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(UPSC CSE Prelims GS Paper I Questions)
Q.1) Consider the following assertion:
In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.
Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?
- The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
- The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
- The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 3
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The present drainage pattern of northern India has evolved over a long geological timescale due to processes such as tectonic movements, river capture, sediment deposition, and climatic changes. Geographers and geologists reconstruct these ancient river courses using evidence from geomorphology, palaeontology, archaeology, and biogeography.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Nadi-Sukta in the Rigveda mentions several rivers of north-western India, including the Saraswati. It is often used in historical and cultural discussions regarding ancient river systems. However, it does not provide geological or geomorphological evidence about river capture or drainage shifts between the Indus and Ganga systems during the Pleistocene period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Robert Bruce Foote is widely regarded as the “Father of Indian Prehistory” because of his pioneering geological and archaeological work, especially in South India. His major contributions were associated with regions such as present-day Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of western India. He is particularly known for discovering Paleolithic tools at Pallavaram near Chennai.
However, the assertion given in the question relates to the palaeo-channel shifts of the Yamuna, Sutlej, Indus, and Ganga systems during the Pleistocene period. This conclusion is derived mainly from geomorphological, tectonic, sedimentary, and faunal evidence, not from Foote’s explorations.
Statement 3 is correct: Freshwater dolphins normally remain confined to river systems and cannot migrate across seas like marine dolphins. Therefore, the presence of the same or closely related dolphin species in both the Indus and Ganga river systems suggests that these rivers were once connected. However, these 2 species are recently been considered as separate species and not the same.
South Asian river dolphin populations are now geographically separated, but their distribution is treated as important biogeographical evidence of an earlier hydrological link between the two drainage systems. This supports the theory that major rivers such as the Yamuna or Sutlej changed their courses due to river capture or tectonic shifts during the Pleistocene period.
Source:https://vedicheritage.gov.in/flipbook/Rigveda_Samhita_Eng_Vol_VI/#book/143 ; https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/magazines/panache/robert-bruce-foote-the-geologist-who-unearthed-south-indias-pre-history/articleshow/60870068.cms?from=mdr ; https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indus-and-ganges-river-dolphins-are-two-different-species/article34290646.ece
Q.2) What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?
a) The meditation of the Buddha
b) The Buddha’s First Sermon
c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Early Buddhist art initially followed the aniconic tradition, where the Buddha was not depicted in human form. Instead, artists used various symbols to represent important events associated with the life and teachings of the Buddha.
In early Buddhist iconography, the empty seat symbolised the presence of the Buddha during his meditation and enlightenment. Rather than depicting the Buddha physically, sculptors represented him indirectly through symbolic motifs.
The empty throne or seat particularly signified the Buddha meditating under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya, where he attained enlightenment.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lehs104.pdf – Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings Cultural Developments (c. 600 BCE – 600 CE) – Sculpture – Symbols of worship – Page 100
Q.3) Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?
- Vitasta : Chenab
- Asikni : Jhelum
- Parushni : Ravi
- Yavyavati : Beas
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 3 Only
d) 4 Only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The early Vedic region, especially the area described in the Rigvedic river hymns, largely covered the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent up to the Yamuna.
Pair 1 is incorrect: In Vedic literature, Vitasta refers to the modern Jhelum River, not the Chenab.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The word Asikni literally means “dark-coloured,” and it is identified with the Chenab river and not Jhelum.
Pair 3 is correct: The river Parushni mentioned in the Rigveda is identified with the modern Ravi River.
Pair 4 is incorrect: The modern Beas River was known in ancient texts as Vipash (Vipasha), not Yavyavati.
Source: https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_LG_E/315_LG_E_L4.pdf -Lesson4 THE VEDIC AGE (1500BC–600BC) – Geographical horizon of the Vedic Aryans – Page 2;
Q.4) Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?
- It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
- In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
- The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Amaravati Stupa represents one of the finest achievements of early Buddhist art in peninsular India. Flourishing mainly under the Satavahanas and later the Ikshvakus, the Amaravati tradition became known for its refined limestone reliefs, dynamic narrative panels, and strong maritime cultural links.
Statement 1 is correct:The Amaravati Stupa was situated in the lower Krishna valley in present-day Andhra Pradesh. The Krishna region emerged as an important centre of Buddhist activity due to prosperous trade routes and urban growth during the Satavahana period.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The Amaravati Stupa was indeed one of the largest Buddhist stupas in ancient India. In reality, the Amaravati Stupa was taller than the Great Stupa at Sanchi.
Statement 3 is correct:The Amaravati school became famous for its highly sophisticated sculptural style marked by narrative depth, ornamental richness, and fluid human figures. Its influence can be seen in later South Indian artistic traditions. Archaeological and artistic evidence also indicates strong cultural connections between the Krishna valley and regions such as Sri Lanka and parts of South-East Asia through maritime trade and Buddhist missionary activity.
Source: https://desh.tourism.gov.in/destinations/detail/22 ; https://ibhforum.org/home/most-prominent-stupas-in-india/ ; Ancient and Medieval India – Poonam Dahiya – Chapter 7 – Political and Cultural Developments During c. 200 BCE–300 CE – The Impact and Contribution of Contacts with Central Asia – Page 292; https://timescontent.timesofindia.com/photo/travel/Amaravati-Stupa/533680
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/111130/1/Unit-16.pdf- Page – 242, 244
Q.5) Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?
- Senguttuvan : Chera
- Udiyanjeral : Chola
- Nedunjeliyan : Pandya
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The history of early historical Tamilakam is reconstructed mainly from Sangam literature, inscriptions and archaeological evidence. The three major dynasties of this period were the Chera, Chola, and Pandya kingdoms. Their rulers frequently appear in Sangam poems in connection with warfare, trade, patronage of poets, and overseas contacts, particularly with the Romans.
Pair 1 is correct:Senguttuvan was one of the most celebrated rulers of the Chera dynasty. He was also known as the Red or Good Chera. He is remembered in the post-Sangam epic Silappadikaram as a powerful king who undertook military expeditions and patronised the cult of Kannagi, regarded as the goddess of chastity. Sangam traditions also describe him as having marched northwards, crossed the Ganga, and brought stone for constructing an image of Kannagi.
Pair 2 is incorrect:Udiyanjeral was an early ruler of the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty He is considered one of the earliest known Chera kings and is associated with the rise of Chera political power in western Tamilakam.
Pair 3 is correct:Nedunjeliyan was a ruler of the Pandya dynasty. Several Pandya kings bearing this title are mentioned in Sangam texts. The Pandyas ruled mainly over the southern part of Tamilakam with centres around Madurai, which emerged as an important political and cultural centre during the Sangam age.
Source:
Tamil Nadu Board – Class 11 History – 2024 Edition – Unit 5 – Evolution of Society
in South India- The Sangam Age – Page 66 and 67
Ancient and Medieval India by Poonam Dahiya – Chapter 7 – Political and Cultural Developments During c. 200 BCE–300 CE – The Three Early Kingdoms: The Pandays, the Cholas, and the Cheras – Page 305 to 309
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/115670/3/Unit-14.pdf – Page 273
Q.6) Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?
- Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
- The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
- The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
- The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1. 2 and 3
b) 1. 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The formation of the All India Forward Bloc was closely linked to the ideological tensions within the Congress after the Tripuri Session of 1939. The conflict reflected differing views on the timing and method of the anti-colonial struggle, especially between Bose’s radical approach and Gandhi’s cautious strategy.
Statement 1 is correct: Although Bose won the Congress presidential election at Tripuri, he could not secure Mahatma Gandhi’s confidence. Bose favoured an immediate mass struggle and even proposed giving the British government an ultimatum for independence.
Gandhiji, however, believed that the country and the Congress organisation were not yet prepared for such a confrontation. The ideological gap between the two leaders widened further when Bose failed to form a working committee acceptable to the Gandhian camp.
Statement 2 is correct:The Left within the Congress lacked unity and organisational cohesion. Though several socialist and radical groups were sympathetic to Bose’s militant line, they were unwilling to risk a split in the Congress. As a result, Bose did not receive consistent support from the broader Left bloc during the Tripuri crisis.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The issue was not outright Communist opposition to Bose. The source material indicates that the Communists, like many other Left groups, were mainly concerned about preserving Congress unity during the national movement. They feared that a split in the Congress would weaken the anti-colonial struggle and reduce the influence of the Left.
Statement 4 is correct: Many Royists and socialist leaders believed that maintaining a united Congress under Gandhi’s leadership was more important than backing Bose in an organisational confrontation. Since the Congress was the principal vehicle of the freedom struggle, these groups avoided supporting any move that could divide the organisation. This weakened Bose politically and eventually led to his resignation and the formation of the Forward Bloc in May 1939.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/62832/1/Block-7.pdf – Unit 22 – INTRODUCTION TO NATIONALISM AND SOCIAL -REVOLUTION-I (SOCIALISM) – SUBHASH CHANDRA BOSE AND SOCIALISM – Different Activities of Bose – Page 11;
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44329/3/Block-5.pdf – Page -12
A brief History of India by Rajiv Ahir (Spectrum) – Nationalist Response in the Wake of World War II – Haripura and Tripuri Sessions: Subhash Bose’s Views – Tripuri – Page 437 to 439
Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:
- The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
- A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
- The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The annexation of Awadh by the British in 1856 brought major administrative and agrarian changes. The British attempted to restructure land revenue administration by weakening the power of the taluqdars, who had traditionally exercised control over large estates and local authority. These measures created widespread resentment and became one of the important causes behind the Revolt of 1857 in Awadh.
Statement 1 is incorrect: After annexing Awadh, the British not only removed many taluqdars from their estates but also took steps to weaken their political and military influence. Their forts were dismantled and their armed retainers were disbanded in many cases. The British viewed the taluqdars as centres of local resistance and therefore did not allow them to freely retain military power.
Statement 2 is correct: Following the annexation, the British introduced the Summary Revenue Settlement of 1856 in Awadh. British officials argued that taluqdars were merely intermediaries or outsiders who had usurped the rights of the actual cultivators. On this basis, many taluqdars were deprived of their estates and revenue rights.
Statement 3 is correct: The British administration attempted to establish direct relations with village-level cultivators and collect revenue without the involvement of taluqdars. This policy was based on the assumption that removing intermediaries would improve revenue administration and increase state control. However, it alienated the taluqdars, who later played a major role in supporting the Revolt of 1857 in Awadh.
Source:) NCERT- Themes in Indian History, Part- III, Page Number- 97, 98
Q.8) Consider the following assertion:
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?
- Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
- Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
- Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
Select the answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Government of India Act 1919 introduced limited constitutional reforms in British India but also deepened communal representation in politics. By expanding the system of separate electorates and encouraging representation on religious and social lines, the reforms strengthened community-based political mobilisation.
Statement 1 is correct:The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms continued the system of separate electorates that had first been introduced for Muslims under the Indian Councils Act 1909. The 1919 reforms further extended communal representation to additional groups such as Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans in certain provinces. This institutionalised politics along community lines.
Statement 2 is correct:The British policy of separate electorates formed part of the broader strategy of “divide and rule.” By encouraging political representation based on religion and community, the colonial administration sought to weaken the emergence of a united nationalist movement. The British believed that dividing political interests along communal lines would reduce the possibility of a consolidated anti-colonial struggle led by the Congress.
Statement 3 is correct:Over time, several socially and politically marginalised groups began viewing separate electorates and reserved political representation as instruments for securing political safeguards and access to power. Different communities increasingly organised themselves politically to demand constitutional concessions and representation within the colonial framework. Thus, communal and group-based political alliances gained further momentum.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/89553/3/Unit-10.pdf – UNIT 10: CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS – MONTAGU-CHELMSFORD REFORMS – Changes in the Central Government – Page 139;
A brief History of India by Rajiv Ahir (Spectrum) – Emergence of Gandhi – Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and Government of India Act, 1919 – Page 325
Q.9) Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:
a) Agra Gharana
b) Gwalior Gharana
c) Patiala Gharana
d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Mallikarjun Mansur was one of the most distinguished exponents of Hindustani classical music in the twentieth century. Born in Dharwad region of Karnataka, he became especially renowned for his mastery over rare ragas and complex khayal compositions. His music reflected the distinctive stylistic depth of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, a tradition known for its intricate raga architecture and intellectual rigour.
He trained under Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan, sons of Ustad Alladiya Khan, the founder of this gharana. He became widely respected for preserving and popularising several rare and complex ragas of the Jaipur-Atrauli tradition. His contribution earned him honours such as the Padma Vibhushan and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship
Source: https://www.sangeetnatak.gov.in/public/uploads/awardees/docs/1704545893_Rajshekhar%20Mansur.pdf ; https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/remembering-rajshekhar-mansur-musical-maestro-and-teacher-7919082/
Q.10) In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?
a) Rigveda
b) Atharvaveda
c) Ashtadhyayi
d) Arthashastra
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Rigveda contains several references to early agricultural practices, fertility, cultivation, and prayers associated with productive land. Although early Vedic society retained strong pastoral features, agriculture had already acquired growing importance. Deities connected with cultivated fields and agricultural prosperity appear in Rigvedic hymns. The term Kshetrapati (“lord/protector of the field”) is explicitly mentioned in the Rigveda in connection with agricultural land and fertility. The text contains hymns invoking agricultural prosperity, rains, crops, and protection of fields.
The feminine expression kshetra-patni (“mistress of the field”) is associated with the Atharva Veda.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/115655/3/Unit-3.pdf – History of Bharat From The Earliest Times to 700 CE -ECONOMIC LIFE OF THE VEDIC PERIOD- Page 73
Q.11) Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?
a) Nat Bhairavi
b) Kamavardhini
c) Hanumatodi
d) Dheera Shankarabharanam
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Indian national anthem Jana Gana Mana is based on the Carnatic raga Dheera Shankarabharanam, which corresponds to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music. Shankarabharanam means ‘the ornament of Shiva’ and is considered a healing raga in music therapy. It is cherished as a favourite of Lord Shiva who is the Vaidishwar or god of doctors, and is said to produce a feeling of empowerment and well-being in listeners.
Source:)https://www.newindianexpress.com/opinion/2026/Jan/25/faithline-shankarabharanams-grace
Q.12) The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?
a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
b) Providing support to Indian importers
c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s 6d was prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission and adopted by the British government “to aid the flow of remittances from India and to maintain India’s credit-worthiness.” Under colonial rule, Britain regularly transferred large amounts of money from India in the form of administrative expenses, pensions, debt payments, and profits. A stable exchange rate ensured smooth remittances to Britain and protected India’s reputation in international financial markets.
Source:) A brief history of modern India by Ishita Banerjee–chapter-Difficulties and Initiatives-page 317
https://sde.uoc.ac.in/sites/default/files/sde_videos/ECONOMIC%20HISTORY%20OF%20MODERN%20INDIA.pdf
https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/century-old-report-that-paved-way-for-rbi/4194597/
Q.13) Consider the following statements :
- Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
- The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.
The above statements have been associated with which of the following?
- Emergence of urban life
- Transition to money economy
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Pali texts referred to several types of coins, which indicates the existence of active trade and commercial exchange. The archaeological discoveries of punch-marked coins from many sites suggest the use of coins which encouraged trade, markets, specialised occupations, and exchange of goods over long distances. Such expanding commercial activities generally developed in urban centres.
Statement 2 is correct. The mention of coins such as kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika in pali texts, along with the archaeological discovery of punch-marked coins, shows increasing use of metallic currency in economic transactions. These developments reflect a shift away from barter exchange towards a money economy.
Source:)https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/64791/1/Unit13.pdf page 242
Q.14) Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?
- Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
- Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
- Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
- Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 3 and 4
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Malegitti Shivalaya of Badami has garbhagriha, pillared Mandapa which is accessed through mukhamandapa. The temple is roofed with Dravidian shikhara.
Statement 2 is correct. The Huchimalligudi Temple is an important example of experimentation in temple architecture during the Early Chalukyan age. It signifies the development of the Rekha-prasada type of shikhara, which is a characteristic feature of the Nagara style prevalent in northern and central India. Thus, this temple represents an early form of Nagara-style shikhara
Statement 3 is correct. The Dashavatara Temple belongs to the Gupta period and is one of the earliest temples associated with the evolution of the shikhara. The presence of curving latina or rekha-prasada type of shikhara also makes it clear that this is an early example of a classic nagara style of temple.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Virupaksha Temple is predominantly a Dravidian-style temple. Although Pattadakal contains examples of both northern and southern architectural traditions, the Virupaksha Temple itself is mainly based on the Dravidian vimana style and not on the Nagara style.
Source:) https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5972/
NCERT Class 11- Introduction to Indian Art- chapter-TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE AND SCULPTURE page 73
https://asi.nic.in/pages/WorldHeritagePattadakal
Q.15) Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?
a) Deva (gods)
b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
c) Manushya (humans)
d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Jainism classifies rebirth into four principal forms of existence (Gati) based on one’s karma. These are Human beings, Heavenly beings, Tiryancha beings, and Infernal beings.
Option a is correct. Deva or heavenly beings are one of the four recognised forms of existence in Jainism. They enjoy heavenly pleasures due to good karmas but still remain within the cycle of rebirth.
Option b is incorrect. Yakshas are semi-divine attendant deities in Jain tradition, but they are not included among the four principal Gatis.
Option c is correct. Human beings are one of the four forms of existence and are considered most suitable for spiritual progress and attainment of liberation.
Option d is correct. Tiryancha includes animals, birds, insects, and plants. These are recognised as one of the four forms of existence in Jainism.
Source:)https://nikkyjain.github.io/jainDataBase/downloads/TattvarthaSutra-English.pdf page 13, 67
https://websites.umich.edu/~umjains/jainismsimplified/chapter04.html
Q.16) The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:
a) A joyous folk dance
b) Buddha in a meditative pose
c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Hallisalasya painting of the Bagh Caves is famous for depicting joyous folk dance scenes. The Bagh Caves, located in present-day Madhya Pradesh, belong to the Gupta period and are renowned for their mural paintings.
Source:)https://govtmuseumchennai.org/uploads/topics/16569324484745.pdf
https://ia801504.us.archive.org/21/items/in.ernet.dli.2015.201735/2015.201735.The-Land_text.pdf
https://dhar.nic.in/en/tourist-place/bagh-caves/
Q.17) Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :
- The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).
- In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
- The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The earliest epigraphic evidence of the decimal place-value system in India is found in the Mankani copper plates (Sankheda plates) of Gujarat dated 595–596 CE. It marks an early use of positional numerals in inscriptions.
Statement 2 is correct. By the ninth century, the decimal place-value system had become widely used in inscriptions across different parts of India. Although some older numeral forms survived locally, the place-value notation had largely become general by this period.
Statement 3 is correct. Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia from the seventh century show the use of Indian place-value numerals. This reflects the spread of Indian mathematical knowledge through cultural contacts.
Source:) https://ijarsct.co.in/Paper5166.pdf
https://bhavana.org.in/mathematics-in-india-3/
Q.18) Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:
- There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
- Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
- Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
- Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
- Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The evidence of spindle whorls, cotton threads, and woven textile impressions indicates that spinning and weaving were widely practised in Harappan society. Since spindle whorls were commonly found, thread-making appears to have been an important laborious household activity.
Statement 2 is correct. The discovery of standardized weights, graduated scales, and precise measurement systems reflects the advanced scientific and mathematical knowledge of the Harappans.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The presence of large brick houses with courtyards, wells, bathrooms, and separate rooms indicates planned urban living and social differentiation. Some houses were larger and more elaborate than others, suggesting private ownership and differences in status. Thus it is not related to the common property system.
Source:) Upinder SIngh book- Page 353-355, 391-393
Q.19) Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?
a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement protest against excessive was a extraction of rents.
d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Bardoli Satyagraha was launched in Bardoli Taluqa of Surat district after the British government increased land revenue by 30 per cent. Under the leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel, peasants refused to pay the revised assessment and demanded an independent inquiry. Whereas the Eka Movement emerged in the districts of Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur in Awadh. The main grievances of peasants were the extraction of rents much higher than the recorded rates, oppression by thekedars, and the practice of share-rents. Peasants united under the Eka or “Unity” Movement and pledged to pay only the recorded rent.
Source:) Spectrum-chapter-Peasant Movements 1857-1947 page- 579, 580
Q.20) Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :
- Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
- Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.
Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?
- There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
- Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra /sreni (sickle).
- There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.
Select the answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Rigveda mentions ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (wooden pails used for drawing water). These indicate the use of wells, asthma chakra and ahava for lifting water, for irrigation far away from river flood plains.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) only show agricultural and forest-clearing activities. They do not provide evidence about well irrigation or animal-powered water lifting.
Statement 3 is correct. Oxen were already used for ploughing fields and pulling carts before and during the Rigvedic period. This indicates that draught-animal power could be used to draw water from wells for irrigation.
Source:) https://indiascienceheritage.gov.in/WTI3.html
Upinder singh-chapter-PASTORALISM, AGRICULTURE, AND OTHER OCCUPATIONS-page 454
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lehs101.pdf page 3
Q.21) Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?
a) Ecuador
b) Peru
c) Bolivia
d) Colombia
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Tungurahua volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is located in the Andes of Ecuador. The landscape features deep canyons, crystal-clear rivers, icy waterfalls, and towering rock walls, shaped by volcanic eruptions, tectonic uplift, and glacial activity over millennia. The Tungurahua volcano is still active and a key site for volcanological research.
Source:) https://www.unesco.org/en/iggp/tungurahua-volcano-unesco-global-geopark
Q.22) With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
- Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
- Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Madhav National Park was officially declared as the 58th Tiger Reserve in India by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in March, 2025. It is Madhya Pradesh’s 9th tiger reserve. It was established initially as a national park in 1958.
Statement 2 is correct: Sankhya Sagar, declared a Ramsar site in 2022, is an artificial lake located within the Madhav National Park in Shivpuri district in Madhya Pradesh. The lake helps maintain the ecological balance of the Madhav National Park. As a Ramsar site, it is a wetland site designated internationally important by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, not shared between the two states of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Source:) https://shivpuri.nic.in/en/tourist-place/madhav-national-park/
https://www.madhavtigerreserve.org/introduction
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1844859®=3&lang=2
Q.23) With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
- It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
- Maximum precipitation is between December and May.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands is the largest archipelago system in the Bay of Bengal. This lies in a crescent that stretches from Cape Negroid of Myanmar to Bandra Arc of Sumatra (Indonesia).
Statement 1 is correct: The climate of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands can be defined as humid, tropical, coastal climate. The proximity to the equator and the sea ensures a hot, humid uniform climate. The islands are situated in the hot zone. The island experiences a Mean Relative Humidity of 79%.
Statement 2 is correct: Andaman and Nicobar Islands receive rainfall from both the Southwest and Northeast monsoons. It has no distinct winter season. The rainy season happens twice in a year:
- under the influence of southwest monsoon during mid-May to end of September
- under northeast monsoon during November to January
Statement 3 is incorrect: The maximum rainfall in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands is between May to December (and not between December and May). There are mainly two seasons in the island: the rainy season and summer season. Monsoon season is between May to August. Average annual rainfall in these Islands is 3000 mm. Summer Season is from March to May.
Source:) http://andssw1.and.nic.in/ecostat/2009/Meteorological/analysis.pdf
https://andamantourism.org.in/andaman-climate-best-time-to-visit
https://mausamjournal.imd.gov.in/index.php/MAUSAM/article/download/178/128/536 (Pg. 122)
https://as.and.nic.in/startupindia/about.php
Q.24) Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?
- Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2 Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
- Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular plateau.
Statement 1 is correct: This Peninsular plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures. Since the Cambrian period, the Peninsula has been standing like a rigid block with the exception of some of its western coast which is submerged beneath the sea and some other parts changed due to tectonic activity without affecting the original basement.
Statement 2 is correct: As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, the Peninsular block has been subjected to various vertical movements and block faulting. The Peninsula mostly consists of relict and residual mountains like the Aravali hills, the Nallamala hills, the Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the Palkonda range and the Mahendragiri hills, etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan one. Unlike the youthful Himalayan rivers (Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra etc.) that form deep V-shaped valleys, Peninsular rivers are in a mature stage and generally form through broad, shallow valleys.
Source:) India: Physical Environment – NCERT XI (Old), Chapter – 02, Structure and Physiography, Pg. 16 https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/sathee-clat/student-corner/ncert-books/class-11/geography/india-physical-environment/chapter-02-structure-and-physiography/
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy103.pdf (Pg. 19-20, 23)
Q.25) Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :
- The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
- The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
- Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
- Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: The Sagarmala Programme, launched in March 2015, is the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways, aimed at revolutionizing India’s maritime sector and promoting port-led development. It aims to improve logistics efficiency, reduce transportation costs, and support trade by increasing the use of coastal shipping and inland waterways alongside existing road and rail networks.
Statement II is correct and validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in Statement I: The success of the Sagarmala Programme reflects sustained progress in strengthening port infrastructure, improving connectivity, operational performance and stronger global competitiveness of Indian ports.
- Record Cargo Handling: India’s major ports have collectively handled a record 915.17 million tonnes (MT) of cargo during FY 2025–26, surpassing the annual target of 904 MT.
- Operational Efficiency: Average vessel turnaround time declined significantly from 96 hours in 2014 to 49.5 hours in 2025.
- Global Recognition: Indian ports have strengthened their global presence, with 9 ports ranking among the world’s top 100, including Visakhapatnam Port, which ranks among the top 20 ports for container traffic.
Statement III is correct and extends the objectives of Statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework: Sagarmala 2.0, the next phase of the Sagarmala Programme, builds upon its achievements while adopting a broader and more integrated national vision for the maritime sector outlined in MIV (Maritime India Vision) 2030 and MAKV (Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision) 2047.
- The scheme aims to position India as a global maritime hub through comprehensive modernization of ports, promotion of port‑led industrialization, improvement in coastal and hinterland connectivity to ports, enhancement of inland waterways & coastal shipping services, development of island and coastal communities, and fostering innovation aligned with sustainable development objectives.
Statement I does not contradict Statement III as it also focuses on modern innovation: modernizing and building ports, improving port connectivity while encouraging investment from both the public and private sectors.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2251071®=3&lang=1
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2115878®=3&lang=2
Q.26) Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :
- It is an epiphytic orchid.
- The species is endemic to North-east India.
- It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa (also called foxtail orchid) is an epiphytic orchid. The plant is an epiphyte growing on tree trunks in open forests or at forest margins at elevations of 300–1,500 m (980–4,920 ft). It is found in semi-deciduous and deciduous dry lowland forests and woodlands.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail Orchid) is not endemic to North-east India and is native to broad regions across South and Southeast Asia. It can be found in Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam. In India, the plant is most common in the Northeast, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa is recognized as the state flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. In Assam, it is locally called Kapou phul and in Andhra Pradesh, the plant is called by Telugu name Chintaranamu.
https://arccjournals.com/journal/indian-journal-of-agricultural-research/A-6143
https://arunachalipr.gov.in/index.php/about-state/
https://arccjournals.com/journal/indian-journal-of-agricultural-research/A-6143
Q.27) Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?
- They acted as army fortresses.
- They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
- They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
- They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 4
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Moidams do not act as army fortresses; they are sacred burial mounds of the Ahom kings, queens, and nobility.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Moidams were not recreation centers. They are a sacred mound-burial system constructed by the Tai-Ahom dynasty in Assam.
Statement 3 is correct: Moidams – the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty are a royal mound burial necropolis established by the Tai-Ahom in northeastern India. Moidams is situated in the foothills of the Patkai Ranges in eastern Assam. These burial mounds are considered sacred by the Tai-Ahom and reflect their unique funerary practices. These mounds were initially built with wood and later with stone and burnt bricks. Royal cremation rituals were conducted ceremoniously, reflecting the hierarchical structure of Tai-Ahom society.
- The Tai-Ahom people arrived in Assam in the 13th century, establishing Charaideo as their first city and the site of the royal necropolis.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Moidams were not battle drill centres. Serving as royal necropolises, these dome-shaped structures—often compared to the pyramids of Egypt—were resting places for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2037495®=3&lang=2
https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/1711/
https://sivasagar.assam.gov.in/sites/default/files/public_utility/Moidams%20at%20Charaideo.pdf
Q.28) At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.
Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?
a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct: At the 3rd United Nations Ocean Conference held in Nice, France, in June 2025, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) proposed its vision of “Blue Transformation,” a framework built upon the “Four Betters” designed to achieve sustainable aquatic food systems and global food security: better production, better nutrition, a better environment, and a better life – leaving no one behind.
Q.29) Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?
- It is the largest desert lake in the world.
- The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
- The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is the most saline lake in East Africa and the largest desert lake in the world, surrounded by an arid, seemingly extraterrestrial landscape that is often devoid of life.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Lake Turkana, the world’s biggest permanent desert lake, is located in northern Kenya, extending into Ethiopia. It is one of eight major lakes along the Kenyan part of the Rift Valley, a geographic depression stretching 4,000 miles (6,500km) from Lebanon to Mozambique.
Statement 3 is correct: Lake Turkana is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It was inscribed in 1997 as Lake Turkana National Parks and consists of three protected areas: Sibiloi National Park, Central Island National Park, and South Island National Park. It is Africa’s fourth largest lake, fondly called the Jade Sea because of its breathtaking color.
Source:) https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/801/
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2026/apr/17/crocodile-attacks-kenya-lake-turkana-rising-water
https://www.unesco.org/en/articles/sustainably-unlocking-economic-potential-lake-turkana
https://eros.usgs.gov/earthshots/lake-turkana-kenya-and-ethiopia
Q.30) Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?
a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: India’s first Plan Vivo-certified REDD+ project is the Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya. Initiated in 2011, it protects and restores 27,000 ha of cloud forest, in addition to preserving sacred groves and watersheds. The project aims to slow, halt and reverse the loss of community forests in the East Khasi Hills District by providing support, new technologies and financial incentives to conserve existing forests and regenerate degraded forests.
Source:) https://www.planvivo.org/projects/khasi-hills-community-redd-project-india
Q.31) Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:
- India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070
- India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
- Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
- Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
- Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: India’s Long-Term Low Greenhouse Gas Emission Development Strategies (LT-LEDS), submitted to the UNFCCC in November 2022, reaffirms India’s target to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070.
Statement II is correct: As per the PIB release for India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted on December 30, 2024, India’s GHG emissions decreased by 7.93% (around 8%) in 2020 with respect to 2019.
Statement III is incorrect: India’s climate policy explicitly rejects absolute, short-term emission constraints that compromise developmental needs. It is based on long-term, equitable, and sustainable growth under the principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR-RC).
Statement I is empirically supported by Statement II is correct: Statement I outlines the long-term strategic tool (LT-LEDS) for emission reduction. Statement II provides the empirical, real-world inventory data from the BUR-4 proving that India is actively decoupling economic progress from emissions (demonstrated by the ~8% drop in 2020).
Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I is correct: Statement I relies on a long-term, progressive transition toward 2070. Statement III mandates that climate resilience necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievements, directly contradicting the phased, multi-decadal approach of the LT-LEDS.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2042999®=3&lang=2
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2089589®=3&lang=2
https://unfccc.int/sites/default/files/resource/India_LTLEDS.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2092311®=3&lang=2
Q.32) With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
- They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam (North-east India) is the premier sanctuary dedicated to this species. The Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is officially listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is correct: As lesser apes, gibbons are famous for brachiation a specialized arm-swinging locomotion through the forest canopy enabled by their elongated arms and highly flexible ball-and-socket shoulder joints.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Unlike massive, heavy-built great apes like gorillas, Hoolock Gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight (weighing only 6–9 kg), an evolutionary adaptation essential for their agile, arboreal lifestyle.
Source:) https://assamtourism.gov.in/Hoollongapar-Gibbon-Wildlife-Sanctuary1.php
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/the-ape-in-our-stories
https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/lesser_known_species/hoolock_gibbons_/
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/the-ape-in-our-stories
https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/lesser_known_species/hoolock_gibbons_/
Q.33) Which of the following best explain (s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?
- Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
- Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
- By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mangroves are intertidal ecosystems and do not store freshwater for traditional paddy cultivation. Clearing mangroves for agriculture causes seawater to ruin adjacent farmlands. Modern climate-friendly farming requires planting mangroves next to fields as a barrier to block salinity, not converting mangrove belts into fields.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangroves are salt-tolerant halophytes, not salt-sensitive. Clearing mangroves to create commercial aquaculture (like intensive shrimp ponds) is a leading cause of coastal degradation, not a method for creating freshwater zones.
Statement 3 is correct: Mangroves reduce storm damage by up to 70%, acting as vital natural bio-shields against tidal surges. Concurrently, they support over 120 million people and nurture 80% of young fish, crabs, and shrimp, serving as resilient livelihood bases for coastal rural communities.
https://www.frontiersin.org/journals/environmental-science/articles/10.3389/fenvs.2022.858028/full
Q.34) In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?
- By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
- By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
- By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence foreign trans-shipment ports, on and enhance revenue retention, reposition India in regional maritime trade.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Vizhinjam is explicitly developed as a premier International Transshipment Hub rather than an exclusive domestic cargo hub. Far from eliminating foreign collaborations, its core operational model targets global mainline vessels and international trade routes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Vizhinjam is entirely focused on industrial container logistics and cargo transshipment (handling mega container ships, extending container berths, and managing up to 5.7 million TEUs). It does not focus primarily on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.
Statement 3 is correct: Vizhinjam leverages its inherent locational advantages (just 10 nautical miles from the international shipping route) and its natural deep draft of 18m close to shore. This directly reduces India’s historical dependence on foreign transshipment hubs (like Colombo) for routing Indian origin cargo, thereby enhancing domestic revenue retention and boosting India’s maritime competitiveness.
Source:) https://vizhinjamport.in/
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2218315®=3&lang=1
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/shaping-the-port-of-the-future/article69537384.ece
https://www.orfonline.org/expert-speak/vizhinjam-port-competition-or-complementary-to-colombo
Q.35) Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:
- It has an antecedent drainage system.
- It flows through three countries.
- It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
- It does not form distributaries.
Select the answer from the following:
a) Brahmaputra
b) Indus
c) Sutlej
d) Teesta
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: Brahmaputra is an antecedent river and it also originates in the Tibetan region. It flows through China/Tibet, India and Bangladesh. However, in its lower course, especially in Bangladesh, it forms several channels and distributaries as part of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta system.
Option b is incorrect: Indus is an antecedent river and originates near the Tibetan Plateau. It flows through China/Tibet, India and Pakistan and is extremely important for irrigation in Pakistan. However, the Indus forms a delta near the Arabian Sea, where it develops distributary channels.
Option c is correct: Sutlej is an antecedent river because it cuts across the Himalayas through deep gorges. It originates near the Rakshastal-Mansarovar region in Tibet and flows through China/Tibet, India and Pakistan. It is highly important for irrigation and hydroelectricity, especially through projects like the Bhakra Nangal Project. Since Sutlej is a tributary of the Indus system and does not independently form a delta or distributaries.
Option d is incorrect: Teesta is an important river of the eastern Himalayas, but it mainly flows through India and Bangladesh, not three countries. It also does not originate in the Tibetan Plateau like Sutlej.
Source:) Geography of India by Majid Hussain Chapter 3 drainage
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/112901/3/Unit-4.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy103.pdf
Q.36) Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
- Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
- Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
- Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct : Uttar Pradesh shares its borders with the highest number of other Indian States. It touches exactly 8 states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar) plus 1 Union Territory (Delhi).
Statement 2 is incorrect): Rajasthan does not share the longest international border among Indian states. West Bengal shares the longest international border (around 2,217 km with Bangladesh).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sikkim is not the only state that shares its boundary with just one other Indian state. Meghalaya also shares its domestic land border exclusively with just one Indian state (Assam).
Source:) https://surveyofindia.gov.in/UserFiles/files/POLMAP_ENGLISH-2026.pdf
Q.37) Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
- It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection international migratory birds.
- It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
- It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake, Nagaland shows the success of community-based conservation. Earlier, local people hunted these birds, but after awareness campaigns by wildlife activists, Church groups, forest officials and local communities, hunting stopped and the birds are now protected.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Satellite tracking chips help scientists track and study the migration route of Amur Falcons. But they do not guide the birds back to their stopover sites. The birds return naturally due to their migratory instinct and seasonal movement.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Amur Falcons have not become permanent residents of India. They only use Nagaland as a temporary stop during migration from Mongolia/northern China/eastern Russia towards South Africa. After resting, they continue their journey.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=130503®=3&lang=2
https://birdcount.in/migration-map/amufal1/
Q.38) Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
- Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
- Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
- Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect:The guidelines state that RAD aims at promoting location-specific improved agronomic practices through crop diversification and progressive adoption of multi-cropping systems. It explicitly moves away from single-crop vulnerability, meaning it discourages monoculture to enhance organic soil matter and lower risk.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of the scheme is strictly bounded within rainfed/dry-land areas (covering blocks having more than 60% rainfed uplands). It does not focus on expanding or increasing rice cultivation within already well-irrigated regions.
Statement 3 is correct: The core objective explicitly outlined under Section 3(b) and Section 6.1 is to make agriculture more productive and climate-resilient by promoting location-specific Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), thereby maximizing farm returns and minimizing the risk of total crop failure during extreme weather events.
Source:) https://agriwelfare.gov.in/sites/default/files/RAD_Operational_Guidelines.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2259279®=3&lang=1
https://nmsa.dac.gov.in/frmComponents.aspx
Q.39) Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
- It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
- It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Oeko-Tex certification helps Indian exporters compete in high-end global textile markets because it assures buyers that Eri Silk is safe, eco-friendly and free from harmful chemicals. Many premium brands prefer textiles that meet such sustainability and safety standards.
Statement 2 is correct: Oeko-Tex certification confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety and quality standards. It increases confidence among international buyers and helps Eri Silk enter premium eco-conscious markets where ethical and environmentally responsible textiles are preferred.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2113212®=3&lang=2
Q.40) Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?
- Bahrain
- Syria
- Qatar
- Egypt
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct: Bahrain lies inside the Persian Gulf. Any ship moving from Bahrain towards the Indian Ocean/Arabian Sea has to pass through the Strait of Hormuz, which connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
Option is incorrect: Syria lies on the Mediterranean Sea. Ships from Syria would move through the Suez Canal and Red Sea route to reach the Indian Ocean, not through the Strait of Hormuz.
Option 3 is correct: Qatar also lies inside the Persian Gulf. Therefore, ships from Qatar must cross the Strait of Hormuz to come out towards the Gulf of Oman, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean.
Option 4 is incorrect: Egypt is connected to the Indian Ocean route through the Suez Canal → Red Sea → Bab-el-Mandeb → Arabian Sea. It does not need to cross the Strait of Hormuz.
Q.41) Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
| List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description) |
| A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies |
| B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation |
| C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be possible threat public safety |
| D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets |
Code: A B C D
a) 3 1 2 4
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 4 2 1 3
d) 4 1 2 3
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A-4:The Silver Notice is used to identify, locate, and trace criminally obtained assets such as property, vehicles, financial accounts, or businesses linked to criminal activity.
B-2:The Blue Notice helps law enforcement agencies gather further information about a person connected with a criminal investigation. It is mainly used for locating or identifying suspects, witnesses, or persons of interest.
C-1:The Black Notice is issued to seek information regarding unidentified bodies discovered in different countries. Its purpose is to assist in establishing identity through international cooperation.
D-3:The Green Notice is issued to warn member countries about individuals who may pose a threat due to prior criminal behaviour. It is preventive in nature and often relates to repeat offenders or dangerous individuals.
Source:https://www.interpol.int/en/How-we-work/Notices/About-Notices
Q.42) Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?
- Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
- Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
- Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 3 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience) is a proposed institutional platform under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change aimed at improving coordination among environmental and forestry institutions in India. The platform is structured around thematic verticals dealing with biodiversity surveys, ecosystem management, climate resilience, and capacity development.
Statement 1 is correct: Ecosystem Survey & Analysis is one of the thematic verticals under NIRANTAR, and its lead institute is the Botanical Survey of India. The mandate of this vertical includes surveys, assessment, and analytics relating to forests, flora, fauna, and natural resources. It also focuses on ex-situ conservation measures such as herbariums, gene banks, libraries, and museums of natural history.
Institutions placed under this vertical include Forest Survey of India, Botanical Survey of India, Zoological Survey of India, National Museum of Natural History and National Biodiversity Authority.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under NIRANTAR. However, its lead institute is the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education headquartered in Dehradun, not the Central Zoo Authority. The mandate of this vertical includes ecological stability, sustainable development, wildlife and wetland research, forestry management, and green growth support.
Institutions under this vertical include Institutes under ICFRE, Wildlife Institute of India, National Tiger Conservation Authority and Central Zoo Authority.
Statement 3 is correct: Capacity Development Support is another thematic vertical under NIRANTAR, led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management. Its mandate includes research, education, training, and capacity building related to forest management, sustainable natural resource management, forest certification, ecosystem services, and climate change mitigation.
Institutions under this vertical include Institute of Wood Science and Technology and Indian Institute of Forest Management
https://nirantar.moef.gov.in/ecosystem-survey-&-analysis ; https://nirantar.moef.gov.in/research-and-management-of-ecosystem-service ; https://nirantar.moef.gov.in/capacity-development-support
Q.43) The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?
- Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
- Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
- Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
- Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The January 2026 visit of the German Chancellor to India marked an important phase in India–Germany bilateral relations. The visit resulted in several agreements and announcements covering defence cooperation, semiconductors, green hydrogen, higher education, skilling, Indo-Pacific cooperation, renewable energy, and cultural exchanges.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The agreement on traditional medicine was signed between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charite University, Germany, not the University of Hamburg The MoU aimed at cooperation in the field of traditional medicine and research.
Statement 2 is correct: A Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development was signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (Deutscher Hockey-Bund e.V.). The agreement formed part of the broader people-to-people and sporting cooperation outcomes of the visit.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the major announcements during the visit was the establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific. This reflected growing India–Germany cooperation on strategic and maritime issues in the Indo-Pacific region.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The announcement related to the opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Ahmedabad, not Lucknow.
Q.44) Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?
- It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
- It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing developed DHRUV64 under India’s broader effort to build an indigenous semiconductor and processor ecosystem. The processor represents an important milestone in the country’s push towards technological self-reliance under initiatives such as the Digital India RISC-V Programme and the India Semiconductor Mission.
Microprocessors are central to modern electronics, including computers, telecommunications, automobiles, defence systems, satellites, and industrial automation. Therefore, indigenous processor capability has major strategic and economic significance for India.
Statement 1 is correct: DHRUV64 is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme. The programme seeks to establish a complete ecosystem for indigenous RISC-V based processor development in India and promote self-reliance in Electronics System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM).
The sequence under the DIR-V initiative includes:
- THEJAS32 → fabricated at Silterra facility, Malaysia
- THEJAS64 → fabricated at Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Mohali
- DHRUV64 → third fabricated chip under the programme
The initiative also supports the development of future processors such as Dhanush and Dhanush+.
Statement 2 is correct: DHRUV64 has been officially described as India’s first indigenous 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. It has been developed by C-DAC under the Microprocessor Development Programme (MDP). The processor is designed for strategic and commercial applications including 5G infrastructure, Automotive systems, Industrial automation, Consumer electronics and Internet of Things (IoT) applications.
Source:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=156505&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
Q.45) The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?
- The new standard is known as IS 19445: 2025.
- It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
- It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Bureau of Indian Standards released a new Indian Standard titled IS 19445:2025 Bomb Disposal Systems – Performance Evaluation and Requirements on National Consumer Day 2025. The standard was introduced to create a uniform framework for testing and evaluating bomb disposal systems used by defence, police, and civilian agencies dealing with explosive threats and improvised explosive devices (IEDs).
Statement 1 is correct:The newly introduced national standard for bomb disposal systems has officially been designated as IS 19445:2025. The standard provides performance evaluation criteria and testing methodologies for systems such as Bomb blankets, Bomb baskets, and Bomb inhibitors. It also lays down requirements relating to blast loads, splinter effects, testing procedures, apparatus, and acceptance standards.
Statement 2 is correct:One of the stated objectives and expected benefits of IS 19445:2025 is to improve the reliability and interoperability of bomb disposal equipment across agencies. The standard seeks to establish Uniform testing procedures, Transparent procurement, benchmarks, Common certification standards and Better operational compatibility among agencies. These measures are expected to help the Indian Armed Forces, Central Armed Police Forces, State Police organisations, and civilian agencies operate with standardised and compatible equipment.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The standard was developed through a consensus-based process under the Arms and Ammunition for Civilian Use Sectional Committee (PGD 28) of BIS. A dedicated panel was constituted under the convenorship of Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory. However, there was no collaboration mentioned with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Source:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2209191®=3&lang=2
Q.46) X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify X’:
a) Michel H. Devoret
b) Richard Robson
c) John Clarke
d) Joel Mokyr
Ans) c
Exp)Option c is the correct answer.
The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret, and John M. Martinis for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit. The researchers used a Josephson junction, where superconductors are separated by a thin insulating layer, to show that the circuit could “tunnel” through an energy barrier and exhibit quantised energy states. This breakthrough laid the foundation for modern quantum computing, superconducting qubits, and quantum technologies.
John Clarke was born in Cambridge, United Kingdom, and at the time of the Nobel Prize announcement, he was affiliated with the University of California, Berkeley, USA.
Knowledge Base:
- Michel H. Devoret was one of the recipients of the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics for work related to superconducting quantum circuits and quantum computation. However, he was born in France, not in the United Kingdom.
- Richard Robson received recognition in the field of Chemistry for contributions to advanced coordination chemistry and porous framework materials.
- Joel Mokyr was recognised for contributions to economic history and the study of technological change during the Industrial Revolution.
Source:https://www.nobelprize.org/prizes/physics/2025/clarke/facts/ https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/physics-nobel-2025-what-have-the-3-done-how-it-helps-10293163/
Q.47) Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?
- The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
- They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
- There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The four Grand Slam tournaments – Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon Championships, and US Open, are governed through a coordinated framework known as Grand Slam Tennis (GST).
The Grand Slam Rules provide uniform regulations regarding player eligibility, governance structure, conduct, rankings, and tournament administration
Statement 1 is correct:The Grand Slam Rules clearly state that Grand Slam Tennis (GST) functions through a shared governance structure involving the four Grand Slam tournaments.
GST is managed by a board comprising the Chairs and CEOs of the four tournaments and is responsible for matters such as Tournament regulations, Sporting competition matters, Officiating standards, Relations with governing bodies and third parties.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The rules specify that Grand Slam tournaments are open to internationally ranked players with a ranking of 500 or better, subject to eligibility conditions. Further, the rules only state that players under the age of 14 are not eligible. This does not mean that every player above 14 automatically becomes eligible. Ranking criteria and WTA age eligibility rules also apply.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Grand Slam Rules explicitly provide that “There shall be no limitation as to the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in the Grand Slam Tournaments.” Therefore, no numerical restriction exists regarding Wild Card entries.
Source: https://www.itftennis.com/media/5986/grand-slam-rulebook-2026-f2.pdf – GRAND SLAM® RULES ARTICLE I: GENERAL – A. PURPOSE AND APPLICABILITY and D. OPEN COMPETITION / NO DISCRIMINATION – Page 7 and GRAND SLAM® TOURNAMENT REGULATIONS ARTICLE I: GENERAL – E. WILD CARDS / NO LIMITATION – Page 9
Q.48) Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
| a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics | Gujarat |
| b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. | Assam
|
| c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. | Madhya Pradesh
|
| d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. | Odisha |
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
India has accelerated its semiconductor manufacturing push under the India Semiconductor Mission with major investments in fabrication, packaging, testing, and compound semiconductor facilities across different states.
Pair a is correct: CG Power and Industrial Solutions Ltd. is establishing a semiconductor OSAT unit at Sanand, Gujarat in partnership with Renesas Electronics and Stars Microelectronics. The project was approved under the Modified Programme for Development of Semiconductor and Display Manufacturing Ecosystem with an investment of around ₹7,600 crore.
Pair b is correct: Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. is setting up India’s first indigenous semiconductor assembly and test facility at Jagiroad, Assam. The facility focuses on semiconductor assembly, packaging, and testing technologies such as Wire Bond, Flip Chip, Integrated Systems Packaging (ISP). The project involves an investment of approximately ₹27,000 crore and is expected to significantly strengthen India’s semiconductor ecosystem.
Pair c is incorrect: India Chip Pvt. Ltd. is being established at the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA), Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh. The project is an OSAT facility being developed under the Modified Scheme for Semiconductor Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP).
Pair d is correct: SiCSem Private Limited is setting up India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fabrication facility at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.The project is being developed in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. The proposed facility will manufacture SiC-based devices used in Electric Vehicles (EVs), Defence systems, Railways, Solar power inverters and Fast chargers.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2093860®=3&lang=2 ; https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198056®=3&lang=2 ; https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2230857®=3&lang=1 ; https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2155459®=3&lang=2
Q.49) Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?
- Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
- It was developed by IIT Delhi.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The indigenous Bharat Forecast System (BharatFS) system represents a major advancement in high-resolution numerical weather prediction and is aligned with the vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India. BharatFS is particularly significant because India became the only country operating a global weather prediction model at a very high real-time resolution of 6 km.
Statement 1 is correct:The Bharat Forecast System (BharatFS) was specifically developed to generate localized forecasts at the cluster of Panchayats/villages level.
With its 6 km horizontal resolution, the model can capture highly localised weather features and generate distinct forecasts for smaller regions. This improves Rainfall prediction, Extreme weather forecasting, Disaster preparedness and Agricultural planning and irrigation management.
The system demonstrated nearly 30% improvement in forecasting extreme rainfall events compared to the previous operational model.
Statement 2 is incorrect:BharatFS was developed primarily by scientists from institutions such as Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM-Pune), National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF-Noida) and India Meteorological Department (IMD). It was not developed by IIT Delhi.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2153585®=3&lang=2
Q.50) Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’:
- The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
- The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
- This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Boong emerged as a landmark achievement for Indian cinema at the 2026 British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA). The Manipuri-language film received global recognition for its emotionally driven storytelling centred on childhood, family, and loss.
Statement 1 is correct: Boong won the BAFTA Award for Best Children’s and Family Film at the 2026 BAFTA Awards. The film competed against internationally recognised productions such as Arco, Lilo & Stitch and Zootopia 2. Its victory marked a major milestone for Indian regional cinema.
Statement 2 is correct: The film was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. Her direction received international appreciation for presenting a culturally rooted yet universally relatable story. She had earlier received recognition at the Bulbul Children’s International Film Festival in Goa.
Statement 3 is correct: Boong became the first Indian film to win a BAFTA Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
Q.51) Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?
- Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
- Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
- Consortium ‘blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
- Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Blockchain technology provides transparency along with data security. The records or transactions stored in the blockchain can be accessed by authorised participants or stakeholders in the network. At the same time, the information cannot be easily altered because every record is protected through cryptographic techniques and linked with previous records.
Statement 2 is correct. Blockchain functions as a distributed database. Instead of storing information on a single central server, identical copies of the database are maintained on many computers or nodes connected through a network. Whenever a new transaction is added, the updated information is synchronised across the network within seconds or minutes.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A consortium blockchain is a semi-decentralised blockchain system governed jointly by multiple organisations that collectively manage validation and data sharing. In contrast, a hybrid blockchain combines features of both public and private blockchains and allows selective access to data.
Statement 4 is correct. Immutability is one of the most important features of blockchain technology. Blockchain uses cryptographic hashing and consensus mechanisms to secure data. Once a transaction or record is verified and added to the chain, altering or deleting it would require changing all connected blocks across the distributed network, which is practically impossible. This makes blockchain records highly secure, permanent and resistant to tampering.
Source:) https://www.niti.gov.in/sites/default/files/2020-01/Blockchain_The_India_Strategy_Part_I.pdf page 11
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2182023®=3&lang=2
Q.52) An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:
a) Dropshipping Model
b) Affiliate Revenue Model
c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
d) Agency Revenue Model
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Dropshipping is a business model that lets you sell products without stocking or shipping them yourself. You choose items from a third-party supplier, list them in your store and once someone places an order, the supplier handles fulfillment. The product goes directly from their warehouse to your customer’s door. This setup shifts your focus from managing inventory to managing the online storefront.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/what-matters-in-e-com/article23794723.ece
https://www.forbes.com/advisor/business/what-is-dropshipping-everything-you-need-to-know/
Q.53) Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
c) Access, Usage, and Quality
d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was launched by the Reserve Bank of India in 2021 to measure the extent of financial inclusion across the country. The index captures the progress of financial inclusion in sectors such as banking, investment, insurance, postal services and pensions. It is based on three major sub-indices namely “Access”, “Usage” and “Quality”.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=154980&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
Q.54) Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative ?
a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
b) To replace private e-commerce players
c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India in April 2022. It aims to democratize digital commerce by creating an open and interoperable network for buying and selling goods and services through digital platforms. The core objective of ONDC is to reduce the dominance of a few large e-commerce platforms and create a level playing field for all participants, especially MSMEs, local retailers, startups and small businesses. Through interoperability, buyers and sellers using different applications can seamlessly interact and transact with each other.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2090097®=3&lang=2
Q.55) Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central- Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
- a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
- b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users. happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
- c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
- d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is correct. UPI is a real-time payment system that facilitates transfer of money between bank accounts instantly. It is only a payment mechanism and not currency itself. On the other hand, the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or Digital Rupee is similar to sovereign paper currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
Option b is correct. In UPI transactions, money is debited and credited instantly between bank accounts, while actual interbank settlement happens later on a deferred net basis. In contrast, CBDC transactions involve direct transfer of wallet balances from one digital wallet to another, like transfer of physical cash, and therefore no separate settlement process is required.
Option c is correct. UPI transactions are routed through banks and are reflected in bank statements and bank ledgers, making them traceable and non-anonymous. However, CBDC wallet-to-wallet transactions do not require bank intermediation, and transaction details are generally not reflected in conventional bank statements.
Option d is incorrect. In UPI, the liability is linked to the users’ bank accounts and commercial banks. However, in the case of Digital Rupee, the liability lies with the central bank, i.e., the Reserve Bank of India, since CBDC is sovereign digital currency issued directly by the RBI.
Source:)https://www.rbi.org.in/commonman/english/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=3686
https://www.pwc.in/research-and-insights-hub/future-of-digital-currency-in-india.html
https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificdocs/documents/2022/dec/doc2022121139201.pdf
Q.56) Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?
- Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
- Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
- Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Tokenization refers to the process of converting ownership rights of real-world assets such as real estate, commodities, bonds, artwork and financial instruments into digital tokens on a blockchain network. These digital tokens represent fractional ownership of the underlying asset and can be securely traded or transferred through blockchain technology.
Statement 2 is correct. Tokenization also enables 24×7 market access because blockchain-based platforms operate continuously without the limitations of traditional market timings. It allows investors from different regions and economic backgrounds to participate in investment markets with lower entry barriers through fractional ownership. This expands financial participation and promotes financial inclusion.
Statement 3 is correct. RWA tokenization can provide Indian investors access to high-growth investment opportunities that were traditionally available only to institutional investors or high-net-worth individuals. Through fractional ownership, individuals can invest in assets such as commercial real estate, global securities, artwork and other alternative assets with smaller amounts of capital.
Source:) https://www.npci.org.in/blog/understanding-asset-tokenization-to-unlock-digital-asset-potential
https://digitalfinance.worldbank.org/topics/competition/tokenization
Q.57) A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:
a) Green Bond
b) Social Bond
c) Sustainability Bond
d) Sovereign Bond
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A Sustainability Bond is a financial instrument whose proceeds are used to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects. Environmental projects may include renewable energy, clean transportation, pollution control and climate change mitigation, while social projects may include affordable housing, healthcare, education and employment generation.
https://www.oecd.org/en/publications/sustainable-bonds_26726c68-en/full-report/component-5.html
Q.58) Which of the following statements about Mixchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?
- M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
- M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
- M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. M1xchange is an RBI-approved Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform that helps MSMEs obtain quicker access to working capital by enabling them to sell their trade receivables or invoices to banks and NBFCs. M1xchange does not primarily provide collateral-based loans. Instead, it offers collateral-free invoice financing where funding is based on accepted trade receivables.
Statement 2 is correct. It facilitates discounting of invoices and bills of exchange raised by MSMEs against corporate buyers and government entities. Through this system, MSMEs can convert pending payments into immediate liquidity.
Statement 3 is incorrect. M1xchange is not a credit rating agency. It operates as a digital marketplace connecting MSMEs, buyers and financiers for invoice discounting.
Source:) https://www.m1xchange.com/how-m1xchange-is-revolutionising-msme-financing-in-india/
https://www.m1xchange.com/small-to-small-s2s-financing/
Q.59) Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?
- a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
- b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
- c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
- d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
When the government runs a large fiscal deficit, it often borrows heavily from the domestic financial market to finance its expenditure. This increases the demand for loanable funds in the economy. As government borrowing rises, real interest rates tend to increase because the available pool of savings is limited. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive for private businesses and investors. As a result, the domestic private sector finds it difficult or costly to access funds for investment in industries, infrastructure, technology, or expansion projects. This reduction in private investment due to excessive government borrowing is known as the crowding out effect.
Source:)https://dea.gov.in/files/working_papers_documents/FPI_trends_Trajectory.pdf page 4
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/whats-crowding-out-effect-in-economics/article2538253
Q.60) Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?
- Modern Technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REES).
- China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
- The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. —
- Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Rare Earth Elements are extensively used in modern technologies such as Artificial Intelligence, robotics, semiconductors, electric vehicles, wind turbines, satellites, defence systems, and space exploration.
Statement 2 is incorrect. China has the largest share in global reserves and production of REEs, but India is not the second-largest producer. Although India has the third-largest reserves of REEs, its actual production is less than one percent of global output due to technological, infrastructural, and regulatory constraints.
Statement 3 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. The mission aims to secure long-term availability of critical minerals needed for clean energy technologies, electronics, EVs, and strategic sectors.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Rare Earth Elements (RREs), as defined by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) in 2005, are a group of 17 elements. These elements share similar properties such as high density and high conductivity. The 17 elements include 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium.
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2120525®=3&lang=2
Q.61) Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?
- ‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
- Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Aircraft hull insurance cover is designed to protect (the Insured) against the physical loss of or damage to aircraft, including engines and other fitted parts.Insurers will undertake at their option, to pay for, replace, or repair physical loss of or damage to aircraft, arising from the risks covered, up to an agreed value and subject to any deductible.
Statement 2 is correct: The Convention for Unification of Certain Rules for International Carriage by Air—commonly known as the Montreal Convention—was adopted in 1999. India is a signatory to the Montreal Convention of 1999 (MC99). Under the Montreal Convention 1999 (MC99), airlines are strictly liable to pay a specified amount of compensation to the families of deceased passengers without anyone needing to prove fault.
- Airlines are strictly liable for up to 1,51,880 ‘Special Drawing Rights (SDR)’, amounting to over $2,07,000 per passenger in the event of death or bodily injury, without the need to prove fault.
- SDR is not a currency but rather an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund in 1969.
Source:) https://www.feic-asia.com/aviation-insurance/aircraft-hull-spares-liability-insurance/
https://www.iata.org/en/programs/passenger/mc99/
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=48665®=3&lang=2
Q.62) Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?
- Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
- Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project, business venture or social cause.
- Crowd sourced funding is a means of raising money for a creative project (for instance, music, film, book publication), a benevolent or public-interest cause (for instance, a community based social or co-operative initiative) or a business venture, through small financial contributions from persons who may number in the hundreds or thousands.
Statement 2 is correct: Crowdfunding provides a much needed new mode of financing for start-ups and the Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) sector and increases flows of credit to SMEs and other users in the real economy. SMEs are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing through rigorous procedures in this mode. It provides a new investment avenue and provides a new product for portfolio diversification of Investors.
Source:) https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/attachdocs/1403005615257.pdf (Pg. 1 – 2, 5)
Q.63) With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details :
| Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed |
| 1 | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India |
| 2 | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India |
| 3 | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India |
| 4 | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India |
In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?
- a) 2 only
- b) 2 and 3
- c) 1, 3 and 4
- d) 2 and 4
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Row 1 is incorrect: In 1993, the Government of India (and not the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India) set up a committee under the chairmanship of R. N. Malhotra, former Governor of RBI, to propose recommendations for reforms in the insurance sector. The objective was to complement the reforms initiated in the financial sector. The committee submitted its report in 1994 and recommended that the private sector be permitted to enter the insurance industry.
Row 2 is correct: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) appointed L. C. Gupta Committee in 1996 to draft the policy framework and regulatory guidelines for introducing financial derivatives in the Indian capital markets. It recommended the introduction of derivatives trading in order to provide the facility of hedging in the most cost-efficient way against market risk.
Row 3 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted an Expert Committee to Revise and Strengthen the Monetary Policy Framework under the Chairmanship of Dr. Urjit R.Patel. The primary mandate of the committee was to overhaul and strengthen India’s monetary policy framework (and not prepare a roadmap for reforming bank leading to the Housing Sector) for reforming bank lending to better manage inflation, enhance transparency, and align with global practices.
Row 4 is correct: The Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted a Sub-Committee in 2010 under the chairmanship of Mr Y.H. Malegam to study the issues and concerns in the microfinance sector. The Committee submitted its report with suggestions to regulate the microfinance sector, pricing of interest, increasing transparency, and reducing the problems of multiple lending and over borrowing.
Source:) https://old.irdai.gov.in/ADMINCMS/cms/NormalData_Layout.aspx?page=PageNo4&mid=2
https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/commondocs/ar97981_h.html
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=77626®=3&lang=2
https://www.thehinducentre.com/multimedia/archive/03217/1305699507_Malegam_3217602a.pdf
Q.64) Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:
- NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
- All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
- NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
- Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 or Companies Act, 2013, and engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/ stocks/ bonds/ debentures/ securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, etc., as their principal business.
Statement 1 is correct: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. They cannot accept deposits repayable on demand.
Statement 2 is incorrect: All the NBFCs operating in India do not have to be registered with the RBI. While the RBI mandates registration for most NBFCs under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, it provides specific exemptions to avoid overlapping regulations.
- Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934, no company can commence or carry on business of a non-banking financial institution without obtaining a certificate of registration from the Reserve Bank and without having a Net Owned Funds (NOF) of ₹10 crore with effect from October 01, 2022.
- However, to obviate dual regulation, certain categories of NBFCs which are regulated by other regulators are exempted from the requirement of registration with the Reserve Bank viz., Alternative Investment Fund/ Merchant Banking companies/ Stock broking companies registered with SEBI; Insurance Company holding a valid Certificate of Registration issued by IRDA; Nidhi companies as notified under relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 1956; Chit companies doing the business of chits under the Chit Funds Act, 1982.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself.
Statement 4 is correct: Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
Source:) https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/english/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=1167
Q.65) Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) :
- MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
- MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
- Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty covering over 100 developing countries. MPI’s global methodology is based on the Alkire and Foster (AF) method that identifies people as poor based on universally acknowledged metrics designed to assess acute poverty, providing a complementary perspective to conventional monetary poverty measures.
Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog in collaboration with the UNDP and OPHI developed the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in 2021 that offers a multi-dimensional perspective on poverty. It uses the internationally acclaimed Alkire Foster methodology with the difference that National MPI covers 12 indicators while global MPI covers 10 indicators.
Statement 3 is incorrect: National MPI has retained the 10 indicators of Global MPI and included two additional indicators, namely Maternal Health (in the dimension of Health) and Bank Account (in the dimension of Standard of Living). The indicators, maternal health and bank account, are not included in global MPI.
- Global MPI 10 indicators: nutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, ownership of assets, and access to proper house, electricity, drinking water, sanitation, and clean cooking fuel.
- National MPI indicators:
Source:) https://ophi.org.uk/what-global-mpi
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1996271®=3&lang=2
https://ophi.org.uk/md-poverty-and-AF-method
https://www.undp.org/india/national-multidimensional-poverty-index-progress-review-2023
Q.66) Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ?
- Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
- Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
- Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Genetic medicine/gene therapy can correct, replace, inactivate, or compensate for faulty genes responsible for disease.
Statement 2 is correct: Genetic medicines need a carrier/vector to deliver genetic material into cells. Engineered viruses are commonly used because viruses naturally deliver genetic material into cells. Also, nanoparticles, including lipid nanoparticles, can be used to deliver genetic material or gene-editing components.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Genetic medicines do not alter the entire DNA sequence. They usually target a specific gene, mutation, protein pathway, or cell type. Gene editing aims to repair or disrupt particular harmful genes, not rewrite the whole genome.
Source:) https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/how-gene-therapy-can-cure-or-treat-diseases
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1746341®=3&lang=2
Q.67) Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?
- LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
- LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
- LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Generative autoregressive LLMs fundamentally operate as probabilistic text predictors. Given a prompt, the model calculates a probability distribution across its vocabulary for the next token and selects the next word based on this probability.
Statement 2 is correct: During training, LLMs utilize mathematical optimization algorithms (such as Gradient Descent) to iteratively adjust internal weights. This process continuously minimizes a loss function to drastically reduce token-level prediction errors.
Statement 3 is incorrect: LLMs are trained on vast, human-generated internet datasets. Consequently, they inherently absorb and replicate historical, systemic, and cultural biases present in the source text. Achieving completely unbiased output is factually incorrect and remains an unresolved challenge in AI.
Source:) https://www.ibm.com/think/topics/large-language-models
https://www.ibm.com/think/topics/machine-learning
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2071446®=3&lang=2
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/how-llms-could-widen-digital-divide/article69295542.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/education/mathematicians-explain-ais-intelligence-its-all-about-patterns-not-thinking/article70670543.ece
Q.68) Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ?
- Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
- Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
- Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Stealth design relies on minimizing an object’s Radar Cross-Section (RCS). This is achieved through geometric shaping (deflecting waves away from the source) and coating the chassis with Radar-Absorbing Materials (RAM) to convert incoming radio waves into heat.
Statement 2 is correct: No aircraft is invisible to all radars. While stealth platforms evade high-frequency targeting radars, they can be detected using specific low-frequency bands like Very High Frequency (VHF). Because VHF wavelengths match the size of structural elements (like tail fins), they trigger resonance. This is the exact technology used in India’s Surya VHF anti-stealth radar.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Next-generation stealth research uses metamaterials to absorb or bend electromagnetic waves seamlessly around an object (cloaking). Coaxial coatings are never designed to increase scattering, as that would make the aircraft significantly easier to detect.
Source:) https://drdo.gov.in/drdo/sites/default/files/tot/RadarAbsorbingPaint27032025.pdf
https://www.indiascienceandtechnology.gov.in/research/development-nature-and-bio-inspired-metamaterials-stealth-technology-applications?language=en?field_area_id=
Q.69) Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?
- They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
- They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
- Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Black boxes carry an Underwater Locator Beacon, but it does not emit red light pulses. It emits an acoustic/ultrasonic signal, commonly called a pinger, when immersed in water. The signal is generally around 37.5 kHz, which helps search teams locate it underwater.
Statement 2 is correct: Modern aircraft black boxes generally include two recorders: the Cockpit Voice Recorder and the Flight Data Recorder. The CVR records cockpit conversations, radio communication and cockpit sounds, while the FDR records flight parameters such as altitude, airspeed, heading and other aircraft data.
Statement 3 is correct: The most protected part of a black box is the Crash-Survivable Memory Unit. The memory unit is protected inside a strong casing made of materials such as stainless steel or titanium, along with insulation, so that it can survive impact, fire and deep-sea pressure.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-a-black-box-how-does-it-work/article69692336.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/black-box-baramati-air-crash-10537310/
https://www.icao.int/sites/default/files/Meetings/a42/Documents/WP/wp_196_en.pdf
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/air-india-crash-what-is-a-black-box-how-does-it-aid-the-investigation-11749796908414.html
Q.70) Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ?
- It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
- It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
- National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming with Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is generally called blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen. Green hydrogen is linked mainly with renewable energy-based production, especially electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.
Statement 2 is correct: Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water, where water is split into hydrogen and oxygen using electricity from renewable sources such as solar, wind or hydropower. MNRE also states that green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis using renewable electricity.
Statement 3 is correct: India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to create at least 5 MMT per annum green hydrogen production capacity by 2030 and expects abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas (CO2) emissions.
Source:) https://nghm.mnre.gov.in/
https://nghm.mnre.gov.in/overviews?language=en
https://mnre.gov.in/en/hydrogen-overview/
https://nghm.mnre.gov.in/admin/uploads/resources/169432257869914deloitte-green-hydrogen-report-2023.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1888547®=3&lang=2
Q.71) Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme :
- The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
- Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
- Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is a single-window, independent, nodal agency that functions as an autonomous agency in the Department of Space (DOS). It is formed following the Space sector reforms to enable and facilitate the participation of private players.
Statement 2 is correct: On May 30, 2024, IIT Madras-incubated start-up (Agnikul Cosmos), , launched the the Agnibaan SOrTeD (Sub-Orbital Technological Demonstrator), which is regarded as the world’s first rocket with a single piece 3D printed engine. This remarkable feat has been achieved entirely through indigenous design and development.
‘Agnibaan – SOrTeD’ Sub-Orbital Technology Demonstrator also has the unique distinction of having been launched from India’s first private launch pad called ‘Dhanush’ established by Agnikul. It is also India’s first semi-cryogenic engine-powered rocket launch.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Skyroot Aerospace develops its own dedicated fleet of commercial launch vehicles called the Vikram series (such as Vikram-I and Vikram-II), utilizing custom-built engines like Raman (liquid fuel), Kalam (solid fuel), and Dhawan (cryogenic fuel). These engines are designed for Skyroot’s own launch vehicles and not for ISRO’s GSLV programme.
They have not developed liquid fuel for the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle), which is a heavy-lift launch vehicle designed, owned, and operated exclusively by India’s premier space agency, ISRO.
Source:) https://www.isro.gov.in/IN-SPACe.html
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022161
https://www.isro.gov.in/LPSC.html
Q.72) Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ?
- They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
- Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
- GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Drone swarms typically communicate with each other or their command center using standard, reliable radio frequency bands like the C-band, X-band, Ku-band, or standard UHF/VHF/ISM bands (such as 2.4 GHz or 5.8 GHz).
The Terahertz (THz) band (0.1 to 10 THz) is an ultra-high frequency band currently being heavily researched for future 6G communication networks and nano-drone short-range communication.
However, it is not the standard frequency band used for long-range drone swarm communication with command centers because terahertz waves suffer from severe atmospheric absorption and signal loss over long distances, especially at sea level
Statement 2 is correct: A defining feature of drone swarms is inter-drone communication. Individual drones exchange data with one another to coordinate movement, avoid collisions, share targets, and perform collective operations through decentralized or mesh-network systems.
Statement 3 is correct: GPS spoofing is a commonly used counter-drone technique in which false GPS signals are transmitted to mislead drones about their actual position. Since many drones rely on Global Navigation Satellite Systems (like GPS or GLONASS) for navigation, spoofing can disrupt or divert drone swarm operations.
Source:)
https://www.unmannedsystemstechnology.com/expo/drone-communications/
https://www.dronefederation.in/media-hub/swarm-drone-technology-potential-and-threats
Q.73) Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ?
- It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
- The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
- Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect:The GenomeIndia Project (GIP) was inspired by the Human Genome Project, but it is an entirely separate and independent Indian national initiative.
- The Human Genome Project (1990–2003) was an international effort led mainly by the US and other countries to map the entire human genome.
- The GenomeIndia Project, launched in January 2020, is a separate Indian national project funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. .
Statement 2 is correct: GenomeIndia is a pioneering scientific project funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India. The project marks a landmark collaboration of 20 academic and research institutions to drive a genomics-based health revolution for India.
Statement 3 is correct: The primary objective of GenomeIndia is to build a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations that reflect the unique diversity of the Indian population.
Source:) https://genomeindia.in/
https://genomeindia.in/FQA.php
https://www.genome.gov/human-genome-project
Q.74) Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?
- It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits.
- Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The National Quantum Mission (NQM), approved by the Union Cabinet on 19th April 2023 at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to 2030-31, aims to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT). This will accelerate QT led economic growth, nurture the ecosystem in the country and make India one of the leading nations in the development of Quantum Technologies & Applications (QTA).
Statement 1 is correct: The Mission objectives include developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years in various platforms like superconducting and photonic technology.
Statement 2 is correct: The implementation framework of NQM includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutions across India to strengthen India’s position as a global leader in quantum technology. These hubs focus on key areas: Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices.
Source:) https://dst.gov.in/national-quantum-mission-nqm
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2111953®=3&lang=2
Q.75) Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct ?
- It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
- Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
- Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s Deep Ocean Mission was launched on 7 September 2021 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. MoES is the nodal ministry responsible for its implementation. The mission focusses on sustainably harnessing ocean wealth and strengthening the Blue Economy.
Statement 2 is correct: MATSYA 6000, a self-propelled manned submersible capable of transporting three individuals to depths of up to 6,000 meters beneath the ocean surface is being developed under this project. Equipped with a comprehensive array of scientific instruments and exploration tools, this advanced vehicle will enable extensive deep-sea research.
Statement 3 is correct: India launched the Samudrayaan Project- under the umbrella of Deep Ocean Mission, to work on its first component of deep-sea exploration through a manned submersible. India’s first manned submersible vehicle ‘MATSYA 6000’ is being developed as part of the Samudrayaan Project under Deep Ocean Mission.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=155043&ModuleId=3
https://incois.gov.in/site/deep-ocean.jsp
Q.76) Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?
a) Esprit de corps
b) Equity
c) Accountability
d) Delegation
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: Accountability in public administration means that public officials are answerable for their actions and must ensure that public resources and public welfare are protected. It also includes reporting wrongdoing, maintaining transparency, and taking responsibility in the public interest.
In the given case:
- X discovered that the private service provider was compromising vaccine quality for profit.
- Despite pressure from vested interests, he reported the issue to the vigilance authority.
- He halted the contract to protect citizens during a pandemic.
These actions clearly reflect accountability, because he acted responsibly and ensured that those involved in misconduct were answerable.
Option a is incorrect: Esprit de corps – It refers to the spirit of unity, cooperation, and team harmony among employees in an organization. Henri Fayol considered it essential for maintaining morale and organizational efficiency.
Why it is not correct here: The case is not about promoting teamwork or group unity; rather, it is about taking ethical and responsible action against wrongdoing.
Option b is incorrect:Equity – Equity means fairness, justice, kindness, and impartial treatment in administration. It requires officials to treat people without bias or discrimination while implementing laws and policies.
Why it is not correct here: Although Mr. X acted for public welfare, the central issue is not fairness in treatment but his responsibility in exposing misconduct and ensuring accountability.
Option d is incorrect: Delegation – Delegation refers to transferring authority and responsibility from a superior officer to subordinates for carrying out specific tasks. It improves administrative efficiency and workload distribution.
Why it is not correct here: The situation does not involve assigning duties or transferring authority to others; instead, it focuses on ethical decision-making and reporting irregularities.
Q.77) In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.
As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above :
- A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
- The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
- Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
- Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The case highlights a complex governance challenge involving conflict between developmental needs, environmental management, and protection of tribal cultural rights in a multi-ethnic society. The Government’s decision to establish a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet triggered tensions because the tribal community viewed the land as sacred and integral to their cultural identity, while urban residents and industries supported the project to address growing public health and solid waste concerns.
The situation requires a balanced, participatory, and sensitive administrative approach based on dialogue, transparency, environmental justice, and inclusive conflict resolution.
Statement 1 is correct: A sustainable conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural and emotional concerns of the tribal community. Respect for indigenous identity, sacred land, and traditional rights helps build trust and reduces hostility. Ignoring such concerns can deepen alienation and escalate conflict.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government cannot justify overriding the rights and sentiments of a vulnerable tribal community merely because urban interests are larger in number. Democratic governance requires balancing development with social justice, constitutional protections for tribal communities, environmental ethics, and participatory decision-making. Moving ahead unilaterally may intensify protests and reduce legitimacy of the project.
Statement 3 is correct: A multi-stakeholder dialogue platform involving tribal representatives, environmental experts, municipal authorities, civil society groups, and local industries promotes participatory governance. It encourages communication, reduces mistrust, and creates scope for consensus-based solutions and conflict de-escalation.
Statement 4 is correct: An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) provides objective evidence regarding environmental risks, health implications, cultural impacts, and rehabilitation concerns. Transparent sharing of findings improves accountability, counters misinformation, and supports informed and evidence-based decision-making.
Q.78) Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
- Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
- Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
- Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ms. X should not immediately disclose the information to the public because the allegations against the contractor have not been legally proven. Public disclosure without verification may violate principles of confidentiality, fairness, and natural justice.
Although transparency is important in public administration, a civil servant is also expected to follow proper institutional procedures rather than making sensitive information public prematurely. Therefore, direct disclosure to the public is not the most appropriate ethical course of action at this stage.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Recommending the removal of the contractor solely on the basis of confidential allegations and reports of poor workmanship would also be inappropriate because no wrongdoing has been officially established.
Public procurement decisions must be based on verified evidence, objective criteria, and due process. Excluding a contractor merely on suspicion may violate principles of natural justice and fairness. Ms. X can certainly recommend closer scrutiny or further investigation, but immediate removal from the shortlist without proper verification would be arbitrary and procedurally improper.
Statement 3 is correct: Proposing a limited disclosure to an oversight or vigilance committee is the most balanced and ethical approach. It ensures that the information is examined by competent authorities while maintaining confidentiality until the allegations are properly verified.
This approach protects public interest and administrative integrity without unfairly harming the contractor or damaging the institution’s credibility. It reflects accountability, transparency within the system, and respect for due process, making it the most appropriate action for Ms. X.
Q.79) ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :
- a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
- b) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
- c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
- d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 13 of the Constitution of India deals with laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights. It is an important provision in Part III of the Constitution because it ensures the supremacy of Fundamental Rights over ordinary laws.
Article 13 declares that any law which violates or takes away Fundamental Rights shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency.
Article 13 of the Constitution of India defines the term “law” in a very broad and comprehensive manner. According to Article 13(3)(a), the term includes ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs, and usages having the force of law within the territory of India. The purpose of giving such a wide definition is to ensure that every form of law-making authority or legally enforceable practice remains subject to Fundamental Rights.
In the given passage, X stated that the term “law” includes ordinances, orders, rules, and regulations. This part of his explanation is correct because all these are specifically mentioned under Article 13. However, when Y pointed out that the term “law” also includes “custom or usage having the force of law,” X was not convinced. This means that X did not accept customs and usages as part of the constitutional definition of law.
This makes X’s interpretation legally incorrect and incomplete. The Constitution expressly includes customs and usages within the meaning of law because many social practices and traditional customs may operate as binding rules in society. If such customs violate Fundamental Rights, courts can declare them void under Article 13. For example, discriminatory or oppressive customs can be struck down for violating equality or dignity guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.
Y’s statement is therefore fully correct because it accurately reflects the wording and intent of Article 13. Since X rejected an essential component of the constitutional definition, his overall interpretation cannot be considered correct.
Hence, the correct conclusion is that only Y’s view is correct.
Source:) Constitution of India.
Mastering Indian Polity by FOrum IAS, Chapter: 10 – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS, Page: 105.
Q.80) Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
a) All three statements are correct.
b) There is no correct statement.
c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
d) There is only one correct statement.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393 of the Constitution explicitly provides for the short title. It states: “This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.” Therefore, the Constitution does contain an explicit Article specifying its official name.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does expressly provide for the repeal of earlier constitutional laws. Article 395 states that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act, are repealed.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394 details the commencement of the Constitution. While a few specific articles (like those relating to citizenship, elections, and provisional parliament) came into force immediately on November 26, 1949, Article 394 explicitly states:
“…and the remaining provisions of this Constitution shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution.”
Therefore, the exact date of January 26, 1950, is explicitly mentioned in the text of the Constitution as its date of commencement.
Source:) Constitution of India.
Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS.
Q.81) Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
- The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
- The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains – built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
- The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organization set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The statement is incorrect because the year is wrong. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 was passed by Parliament in 2016, not 2018. The Act came into force on 19 April 2017. It replaced the earlier Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
The Act is indeed a comprehensive rights-based legislation. It:
- Provides 4% reservation in government employment for benchmark disabilities.
- Provides at least 5% reservation in higher educational institutions for persons with benchmark disabilities.
- Imposes legal obligations on governments and establishments to ensure accessibility, equality, non-discrimination, and inclusion.
- Expands the recognised categories of disabilities from 7 to 21.
Statement 2 is correct: Launched on 3 December 2015, the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan or Accessible India Campaign marks a significant step towards building an inclusive and accessible nation. Guided by the vision of “Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas,” the campaign addresses long-standing barriers faced by persons with disabilities.
It focuses on achieving universal accessibility across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology (ICT) — ensuring equal access and participation for all.
Statement 3 is incorrect: National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a not-for-profit Central Public Sector Undertaking promoting entrepreneurship and self-employment among PwDs. However, it functions under the aegis of Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Government of India, not under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. The Corporation is registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 (Corresponding provisions of section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013) on 24.01.1997 as a company not for profit.
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2197426®=3&lang=1
https://www.ndfdc.nic.in/about-ndfdc/our-organisation
Q.82) Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
- Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belongings to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
c) There is only one correct statement.
d) All three statements are correct.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions regarding the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are contained in the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.
Under Article 244:
- Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- Sixth Schedule specifically deals with Tribal Areas in these four northeastern states.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified tribal areas (mainly in the Northeast and Ladakh) are entitled to exemption from income tax on certain incomes earned in those areas.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D of the Constitution (inserted by the 73rd Amendment) provides for:
- Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Panchayats in proportion to their population.
- Not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs/STs must be reserved for women belonging to SCs/STs.
- Additionally, one-third of total seats (including the above) are reserved for women in general.
Source:) Constitution of India.
Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/267150/
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (Article 243 D, 6th schedule)
https://incometaxnortheast.gov.in/about-us/faqs/
Q.83) Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
- Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
a) All the three statements are correct.
b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
c) There is only one correct statement.
d) There is no correct statement.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: An Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary question can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by supplementary questions by members.
Statement 3 is correct: No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question because the answer is given only in written form and no oral discussion follows.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity by FOrum IAS, Chapter: 16 – Legislative Branch, Page: 387.
https://sansad.in/ls/questions/questions
Q.84) Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
- Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- No minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
- Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
a) There are four correct statements.
b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
d) There is no correct statement.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of members from both Houses of Parliament, but the Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The composition of the Committee is:
- 20 members elected by the Lok Sabha
- 10 members elected by the Rajya Sabha
Statement 3 is incorrect:No Minister is eligible to be a member of the Committee.
There is no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment. If any member of the Committee becomes a Minister, he/she ceases to be a member of the Committee.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The term of the Committee is one year, not two years.
Hence, all four statements are incorrect.
Therefore, the Correct Answer is: (d) There is no correct statement.
Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS.
Q.85) Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :
- It aims to enhance India’s air defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
- This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
- One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places od India by an expanded nationwide shield by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1,2 and 2
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 15, 2025, Mission Sudarshan Chakra is designed as a comprehensive, multi-layered air and missile defence initiative. It serves a dual “shield and sword” role by consolidating India’s Air Defence (AD), Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD), and aerial offensive (precise counter-strike) capabilities across land, sea, air, space, and cyberspace into a unified, AI-enabled architecture.
Statement 2 is correct:The mission focuses on creating rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses through an integrated, AI-enabled, multi-layered system. It strongly emphasizes indigenous development (Atmanirbhar Bharat) to reinforce India’s strategic autonomy.
Statement 3 is correct: A statement issued by the government after the Prime Minister’s speech on August 15, 2025, said that all public places will be covered by the expanded nationwide security shield by 2035, ensuring comprehensive protection for the nation and demonstrating India’s commitment to self-reliance in defence.
Source:)
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cds-mission-sudarshan-chakra-how-defend-india-10212896/
https://drdo.gov.in/drdo/sites/default/files/drdo_news/NPC15to18Aug2025.pdf Page: 3.
Q.86) Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries :
- ‘Maitri Setu’ , built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh
- Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge connects India with Myanmar.
- Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) 3 only
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect:Maitri Setu is indeed built over the Feni River. The bridge connects Sabroom in Tripura (India) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, and not Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. The 1.9 km long bridge is constructed over the Feni River, which acts as a boundary between India (in Tripura) and Bangladesh. It was inaugurated to boost trade and people-to-people movement between the two nations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Jhulaghat suspension bridge does not connect India with
Myanmar. It is a hanging bridge over the Kali River (Mahakali River) that connects India (Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand) with Nepal.
The Jhulaghat checkpoint serves as an important Indo-Nepal border crossing point.
Statement 3 is correct: The Mechi Bridge and its approaches connect the India-Nepal
border, linking Panitanki Bypass in India (Darjeeling District, West Bengal) with Kakarvitta (Karkarvitta) in Nepal. The bridge is constructed over the Mechi River.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1703042®=3&lang=2
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170177®=3&lang=2
Q.87) Which is the following statements about a Zero First Information
Report (Zero FIR) Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are Correct?
- A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station .
- The Officer-in-charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 only
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Section 173 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 provides statutory recognition to the concept of Zero FIR, which allows an FIR to be registered at any police station irrespective of the place of occurrence of the offence. The police station receiving such an FIR is required to transfer it to the police station having jurisdiction.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Zero FIR under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 can be registered at any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, but only in cases of cognizable offences.
The statement is incorrect because it includes both “cognizable/non-cognizable offences.”
Non-cognizable offences are not covered under the Zero FIR mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 173(3) of the BNSS introduces a major procedural framework for a “Preliminary Enquiry” before an FIR is officially registered. It states that for offences punishable with imprisonment between 3 and 7 years, the Officer-in-Charge may conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain if a prima facie case exists.
The Authorization: This can be initiated “with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police” (the competent authority mentioned in the statement).
Application to Zero FIR: When a non-jurisdictional police station receives information regarding an offence committed elsewhere, the Officer-in-Charge must assess it under Section 173. If the offence meets the 3-to-7-year threshold, the law permits a preliminary enquiry filter to avoid frivolous registrations before handing it off, provided the DSP-level authorization is granted.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Any person can report a cognizable offence to the police either orally or in writing or by electronic communication, at any police station.
Electronic communication is one option, not an obligation. The informant has the choice to report orally, in writing, or electronically. Making electronic reporting mandatory would go against the very purpose of Zero FIR, which is to make it easier for victims to report crimes.
Source:)
https://bprd.nic.in/uploads/pdf/SOP_on_Zero_FIR%20&%20eFIR%20-%20NCL%202023.pdf (Page 4 and 5)
Q.88) With reference to the organizations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| SI. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Details in row 1 are incorrectly matched: Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB):
The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau functions as the nodal agency for coordination among various intelligence and enforcement agencies dealing with economic offences such as tax evasion, smuggling, money laundering, and foreign exchange violations.
However, the controlling ministry mentioned is wrong. CEIB works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Therefore, the function is correct, but the ministry is incorrect.
Details in row 2 are incorrectly matched:Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
SFIO is a multi-disciplinary statutory body (under the Companies Act, 2013) tasked with detecting, investigating, and recommending prosecution for complex, white-collar corporate frauds.
However, SFIO operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (not the Ministry of Finance).
Details in row 3 are correctly matched: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
The CBI functions under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
The CBI is India’s premier investigating agency and its stated objectives include:
- preserving values in public life,
- combating corruption,
- and ensuring the health of the national economy.
Therefore, both the function and the controlling ministry are correctly matched.
Thus, only one row is correctly matched.
Therefore, the Correct Answer is: (a) 1
Source:) https://ceib.gov.in/
https://sfio.gov.in/en/about-sfio-history/
https://cbi.gov.in/about-us?search=what-we-do
Q.89) Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?
- Employment Policy Convention
- Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
- Internation convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrants Workers and Members of Their Families
- Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
- Convention on Reduction of Statelessness
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 2 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 3,4 and 5
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option 1 incorrect: Employment Policy Convention (ILO Convention No. 122) — Ratified by India
This convention was adopted by the International Labour Organization (ILO) in 1964. It obligates member states to pursue an active policy aimed at promoting:
- full employment,
- productive employment, and
- freely chosen employment.
India ratified this Convention in 1998, thereby accepting the obligation to promote employment-oriented economic policies.
Hence, this convention has been ratified by India.
Option 2 is incorrect: Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO Convention No. 105) — Ratified by India
ILO Convention No. 105 seeks the abolition of all forms of forced or compulsory labour, especially when used:
- as punishment for political views,
- for labour discipline,
- as punishment for participation in strikes, or
- as a means of discrimination.
India ratified this convention in 2000. The ratification complemented constitutional protections under:
- Article 23 of the Constitution, which prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Therefore, this convention has been ratified by India.
Option 3 is correct: International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families — Not Ratified by India
This United Nations Convention was adopted in 1990 to protect the human rights of migrant workers and their families, including:
- protection from exploitation,
- equality before courts,
- labour rights, and
- social security rights.
India has not ratified this convention. One major reason is that India is both:
- a source country for migrant workers abroad, and
- a destination country for migrants from neighbouring countries.
The Government has generally preferred bilateral agreements instead of accepting broad international legal obligations under this convention.
Hence, this convention has not been ratified by India.
Option 4 is incorrect: Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War (Fourth Geneva Convention, 1949) — Ratified by India
The Fourth Geneva Convention protects civilians during armed conflicts and occupations. It prohibits:
- torture,
- collective punishment,
- hostage-taking, and
- attacks on civilians.
India is a party to all four Geneva Conventions of 1949. These conventions form the core of international humanitarian law governing conduct during war.
Therefore, this convention has been ratified/acceded to by India.
Option 5 is correct: Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961) — Not Ratified by India
This UN Convention seeks to reduce cases of statelessness by ensuring that persons are not deprived of nationality arbitrarily and that children are not born stateless.
India has not ratified this convention. India is also not a party to:
- the 1954 Convention relating to the Status of Stateless Persons.
The Government has generally maintained flexibility in citizenship and migration-related matters rather than accepting binding international obligations under these treaties.
Hence, this convention has not been ratified by India.
The correct answer should ideally be: 3 and 5 only.
However, since this combination is not given in the options, the most appropriate answer from the available choices would be: (d) 3, 4 and 5
Source:)
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/40158/1/Unit-7.pdf Page: 34.
https://pmindiaun.gov.in/pageinfo/MzQ5
https://tbinternet.ohchr.org/_layouts/15/TreatyBodyExternal/Treaty.aspx?CountryID=79&Lang=en
https://treaties.un.org/pages/showdetails.aspx?objid=0800000280158b1a
https://seap.nationalityforall.org/region/regional-overview/south-asia/india/
Q.90) Consider the following statements with respect the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :
- The Summit’s Intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.
- The Preamble of the Summit Stresses Democratising AAI Resources, which acknowledges the charter for Democratic Diffusion locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystem while respecting national laws.
- The New Delhi Declaration On AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), Which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1,2 and3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The India–AI Impact Summit 2026 is guided by three foundational pillars, referred to as Sutras, which articulate the core principles guiding global cooperation on AI, they were:
- People: Promoting human-centric AI that safeguards rights, enhances access to services, builds trust, and ensures equitable benefits across societies.
- Planet: Advancing environmentally sustainable AI by encouraging energy-efficient systems, responsible resource use, and applications that support climate action and environmental resilience.
- Progress: Enabling inclusive economic and technological advancement through innovation, capacity building, and the use of AI to drive productivity, growth, and development outcomes.
and not “People, Planning, and Progress.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Declaration explicitly states: “To this effect, we take note of the Charter for the Democratic Diffusion of AI as a voluntary and non-binding framework to promote access to foundational AI resources, support locally relevant innovation, and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.”
Hence, the Charter was not binding , but voluntary.
Statement 3 is correct: The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars) of cooperation. These included themes such as:
- Access for Social Empowerment
- AI for Science
- Secure and Trusted AI
Source:)
https://impact.indiaai.gov.in/about-summit
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2225069®=3&lang=2
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2231208®=3&lang=2
Q.91) Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?
- Kaladan Multi- Model Transit Transport Project
- IMT Trilateral Highway
- Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional intergovernmental organization of 11 member states: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, and Timor-Leste. It promotes economic, political, and socio-cultural cooperation across Southeast Asia.
Option 1 is correct: Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a connectivity project as part of cooperation between India and Myanmar.
The Project aims to provide connectivity between India and Myanmar from Ports on India’s eastern seaport to Myanmar’s Sittwe Port, and further to North East India through Myanmar using sea, river and road transport modes. The project includes a waterway component of 158 km on Kaladan River from Sittwe to Paletwa in Myanmar and a road component of 109 km from Paletwa to Zorinpui on India-Myanmar border in Mizoram.
The waterways component comprising Port and Inland Water Transport (IWT) terminal at Sittwe; IWT terminal and related facilities at Paletwa; navigational channel along Kaladan river from Sittwe to Paletwa; and six self-propelled IWT vessels have been completed. Sittwe Port was inaugurated in May 2023 and has been operationalised. Myanmar is an ASEAN country.
Option 2 is correct: IMT Trilateral Highway is a connectivity project between India, Myanmar and Thailand.
India, Thailand and Myanmar are working on about 1,400-km-long highways that would link the country with Southeast Asia by land and give a boost to trade, business, health, education and tourism ties among the three countries. Both Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN countries.
Option 3 is incorrect: Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is a connectivity project between India and Bangladesh. Bangladesh is not an ASEAN country.
https://www.mea.gov.in/lok-sabha.htm?dtl/36922/QUESTION+NO1411+KALADAN+MULTI+MODAL+TRANSIT+TRANSPORT+PROJECT
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/explained-the-agartala-akhaura-rail-link/article67516621.ece
Q.92) Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
| List I (Project Supported by India) | List II (Country) |
| A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. Maldivas |
| B. Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. Afghanistan |
| C. District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. Bhutan |
| D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. Sri Lanka |
Code:
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 3 2 4 1
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 1 2 4 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option A matches with option 3: Mangdechhu hydroelectric project is a 720 MW run-of-river power plant on the Mangdechhu River in Trongsa Dzongkhag District of central Bhutan. It is developed by Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project Authority (MHPA) constituted jointly by Governments of India and Bhutan.
Option B matches with option 2: Restoration of Stor Palace was done with India’s help in Afghanistan in 2016.
Option C matches with option 4 District Hospital at Dickoya was built with India’s assistance in Srilanka in 2017.
Option D matches with option 1: Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies was built in Maldives with India’s assistance.
Source:) https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-assisted-mangdechhu-hydroelectric-project-in-bhutan-wins-prestigious-award/articleshow/78795784.cms
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=1491214®=3&lang=1
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-maldives-sign-defence-and-security-related-pacts/article61748865.ece
Q.93) Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?
- Su-30 MKT Fighter Jects
- T-90 MKI-III Tanks
- Akula Class Submarine
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 only
d) 2 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct: Aircraft Division Nasik of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, established in the year 1964 for licence manufacture of MiG-21FL aircraft & K-13 Missiles, is located at Ojhar, 24 kilometers from Nasik and approximately 200 kilometers from Mumbai in the state of Maharashtra. The Division since then manufactured MiG variants under the licence production – viz MiG-21M, MiG-21 BIS, MiG-27 M and the state-of-the-art aircraft i.e. Su-30 MKI. Along with manufacturing, the Division also overhauled MiG series aircraft and carries out ROH of Su-30 MKI.
Option 2 is correct: T-90 MK-III Tanks are the Russian origin tanks manufactured in India by the Heavy Vehicles Factory at Avadi in Chennai. It is known as Bhisma Tanks in India.
Option 3 is incorrect: Akula Class Submarine is manufactured in Russia and leased and imported by India.
Source:) https://hal-india.co.in/production-unit-details/aircraft-manufacturing-division-nasik
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/rs-20000-crore-worth-orders-placed-to-get-464-t90s/articleshow/71963553.cms
Q.94) Consider the following statements about platforms of multilateral co-operation:
- The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
- The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian Countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
- The ‘Global Form for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary former whose decisions are no-binding in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect: Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process comprising 12 Member States of Asia (countries of origin of migrant workers) and it provides an important platform for consultations on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour. The Process is non-binding and decision-making is by consensus. The Process is coordinated through Permanent Missions of Member States at the UN in Geneva. India has been a member of Colombo Process since its inception in 2003.
Option 2 correct: Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) is a regional, voluntary and non-binding consultative Process. It consists of the twelve Member States of the Colombo Process (CP) and six Gulf countries of destination: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates, as well as Malaysia. It was established in 2008 as a forum for dialogue and cooperation between Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility, sharing of best experiences and learning from one another’s experience. India has been a member of ADD since 2008. At present, Ministerial Consultations have been held in Abu Dhabi (2008), Manila (2012), Kuwait (2014), Colombo (2017) and Dubai(2019). The bilateral and multilateral cooperation in Abu Dhabi Dialogue is along the four work streams i.e. (a) Comprehensive Information and Orientation Programming (CIOP); (b) Strengthening Joint Country of Origin (COO) and Country of Destination (COD) Government Oversight and Monitoring of Recruitment Practices; (c) Certification and Mutual Recognition of Skills; and (d) The Future of Domestic Work in the Gulf.
Option 3 is correct: Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) was created upon the proposal of then UN Secretary General Kofi Annan in September 2006 at the UN General Assembly High Level Dialogue on International Migration and Development (HLD). It is based on an open discussion format and is voluntary, informal and non-binding in nature. It has membership of states, civil society and businesses and broadly serves as a platform towards generating awareness, sharing experiences and best practices among the participating stakeholders.
Source:) https://www.mea.gov.in/multilateral-co-operation.htm
Q.95) Consider the following UN organization/agencies:
- World Food Programme
- United Nations Children’s Fund
- United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
- International Labour Organisation
How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 was awarded to United Nations World Food Programme (WFP) “for its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.”
Option 2 is incorrect: United Nations Children’s Fund (formerly known as the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund) was awarded the Nobel Prize only once in 1965.
Option 3 is correct: In 75 years, the United Nations, its specialised agencies, funds, programmes, related organizations, and staff were awarded the prestigious Nobel Peace Prize twelve times. One agency, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) received the famous prize in both 1954 and 1981.
Option 4 is incorrect: The International Labour Organization was awarded the Peace Prize once in 1969 since it has done most to promote fraternity among nations by ensuring social justice.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
Source:) https://www.un.org/en/about-us/nobel-peace-prize
Q.96) Match List 1 with 2and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List 1 List 2
(UN Peacekeeping Operation) (Period of Operation)
- UNIMIL 1. 2007 – 2010
- MINURCAT 2. 2002 – 2005
- MINUSTAH 3. 2003 – 2018
- UNMISET 4. 2004 – 2017
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 4 1 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option A matches with option 3: United Nations Mission in Liberia was conducted between September 2003 and March 2018.
Option B matches with option 1: United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad was conducted between September 2007 and December 2010.
Option C matches with option 4: United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti was conducted between June 2004 and October 2017.
Option D matches with option 2: United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor was conducted between May 2002 and May 2005.
Source:) https://peacekeeping.un.org/sites/default/files/unpeacekeeping-operationlist_3_1_0.pdf
Q.97) Match List 1 with List 2 and select the answer using the code given below the List:
| List 1 (BIMSTEC Centre/ Establishment) | List 2 (Location) |
| A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA |
| B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru |
| C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo |
| D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu |
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 4 2 1 3
d) 4 1 2 3
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option A matched with option 4: BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory
- To be established in Thimphu, Bhutan
The First BIMSTEC Ministerial Meeting on Culture was held in Paro, Bhutan on 23-25 May 2006. The Meeting adopted the Paro Initiative that proposed the establishment of BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Commission (BCIC) and the BIMTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (BCIO) in Bhutan.
Option B matches with option 2: BIMSTEC Energy Centre (BEC)
- Bengaluru, India
The First BIMSTEC Energy Ministers Conference held on 04 October 2005 in New Delhi, agreed to the setting up of a BIMSTEC Energy Centre (BEC) to share experience in reforms, restructuring, regulation and best practice in the energy sector.
The First Meeting of the Governing Board of the BIMSTEC Energy Centre was held in Bengaluru, India, on 27 February 2023. The Centre is to be housed in the premises of the Central Power Research Institute in Bengaluru, India, and it will also function as the Secretariat of the BIMSTEC Grid Interconnection Coordination Committee.
Option C matches with option 1: BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate
- Noida, India
The Memorandum of Association (MoA) on the establishment of the BIMSTEC Centre on Weather and Climate (BCWC) was signed on 04 March 2014 during the Third BIMSTEC Summit in Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar, and the Centre is located in the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), Noida, Uttar Pradesh, India.
Option D matches with option 3: BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility
- To be established in Colombo, Sri Lanka
The Memorandum of Association (MoA) on the Establishment of BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility was signed on 30 March 2022 during the Fifth BIMSTEC Summit. Its entry into force is awaited.
Source:) https://bimstec.org/bimstec-cultural-industries-observatory
https://bimstec.org/bimstec-energy-centre
https://bimstec.org/bimstec-centre-for-weather-and-climate
https://bimstec.org/bimstec-technology-transfer-facility
Q.98) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(Indian Army Corps) (Headquarters)
a) 3 Corps : Dimapur
b) 4 Corps : Tezpur
c) 14 Corps : Leh
b) 33 Corps : Srinagar
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a,b and c are correct and option d is incorrect:
(Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)
(a) 3 Corps : Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps : Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps : Leh
(d) 33 Corps: Sukna, Darjeeling (West Bengal) and not in Srinagar.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1853196®=3&lang=2
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2069702®=3&lang=2
https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/rajnath-performs-shastra-puja-at-army-s-33-corps-hq-on-dussehra-124101200205_1.html
Q.99) Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
- The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
- The share of the Central funding for the Revamed RGSA is 100% for all states and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The erstwhile Rashtriya Gram SwarajAbhiyan was implemented for the period of 2018-19 to 2021-22 and subsequently the Scheme has been revamped for implementation during the period FY 2022-23 (1st April 2022) to 2025-26 (31st March 2026) in co-terminus with 15th Finance Commission.
The objectives and key features of Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) are as under:
- Develop the capacity of elected representatives of PRIs for leadership Roles to enable the Gram Panchayats to function effectively as third tier of Government;
- Strengthening Gram Sabhas to function effectively as the basic forum of people’s participation within the Panchayat system.
- Promote e-governance and other technology driven solutions to enable good governance in Panchayat administrative efficiency and improved service delivery with transparency and accountability;
- Promote devolution of powers and responsibilities to Panchayats according to the spirit of the Constitution and PESA Act 1996; etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Revamped scheme of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA), it is envisioned that the Panchayats should be viewed as a strong unit of local self-govenance & growth engines rather than just implementing agency’. Accordingly, they need to be capacitated for leadership and to equip PRIs to develop as drivers of economic growth and nodes of spatial development.
Revamped RGSA Scheme also envisions CB&T with a fresh ‘eco-system’ approach wherein all stakeholders come together to facilitate and support PRIs to attain holistic, inclusive and sustainable development, leveraging emerging technologies to facilitate anytime anywhere self leaming, self certification and to ensure interactive training and capacity building to enable the Panchayats to attain the SGDs.
It is expected that this revised guideline would provide a road map in strengthening the institutional capacity of the Panchayat for good governance and attainment of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopting 9 thematic approaches through participatory local planning, democratic decision-making, transparency and accountability.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme and not a Centre Sector Scheme. Hence the share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is not 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Source:) https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198179®=3&lang=1
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s316026d60ff9b54410b3435b403afd226/uploads/2023/04/2023041112.pdf
Q.100) Which of the following countries are members of the European Union ?
- Belarus
- Poland
- Germany
- Switzerland
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4 only
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Options 1 and 4 are incorrect and options 2 and 3 are correct: The 27 EU Member States
The EU is a political and economic union of Member States that are located in Europe. There are 27 Member States of the EU:
- Austria
- Belgium
- Bulgaria
- Croatia
- Cyprus
- Czech Republic
- Denmark
- Estonia
- Finland
- France
- Germany
- Greece
- Hungary
- Ireland
- Italy
- Latvia
- Lithuania
- Luxembourg
- Malta
- The Netherlands
- Poland
- Portugal
- Romania
- Slovakia
- Slovenia
- Spain
- Sweden
Belarus and Switzerland are not members of the European Union.
Source:) https://european-union.europa.eu/principles-countries-history/eu-countries_en
