conveyed to the regional level to further amplify the impact potential of this network.
# Guidance, nodal investment promotion and facilitation agency of the state of Tamil Nadu has partnered with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish India’s first advanced manufacturing hub (AMHUB) in Tamil Nadu. - Question 3 of 7
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the International Financial Services
Centres Authority (IFSCA):
1. IFSCA is a statutory regulatory body.
2. It is empowered to exercise the powers of Reserve Bank of India in respect of the international financial services centres in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. International Financial Sevices Centres Authority
(IFSCA) is a statutory unified regulatory body under the Department of Economic Affairs
established by an Act of Parliament to develop and regulate the financial products, financial
services and financial institutions located / performed in the International Financial
Services Centres in India.
Statement 2 is correct. The Authority will function as a unified regulator and is empowered
to exercise the powers of RBI, SEBI, IRDAI and PFRDA in respect of financial services,
financial products and financial institutions performed/located in the international
financial services centres in the country.
IFSCA has introduced a framework for “Regulatory Sandbox”. Under this, entities operating
in the capital market, banking, insurance and financial services space shall be granted
certain facilities and flexibilities to experiment with innovative FinTech solutions in a live
environment with a limited set of real customers for a limited time frame.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. International Financial Sevices Centres Authority
(IFSCA) is a statutory unified regulatory body under the Department of Economic Affairs
established by an Act of Parliament to develop and regulate the financial products, financial
services and financial institutions located / performed in the International Financial
Services Centres in India.
Statement 2 is correct. The Authority will function as a unified regulator and is empowered
to exercise the powers of RBI, SEBI, IRDAI and PFRDA in respect of financial services,
financial products and financial institutions performed/located in the international
financial services centres in the country.
IFSCA has introduced a framework for “Regulatory Sandbox”. Under this, entities operating
in the capital market, banking, insurance and financial services space shall be granted
certain facilities and flexibilities to experiment with innovative FinTech solutions in a live
environment with a limited set of real customers for a limited time frame. - Question 4 of 7
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are potential advantage(s) of the Foreign Direct
Investment?
1. Exchange Rate Stability
2. Increase in Exports
3. Human Resource Development
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment of funds by an
organisation from one country into another, with the intent of establishing ’lasting interest’.
The difference between FDI and FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investments): In FPI the investor
purchases equity of foreign companies. FPI means only equity infusion, and does not imply
the establishment of a lasting interest.
Potential advantages of FDI:
Recipient businesses get access to latest financing tools, technologies and operational
practices from across the world.
Human Capital refers to the knowledge and competence of the workforce. Once developed,
human capital is mobile. It can train human resources in other companies, thereby creating
a ripple effect.
Not all goods produced through FDI are meant for domestic consumption. Many of these
products have global markets and thereby increase export potential of a country.
The constant flow of FDI into a country translates into a continuous flow of foreign
exchange. This helps the country’s Central Bank maintain a comfortable reserve of
foreign exchange. This in turn ensures stable exchange rates.Incorrect
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment of funds by an
organisation from one country into another, with the intent of establishing ’lasting interest’.
The difference between FDI and FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investments): In FPI the investor
purchases equity of foreign companies. FPI means only equity infusion, and does not imply
the establishment of a lasting interest.
Potential advantages of FDI:
Recipient businesses get access to latest financing tools, technologies and operational
practices from across the world.
Human Capital refers to the knowledge and competence of the workforce. Once developed,
human capital is mobile. It can train human resources in other companies, thereby creating
a ripple effect.
Not all goods produced through FDI are meant for domestic consumption. Many of these
products have global markets and thereby increase export potential of a country.
The constant flow of FDI into a country translates into a continuous flow of foreign
exchange. This helps the country’s Central Bank maintain a comfortable reserve of
foreign exchange. This in turn ensures stable exchange rates. - Question 5 of 7
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following is/are not covered by the definition of ‘foreign source’ under
the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
1. Government of any foreign country
2. International Monetary Fund
3. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 regulates foreign
donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security.
Some of the Foreign Sources, as defined in Section 2(1) (j) of FCRA, 2010 include:
-the Government of any foreign country or territory and any agency of such Government;
-any international agency, not being the United Nations or any of its specialized agencies,
the World Bank, International Monetary Fund or such other agency as the Central
Government may notify;
Central Govt. has notified several international bodies to be not covered by the definition of
‘foreign source’. The list among others includes Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC), Geneva.
-a trade union in any foreign country or territory;
-a foreign trust or a foreign foundation;
-a society, club or other association or individuals formed or registered outside India;
-a citizen of a foreign country.Incorrect
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 regulates foreign
donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security.
Some of the Foreign Sources, as defined in Section 2(1) (j) of FCRA, 2010 include:
-the Government of any foreign country or territory and any agency of such Government;
-any international agency, not being the United Nations or any of its specialized agencies,
the World Bank, International Monetary Fund or such other agency as the Central
Government may notify;
Central Govt. has notified several international bodies to be not covered by the definition of
‘foreign source’. The list among others includes Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC), Geneva.
-a trade union in any foreign country or territory;
-a foreign trust or a foreign foundation;
-a society, club or other association or individuals formed or registered outside India;
-a citizen of a foreign country. - Question 6 of 7
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding India-United Kingdom trade relations:
1. India have had a continuous trade surplus with United Kingdom in past five years.
2. India and United Kingdom have signed a free trade agreement called Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The UK is among the few countries with which India has a trade surplus and both nations share a trade relation of over $15 billion annually.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India and the UK recently agreed on key elements of a 10-year roadmap to enhance their relationship and pledged to fast track talks on a free trade agreement.
India had earlier been negotiating a broad-based trade and investment agreement (BTIA) with the EU. Although talks on India-EU BTIA started in 2007, it has been stuck in issues including market access for automobiles and alcohol and inclusion of labour and environment matters in the pact.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The UK is among the few countries with which India has a trade surplus and both nations share a trade relation of over $15 billion annually.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India and the UK recently agreed on key elements of a 10-year roadmap to enhance their relationship and pledged to fast track talks on a free trade agreement.
India had earlier been negotiating a broad-based trade and investment agreement (BTIA) with the EU. Although talks on India-EU BTIA started in 2007, it has been stuck in issues including market access for automobiles and alcohol and inclusion of labour and environment matters in the pact.
- Question 7 of 7
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding India’s foreign trade this financial year (2020-21) so far:
1. Compared to 2019-20, India’s exports have fallen more than imports in percentage terms.
2. Taking merchandise and services together, India has an overall trade surplus for April-November 2020-21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April-November 2020-21 are estimated to be USD 304.25 Billion, exhibiting a negative growth of (-) 14.03per cent over the same period last year. Overall imports in April-November 2020-21 are estimated to be USD 290.66Billion, exhibiting a negative growth of (-) 29.96per cent over the same period last year.
Statement 2 is correct. Taking merchandise and services together, overall trade surplus for April-November 2020-21 is estimated at USD13.59Billion as compared to the deficit of USD61.06Billion in April-November 2019-20.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April-November 2020-21 are estimated to be USD 304.25 Billion, exhibiting a negative growth of (-) 14.03per cent over the same period last year. Overall imports in April-November 2020-21 are estimated to be USD 290.66Billion, exhibiting a negative growth of (-) 29.96per cent over the same period last year.
Statement 2 is correct. Taking merchandise and services together, overall trade surplus for April-November 2020-21 is estimated at USD13.59Billion as compared to the deficit of USD61.06Billion in April-November 2019-20.
Socio-Economic– 2020 and Before that
Socio-Economic
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements:
1.Case fatality ratio (CFR) is the proportion of individuals diagnosed with a disease who die from that disease.
2.The infection fatality ratio (IFR) for a disease estimates proportion of deaths among all infected individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
There are two measures used to assess the proportion of infected individuals with fatal outcomes. The first is infection fatality ratio (IFR), which estimates this proportion of deaths among all infected individuals. The second is case fatality ratio (CFR), which estimates this proportion of deaths among identified confirmed cases.
The true severity of a disease can be described by the Infection Fatality Ratio:
Serological testing of a representative random sample of the population to detect evidence of exposure to a pathogen is an important method to estimate the true number of infected individuals.
Case fatality ratio (CFR) is the proportion of individuals diagnosed with a disease who die from that disease and is therefore a measure of severity among detected cases:Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
There are two measures used to assess the proportion of infected individuals with fatal outcomes. The first is infection fatality ratio (IFR), which estimates this proportion of deaths among all infected individuals. The second is case fatality ratio (CFR), which estimates this proportion of deaths among identified confirmed cases.
The true severity of a disease can be described by the Infection Fatality Ratio:
Serological testing of a representative random sample of the population to detect evidence of exposure to a pathogen is an important method to estimate the true number of infected individuals.
Case fatality ratio (CFR) is the proportion of individuals diagnosed with a disease who die from that disease and is therefore a measure of severity among detected cases: - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Viral Hepatitis Control Program (NVHCP):
1. It aims to achieve country wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030.
2. Its components include prevention, diagnosis as well as treatment of Hepatitis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program was launched by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on the World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.
It is an integrated initiative for the prevention and control of viral hepatitis in India to achieve Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.3 which aims to ending viral hepatitis by 2030.
Statement 1 is correct. Aim of the program:
– Combat hepatitis and achieve country wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030;
– Achieve significant reduction in the infected population, morbidity and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C viz. Cirrhosis and Hepato-cellular carcinoma (liver cancer);
– Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.
Statement 2 is correct. Components of NVHCP: Prevention, Diagnosis and Treatment, Monitoring and Evaluation, Surveillance and Research; and Training and Capacity Building.Incorrect
The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program was launched by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on the World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.
It is an integrated initiative for the prevention and control of viral hepatitis in India to achieve Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.3 which aims to ending viral hepatitis by 2030.
Statement 1 is correct. Aim of the program:
– Combat hepatitis and achieve country wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030;
– Achieve significant reduction in the infected population, morbidity and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C viz. Cirrhosis and Hepato-cellular carcinoma (liver cancer);
– Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.
Statement 2 is correct. Components of NVHCP: Prevention, Diagnosis and Treatment, Monitoring and Evaluation, Surveillance and Research; and Training and Capacity Building. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution has published the Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020 report?
Correct
The Poverty and Shared Prosperity biennial series published by the World Bank provides a global audience with the latest and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity.
Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020: Reversals of Fortune report presents new estimates of COVID-19’s impacts on global poverty and inequality. Harnessing fresh data from frontline surveys and economic simulations, it shows that pandemic-related job losses and deprivation worldwide are hitting already-poor and vulnerable people hard, while also partly changing the profile of global poverty by creating millions of “new poor.”
Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by COVID-19. Around 9.1% to 9.4% of the world will be affected by extreme poverty in 2020.Incorrect
The Poverty and Shared Prosperity biennial series published by the World Bank provides a global audience with the latest and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity.
Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020: Reversals of Fortune report presents new estimates of COVID-19’s impacts on global poverty and inequality. Harnessing fresh data from frontline surveys and economic simulations, it shows that pandemic-related job losses and deprivation worldwide are hitting already-poor and vulnerable people hard, while also partly changing the profile of global poverty by creating millions of “new poor.”
Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by COVID-19. Around 9.1% to 9.4% of the world will be affected by extreme poverty in 2020. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM):
1. Every person is to be provided with a digital health ID having all his/her health records.
2. The UIDAI will design, build, roll-out and implement the NDHM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) aims to liberate citizens from the challenges of finding the right doctors, seeking appointment with them, payment of consultation fee, making several rounds of hospitals for prescription sheets.
Statement 1 is correct. Every person in the country will get a digital health ID which is basically a digital format of all his/her health records which will be linked to the registry of doctors and health facilities across the country.
The platform has been planned to improve efficiency, effectiveness and transparency of health service delivery. The health ID will be in the form of a mobile application of website.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National Health Authority (NHA) will design, build, roll-out and implement the NDHM. The scheme would first be tested in the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Ladakh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.Incorrect
National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) aims to liberate citizens from the challenges of finding the right doctors, seeking appointment with them, payment of consultation fee, making several rounds of hospitals for prescription sheets.
Statement 1 is correct. Every person in the country will get a digital health ID which is basically a digital format of all his/her health records which will be linked to the registry of doctors and health facilities across the country.
The platform has been planned to improve efficiency, effectiveness and transparency of health service delivery. The health ID will be in the form of a mobile application of website.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National Health Authority (NHA) will design, build, roll-out and implement the NDHM. The scheme would first be tested in the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Ladakh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution has released the Commitment to Reducing Inequality (CRI) Index 2020?
Correct
2020 CRI Index: Fighting Inequality in the Time of Covid-19 has been recently released by the Oxfam. The CRI Index database is updated annually by Development Finance International (DFI) and Oxfam.
Only one in six countries assessed for the CRI Index 2020 were spending enough on health, only a third of the global workforce had adequate social protection, and in more than 100 countries at least one in three workers had no labour protection such as sick pay.Incorrect
2020 CRI Index: Fighting Inequality in the Time of Covid-19 has been recently released by the Oxfam. The CRI Index database is updated annually by Development Finance International (DFI) and Oxfam.
Only one in six countries assessed for the CRI Index 2020 were spending enough on health, only a third of the global workforce had adequate social protection, and in more than 100 countries at least one in three workers had no labour protection such as sick pay. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following institution has released the ‘Human Cost of Disasters 2000-2019′ report?
Correct
UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction has published “The Human Cost of Disasters 2000-2019” report to mark the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction on October 13, 2020.
In the period 2000 to 2019, there were 7,348 major recorded disaster events claiming 1.23 million lives, affecting 4.2 billion people (many on more than one occasion) resulting in approximately US$2.97 trillion in global economic losses.
There has also been a rise in geo-physical events including earthquakes and tsunamis which have killed more people than any of the other natural hazards under review in this report.Incorrect
UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction has published “The Human Cost of Disasters 2000-2019” report to mark the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction on October 13, 2020.
In the period 2000 to 2019, there were 7,348 major recorded disaster events claiming 1.23 million lives, affecting 4.2 billion people (many on more than one occasion) resulting in approximately US$2.97 trillion in global economic losses.
There has also been a rise in geo-physical events including earthquakes and tsunamis which have killed more people than any of the other natural hazards under review in this report. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project:
1.It is to be implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with financial support from the World Bank.
2.It includes a Contingency Emergency Response Component to be more responsive to any natural, man-made and health disasters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Cabinet has recently approved the implementation of the Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project with a total project cost of Rs 5718 crore with the financial support of World Bank amounting to US $ 500 million.
STARS project would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme under Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education (MOE).
Statement 2 is correct. STARS project has separate National and State level implementation components.
It further includes a Contingency Emergency Response Component (CERC) under the National Component which would enable it to be more responsive to any natural, man-made and health disasters. It will help the government respond to situations leading to loss of learning such as school closures/infrastructure damage, inadequate facilities and use technology for facilitating remote learning etc.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Cabinet has recently approved the implementation of the Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project with a total project cost of Rs 5718 crore with the financial support of World Bank amounting to US $ 500 million.
STARS project would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme under Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education (MOE).
Statement 2 is correct. STARS project has separate National and State level implementation components.
It further includes a Contingency Emergency Response Component (CERC) under the National Component which would enable it to be more responsive to any natural, man-made and health disasters. It will help the government respond to situations leading to loss of learning such as school closures/infrastructure damage, inadequate facilities and use technology for facilitating remote learning etc. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhat is the objective of the recently launched ‘KAPILA’ Kalam Program?
Correct
Union Education Minister recently launched the ‘KAPILA’ Kalam Program for Intellectual Property Literacy and Awareness campaign on the 89th birth anniversary of former President and Scientist Late Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
Under this campaign, students pursuing education in higher educational institutions will get information about the correct system of application process for patenting their invention and they will be aware of their rights. He further said that we need to take a giant leap in the field of patents.Incorrect
Union Education Minister recently launched the ‘KAPILA’ Kalam Program for Intellectual Property Literacy and Awareness campaign on the 89th birth anniversary of former President and Scientist Late Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
Under this campaign, students pursuing education in higher educational institutions will get information about the correct system of application process for patenting their invention and they will be aware of their rights. He further said that we need to take a giant leap in the field of patents. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the Global Hunger Index 2020:
1. It has been published by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI).
2. Overall, India ranks better than all other SAARC nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Hunger Index was first produced in 2006. It is published every October. The 2020 edition published by Welthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide marks the 15th edition of the GHI.
GHI scores are based on a formula that captures three dimensions of hunger—insufficient caloric intake (undernourishment), child undernutrition, and child mortality—using four component indicators:
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has the highest prevalence of wasted children under five years in the world, which reflects acute under nutrition, according to the Global Hunger Index 2020. Overall, India ranks 94 out of 107 countries in the Index, lower than neighbors such as Bangladesh (75) and Pakistan (88).Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Hunger Index was first produced in 2006. It is published every October. The 2020 edition published by Welthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide marks the 15th edition of the GHI.
GHI scores are based on a formula that captures three dimensions of hunger—insufficient caloric intake (undernourishment), child undernutrition, and child mortality—using four component indicators:
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has the highest prevalence of wasted children under five years in the world, which reflects acute under nutrition, according to the Global Hunger Index 2020. Overall, India ranks 94 out of 107 countries in the Index, lower than neighbors such as Bangladesh (75) and Pakistan (88). - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA Scheme:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. SVAMITVA Scheme is a Central Sector scheme. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme.
In the States, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department will be the Nodal Department and shall carry out the scheme with support of State Panchayati Raj Department. Survey of India shall work as the technology partner for implementation.
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. The demarcation of rural abadi areas would be done using Drone Surveying technology.
The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives:
–To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.
–Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.
–Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.
–Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.
–To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.
–To reduce property related disputes and legal casesIncorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. SVAMITVA Scheme is a Central Sector scheme. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme.
In the States, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department will be the Nodal Department and shall carry out the scheme with support of State Panchayati Raj Department. Survey of India shall work as the technology partner for implementation.
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. The demarcation of rural abadi areas would be done using Drone Surveying technology.
The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives:
–To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.
–Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.
–Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.
–Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.
–To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.
–To reduce property related disputes and legal cases - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) of India:
1.It is conducted annually by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2.It is a multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is not an annual survey. The First National Family Health Survey (NFHS-1) was conducted in 1992-93. The Second National Family Health Survey (NFHS-2) was conducted in 1998-99 The Third National Family Health Survey (NFHS-3) was carried out in 2005-2006.
The 2015-16 National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4), the fourth in the NFHS series, provides information on population, health, and nutrition for India and each state and union territory. All four NFHS surveys have been conducted under the stewardship of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
MoHFW designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, as the nodal agency for all of the surveys.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
Decisions about the overall sample size required for NFHS-4 were guided by several considerations, paramount among which was the need to produce indicators at the district, state/union territory (UT), and national levels, as well as separate estimates for urban and rural areas in the 157 districts that have 30-70 percent of the population living in urban areas as per the 2011 census, with a reasonable level of precision.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is not an annual survey. The First National Family Health Survey (NFHS-1) was conducted in 1992-93. The Second National Family Health Survey (NFHS-2) was conducted in 1998-99 The Third National Family Health Survey (NFHS-3) was carried out in 2005-2006.
The 2015-16 National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4), the fourth in the NFHS series, provides information on population, health, and nutrition for India and each state and union territory. All four NFHS surveys have been conducted under the stewardship of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
MoHFW designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, as the nodal agency for all of the surveys.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
Decisions about the overall sample size required for NFHS-4 were guided by several considerations, paramount among which was the need to produce indicators at the district, state/union territory (UT), and national levels, as well as separate estimates for urban and rural areas in the 157 districts that have 30-70 percent of the population living in urban areas as per the 2011 census, with a reasonable level of precision. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyConsider the following statements regarding the National Health Stack (NHS):
1. NITI Aayog proposed the National Health Stack as a digital health infrastructure at national level.
2. It proposed a Coverage and Claims platform as building blocks to support large health protection schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. National Health Stack (NHS) as proposed by NITI Aayog in its strategy paper in 2018 is digital infrastructure built with the aim of making the health insurance system more transparent and robust, while factoring in the uniqueness of India’s health sector, and the political realities of federalism
Statement 2 is correct. The key components of the National Health Stack are:
-National Health Electronic Registries: to create a single source of truth for and manage master health data of the nation;
-A Coverage and Claims platform: building blocks to support large health protection schemes, enable horizontal and vertical expansion of Rashtriya Swasthya Suraksha Mission by states and robust fraud detection;
-A Federated Personal Health Records (PHR) Framework: to solve twin challenges of access to their own health data by patients and availability of health data for medical research, critical for advancing our understanding of human health;
-A National Health Analytics Platform: to bring a holistic view combining information on multiple health initiatives and feed into smart policy making, for instance, through improved predictive analytics;
-Other horizontal Components: including, and not restricted to, unique Digital Health ID, Health Data Dictionaries and Supply Chain Management for Drugs, payment gateways etc. shared across all health programs.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. National Health Stack (NHS) as proposed by NITI Aayog in its strategy paper in 2018 is digital infrastructure built with the aim of making the health insurance system more transparent and robust, while factoring in the uniqueness of India’s health sector, and the political realities of federalism
Statement 2 is correct. The key components of the National Health Stack are:
-National Health Electronic Registries: to create a single source of truth for and manage master health data of the nation;
-A Coverage and Claims platform: building blocks to support large health protection schemes, enable horizontal and vertical expansion of Rashtriya Swasthya Suraksha Mission by states and robust fraud detection;
-A Federated Personal Health Records (PHR) Framework: to solve twin challenges of access to their own health data by patients and availability of health data for medical research, critical for advancing our understanding of human health;
-A National Health Analytics Platform: to bring a holistic view combining information on multiple health initiatives and feed into smart policy making, for instance, through improved predictive analytics;
-Other horizontal Components: including, and not restricted to, unique Digital Health ID, Health Data Dictionaries and Supply Chain Management for Drugs, payment gateways etc. shared across all health programs. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following correctly defines the Arakunomics model in news recently?
Correct
Recently Rockefeller Foundation has selected Naandi Foundation, Hyderabad-based non-profit, as one of the ‘Top 10 Visionaries’ in the world for the Food Vision 2050 Prize.
Naandi’s vision titled “Arakunomics” is based on work with tribal farmers in Araku for nearly 20 years. Arakunomics is a new integrated economic model that ensures Profits for farmers, Quality for consumers through Regenerative Agriculture (PQR).
Incorrect
Recently Rockefeller Foundation has selected Naandi Foundation, Hyderabad-based non-profit, as one of the ‘Top 10 Visionaries’ in the world for the Food Vision 2050 Prize.
Naandi’s vision titled “Arakunomics” is based on work with tribal farmers in Araku for nearly 20 years. Arakunomics is a new integrated economic model that ensures Profits for farmers, Quality for consumers through Regenerative Agriculture (PQR).
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following was determined by the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula?
Correct
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula.
Incorrect
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana:
- The scheme provides monetary relief in case an Insured Person (IP) is rendered unemployed.
- It is being implemented by the Labour Bureau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana provides relief to the extent of 25% of the average per day earning during the previous four contribution periods to be paid up to maximum 90 days of unemployment once in lifetime, in case the Insured Person (IP) is rendered unemployed.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana is a welfare measure being implemented by the Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) Corporation.
The Scheme was made effective from 01-07-2018 on pilot basis for a period of two years initially.
# The ESI Corporation has recently decided to extend the scheme for one more year upto 30th June 2021. It has been decided to relax the existing conditions and the amount of relief for workers who have lost employment during the Covid-19 pandemic period.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana provides relief to the extent of 25% of the average per day earning during the previous four contribution periods to be paid up to maximum 90 days of unemployment once in lifetime, in case the Insured Person (IP) is rendered unemployed.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana is a welfare measure being implemented by the Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) Corporation.
The Scheme was made effective from 01-07-2018 on pilot basis for a period of two years initially.
# The ESI Corporation has recently decided to extend the scheme for one more year upto 30th June 2021. It has been decided to relax the existing conditions and the amount of relief for workers who have lost employment during the Covid-19 pandemic period.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Food Security Act, 2013:
- State governments are responsible for identifying and specifying criteria for priority households.
- In case of non-supply of the entitled quantities of food grains, beneficiaries are entitled to receive food security allowance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As per the National Food Security Act, 2013, the central government is responsible for determining the total number of persons to receive food security in each state.
Each state government is responsible for specifying criteria for identifying priority households. States are also responsible for identifying exact households according to these criteria. Antyodaya Anna Yojana households are identified according to the scheme guidelines.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 8 of the act states that in case of non-supply of the entitled quantities of food grains or meals to entitled persons, such persons are entitled to receive food security allowance from the concerned State Government, within such time and manner as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
Entitlements under NFSA:
-Highly subsidized food grains under PDS (5 kg per person for PHH category and 35 kg per household for AAY households.).
-Nutritious meal, free of charge to pregnant women & lactating mothers and children up to 6 years of age.
-Nutritious meal, free of charge to children in the 6-14 years of age group under MDM.
-Maternity benefits of Rs. 6000 to Pregnant Women & Lactating Mother.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As per the National Food Security Act, 2013, the central government is responsible for determining the total number of persons to receive food security in each state.
Each state government is responsible for specifying criteria for identifying priority households. States are also responsible for identifying exact households according to these criteria. Antyodaya Anna Yojana households are identified according to the scheme guidelines.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 8 of the act states that in case of non-supply of the entitled quantities of food grains or meals to entitled persons, such persons are entitled to receive food security allowance from the concerned State Government, within such time and manner as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
Entitlements under NFSA:
-Highly subsidized food grains under PDS (5 kg per person for PHH category and 35 kg per household for AAY households.).
-Nutritious meal, free of charge to pregnant women & lactating mothers and children up to 6 years of age.
-Nutritious meal, free of charge to children in the 6-14 years of age group under MDM.
-Maternity benefits of Rs. 6000 to Pregnant Women & Lactating Mother.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are not part of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
- Clean Water and Sanitation
- Reduced Inequality
- Peace and Justice Strong Institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above are part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015.
2015 was a landmark year for multilateralism and international policy shaping, with the adoption of several major agreements:
-Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (March 2015)
-Addis Ababa Action Agenda on Financing for Development (July 2015)
-Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development with its 17 SDGs was adopted at the UN Sustainable Development Summit in New York in September 2015.
-Paris Agreement on Climate Change (December 2015)
Incorrect
All of the above are part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015.
2015 was a landmark year for multilateralism and international policy shaping, with the adoption of several major agreements:
-Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (March 2015)
-Addis Ababa Action Agenda on Financing for Development (July 2015)
-Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development with its 17 SDGs was adopted at the UN Sustainable Development Summit in New York in September 2015.
-Paris Agreement on Climate Change (December 2015)
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are pillars of Index of Economic Freedom?
- Rule of Law
- Government size
- Regulatory efficiency
- Open markets
- Sustainable development
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Today, we live in the most prosperous time in human history. Poverty,
sicknesses, and ignorance are receding throughout the world, due in large part to the
advance of economic freedom. In 2020, the principles of economic freedom that have fueled
this monumental progress are once again measured in the Index of Economic Freedom,
an annual guide published by The Heritage Foundation, Washington’s No. 1 think
tank.
The economic freedom is based on 12 quantitative and qualitative factors, grouped into four
broad categories, or pillars, of economic freedom:
- Rule of Law (property rights, government integrity, judicial effectiveness)
- Government Size (government spending, tax burden, fiscal health)
- Regulatory Efficiency (business freedom, labor freedom, monetary freedom)
- Open Markets (trade freedom, investment freedom, financial freedom)
Each of the twelve economic freedoms within these categories is graded on a scale of 0 to
- A country’s overall score is derived by averaging these twelve economic freedoms, with
equal weight being given to each.
Incorrect
Today, we live in the most prosperous time in human history. Poverty,
sicknesses, and ignorance are receding throughout the world, due in large part to the
advance of economic freedom. In 2020, the principles of economic freedom that have fueled
this monumental progress are once again measured in the Index of Economic Freedom,
an annual guide published by The Heritage Foundation, Washington’s No. 1 think
tank.
The economic freedom is based on 12 quantitative and qualitative factors, grouped into four
broad categories, or pillars, of economic freedom:
- Rule of Law (property rights, government integrity, judicial effectiveness)
- Government Size (government spending, tax burden, fiscal health)
- Regulatory Efficiency (business freedom, labor freedom, monetary freedom)
- Open Markets (trade freedom, investment freedom, financial freedom)
Each of the twelve economic freedoms within these categories is graded on a scale of 0 to
- A country’s overall score is derived by averaging these twelve economic freedoms, with
equal weight being given to each.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are consists of the Economic Cost of food-grains to Food
Corporation of India (FCI)?
- Pooled cost of grains
- Procurement incidentals
- Cost of distribution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Economic Cost of food-grains consists of three components, namely,
pooled cost of grains, procurement incidentals and the cost of distribution. The pooled cost
of food grains is the weighted MSP of the stock of food-grains available with FCI at the time
of calculating the economic cost
Incorrect
The Economic Cost of food-grains consists of three components, namely,
pooled cost of grains, procurement incidentals and the cost of distribution. The pooled cost
of food grains is the weighted MSP of the stock of food-grains available with FCI at the time
of calculating the economic cost
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Essential Commodities Act (ECA),
1955:
- It was enacted to control the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and
commerce in, certain goods considered as essential commodities.
- The Act itself does lay out Rules and Regulations to issue Control Orders related to
dealer licensing, regulate stock limits, restrict movement of goods and requirements of
compulsory purchases.
- Food and civil supply authorities in States execute the provisions of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 was enacted to control the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce in, certain goods considered as essential commodities.
- The Act itself does not lay out Rules and Regulations but allows the States to issue Control Orders related to dealer licensing, regulate stock limits, and restrict movement of goods and requirements of compulsory purchases under the system of levy.
- The Act also provides for action to confiscate the stock seized; to suspend/ cancel
licences, if any and impose punishments like imprisonment.
- The Act also gives the power to fix price limits, and selling the particular commodities above the limit will attract penalties.
- Most of the powers under the Act have been delegated by the Central Government to the State Governments with the direction that they shall exercise these powers.
- Food and civil supply authorities in States execute the provisions of the Act.
Incorrect
Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 was enacted to control the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce in, certain goods considered as essential commodities.
- The Act itself does not lay out Rules and Regulations but allows the States to issue Control Orders related to dealer licensing, regulate stock limits, and restrict movement of goods and requirements of compulsory purchases under the system of levy.
- The Act also provides for action to confiscate the stock seized; to suspend/ cancel
licences, if any and impose punishments like imprisonment.
- The Act also gives the power to fix price limits, and selling the particular commodities above the limit will attract penalties.
- Most of the powers under the Act have been delegated by the Central Government to the State Governments with the direction that they shall exercise these powers.
- Food and civil supply authorities in States execute the provisions of the Act.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
Conditional cash transfer scheme : Country
- Bolsa Familia : Brazil
- Oportuni dades : Argentina
- Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino : Indonesia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
It may be noted that internationally, there is a move towards conditional cash
transfers (CCTs), aimed at tackling problems of food insecurity and poverty and for nudging
people towards improved health and education levels.
Incorrect
It may be noted that internationally, there is a move towards conditional cash
transfers (CCTs), aimed at tackling problems of food insecurity and poverty and for nudging
people towards improved health and education levels.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in India report by World Bank:
- There was a gradual increase in female labour force participation in India.
- Bihar has the lowest rates of female workforce participation in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
India’s female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)—the share of working-age women who report either being employed, or being available for work—has fallen to a historic low of 23.3% in 2017-18, meaning that over three out of four women over the age of 15 in India are neither working nor seeking work. (The age of 15 is the cut-off used for global comparisons by the International Labour Organization.)
This would imply that they are most likely running the house and taking care of children.
Among men, caste and religion make no real difference to workforce participation rates. But among women, Muslim women have the lowest LFPR while among Hindu women, forward caste women have the lowest LFPR, implying that social norms and religious conservatism might play a role in women being “allowed” to work.
Among Indian states, Bihar has by far the lowest rates of female workforce participation, while the southern and eastern states do better.
Incorrect
India’s female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)—the share of working-age women who report either being employed, or being available for work—has fallen to a historic low of 23.3% in 2017-18, meaning that over three out of four women over the age of 15 in India are neither working nor seeking work. (The age of 15 is the cut-off used for global comparisons by the International Labour Organization.)
This would imply that they are most likely running the house and taking care of children.
Among men, caste and religion make no real difference to workforce participation rates. But among women, Muslim women have the lowest LFPR while among Hindu women, forward caste women have the lowest LFPR, implying that social norms and religious conservatism might play a role in women being “allowed” to work.
Among Indian states, Bihar has by far the lowest rates of female workforce participation, while the southern and eastern states do better.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana:
- It is implemented by Employees State Insurance (ESI) Corporation.
- It offers a relief payable in cash directly to the Bank Account in case an insured person is rendered unemployed and is in search for new engagement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
: Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana is a welfare measure being implemented by the Employees State Insurance (ESI) Corporation. The scheme was launched in 2018.
It is implemented on pilot basis for a period of two years initially.
It offers a relief payable in cash directly to the Bank Account in case an insured person is rendered unemployed and is in search for new engagement.
The scheme is for Insured Persons covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
Incorrect
: Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana is a welfare measure being implemented by the Employees State Insurance (ESI) Corporation. The scheme was launched in 2018.
It is implemented on pilot basis for a period of two years initially.
It offers a relief payable in cash directly to the Bank Account in case an insured person is rendered unemployed and is in search for new engagement.
The scheme is for Insured Persons covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsWith respect to World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap Report 2020, India has
improved its ranking in which of the following indicators?
Correct
Global Gender Gap Report, 2020 by World Economic Forum benchmarks 153
countries on their progress towards gender parity across four thematic dimensions:
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival, and
- Political Empowerment.
India slipped four places to 112th rank and has closed two-thirds of its overall gender gap
(score of 66.8%). While India has improved in political empowerment, it has fallen in other
three indicators. India is the only country among the 153 countries studied where the
economic gender gap is larger than the political one.
Incorrect
Global Gender Gap Report, 2020 by World Economic Forum benchmarks 153
countries on their progress towards gender parity across four thematic dimensions:
- Economic Participation and Opportunity
- Educational Attainment
- Health and Survival, and
- Political Empowerment.
India slipped four places to 112th rank and has closed two-thirds of its overall gender gap
(score of 66.8%). While India has improved in political empowerment, it has fallen in other
three indicators. India is the only country among the 153 countries studied where the
economic gender gap is larger than the political one.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Commission on the Status of
Women (CSW):
- It is the principal global intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion
of gender equality and the empowerment of women.
- It is a functional commission of ECOSOC.
- It monitors and reviews the progress and problems in the implementation of the Beijing
Declaration and Platform for Action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Commission on the Status of Women (CSW).
- The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) is the principal global
intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion of gender
equality and the empowerment of women.
- A functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), it was
established by ECOSOC resolution 11(II) of 21 June 1946.
- The CSW is instrumental in promoting women’s rights, documenting the reality of
women’s lives throughout the world, and shaping global standards on gender
equality and the empowerment of women.
- In 1996, ECOSOC in resolution 1996/6 expanded the Commission’s mandate and
decided that it should take a leading role in monitoring and reviewing progress
and problems in the implementation of the Beijing Declaration and Platform
for Action, and in mainstreaming a gender perspective in UN activities.
Incorrect
Commission on the Status of Women (CSW).
- The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) is the principal global
intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion of gender
equality and the empowerment of women.
- A functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), it was
established by ECOSOC resolution 11(II) of 21 June 1946.
- The CSW is instrumental in promoting women’s rights, documenting the reality of
women’s lives throughout the world, and shaping global standards on gender
equality and the empowerment of women.
- In 1996, ECOSOC in resolution 1996/6 expanded the Commission’s mandate and
decided that it should take a leading role in monitoring and reviewing progress
and problems in the implementation of the Beijing Declaration and Platform
for Action, and in mainstreaming a gender perspective in UN activities.
Socio-Economic II
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- Question 1 of 22
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organization has released the report The World’s Women
2020?Correct
The World’s Women reports are prepared by the Statistics Division of the UN
Department for Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) at five-year intervals, starting in
1990.
The World’s Women 2020: Trends and Statistics compiles 100 data stories that provide a
snapshot of the state of gender equality worldwide.
The report analyses gender equality in six critical areas: population and families; health;
education; economic empowerment and asset ownership; power and decision-making; and
violence against women and the girl child as well as the impact of COVID-19.
Less than 50% of working-age women are in the labour market, a figure that has barely
changed over the last quarter of a century. Unpaid domestic and care work falls
disproportionately on women, restraining their economic potential as the COVID-19
pandemic additionally affects women’s jobs and livelihoods, the report warns.Incorrect
The World’s Women reports are prepared by the Statistics Division of the UN
Department for Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) at five-year intervals, starting in
1990.
The World’s Women 2020: Trends and Statistics compiles 100 data stories that provide a
snapshot of the state of gender equality worldwide.
The report analyses gender equality in six critical areas: population and families; health;
education; economic empowerment and asset ownership; power and decision-making; and
violence against women and the girl child as well as the impact of COVID-19.
Less than 50% of working-age women are in the labour market, a figure that has barely
changed over the last quarter of a century. Unpaid domestic and care work falls
disproportionately on women, restraining their economic potential as the COVID-19
pandemic additionally affects women’s jobs and livelihoods, the report warns. - Question 2 of 22
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the “Meri Saheli” initiative of Indian
Railways:
1. This initiative provides a fifty percent reservation for female passengers on selected
routes.
2. The initiative is based on feedback from female passengers and corrective actions
thereon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian Railways has launched “Meri Saheli”
initiative for focused action on security of women across all zones with an objective to
provide safety and security to lady passengers travelling by trains for their entire journey
from starting station to destination station.
Statement 2 is correct. An initiative of RPF, the Strategy entails interaction with lady
passengers especially those travelling alone by a team of young lady RPF personnel at the
originating station.
RPF teams at the destination collect the feedback from the identified lady passengers.
The feedback is then analysed and corrective action, if any, is taken. If some distress call
comes from a train covered under “Meri Saheli” initiative, the disposal of the call is
monitored at the level of senior officers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian Railways has launched “Meri Saheli”
initiative for focused action on security of women across all zones with an objective to
provide safety and security to lady passengers travelling by trains for their entire journey
from starting station to destination station.
Statement 2 is correct. An initiative of RPF, the Strategy entails interaction with lady
passengers especially those travelling alone by a team of young lady RPF personnel at the
originating station.
RPF teams at the destination collect the feedback from the identified lady passengers.
The feedback is then analysed and corrective action, if any, is taken. If some distress call
comes from a train covered under “Meri Saheli” initiative, the disposal of the call is
monitored at the level of senior officers. - Question 3 of 22
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Global Hunger Index 2020:
1. It has been published by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI).
2. Overall, India ranks better than all other SAARC nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Hunger Index was first produced in
2006. It is published every October. The 2020 edition published by Welthungerhilfe and
Concern Worldwide marks the 15th edition of the GHI.
GHI scores are based on a formula that captures three dimensions of hunger—insufficient
caloric intake (undernourishment), child undernutrition, and child mortality—using four
component indicators:
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has the highest prevalence of wasted children under five
years in the world, which reflects acute under nutrition, according to the Global Hunger
Index 2020. Overall, India ranks 94 out of 107 countries in the Index, lower than
neighbors such as Bangladesh (75) and Pakistan (88).Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Hunger Index was first produced in
2006. It is published every October. The 2020 edition published by Welthungerhilfe and
Concern Worldwide marks the 15th edition of the GHI.
GHI scores are based on a formula that captures three dimensions of hunger—insufficient
caloric intake (undernourishment), child undernutrition, and child mortality—using four
component indicators:
Statement 2 is incorrect. India has the highest prevalence of wasted children under five
years in the world, which reflects acute under nutrition, according to the Global Hunger
Index 2020. Overall, India ranks 94 out of 107 countries in the Index, lower than
neighbors such as Bangladesh (75) and Pakistan (88). - Question 4 of 22
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Family Health Survey
(NFHS) of India:
1. It is conducted annually by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. It is a multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households
throughout India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is not an annual survey. The First National Family Health Survey (NFHS-1) was conducted in 1992- 93. The Second National Family Health Survey (NFHS-2) was conducted in 1998-99 The Third National Family Health Survey (NFHS-3) was carried out in 2005-2006.
The 2015-16 National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4), the fourth in the NFHS series, provides information on population, health, and nutrition for India and each state and union territory.
All four NFHS surveys have been conducted under the stewardship of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
MoHFW designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, as the nodal agency for all of the surveys.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multiround survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
Decisions about the overall sample size required for NFHS-4 were guided by several considerations, paramount among which was the need to produce indicators at the district, state/union territory (UT), and national levels, as well as separate estimates for urban and rural areas in the 157 districts that have 30-70 percent of the population living in urban areas as per the 2011 census, with a reasonable level of precision.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is not an annual survey. The First National Family Health Survey (NFHS-1) was conducted in 1992- 93. The Second National Family Health Survey (NFHS-2) was conducted in 1998-99 The Third National Family Health Survey (NFHS-3) was carried out in 2005-2006.
The 2015-16 National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4), the fourth in the NFHS series, provides information on population, health, and nutrition for India and each state and union territory.
All four NFHS surveys have been conducted under the stewardship of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
MoHFW designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, as the nodal agency for all of the surveys.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multiround survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
Decisions about the overall sample size required for NFHS-4 were guided by several considerations, paramount among which was the need to produce indicators at the district, state/union territory (UT), and national levels, as well as separate estimates for urban and rural areas in the 157 districts that have 30-70 percent of the population living in urban areas as per the 2011 census, with a reasonable level of precision.
- Question 5 of 22
5. Question
1 pointsWhat is Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC)?
Correct
The Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC) is an independent U.S. foreign assistance agency that has the goal of reducing poverty in developing countries through supporting economic growth.
It was created by the U.S. Congress in January 2004 with strong bipartisan support. MCC grants are designed to complement other U.S. and international development programs, as well as create an enabling environment for private sector investment.
Incorrect
The Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC) is an independent U.S. foreign assistance agency that has the goal of reducing poverty in developing countries through supporting economic growth.
It was created by the U.S. Congress in January 2004 with strong bipartisan support. MCC grants are designed to complement other U.S. and international development programs, as well as create an enabling environment for private sector investment.
- Question 6 of 22
6. Question
1 pointsThe Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs) are released by which of the following organisation?
Correct
The Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs) of World Bank Group highlight poverty, shared prosperity and inequality trends for over 100 developing countries. The briefs are released twice a year for the spring and Annual Meetings of the World Bank Group and International Monetary Fund.
The India PEB October 2020 notes: Between FY2011/12 and 2017, India’s poverty rate is estimated to have declined from 22.5 percent to values ranging from 8.1 to 11.3 percent at the international poverty line (2011 PPP $1.90 per person per day). However, as a result of the COVID-19 outbreak, poverty rates in 2020 are estimated to revert to levels observed in 2016.
# ‘Global Estimate of Children in Monetary Poverty: An Update’ that builds on previous collaboration between the World Bank Group and UNICEF to estimate the global extent of child poverty. It estimates that one in six children or 356 million globally were living in extreme poverty before the COVID-19 pandemic began, and this is set to worsen significantly.
Incorrect
The Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs) of World Bank Group highlight poverty, shared prosperity and inequality trends for over 100 developing countries. The briefs are released twice a year for the spring and Annual Meetings of the World Bank Group and International Monetary Fund.
The India PEB October 2020 notes: Between FY2011/12 and 2017, India’s poverty rate is estimated to have declined from 22.5 percent to values ranging from 8.1 to 11.3 percent at the international poverty line (2011 PPP $1.90 per person per day). However, as a result of the COVID-19 outbreak, poverty rates in 2020 are estimated to revert to levels observed in 2016.
# ‘Global Estimate of Children in Monetary Poverty: An Update’ that builds on previous collaboration between the World Bank Group and UNICEF to estimate the global extent of child poverty. It estimates that one in six children or 356 million globally were living in extreme poverty before the COVID-19 pandemic began, and this is set to worsen significantly.
- Question 7 of 22
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following indicator(s) is/are measured under the Global Hunger Index
(GHI)?
1. Undernutrition
2. Child wasting
3. Child mortality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and
tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values
of four component indicators:
Undernutrition: the share of the population that is undernourished (that is, whose caloric
intake is insufficient);
Child wasting: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is, who have
low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition);
Child stunting: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted (that is, who
have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition); and
Child mortality: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part, a reflection of
the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).
Based on the values of the four indicators, the GHI determines hunger on a 100-point scale
where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Each country’s GHI
score is classified by severity, from low to extremely alarming.
# In the 2020 Global Hunger Index, India ranks 94th out of the 107 countries. With a score of
27.2, India has a level of hunger that is serious.Incorrect
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and
tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values
of four component indicators:
Undernutrition: the share of the population that is undernourished (that is, whose caloric
intake is insufficient);
Child wasting: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is, who have
low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition);
Child stunting: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted (that is, who
have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition); and
Child mortality: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part, a reflection of
the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).
Based on the values of the four indicators, the GHI determines hunger on a 100-point scale
where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Each country’s GHI
score is classified by severity, from low to extremely alarming.
# In the 2020 Global Hunger Index, India ranks 94th out of the 107 countries. With a score of
27.2, India has a level of hunger that is serious. - Question 8 of 22
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following institution has recently published the report “From insights
to action” on Gender equality in the wake of COVID-19″?Correct
From insights to action: Gender equality in the wake of COVID-19′ has
been published by the UN Women.
This publication summarizes data, research, and policy work by UN Women’s Policy and
Programme Division on the pandemic’s impact on women and girls, including the impact on
extreme poverty, employment, health, unpaid care, and violence against women and girls.
The poverty rate for women was earlier projected to decrease by 2.7 per cent between
2019 and 2021, but with the coming of the pandemic, it has increased to 9.1 per cent.
By 2021, for every 100 men aged 25 to 34 living in extreme poverty (living on USD 1.90 a
day or less), there will be 118 women, a gap that is expected to increase to 121 women per
100 men by 2030.
The report gave suggestions to prevent women from falling behind permanently because of
the COVID-19 pandemic. These included addressing inadequate access to affordable
childcare, addressing occupational segregation and gender pay gaps.Incorrect
From insights to action: Gender equality in the wake of COVID-19′ has
been published by the UN Women.
This publication summarizes data, research, and policy work by UN Women’s Policy and
Programme Division on the pandemic’s impact on women and girls, including the impact on
extreme poverty, employment, health, unpaid care, and violence against women and girls.
The poverty rate for women was earlier projected to decrease by 2.7 per cent between
2019 and 2021, but with the coming of the pandemic, it has increased to 9.1 per cent.
By 2021, for every 100 men aged 25 to 34 living in extreme poverty (living on USD 1.90 a
day or less), there will be 118 women, a gap that is expected to increase to 121 women per
100 men by 2030.
The report gave suggestions to prevent women from falling behind permanently because of
the COVID-19 pandemic. These included addressing inadequate access to affordable
childcare, addressing occupational segregation and gender pay gaps. - Question 9 of 22
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following institution/organization has published the report ‘The State
of Young Child in India’?Correct
The Vice President recently released ‘The State of Young Child in India’
report prepared by Mobile Creches a policy advocacy organisation which works with the
underprivileged children across India. It a comprehensive account of the challenges related
to early child development in India.
The Young Child Outcomes Index in the report measures health, nutrition and cognitive
growth with the help of indicators such as infant mortality rate, stunting and net
attendance at the primary school level. As per the report Kerala, Goa, Tripura, Tamil Nadu
and Mizoram are among the top five States for well-being of children.
The report has also developed the Young Child Environment Index to understand the
policy and environment enablers that influence a child’s well-being. According to the
environment index, Kerala, Goa, Sikkim, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh secured the top five
positionsIncorrect
The Vice President recently released ‘The State of Young Child in India’
report prepared by Mobile Creches a policy advocacy organisation which works with the
underprivileged children across India. It a comprehensive account of the challenges related
to early child development in India.
The Young Child Outcomes Index in the report measures health, nutrition and cognitive
growth with the help of indicators such as infant mortality rate, stunting and net
attendance at the primary school level. As per the report Kerala, Goa, Tripura, Tamil Nadu
and Mizoram are among the top five States for well-being of children.
The report has also developed the Young Child Environment Index to understand the
policy and environment enablers that influence a child’s well-being. According to the
environment index, Kerala, Goa, Sikkim, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh secured the top five
positions - Question 10 of 22
10. Question
1 pointsThe ‘International Principles and Guidelines on Access to Justice for Persons
with Disabilities’ have been published recently by which of the following institution?Correct
Published recently by the Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human
Rights, the International Principles and Guidelines on Access to Justice for Persons with
Disabilities were adopted jointly by the UN Special Rapporteur on the rights of persons with
disabilities, the Committee on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, and the Special Envoy
of the UN Secretary-General on Disability and Accessibility.
They have been endorsed by the ICJ and the International Disability Alliance.Incorrect
Published recently by the Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human
Rights, the International Principles and Guidelines on Access to Justice for Persons with
Disabilities were adopted jointly by the UN Special Rapporteur on the rights of persons with
disabilities, the Committee on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, and the Special Envoy
of the UN Secretary-General on Disability and Accessibility.
They have been endorsed by the ICJ and the International Disability Alliance. - Question 11 of 22
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following International Labour Organization (ILO) conventions have
been ratified by India?
- Worst forms of Child Labour Convention
- Equal Remuneration Convention
- Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
India is a founder member of the International Labour Organization, which
came into existence in 1919. At present the ILO has 186 Members.
The eight Core Conventions of the ILO (also called fundamental/human rights
conventions) are:
-Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
-Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
–Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)
-Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)
-Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
-Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
(The above Six have been ratified by India)
-Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87)
-Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98)
(These two have not been ratified by India)
Incorrect
India is a founder member of the International Labour Organization, which
came into existence in 1919. At present the ILO has 186 Members.
The eight Core Conventions of the ILO (also called fundamental/human rights
conventions) are:
-Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
-Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
–Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)
-Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)
-Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
-Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
(The above Six have been ratified by India)
-Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87)
-Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98)
(These two have not been ratified by India)
- Question 12 of 22
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the PM Garib Kalyan Package:
Insurance Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19:
- The scheme covers accidental death on account of COVID-19 related duty.
- The scheme covers individuals only in the age group 18-60.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package: Insurance
Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19 is an accident insurance scheme covers;
loss of life due to COVID19, and accidental death on account of COVID-19 related duty.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This Central Sector Scheme provides an insurance cover of Rs.
50 lakhs. Individual enrolment is not required and there’s no age limit for this scheme.
It was announced on 30th March this year for a period of 90 days and it was extended for a
further period of 90 days up to 25th September. The scheme has now been extended for
another 180 days.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package: Insurance
Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19 is an accident insurance scheme covers;
loss of life due to COVID19, and accidental death on account of COVID-19 related duty.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This Central Sector Scheme provides an insurance cover of Rs.
50 lakhs. Individual enrolment is not required and there’s no age limit for this scheme.
It was announced on 30th March this year for a period of 90 days and it was extended for a
further period of 90 days up to 25th September. The scheme has now been extended for
another 180 days.
- Question 13 of 22
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojana (PMSBY):
- It offers risk coverage for accidental death and full disability to people in the age group
18 to 70 years.
- It doesn’t cover COVID-19 related deaths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is
available to people in the age group 18 to 70 years with a bank account.
The risk coverage under the scheme is Rs.2 lakh for accidental death and full disability
and Rs. 1 lakh for partial disability.
Statement 2 is correct. The Government recently clarified that Pradhan Mantri Suraksha
Bima Yojana (PMSBY) doesn’t cover COVID-19 related deaths.
# Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) covers COVID deaths with certain
conditions.
# The PMJJBY is available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years having a bank
account. Risk coverage under this scheme is for Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death of the insured,
due to any reason.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is
available to people in the age group 18 to 70 years with a bank account.
The risk coverage under the scheme is Rs.2 lakh for accidental death and full disability
and Rs. 1 lakh for partial disability.
Statement 2 is correct. The Government recently clarified that Pradhan Mantri Suraksha
Bima Yojana (PMSBY) doesn’t cover COVID-19 related deaths.
# Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) covers COVID deaths with certain
conditions.
# The PMJJBY is available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years having a bank
account. Risk coverage under this scheme is for Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death of the insured,
due to any reason.
- Question 14 of 22
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Social Security Code 2020:
- The Central Government will establish a Social Security Fund for welfare of the
unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
- A National Social Security Board for unorganised workers to be constituted under
chairmanship of Union Minister for Labour and Employment.
Which of the testaments given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Social Security Code 2020 states that the
central government will set up a Social Security Fund for social security and welfare of the
unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds
for unorganised workers. The 2020 Bill also makes provisions for registration of all three
categories of workers – unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Statement 2 is correct. The code states that the Central Government shall, by notification,
constitute a National Social Security Board for unorganised workers under chairmanship
of the Union Minister for Labour and Employment.
The National Social Security Board shall perform the following functions:
-recommend to the Central Government for formulating suitable schemes for different
sections of unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers;
-advise the Central Government on such matters arising out of the administration of this
Code as may be referred to it;
-monitor such social welfare schemes for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform
workers as are administered by the Central Government;
-review the record keeping functions performed at the State level;
-review the expenditure from the fund and account.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Social Security Code 2020 states that the
central government will set up a Social Security Fund for social security and welfare of the
unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds
for unorganised workers. The 2020 Bill also makes provisions for registration of all three
categories of workers – unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Statement 2 is correct. The code states that the Central Government shall, by notification,
constitute a National Social Security Board for unorganised workers under chairmanship
of the Union Minister for Labour and Employment.
The National Social Security Board shall perform the following functions:
-recommend to the Central Government for formulating suitable schemes for different
sections of unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers;
-advise the Central Government on such matters arising out of the administration of this
Code as may be referred to it;
-monitor such social welfare schemes for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform
workers as are administered by the Central Government;
-review the record keeping functions performed at the State level;
-review the expenditure from the fund and account.
- Question 15 of 22
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016:
- Every child with benchmark disability between the age of six to eighteen years shall have the right to free education
- The act recognizes intellectual disability as a limitation both in intellectual functioning and in adaptive behavior.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Section 31 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 provides that notwithstanding anything contained in the Rights of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, every child with benchmark disability between the age of six to eighteen years shall have the right to free education in a neighborhood school, or in a special school, of his choice.
Statement 2 is correct. The statute recognizes Intellectual disability, a condition characterized by significant limitation both in intellectual functioning (reasoning, learning, problem solving) and in adaptive behavior which covers a range of every day, social and practical skills, including—
—“specific learning disabilities” means a heterogeneous group of conditions wherein there is a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest itself as a difficulty to comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical calculations and includes such conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and developmental aphasia;
—“autism spectrum disorder” means a neuro-developmental condition typically appearing in the first three years of life that significantly affects a person’s ability to communicate, understand relationships and relate to others, and is frequently associated with unusual or stereotypical rituals or behaviors.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Section 31 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 provides that notwithstanding anything contained in the Rights of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, every child with benchmark disability between the age of six to eighteen years shall have the right to free education in a neighborhood school, or in a special school, of his choice.
Statement 2 is correct. The statute recognizes Intellectual disability, a condition characterized by significant limitation both in intellectual functioning (reasoning, learning, problem solving) and in adaptive behavior which covers a range of every day, social and practical skills, including—
—“specific learning disabilities” means a heterogeneous group of conditions wherein there is a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest itself as a difficulty to comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical calculations and includes such conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and developmental aphasia;
—“autism spectrum disorder” means a neuro-developmental condition typically appearing in the first three years of life that significantly affects a person’s ability to communicate, understand relationships and relate to others, and is frequently associated with unusual or stereotypical rituals or behaviors.
- Question 16 of 22
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Food Security Act (NFSA):
- It provides for the establishment of the State Food Commissions for the purpose of monitoring and review of implementation of this Act.
- Two or more States may have a Joint State Food Commission with the approval of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Section 16 of the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) provides that every State Government shall, by notification, constitute a State Food Commission for the purpose of monitoring and review of implementation of the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 18 of the Act provides that the State Government, if considers it necessary, by notification, designate any statutory commission or a body to exercise the powers and perform the functions of the State Commission. Section 19 provides that two or more States may have a joint State Food Commission with the approval of the Central Government.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Section 16 of the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) provides that every State Government shall, by notification, constitute a State Food Commission for the purpose of monitoring and review of implementation of the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 18 of the Act provides that the State Government, if considers it necessary, by notification, designate any statutory commission or a body to exercise the powers and perform the functions of the State Commission. Section 19 provides that two or more States may have a joint State Food Commission with the approval of the Central Government.
- Question 17 of 22
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Poshan Abhiyaan:
- It aims to reduce the level of stunting, under-nutrition, anemia and low birth weight babies.
- The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is the nodal ministry for implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Government is implementing the POSHAN Abhiyaan since December, 2017 to address the problem of malnutrition in the country.
There are a number of schemes directly/indirectly affecting the nutritional status of children (0-6 year’s age) and pregnant women and lactating mothers. In spite of these, level of malnutrition and related problems in the country is high. POSHAN Abhiyaan through robust convergence mechanism and other components would strive to create the synergy.
The programme through the targets will strive to reduce the level of stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia and low birth weight babies. It will create synergy, ensure better monitoring, issue alerts for timely action, and encourage States/UTs to perform, guide and supervise the line Ministries and States/UTs to achieve the targeted goals.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is nodal ministry for implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Government is implementing the POSHAN Abhiyaan since December, 2017 to address the problem of malnutrition in the country.
There are a number of schemes directly/indirectly affecting the nutritional status of children (0-6 year’s age) and pregnant women and lactating mothers. In spite of these, level of malnutrition and related problems in the country is high. POSHAN Abhiyaan through robust convergence mechanism and other components would strive to create the synergy.
The programme through the targets will strive to reduce the level of stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia and low birth weight babies. It will create synergy, ensure better monitoring, issue alerts for timely action, and encourage States/UTs to perform, guide and supervise the line Ministries and States/UTs to achieve the targeted goals.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is nodal ministry for implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan.
- Question 18 of 22
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following malnutrition terms is/are correctly matched?
- Stunted – low weight for age
- Wasted – low weight for height
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. Stunting, or low height for age, is caused by long-term insufficient nutrient intake and frequent infections. Stunting generally occurs before age two, and effects are largely irreversible. These include delayed motor development, impaired cognitive function and poor school performance.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Wasting, or low weight for height, is a strong predictor of mortality among children under five. It is usually the result of acute significant food shortage and/or disease.
Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. Stunting, or low height for age, is caused by long-term insufficient nutrient intake and frequent infections. Stunting generally occurs before age two, and effects are largely irreversible. These include delayed motor development, impaired cognitive function and poor school performance.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Wasting, or low weight for height, is a strong predictor of mortality among children under five. It is usually the result of acute significant food shortage and/or disease.
- Question 19 of 22
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Family Health Survey (NFHS):
- International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) is the nodal agency for providing coordination and technical guidance for the NFHS.
- It is being conducted decennially in India since 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, designated IIPS as the nodal agency, responsible for providing coordination and technical guidance for the NFHS.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Four NFHS have been conducted with first being in 1992-93. The Union Health Ministry recently released partial data for the fifth edition of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) noting a considerable improvement in the supply of vaccine for childhood immunization from the fourth round in 2015-16.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, designated IIPS as the nodal agency, responsible for providing coordination and technical guidance for the NFHS.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Four NFHS have been conducted with first being in 1992-93. The Union Health Ministry recently released partial data for the fifth edition of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) noting a considerable improvement in the supply of vaccine for childhood immunization from the fourth round in 2015-16.
- Question 20 of 22
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- India and the New Development Bank (NDB) have signed a loan agreement for ‘supporting India’s economic recovery from COVID-19’.
- India and the World Bank have signed a $400 million project to provide social assistance to the poor and vulnerable households of India, impacted by the COVID-19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India and the New Development Bank (NDB) today signed a loan agreement for lending $1,000 million for ‘supporting India’s economic recovery from COVID-19’ by supporting expenditures on rural infrastructure related to natural resource management (NRM) and rural employment generation under Government of India’s Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
Statement 2 is correct. The Government of India and the World Bank today signed a $400 million project to support India’s efforts at providing social assistance to the poor and vulnerable households, severely impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
This is the second operation in a programmatic series of two. The first operation of $750 million was approved in May 2020. The programme will strengthen the capability of state and national governments in India to provide coordinated and adequate social protection to the poor and vulnerable from the shocks triggered by the COVID-19 pandemic.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India and the New Development Bank (NDB) today signed a loan agreement for lending $1,000 million for ‘supporting India’s economic recovery from COVID-19’ by supporting expenditures on rural infrastructure related to natural resource management (NRM) and rural employment generation under Government of India’s Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
Statement 2 is correct. The Government of India and the World Bank today signed a $400 million project to support India’s efforts at providing social assistance to the poor and vulnerable households, severely impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
This is the second operation in a programmatic series of two. The first operation of $750 million was approved in May 2020. The programme will strengthen the capability of state and national governments in India to provide coordinated and adequate social protection to the poor and vulnerable from the shocks triggered by the COVID-19 pandemic.
- Question 21 of 22
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT scheme:
- It aims to extend Universal Health Coverage to all the residents of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
- It provides financial health cover upto Rs 5 lakh per family on a floater basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Prime Minister will launch Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT to extend coverage to all the residents of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir on 26th December 2020.
The scheme will ensure Universal Health Coverage and focus on providing financial risk protection and ensuring quality and affordable essential health services to all individuals and communities.
It provides health insurance cover upto Rs 5 lakh per family on a floater basis to all residents of the UT of J&K. It provides for operational extension of PM-JAY to 15 lakh (approx) additional families.
The scheme will operate on insurance mode in convergence with PM-JAY. The benefits of the scheme will be portable across the country. The hospitals empanelled under PM-JAY scheme shall provide services under this scheme as well.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Prime Minister will launch Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT to extend coverage to all the residents of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir on 26th December 2020.
The scheme will ensure Universal Health Coverage and focus on providing financial risk protection and ensuring quality and affordable essential health services to all individuals and communities.
It provides health insurance cover upto Rs 5 lakh per family on a floater basis to all residents of the UT of J&K. It provides for operational extension of PM-JAY to 15 lakh (approx) additional families.
The scheme will operate on insurance mode in convergence with PM-JAY. The benefits of the scheme will be portable across the country. The hospitals empanelled under PM-JAY scheme shall provide services under this scheme as well.
- Question 22 of 22
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EconomyWhich of the following milestones is/are identified by Reserve Bank of India’s National Strategy for Financial Inclusion?
- Banking access to every village (or hamlet of 500 households in hilly areas) within a five km radius by March 2020.
- Move towards cash less society by March 2022.
- Every adult has access to a financial service provider through a mobile device by March 2024.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2019-2024 on January 10, 2020.
It sets forth the vision and objectives of financial inclusion policies in India.
The strategy was prepared by the RBI with inputs from the central government and financial sector regulators (Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India).
RBI identified six strategic objectives of a national strategy for financial inclusion:
universal access to financial services,
providing basic bouquet of financial services,
access to livelihood and skill development,
financial literacy and education,
- customer protection and grievance redressal, and
effective coordination.
To achieve this vision, it identified certain milestones such as:
providing banking access to every village (or hamlet of 500 households in hilly areas) within a five km radius by March 2020,
strengthening digital financial services to create infrastructure to move towards a cash less society by March 2022, and
ensuring that every adult has access to a financial service provider through a mobile device by March 2024.
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2019-2024 on January 10, 2020.
It sets forth the vision and objectives of financial inclusion policies in India.
The strategy was prepared by the RBI with inputs from the central government and financial sector regulators (Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India).
RBI identified six strategic objectives of a national strategy for financial inclusion:
universal access to financial services,
providing basic bouquet of financial services,
access to livelihood and skill development,
financial literacy and education,
- customer protection and grievance redressal, and
effective coordination.
To achieve this vision, it identified certain milestones such as:
providing banking access to every village (or hamlet of 500 households in hilly areas) within a five km radius by March 2020,
strengthening digital financial services to create infrastructure to move towards a cash less society by March 2022, and
ensuring that every adult has access to a financial service provider through a mobile device by March 2024.