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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Which of the following is/are direct or indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy?
1. Repo Rate
2. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
3. Open Market Operations (OMOs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to the maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy:
— Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
— Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
— Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
— Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
Other instruments include Bank Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS).
Incorrect
Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to the maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy:
— Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
— Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
— Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
— Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
Other instruments include Bank Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS).
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):
1. It is a global partnership that aims to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks.
2. It has been launched by the BRICS countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is a partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and knowledge institutions that aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India announced a global Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), at the UN Climate Action Summit 2019 held in New York City, USA, on September 23, 2019.
# The third edition of the annual conference of the Coalition for Disaster resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was held recently in in virtual format.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is a partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and knowledge institutions that aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India announced a global Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), at the UN Climate Action Summit 2019 held in New York City, USA, on September 23, 2019.
# The third edition of the annual conference of the Coalition for Disaster resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was held recently in in virtual format.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements:
1. India has committed to eliminating TB in the country by 2025.
2. India’s Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare has been appointed Chairman of the Stop TB Partnership Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The UN Sustainable Development Goals and the WHO End TB Strategy envisages elimination of TB by 2030.
India has committed to eliminating TB in the country by 2025, five years ahead of the global deadline of 2030. The Government of India’s National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination 2017-2025 outlines an ambitious agenda and targets which exceed even the aspirational ones set by the World Health Organization’s (WHO) End TB Strategy for the world.
Statement 2 is correct. In recognition of his outstanding contribution to the movement to eradicate Tuberculosis (TB) from India by 2025, Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare has been appointed Chairman of the Stop TB Partnership Board.
Established in the year 2000, the ‘Stop TB Partnership’ is mandated to eliminate Tuberculosis as a public health problem. The organization was conceived following the meeting of the First Session of the Ad Hoc Committee on the Tuberculosis Epidemic held in London in March 1998.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The UN Sustainable Development Goals and the WHO End TB Strategy envisages elimination of TB by 2030.
India has committed to eliminating TB in the country by 2025, five years ahead of the global deadline of 2030. The Government of India’s National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination 2017-2025 outlines an ambitious agenda and targets which exceed even the aspirational ones set by the World Health Organization’s (WHO) End TB Strategy for the world.
Statement 2 is correct. In recognition of his outstanding contribution to the movement to eradicate Tuberculosis (TB) from India by 2025, Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare has been appointed Chairman of the Stop TB Partnership Board.
Established in the year 2000, the ‘Stop TB Partnership’ is mandated to eliminate Tuberculosis as a public health problem. The organization was conceived following the meeting of the First Session of the Ad Hoc Committee on the Tuberculosis Epidemic held in London in March 1998.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
The report ‘Direct and indirect effects of the COVID-19 pandemic and response in South Asia’ has been released by which of the following institution?
Correct
The report ‘Direct and indirect effects of the COVID-19 pandemic and response in South Asia’ has been commissioned by United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) and supported by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA).
— Drastic cuts in the availability and use of essential public health services across South Asia due to COVID-19 may have contributed to an estimated 228,000 additional child deaths in 2020.
— India could spend nearly USD 10 billion on COVID-19 testing and healthcare utilisation by September 2021.
Incorrect
The report ‘Direct and indirect effects of the COVID-19 pandemic and response in South Asia’ has been commissioned by United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) and supported by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA).
— Drastic cuts in the availability and use of essential public health services across South Asia due to COVID-19 may have contributed to an estimated 228,000 additional child deaths in 2020.
— India could spend nearly USD 10 billion on COVID-19 testing and healthcare utilisation by September 2021.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) scheme:
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the only new APMC mandis to create a unified market of agricultural commodities.
2. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is designated as Lead Agency, to roll out the eNAM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
Statement 2 is correct. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
# Government of India through CCS National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM), an autonomous organization of Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers’ Welfare, has carried out the assessment of the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) scheme, with report titled Performance Evaluation of e-National Agriculture Market” (October, 2020).
As mentioned in the aforesaid report, as on 15th May, 2020, 1000 wholesale mandis of 18 States and 03 Union Territories (UTs) have been integrated with e-NAM platform.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
Statement 2 is correct. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
# Government of India through CCS National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM), an autonomous organization of Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers’ Welfare, has carried out the assessment of the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) scheme, with report titled Performance Evaluation of e-National Agriculture Market” (October, 2020).
As mentioned in the aforesaid report, as on 15th May, 2020, 1000 wholesale mandis of 18 States and 03 Union Territories (UTs) have been integrated with e-NAM platform.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes announced in the Union Budget 2021-22:
1. Domestic as well as foreign owned entities are eligible to be beneficiaries of these PLI schemes.
2. The PLI schemes will be implemented by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with Ministry of Commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
An outlay of INR 1.97 lakh crore has been announced in Union Budget 2021-22 for Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes for 13 key sectors for a period of 5 years starting from fiscal year (FY) 2021- 22.
These 13 sectors include already existing 3 sectors named (i) Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components, (ii) Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, and (iii) Manufacturing of Medical Devices and 10 new key sectors which have been approved by the Union Cabinet recently in November 2020. These 10 key sectors are:
(i) Automobiles and Auto Components, (ii) Pharmaceuticals Drugs, (iii) Specialty Steel, (iv) Telecom & Networking Products, (v) Electronic/Technology Products, (vi) White Goods (ACs and LEDs), (vii) Food Products, (viii) Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles, (ix) High efficiency solar PV modules, and (x) Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery.
Statement 1 is correct. Domestic as well as foreign owned entities are eligible to be beneficiaries of these PLI schemes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The PLI schemes will be implemented by the concerned Ministries/ Departments and will be within the overall financial limits prescribed.
Incorrect
An outlay of INR 1.97 lakh crore has been announced in Union Budget 2021-22 for Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes for 13 key sectors for a period of 5 years starting from fiscal year (FY) 2021- 22.
These 13 sectors include already existing 3 sectors named (i) Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components, (ii) Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, and (iii) Manufacturing of Medical Devices and 10 new key sectors which have been approved by the Union Cabinet recently in November 2020. These 10 key sectors are:
(i) Automobiles and Auto Components, (ii) Pharmaceuticals Drugs, (iii) Specialty Steel, (iv) Telecom & Networking Products, (v) Electronic/Technology Products, (vi) White Goods (ACs and LEDs), (vii) Food Products, (viii) Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles, (ix) High efficiency solar PV modules, and (x) Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery.
Statement 1 is correct. Domestic as well as foreign owned entities are eligible to be beneficiaries of these PLI schemes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The PLI schemes will be implemented by the concerned Ministries/ Departments and will be within the overall financial limits prescribed.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021:
1. Opinion of two doctors will be required up to 20 weeks of gestation for termination of pregnancy.
2. It enhances the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for termination of pregnancy for special categories of women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Rajya Sabha has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021 to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 on 16th March 2021. The Bill was approved in Lok Sabha on 17th March 2020.
Salient features of amendments:
— Currently, abortion requires the opinion of one doctor if it is done within 12 weeks of conception and two doctors if it is done between 12 and 20 weeks. The Bill allows abortion to be done on the advice of one doctor up to 20 weeks, and two doctors in the case of certain categories of women between 20 and 24 weeks. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
–Enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women which will be defined in the amendments to the MTP Rules and would include survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, minors) etc. (Statement 2 is correct)
–Upper gestation limit not to apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by Medical Board. The composition, functions and other details of Medical Board to be prescribed subsequently in Rules under the Act.
–Name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall not be revealed except to a person authorized in any law for the time being in force.
Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021 to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 on 16th March 2021. The Bill was approved in Lok Sabha on 17th March 2020.
Salient features of amendments:
— Currently, abortion requires the opinion of one doctor if it is done within 12 weeks of conception and two doctors if it is done between 12 and 20 weeks. The Bill allows abortion to be done on the advice of one doctor up to 20 weeks, and two doctors in the case of certain categories of women between 20 and 24 weeks. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
–Enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women which will be defined in the amendments to the MTP Rules and would include survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, minors) etc. (Statement 2 is correct)
–Upper gestation limit not to apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by Medical Board. The composition, functions and other details of Medical Board to be prescribed subsequently in Rules under the Act.
–Name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall not be revealed except to a person authorized in any law for the time being in force.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the BrahMos missile:
1. These designed, developed and produced by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture of Indian and Russian defence manufacturers.
2. It can be fired from land, warships, submarines and fighter jets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. BrahMos missiles are designed, developed and produced by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture company set up by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Mashinostroyenia of Russia.
Statement 2 is correct. Various versions of the BrahMos, including those which can be fired from land, warships, submarines and Sukhoi-30 fighter jets have already been developed and successfully tested in the past.
Statement 3 is incorrect. BRAHMOS is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in cruise phase.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. BrahMos missiles are designed, developed and produced by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture company set up by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Mashinostroyenia of Russia.
Statement 2 is correct. Various versions of the BrahMos, including those which can be fired from land, warships, submarines and Sukhoi-30 fighter jets have already been developed and successfully tested in the past.
Statement 3 is incorrect. BRAHMOS is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in cruise phase.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG):
1. The volume of natural gas in its liquid state is less than half its volume in its gaseous state.
2. 100% Foreign Direct Investment through automatic route is allowed in establishment of LNG infrastructure in India.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state, at about -260° Fahrenheit, for shipping and storage. The volume of natural gas in its liquid state is about 600 times smaller than its volume in its gaseous state. This process makes it possible to transport natural gas to places pipelines do not reach.
When LNG reaches its destination, it is turned back into a gas at regasification plants. It is then piped to homes, businesses and industries where it is burnt for heat or to generate electricity.
Statement 2 is correct. To promote the usage and distribution of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG), the Government has put LNG imports under Open General Licensing (OGL) category and establishment of LNG infrastructure, including LNG terminals is also under 100% FDI (automatic route).
The government is also promoting usage of natural gas in gaseous/liquid (LNG) through expansion of gas infrastructure including City Gas Distribution, gas grid network and development/retro fitment of LNG based vehicles etc.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state, at about -260° Fahrenheit, for shipping and storage. The volume of natural gas in its liquid state is about 600 times smaller than its volume in its gaseous state. This process makes it possible to transport natural gas to places pipelines do not reach.
When LNG reaches its destination, it is turned back into a gas at regasification plants. It is then piped to homes, businesses and industries where it is burnt for heat or to generate electricity.
Statement 2 is correct. To promote the usage and distribution of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG), the Government has put LNG imports under Open General Licensing (OGL) category and establishment of LNG infrastructure, including LNG terminals is also under 100% FDI (automatic route).
The government is also promoting usage of natural gas in gaseous/liquid (LNG) through expansion of gas infrastructure including City Gas Distribution, gas grid network and development/retro fitment of LNG based vehicles etc.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Which of the following can be classified as adverse event following immunization (AEFI)?
1. Extensive limb swelling following DTP vaccination.
2. Failure by the manufacturer to completely inactivate a lot of inactivated polio vaccine
3. Transmission of infection by contaminated multidose vial.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
An Adverse event following immunization (AEFI) is any untoward medical occurrence which follows immunization and which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the usage of the vaccine.
AEFIs are grouped into five categories:
— Vaccine product-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine due to one or more of the inherent properties of the vaccine product. Example: Extensive limb swelling following DTP vaccination.
— Vaccine quality defect-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine that is due to one or more quality defects of the vaccine product including its administration device as provided by the manufacturer. Example: Failure by the manufacturer to completely inactivate a lot of inactivated polio vaccine leads to cases of paralytic polio.
— Immunization error-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused by inappropriate vaccine handling, prescribing or administration and thus by its nature is preventable. Example: Transmission of infection by contaminated multidose vial.
— Immunization anxiety-related reaction: An AEFI arising from anxiety about the immunization. Example: Vasovagal syncope in an adolescent during/following vaccination.
— Coincidental event: An AEFI that is caused by something other than the vaccine product, immunization error or immunization anxiety. Example: A fever occurs at the time of the vaccination (temporal association) but is in fact caused by malaria.
Incorrect
An Adverse event following immunization (AEFI) is any untoward medical occurrence which follows immunization and which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the usage of the vaccine.
AEFIs are grouped into five categories:
— Vaccine product-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine due to one or more of the inherent properties of the vaccine product. Example: Extensive limb swelling following DTP vaccination.
— Vaccine quality defect-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine that is due to one or more quality defects of the vaccine product including its administration device as provided by the manufacturer. Example: Failure by the manufacturer to completely inactivate a lot of inactivated polio vaccine leads to cases of paralytic polio.
— Immunization error-related reaction: An AEFI that is caused by inappropriate vaccine handling, prescribing or administration and thus by its nature is preventable. Example: Transmission of infection by contaminated multidose vial.
— Immunization anxiety-related reaction: An AEFI arising from anxiety about the immunization. Example: Vasovagal syncope in an adolescent during/following vaccination.
— Coincidental event: An AEFI that is caused by something other than the vaccine product, immunization error or immunization anxiety. Example: A fever occurs at the time of the vaccination (temporal association) but is in fact caused by malaria.