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Quiz: Daily Quiz: January 22 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the pardoning power of President:
1. The President cannot grant pardon in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial.
2. The power of president to grant pardon is final and not subject to Judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Constitution of India (Article 72), the President of India shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence—
–in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial;
–in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;
–in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power of pardon under Article 72 was reviewed in the cases of Maru Ram v Union of India and Kehar Singh v Union of India.
The Court explicitly held in that ‘Article 72 falls squarely within the judicial domain and can be examined by the court by way of judicial review.’ The Court qualified this finding by holding that the order of the President cannot be subjected to judicial review on its merits except within the strict limitations of Presidential order being arbitrary or wholly irrelevant, irrational, discriminatory or mala fide.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Constitution of India (Article 72), the President of India shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence—
–in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial;
–in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;
–in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power of pardon under Article 72 was reviewed in the cases of Maru Ram v Union of India and Kehar Singh v Union of India.
The Court explicitly held in that ‘Article 72 falls squarely within the judicial domain and can be examined by the court by way of judicial review.’ The Court qualified this finding by holding that the order of the President cannot be subjected to judicial review on its merits except within the strict limitations of Presidential order being arbitrary or wholly irrelevant, irrational, discriminatory or mala fide. - Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsIn which of the following circumstance(s) the Parliament can make laws on subjects specified in the State List of Seventh Schedule to the Constitution?
1. If the Legislative Council of a State has declared by resolution that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make such a law.
2. If a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 249 of the Constitution states that if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 250 provides for power of Parliament, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 249 of the Constitution states that if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 250 provides for power of Parliament, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List. - Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding India-Singapore relations:
1. India has a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) with Singapore.
2. Both countries are members of the IORA (Indian Ocean Rim Association) and IONS (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium).
3. Singapore is among the countries that have received COVID-19 vaccines under grant assistance from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India and Singapore signed the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) in 2005. This robust relationship was elevated to a Strategic Partnership in 2015.
Statement 2 is correct. There is great convergence on a broad range of international issues and both are members of a number of forums, including East Asia Summit, G20, Commonwealth, IORA (Indian Ocean Rim Association) and IONS (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium).
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Government of India has received several requests for the supply of Indian manufactured vaccines from neighbouring and key partner countries. In response to these requests, and in keeping with India’s stated commitment to use India’s vaccine production and delivery capacity to help all of humanity fight the Covid pandemic, supplies under grant assistance to Bhutan, Maldives, Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar and Seychelles will begin from 20 January 2021.
In respect of Sri Lanka, Afghanistan and Mauritius, India is awaiting their confirmation of necessary regulatory clearances.
# Defence Minister Rajnath Singh recently held a bilateral meeting with Singapore Defence Minister Dr Ng Eng Hen through video conferencing.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India and Singapore signed the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) in 2005. This robust relationship was elevated to a Strategic Partnership in 2015.
Statement 2 is correct. There is great convergence on a broad range of international issues and both are members of a number of forums, including East Asia Summit, G20, Commonwealth, IORA (Indian Ocean Rim Association) and IONS (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium).
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Government of India has received several requests for the supply of Indian manufactured vaccines from neighbouring and key partner countries. In response to these requests, and in keeping with India’s stated commitment to use India’s vaccine production and delivery capacity to help all of humanity fight the Covid pandemic, supplies under grant assistance to Bhutan, Maldives, Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar and Seychelles will begin from 20 January 2021.
In respect of Sri Lanka, Afghanistan and Mauritius, India is awaiting their confirmation of necessary regulatory clearances.
# Defence Minister Rajnath Singh recently held a bilateral meeting with Singapore Defence Minister Dr Ng Eng Hen through video conferencing. - Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following is/are classified as an ‘Adverse event following immunization’ (AEFI)?
1. A adverse reaction caused or precipitated by a vaccine due to inherent properties of the vaccine product.
2. Coincidental adverse event post vaccination caused by something other than the vaccine product.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
An Adverse event following immunization (AEFI) is any untoward medical occurrence which follows immunization and which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the usage of the vaccine. The adverse event may be any unfavourable or unintended sign, abnormal laboratory finding, symptom or disease.
AEFIs are grouped into five categories:
— Vaccine product-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine due to one or more of the inherent properties of the vaccine product. Example: Extensive limb swelling following DTP vaccination.
— Vaccine quality defect-related reaction: n AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine that is due to one or more quality defects of the vaccine product including its administration device as provided by the manufacturer. Example: Failure by the manufacturer to completely inactivate a lot of inactivated polio vaccine Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV).
— Immunization error-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused by inappropriate vaccine handling, prescribing or administration and thus by its nature is preventable. Example: Transmission of infection by contaminated multidose vial.
— Immunization anxiety-related reaction: An AEFI arising from anxiety about the immunization. Example: Vasovagal syncope in an adolescent during/following vaccination.
— Coincidental event: An AEFI that is caused by something other than the vaccine product, immunization error or immunization anxiety. Coincidental events reflect the natural occurrence of health problems in the community with common problems being frequently reported.Incorrect
An Adverse event following immunization (AEFI) is any untoward medical occurrence which follows immunization and which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the usage of the vaccine. The adverse event may be any unfavourable or unintended sign, abnormal laboratory finding, symptom or disease.
AEFIs are grouped into five categories:
— Vaccine product-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine due to one or more of the inherent properties of the vaccine product. Example: Extensive limb swelling following DTP vaccination.
— Vaccine quality defect-related reaction: n AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine that is due to one or more quality defects of the vaccine product including its administration device as provided by the manufacturer. Example: Failure by the manufacturer to completely inactivate a lot of inactivated polio vaccine Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV).
— Immunization error-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused by inappropriate vaccine handling, prescribing or administration and thus by its nature is preventable. Example: Transmission of infection by contaminated multidose vial.
— Immunization anxiety-related reaction: An AEFI arising from anxiety about the immunization. Example: Vasovagal syncope in an adolescent during/following vaccination.
— Coincidental event: An AEFI that is caused by something other than the vaccine product, immunization error or immunization anxiety. Coincidental events reflect the natural occurrence of health problems in the community with common problems being frequently reported. - Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements Chandrashekhar limit:
1. A star having mass less than the Chandrashekhar limit (1.4 times the Sun) eventually collapses to form a black hole.
2. Massive star having mass more than the Chandrashekhar limit eventually collapses to become a White dwarf.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
The Chandrasekhar Limit is now accepted to be approximately 1.4 times the mass of the sun; any white dwarf with less than this mass will stay a white dwarf forever, while a star that exceeds this mass is destined to end its life in that most violent of explosions: a supernova. Once the dust clears, the only thing remaining will be a very dense star known as a neutron star, these can often be rapidly spinning and are known as pulsars. If the star which explodes is especially large, it can even form a black hole.
# Astronomers at Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) exploring the massive intriguing globular cluster in our Galaxy called NGC 2808 have spotted rare hot UV-bright stars in it using the ltraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT) onboard the AstroSat.
These stars whose inner core is almost exposed, making them very hot, exist in the late stages of evolution of a Sun-like star.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
The Chandrasekhar Limit is now accepted to be approximately 1.4 times the mass of the sun; any white dwarf with less than this mass will stay a white dwarf forever, while a star that exceeds this mass is destined to end its life in that most violent of explosions: a supernova. Once the dust clears, the only thing remaining will be a very dense star known as a neutron star, these can often be rapidly spinning and are known as pulsars. If the star which explodes is especially large, it can even form a black hole.
# Astronomers at Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) exploring the massive intriguing globular cluster in our Galaxy called NGC 2808 have spotted rare hot UV-bright stars in it using the ltraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT) onboard the AstroSat.
These stars whose inner core is almost exposed, making them very hot, exist in the late stages of evolution of a Sun-like star. - Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding status of telecom services in India:
1. Out of the total Telephone subscription in India, the share of Rural subscription is more than the Urban subscription.
2. The tele-density of India is more than hundred percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has recently released the “Indian Telecom Services Performance Indicator Report” for the Quarter ending 30th September, 2020. This Report provides a broad perspective of the Telecom Services in India and presents the key parameters and growth trends of the Telecom Services.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Out of the total subscription, the share of Rural subscription is at 44.87% and Urban subscription is at 55.13%.Statement 2 is incorrect. Teledensity – Number of telephone connections (fixed lines and mobile phone subscribers) per 100 inhabitants within a geographical area.
The overall Tele-density in India also increased from 85.85% as in QE Jun-20 to 86.22% as in QE Sep-20. The Urban Tele-density also increased from 137.35% to 138.25% and the Rural Tele-density remained same i.e. 58.96%, as it was during last quarter June, 2020.Incorrect
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has recently released the “Indian Telecom Services Performance Indicator Report” for the Quarter ending 30th September, 2020. This Report provides a broad perspective of the Telecom Services in India and presents the key parameters and growth trends of the Telecom Services.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Out of the total subscription, the share of Rural subscription is at 44.87% and Urban subscription is at 55.13%.Statement 2 is incorrect. Teledensity – Number of telephone connections (fixed lines and mobile phone subscribers) per 100 inhabitants within a geographical area.
The overall Tele-density in India also increased from 85.85% as in QE Jun-20 to 86.22% as in QE Sep-20. The Urban Tele-density also increased from 137.35% to 138.25% and the Rural Tele-density remained same i.e. 58.96%, as it was during last quarter June, 2020. - Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following defence force(s) of India is/are participating in the ‘Exercise Kavach’?
1. Indian Army
2. Indian Air Force
3. Indian Coast Guard
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
A large scale Joint Military exercise ‘Exercise Kavach’ involving assets of Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force and Indian Coast Guard is being conducted under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), the only Joint Forces Command of the country.
The exercise would involve participation and deployment of elements of Army’s Amphibious Brigade along with supporting forces including Special Forces of Navy, Armour/Mechanised components, Naval Ships comprising Destroyers, ASW Corvettes and Landing Ships with ship-borne helicopters of Eastern Naval Command and ANC, Jaguar Maritime Strike and Transport aircrafts from Indian Air Force and assets of Coast Guard.
The joint force would execute multi domain, high intensity offensive and defensive manoeuvres in the Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal and carry out amphibious landing operations, air landed operation, helicopters-borne insertion of Special Forces from sea culminating in tactical follow-on operations on land.Incorrect
A large scale Joint Military exercise ‘Exercise Kavach’ involving assets of Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force and Indian Coast Guard is being conducted under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), the only Joint Forces Command of the country.
The exercise would involve participation and deployment of elements of Army’s Amphibious Brigade along with supporting forces including Special Forces of Navy, Armour/Mechanised components, Naval Ships comprising Destroyers, ASW Corvettes and Landing Ships with ship-borne helicopters of Eastern Naval Command and ANC, Jaguar Maritime Strike and Transport aircrafts from Indian Air Force and assets of Coast Guard.
The joint force would execute multi domain, high intensity offensive and defensive manoeuvres in the Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal and carry out amphibious landing operations, air landed operation, helicopters-borne insertion of Special Forces from sea culminating in tactical follow-on operations on land. - Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhat was the mandate of the B.N. Srikrishna Committee?
Correct
A Committee of Experts on a Data Protection Framework for India under the chairmanship of (retd.) Justice B.N. Srikrishna was constituted by the government in 2017 which submitted its report in 2018. The committee also brought out a draft Personal Data Protection Bill (PDPB).
The framework seeks to put in place a culture of privacy by design and promoting concepts such as consent framework, purpose limitation, storage limitation, and data minimization among various other privacy-oriented concepts.
[Dr. Kasturirangan Committee – National Educational Policy.]
[Ashok Dalwai Committee – Doubling the Farmers’ Income]
[Ranbir Singh Committee – Criminal Laws Reforms]Incorrect
A Committee of Experts on a Data Protection Framework for India under the chairmanship of (retd.) Justice B.N. Srikrishna was constituted by the government in 2017 which submitted its report in 2018. The committee also brought out a draft Personal Data Protection Bill (PDPB).
The framework seeks to put in place a culture of privacy by design and promoting concepts such as consent framework, purpose limitation, storage limitation, and data minimization among various other privacy-oriented concepts.
[Dr. Kasturirangan Committee – National Educational Policy.]
[Ashok Dalwai Committee – Doubling the Farmers’ Income]
[Ranbir Singh Committee – Criminal Laws Reforms] - Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following state(s) of today was/were granted Statehood by the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971?
1. Tripura
2. Mizoram
3. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 was a major reform of the boundaries of India’s North-East region into States and union territories. It led to:
–Establishment of the states of Manipur, Tripura. They were Union Territories before.
–Establishment of the state of Meghalaya. It was an autonomous part of Assam before.
–Establishment of the Union Territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
# The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972.Incorrect
The North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 was a major reform of the boundaries of India’s North-East region into States and union territories. It led to:
–Establishment of the states of Manipur, Tripura. They were Union Territories before.
–Establishment of the state of Meghalaya. It was an autonomous part of Assam before.
–Establishment of the Union Territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
# The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. - Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following institution is organizing the MASCRADE 2021 (Movement against Smuggled & Counterfeit Trade) Conference?
Correct
Union Minister of Health and Family welfare recently inaugurated the 7th Edition of the International Conference “MASCRADE 2021”- Movement against Smuggled & Counterfeit Trade, a flagship event organised by the FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry). The event is being held virtually this time in view of the pandemic precautions.
The aim of MASCRADE 2021 is to foster a healthy discussion on newer and practical strategies to mitigate the challenges of counterfeiting and smuggling especially in a post COVID era.
[Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, if any drug is deemed to be adulterated or spurious, then the offender or liable person may face imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.]Incorrect
Union Minister of Health and Family welfare recently inaugurated the 7th Edition of the International Conference “MASCRADE 2021”- Movement against Smuggled & Counterfeit Trade, a flagship event organised by the FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry). The event is being held virtually this time in view of the pandemic precautions.
The aim of MASCRADE 2021 is to foster a healthy discussion on newer and practical strategies to mitigate the challenges of counterfeiting and smuggling especially in a post COVID era.
[Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, if any drug is deemed to be adulterated or spurious, then the offender or liable person may face imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.]
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