Daily Quiz: April 11, 2018
Test-summary
0 of 7 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
Click Here For More Details on Prelims Marathon
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 7 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- polity 0%
- polity 0%
- polity 0%
- Polity 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 7
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityQ.1) There are some provisions in the Constitution that may be amended by the Parliament, but such amendments are not considered ‘deemed’ Constitutional Amendments. Which of the following provisions come under it?
- Admission of new states into Indian Union.
- Formation of new states by alteration of boundaries.
- Creation or Abolition of Legislative Councils of states
Select the correct statements from the choices given below
Correct
‘Amendments’ not ‘deemed’ to be so there are some provisions in the Indian Constitution that may be amended by the parliament but such ‘amendments’ are not considered- ‘deemed’ – Constitution amendments. The reason is that the procedure for such changes is not found in Article 368; the process requires only a simple majority in the Parliament; some of them are of consequential nature (Art. 4 and 169, for example). The following are such provisions in the Constitution:
- Admission or establishment of new States or formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States; changes in First and Fourth Schedules as a result (Art.4)
- Art. 11 empowers Parliament to make laws related to certain aspects of citizenship
- Parliament can amend Second Schedule to revise the salaries of certain Constitutional dignitaries
- Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States(Art.169)
- Fifth and Sixth Schedules – administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled tribes; administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram respectively; amendment of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders
- Art.239A relating to creating an Assembly or Council of Ministers in a UT.
- Art. 105(3) contains parliamentary privileges until Parliament defines them.
Incorrect
‘Amendments’ not ‘deemed’ to be so there are some provisions in the Indian Constitution that may be amended by the parliament but such ‘amendments’ are not considered- ‘deemed’ – Constitution amendments. The reason is that the procedure for such changes is not found in Article 368; the process requires only a simple majority in the Parliament; some of them are of consequential nature (Art. 4 and 169, for example). The following are such provisions in the Constitution:
- Admission or establishment of new States or formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States; changes in First and Fourth Schedules as a result (Art.4)
- Art. 11 empowers Parliament to make laws related to certain aspects of citizenship
- Parliament can amend Second Schedule to revise the salaries of certain Constitutional dignitaries
- Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States(Art.169)
- Fifth and Sixth Schedules – administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled tribes; administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram respectively; amendment of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders
- Art.239A relating to creating an Assembly or Council of Ministers in a UT.
- Art. 105(3) contains parliamentary privileges until Parliament defines them.
- Question 2 of 7
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements:-
1) Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature.
2) It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Which of the above statements are true:
Correct
DPSP are not legally enforceable in a court of law. However, Article 37 says that It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making
Mentor Note: This is a direct question with level of difficulty as “easy”. A thorough reading of the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy should help you clear basic concepts like the above. If you are not able to answer this question, you should be able to do so after a thorough reading of the text on DPSP from any standard book including Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
DPSP are not legally enforceable in a court of law. However, Article 37 says that It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making
Mentor Note: This is a direct question with level of difficulty as “easy”. A thorough reading of the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy should help you clear basic concepts like the above. If you are not able to answer this question, you should be able to do so after a thorough reading of the text on DPSP from any standard book including Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 7
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements about the Doctrine of “Basic structure” of the Constitution:-
- The features of the Constitution that are a part of “basic structure” have been explicitly enumerated by Supreme Court once for all.
- The doctrine of “Basic structure” empowers the Supreme Court to declare certain Constitutional Amendment Acts as ultravires the Constitution.
- The doctrine of “Basic structure” was used to strike down the 39th Amendment Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial principle that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the parliament. The basic features of the Constitution have not been explicitly defined by the Judiciary, and the claim of any particular feature of the Constitution to be a “basic” feature is determined by the Court in each case that comes before it.
The Thirty-ninth Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975-1977. It was struck down by Supreme court as ultra vires the constitution.
Incorrect
The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial principle that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the parliament. The basic features of the Constitution have not been explicitly defined by the Judiciary, and the claim of any particular feature of the Constitution to be a “basic” feature is determined by the Court in each case that comes before it.
The Thirty-ninth Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975-1977. It was struck down by Supreme court as ultra vires the constitution.
- Question 4 of 7
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityIndian constitution is a blend of rigid and flexible features. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the amendment of the constitution?
- The bill for the amendment of the Constitution can only be initiated in the lower house of parliament.
- Both Houses of Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bills.
- Any part of the Constitution, including the Preamble, can be amended by the Parliament, subject to certain conditions.
Select the correct option from the choices given below
Correct
Amendment Bills can be introduced in either house. Preamble can also be amended subject to the doctrine of basic structure.
Incorrect
Amendment Bills can be introduced in either house. Preamble can also be amended subject to the doctrine of basic structure.
- Question 5 of 7
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following regarding co-operative societies.
- Co-operative societies enjoy statutory status and protection.
- The power to make provision for incorporation and regulation of co-operative societies lies with state legislature.
- Audit of co-operatives is done by the office of Comptroller & Auditor General of India.
Select the incorrect statement(s) using the codes given below:
Correct
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to Co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
- It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19(1)).
- It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B2).
- It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Incorporation of Co-operative Societies: The state legislature may make provisions for the incorporation, regulation and winding-up of co-operative societies based on the principles of voluntary formation, democratic member-control, member-economic participation and autonomous functioning.
Audit of Co-operative societies: Every co-operative society shall be audited by an auditor or
auditing firm, appointed by the general body of the co-operative society. But, such an auditor or auditing firm shall be appointed from a panel approved by the State Government or a body authorised by the State Government on this behalf.
Incorrect
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to Co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
- It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19(1)).
- It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B2).
- It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Incorporation of Co-operative Societies: The state legislature may make provisions for the incorporation, regulation and winding-up of co-operative societies based on the principles of voluntary formation, democratic member-control, member-economic participation and autonomous functioning.
Audit of Co-operative societies: Every co-operative society shall be audited by an auditor or
auditing firm, appointed by the general body of the co-operative society. But, such an auditor or auditing firm shall be appointed from a panel approved by the State Government or a body authorised by the State Government on this behalf.
- Question 6 of 7
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhen can Parliament legislate on a subject enumerated in the state List?
- If Rajya Sabha Passes a resolution by two-third majority that it is in national interest to do so.
- When the Legislatures of two or more States request Parliament to legislate on a State subject.
- When a proclamation of Emergency is in operation.
Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:
Correct
Parliament can legislate on State subjects under certain circumstances.
There are discussed below:
- 1. When a resolution is passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority making it lawful for the Parliament to legislate on a subject mentioned in the State List in national interest (Art.249).
- 2. When a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India on any of the matters stated in the State List (Art.250).
- 3. When two or more States give their consent and pass resolutions for the same in their respective Legislatures to enable the Parliament to make a law on any matter listed in the State List (Art.252). Any such law will be applicable to only those States which have passed such resolution, not to all states.
- 4. The Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference etc. (Art.253)
Incorrect
Parliament can legislate on State subjects under certain circumstances.
There are discussed below:
- 1. When a resolution is passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority making it lawful for the Parliament to legislate on a subject mentioned in the State List in national interest (Art.249).
- 2. When a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India on any of the matters stated in the State List (Art.250).
- 3. When two or more States give their consent and pass resolutions for the same in their respective Legislatures to enable the Parliament to make a law on any matter listed in the State List (Art.252). Any such law will be applicable to only those States which have passed such resolution, not to all states.
- 4. The Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference etc. (Art.253)
- Question 7 of 7
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements
- The CAG enjoys the same rank as judges of the Supreme Court in the order of precedence.
- The CAG submits his report to the Parliament which is then examined by the Public Account Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings.
- The office of the CAG of India performs similar functions and enjoys similar powers as that of the CAG of Britain
Select the correct statements from the choices given below
Correct
The CAG enjoys the same rank as judges of the Supreme Court in the order of precedence.
The CAG submits his report to the President who causes it to be laid before the Parliament, which is then examined by the Public Account Committee. Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings and also the CAG audit reports on public undertakings only.
While in India, the CAG performs only auditing functions, and not Comptrolling functions. ( Hence it is said that Indian CAG is a misnomer ), in the UK the CAG performs both the Comptrolling and Auditing functions.
Incorrect
The CAG enjoys the same rank as judges of the Supreme Court in the order of precedence.
The CAG submits his report to the President who causes it to be laid before the Parliament, which is then examined by the Public Account Committee. Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings and also the CAG audit reports on public undertakings only.
While in India, the CAG performs only auditing functions, and not Comptrolling functions. ( Hence it is said that Indian CAG is a misnomer ), in the UK the CAG performs both the Comptrolling and Auditing functions.
Discover more from Free UPSC IAS Preparation Syllabus and Materials For Aspirants
Subscribe to get the latest posts sent to your email.