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10 PM Quiz: April 5, 2020
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- Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsIndian Air Force (IAF) has conducted “Operation Sanjeevani” to supply essential medicines and hospital consumables to which of the following country?
Correct
An Indian Air Force (IAF) C-130J transport aircraft on Thursday delivered 6.2 tonne of essential medicines and hospital consumables to Maldives under Operation Sanjeevani. These medicines and consumables were procured from eight suppliers in India but couldn’t be transported through any other means due to the 21-day lockdown imposed to contain the spread of COVID-19. “At the request of the government of Maldives, the IAF aircraft activated Operation Sanjeevani and lifted these medicines from airports in New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Madurai before flying to the Maldives,” the statement said adding the Army facilitated the transport of these medicines and consumables from warehouses across India to the respective airports.
Incorrect
An Indian Air Force (IAF) C-130J transport aircraft on Thursday delivered 6.2 tonne of essential medicines and hospital consumables to Maldives under Operation Sanjeevani. These medicines and consumables were procured from eight suppliers in India but couldn’t be transported through any other means due to the 21-day lockdown imposed to contain the spread of COVID-19. “At the request of the government of Maldives, the IAF aircraft activated Operation Sanjeevani and lifted these medicines from airports in New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Madurai before flying to the Maldives,” the statement said adding the Army facilitated the transport of these medicines and consumables from warehouses across India to the respective airports.
- Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to “Geo-fencing”:
- It is used to alert an authorized government agency if a person has jumped quarantine or escaped from isolation.
- Maharashtra is the first state to use the geo-fencing.
Which of the following codes below given is/are correct?
Correct
The government has tested an application that triggers e-mails and SMS alerts to an authorised government agency if a person has jumped quarantine or escaped from isolation, based on the person’s mobile phone’s cell tower location. The “geo-fencing” is accurate by up to 300 m. Kerala was one of the first States to use geo-fencing to track COVID-19 cases. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) shared a standard operating procedure (SOP) with all telecom service providers regarding the application called COVID-19 Quarantine Alert System (CQAS). The system will collate phone data, including the device’s location, on a common secured platform and alert the local agencies in case of a violation by COVID patients under watch or in isolation.
Incorrect
The government has tested an application that triggers e-mails and SMS alerts to an authorised government agency if a person has jumped quarantine or escaped from isolation, based on the person’s mobile phone’s cell tower location. The “geo-fencing” is accurate by up to 300 m. Kerala was one of the first States to use geo-fencing to track COVID-19 cases. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) shared a standard operating procedure (SOP) with all telecom service providers regarding the application called COVID-19 Quarantine Alert System (CQAS). The system will collate phone data, including the device’s location, on a common secured platform and alert the local agencies in case of a violation by COVID patients under watch or in isolation.
- Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsThe Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment Follow-On “(GRACE-FO) mission” was launched by which of the following space agency?
Correct
NASA has released new global maps mapping groundwater, soil wetness using GRACE-FO mission satellites. The Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment Follow-On (GRACE-FO) mission was launched in 2018.It is a successor to the original GRACE mission which orbited Earth from 2002-2017. Objective of the mission is to map Earth’s gravity field every 30 days in order to monitor changes in underground water storage, the amount of water in lakes, soil moisture, ice sheets, glaciers and sea level.
Incorrect
NASA has released new global maps mapping groundwater, soil wetness using GRACE-FO mission satellites. The Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment Follow-On (GRACE-FO) mission was launched in 2018.It is a successor to the original GRACE mission which orbited Earth from 2002-2017. Objective of the mission is to map Earth’s gravity field every 30 days in order to monitor changes in underground water storage, the amount of water in lakes, soil moisture, ice sheets, glaciers and sea level.
- Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Act authorizes State or Centre to access information of a user’s phone data in case of occurrence of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety?
Correct
Section 5(2) of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 authorizes State or Centre to access information of a user’s phone data in case of occurrence of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety.
Incorrect
Section 5(2) of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 authorizes State or Centre to access information of a user’s phone data in case of occurrence of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety.
- Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following public-sector agencies established the Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)?
- NTPC Limited.
- Power Finance Corporation Limited.
- Rural Electrification Corporation Limited.
- Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Choose the correct code from below given options:
Correct
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is a joint venture of four national Public-Sector Undertakings – NTPC Limited, Power Finance Corporation Limited, Rural Electrification Corporation Limited and POWERGRID Corporation of India Limited. As South Asia’s first and foremost energy efficiency leader, EESL leads the market-related activities of the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE), one of the eight national missions under the Prime Minister’s National Action Plan on Climate Change.
Incorrect
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is a joint venture of four national Public-Sector Undertakings – NTPC Limited, Power Finance Corporation Limited, Rural Electrification Corporation Limited and POWERGRID Corporation of India Limited. As South Asia’s first and foremost energy efficiency leader, EESL leads the market-related activities of the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE), one of the eight national missions under the Prime Minister’s National Action Plan on Climate Change.
- Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can be called a part of the fourth branch of the state in India?
Correct
Some institutions; because of their distinctiveness from the executive, legislature and judiciary; tasked with the protection of key constitutional values such as democracy, legality, impartiality, probity, human rights etc are called fourth branch institutions. In India, institutions of the fourth branch include the Election Commission, Lokpal, Central Bureau of Investigation,, National Human Rights Commission, Information Commission, Central Vigilance Commission, Comptroller & Auditor General, Attorney General, Public Service Commission, University Grants Commission, Finance Commission etc.
Incorrect
Some institutions; because of their distinctiveness from the executive, legislature and judiciary; tasked with the protection of key constitutional values such as democracy, legality, impartiality, probity, human rights etc are called fourth branch institutions. In India, institutions of the fourth branch include the Election Commission, Lokpal, Central Bureau of Investigation,, National Human Rights Commission, Information Commission, Central Vigilance Commission, Comptroller & Auditor General, Attorney General, Public Service Commission, University Grants Commission, Finance Commission etc.
- Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the statements is/are correct regarding National Human Rights Commission;
1. The National Human Rights Commission, India is compliant with the UN mandated Paris Principles.
2. NHRC India is a member of Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions.
3. It has powers of a civil court.
4. It has powers to take suo-moto cognizance of human rights violations.
Select the correct answer using the code below;Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Paris Principles were defined at the first International Workshop on National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights held in Paris on 7–9 October 1991. NHRC India complies with these principles.
Statement 2 is correct. The GANHRI Bureau consists of sixteen, ‘A’ status NHRIs, four from each region, namely, Americas, Europe, Africa and the Asia-Pacific. Besides the Annual General Meetings, the NHRC, India has been regularly taking part in its activities as an active Member of the GANHRI.
Statement 3 is correct. It has the powers of a civil court and can grant interim relief.
Statement 4 is correct. It can take suo-moto cognizance of any matter concerning Human Rights violation.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Paris Principles were defined at the first International Workshop on National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights held in Paris on 7–9 October 1991. NHRC India complies with these principles.
Statement 2 is correct. The GANHRI Bureau consists of sixteen, ‘A’ status NHRIs, four from each region, namely, Americas, Europe, Africa and the Asia-Pacific. Besides the Annual General Meetings, the NHRC, India has been regularly taking part in its activities as an active Member of the GANHRI.
Statement 3 is correct. It has the powers of a civil court and can grant interim relief.
Statement 4 is correct. It can take suo-moto cognizance of any matter concerning Human Rights violation.
- Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Epidemic Diseases Act 1897;
- It provides for penalties for violating any notification issued under the act.
- It provides enforceability to Health related advisories of Union government, which otherwise is a state subject.
- COVID-19 outbreak is the first instance since the independence that the act has been invoked.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Section 3 provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the Act. These are according to section 188 of the Indian Penal Code.
Statement 2 is correct. Health is a state subject in the seventh schedule of the constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act has been invoked by states to deal with outbreak of swine flu, malaria diseases in the past.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Section 3 provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the Act. These are according to section 188 of the Indian Penal Code.
Statement 2 is correct. Health is a state subject in the seventh schedule of the constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act has been invoked by states to deal with outbreak of swine flu, malaria diseases in the past.
- Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Section 144 of CrPC;
- No authority below a joint secretary to the government can issue orders under the section.
- Orders can not be directed against individuals.
- Order can not stay beyond 2 months without ratification by the state government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It empowers a district magistrate, a sub-divisional magistrate or any other executive magistrate specially empowered by the state government in this behalf to issue orders to prevent and address urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Orders may be directed against a particular individual, or to persons residing in a particular place or area, or to the public generally.
Statement 3 is correct. No order passed under Section 144 can remain in force for more than two months from the date of the order. The state government can extend this, but not more than six months.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It empowers a district magistrate, a sub-divisional magistrate or any other executive magistrate specially empowered by the state government in this behalf to issue orders to prevent and address urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Orders may be directed against a particular individual, or to persons residing in a particular place or area, or to the public generally.
Statement 3 is correct. No order passed under Section 144 can remain in force for more than two months from the date of the order. The state government can extend this, but not more than six months.
- Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding COVID-19;
- It is the first disease to be declared as “Pandemic” by WHO.
- It is caused by influenza virus.
- India has declared it as “notified disaster.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. WHO declared H1N1 influenza pandemic in 2009.
Statement 2 is incorrect. COVID-19 is caused by SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministry of Home Affairs decided to treat Covid-19 as a “notified disaster”. It will enable the states to spend a larger chunk of funds from the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) to fight the pandemic.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. WHO declared H1N1 influenza pandemic in 2009.
Statement 2 is incorrect. COVID-19 is caused by SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministry of Home Affairs decided to treat Covid-19 as a “notified disaster”. It will enable the states to spend a larger chunk of funds from the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) to fight the pandemic.
- Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding “no confidence motion”;
- It finds mention directly in the Constitution.
- It can be moved only in the Lower House of the Parliament.
- It needs prior recommendation by the President for its introduction.
- The motion needs the majority of the members present and voting for it to be passed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not mentioned in the constitution, though it has its origins in the constitution where the Council of ministers’s responsibility to the lower house is fixed (Article 75(3)).
Statement 2 is correct. CoM needs a majority in the lower house only.
Statement 3 is incorrect. No prior recommendation by the President is needed.
Statement 4 is correct. It needs a simple majority to be passed.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not mentioned in the constitution, though it has its origins in the constitution where the Council of ministers’s responsibility to the lower house is fixed (Article 75(3)).
Statement 2 is correct. CoM needs a majority in the lower house only.
Statement 3 is incorrect. No prior recommendation by the President is needed.
Statement 4 is correct. It needs a simple majority to be passed.
- Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Curative Petition;
- In this, the Supreme Court of India reviews the decisions of the High Courts of the country.
- It is a Constitutional right of petitioner for their Curative Petition to be heard.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the last resort of appeal to SC where the decision of Supreme Court itself is reviewed after rejection of Review Petition. It was evolved in Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002).
Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no mention of curative petition in the constitution. Though SC has power to review its own decision, it is not a right of petitioner. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed before the same Bench.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the last resort of appeal to SC where the decision of Supreme Court itself is reviewed after rejection of Review Petition. It was evolved in Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002).
Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no mention of curative petition in the constitution. Though SC has power to review its own decision, it is not a right of petitioner. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed before the same Bench.
- Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding office of whip;
- It is constitutionally recognised under the Tenth Schedule.
- Violation of whip by a legislator may lead to disqualification from the house.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement 2 is correct. If a legislator violates his party’s whip, he is liable to face expulsion from the House under the Anti Defection Act.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement 2 is correct. If a legislator violates his party’s whip, he is liable to face expulsion from the House under the Anti Defection Act.
- Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding POCSO Act 2012;
- It is a gender neutral law.
- National & State Commissions for the Protection of Child Rights are established by the act.
- A child is defined in the act as one below the age of 16.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. It is gender neutral law, different forms of sexual abuse including but not limited to sexual harassment, pornography, penetrative & non-penetrative assault are defined in the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. To monitor the implementation of the Act, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and State Commissions for the Protection of Child Rights (SCPCRs) have been made the designated authority.
Statement 3 is incorrect. “Children” according to the Act are individuals aged below 18 years.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. It is gender neutral law, different forms of sexual abuse including but not limited to sexual harassment, pornography, penetrative & non-penetrative assault are defined in the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. To monitor the implementation of the Act, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and State Commissions for the Protection of Child Rights (SCPCRs) have been made the designated authority.
Statement 3 is incorrect. “Children” according to the Act are individuals aged below 18 years.
- Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding members nominated to Rajya Sabha;
- A nominated member loses membership of the house on joining a party within 6 months of nomination.
- The nominated members of Rajya Sabha do not vote in election of the President.
- Members are nominated at the discretion of the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. A nominated member is shielded from Anti Defection Law if they choose to join a political party within 6 month of their nomination.
Statement 2 is correct. Only elected members vote in the President’s election but nominated members do vote in impeachment of the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. A nominated member is shielded from Anti Defection Law if they choose to join a political party within 6 month of their nomination.
Statement 2 is correct. Only elected members vote in the President’s election but nominated members do vote in impeachment of the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
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