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Daily Quiz: January 23, 2019
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- Question 1 of 7
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWho among the following do not participate in the elections of the President of India?
- The nominated members of both the Houses of Parliament.
- The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
- The members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
- The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
- The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and
- The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Thus, the nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election.
Incorrect
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
- The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
- The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and
- The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Thus, the nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election.
- Question 2 of 7
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Charter Act of 1833 This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
Features of the Act are as follows
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
- It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The GovernorGeneral of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
- The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Incorrect
Charter Act of 1833 This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
Features of the Act are as follows
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
- It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The GovernorGeneral of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
- The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
- Question 3 of 7
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityMatch the following Members of the Interim Government (1946) with the portfolios held by them:
List I(Members) List II(Portfolios)
- SardarVallabhbhai Patel A. Home, Information & Broadcasting
- Rajendra Prasad B. Food & Agriculture
- SardarBaldev Singh C. Defence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
All are correctly matched
Incorrect
All are correctly matched
- Question 4 of 7
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Both the Statements are Correct:
- It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism.
- In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.
- In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
Incorrect
Both the Statements are Correct:
- It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism.
- In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.
- In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
- Question 5 of 7
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWho among the following were the members of the Constituent Assembly that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution?
- N GopalaswamyAyyangar
- AlladiKrishnaswamyAyyar
- R.K. ShanmughamChetty
- Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
- N Madhava Rau
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting Committee set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. It consisted of seven members. They were:
- Dr B R Ambedkar (Chairman)
- N GopalaswamyAyyangar
- AlladiKrishnaswamyAyyar
- Dr K M Munshi
- Syed Mohammad Saadullah
- N Madhava Rau (He replaced B L Mitter who resigned due to ill-health)
- T TKrishnamachari (He replaced D P Khaitan who died in 1948)
Incorrect
Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting Committee set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. It consisted of seven members. They were:
- Dr B R Ambedkar (Chairman)
- N GopalaswamyAyyangar
- AlladiKrishnaswamyAyyar
- Dr K M Munshi
- Syed Mohammad Saadullah
- N Madhava Rau (He replaced B L Mitter who resigned due to ill-health)
- T TKrishnamachari (He replaced D P Khaitan who died in 1948)
- Question 6 of 7
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityThe Sixth Schedule of the Constitution contains Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of
- Assam
- Meghalaya
- Tripura
- Mizoram
- Manipur
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the administration of the tribal dominated areas in four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. As per article 244 and 6th Schedule, these areas are called “Tribal Areas“, which are technically different from the Scheduled Areas under fifth schedule.
Difference between 5th Schedule and 6th Schedule Areas
- While both the areas under 5th schedule and 6th schedule have dominance of the tribal people, constitution calls them with different names viz. Scheduled Area under 5th schedule while Tribal areas under 6th schedule.
- While executive powers of the union extend in Scheduled areas with respect to their administration in 5th schedule; the 6th schedule areas remain within executive authority of the state.
- While 5th schedule envisages creation of Tribal Advisory Council , 6th schedule provides for District Councils and Regional Councils with certain legislative and judicial powers.
Incorrect
The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the administration of the tribal dominated areas in four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. As per article 244 and 6th Schedule, these areas are called “Tribal Areas“, which are technically different from the Scheduled Areas under fifth schedule.
Difference between 5th Schedule and 6th Schedule Areas
- While both the areas under 5th schedule and 6th schedule have dominance of the tribal people, constitution calls them with different names viz. Scheduled Area under 5th schedule while Tribal areas under 6th schedule.
- While executive powers of the union extend in Scheduled areas with respect to their administration in 5th schedule; the 6th schedule areas remain within executive authority of the state.
- While 5th schedule envisages creation of Tribal Advisory Council , 6th schedule provides for District Councils and Regional Councils with certain legislative and judicial powers.
- Question 7 of 7
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951), which curtailed the right to property, was challenged in which of the following case?
Correct
In the Shankari Prasad case (1951), the constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951), which curtailed the right to property, was challenged. The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
But in the Golak Nath case (1967), the Supreme Court reversed its earlier stand. In that case, the constitutional validity of the Seventeenth Amendment Act (1964), which inserted certain state acts in the Ninth Schedule, was challenged. The Supreme Court ruled that the Fundamental Rights are given a ‘transcendental and immutable’ position and hence, the Parliament cannot abridge or take away any of these rights.
However, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Golak Nath case (1967). It upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act (1971) and stated that Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights. At the same time, it laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution.
The Parliament reacted to this judicially innovated doctrine of ‘basic structure’ by enacting the 42nd Amendment Act (1976). This Act amended Article 368 and declared that there is no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and no amendment can be questioned in any court on any ground including that of the contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
However, the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) invalidated this provision as it excluded judicial review which is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution. Applying the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ with respect to Article 368.
Incorrect
In the Shankari Prasad case (1951), the constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951), which curtailed the right to property, was challenged. The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
But in the Golak Nath case (1967), the Supreme Court reversed its earlier stand. In that case, the constitutional validity of the Seventeenth Amendment Act (1964), which inserted certain state acts in the Ninth Schedule, was challenged. The Supreme Court ruled that the Fundamental Rights are given a ‘transcendental and immutable’ position and hence, the Parliament cannot abridge or take away any of these rights.
However, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Golak Nath case (1967). It upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act (1971) and stated that Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights. At the same time, it laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution.
The Parliament reacted to this judicially innovated doctrine of ‘basic structure’ by enacting the 42nd Amendment Act (1976). This Act amended Article 368 and declared that there is no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and no amendment can be questioned in any court on any ground including that of the contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
However, the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) invalidated this provision as it excluded judicial review which is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution. Applying the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ with respect to Article 368.