10 PM Current Affairs Quiz: July 2, 2020

Both statements are correct and both provisions were added by the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019.

The Central Government may, by notification add an organization to the First Schedule or the name of an individual in the Fourth Schedule. The first schedule contains list of terrorist organizations while fourth schedule contains list of terrorists. Further, an application can be made to the Central Government to remove an organization from the First Schedule, or as the case may be, the name of an individual from the Fourth Schedule.

Under the Act, an investigating officer is required to obtain the prior approval of the Director General of Police to seize properties that may be connected with terrorism.  The Amendment act provided that if the investigation is conducted by an officer of the National Investigation Agency (NIA), the approval of the Director General of NIA would be required for seizure of such property.

All are vaccines under development for COVID-19 disease.

Oxford University vaccine: ChAdOx1 nCoV-19 is made from a virus (ChAdOx1), which is a weakened version of a common cold virus (adenovirus) that causes infections in chimpanzees, that has been genetically changed so that it is impossible for it to replicate in humans.

Bharat Biotech India: Covaxin is a vaccine candidate to developed by BBIL against the novel coronavirus (Covid-19) in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research’s National Institute of Virology (NIV).

CanSino Biologics’ COVID-19 vaccine, China: Ad5-nCoV vaccine candidate is a genetically engineered vaccine candidate with the replication-defective adenovirus type 5 as the vector to express SARS-CoV-2 spike protein.

Statement 1 is correct. Section 309 in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for right of speedy trial. Further Supreme Court has held the right to speedy trial as part of right to life and liberty under the article 21 of the constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 20(1) in the Constitution states that ‘no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence’.

Statement 3 is correct. In Selvi and Ors v. State of Karnataka, Supreme Court declared involuntary administration of brain mapping, narco analysis and polygraph test as violative of human rights and the Constitution. The Article 20(3) of the Indian constitution regarding the right against self-incrimination states that ‘no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself’.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 29(1) provides that any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 347 of the Constitution states that on a demand being made in that behalf the President may, if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognized by that State, direct that such language shall also be officially recognized throughout that State or any part thereof for such purpose as he may specify.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 350B provides that there shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President.

It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities in the Constitution and report to the President and the President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to the Governments of the States concerned.

Statement 1 is correct. Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 states that the Central Government shall, by notification appoint an Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, to serve as the national agency for cyber incident response.

Statement 2 is correct. Section 66F of the IT Act provides that whoever with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India or to strike terror in the people or any section of the people by

-denying or cause the denial of access to any person authorized to access computer resource; or

-attempting to penetrate or access a computer resource without authorization or exceeding authorized access; or

-introducing or causing to introduce any computer contaminant

-knowingly or intentionally penetrates or accesses a computer resource without authorization that can cause or likely to cause injury to the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence, or to the advantage of any foreign nation, group of individuals or otherwise, commits the offence of cyber terrorism.

Whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was amended through an amendment Act in the year 1991. Chapter IVA was added to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for establishment of the Central Zoo Authority in India. Accordingly, the Central Zoo Authority was established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change by the Government of India in the year 1992.  The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Minister of Environment, Forests & Climate Change is the chairperson of the CZA.

Global Trade Alert is an initiative of Centre for Economic Policy Research that provides timely information on state interventions that are likely to affect foreign commerce. It includes state interventions affecting trade in goods and services, foreign investment and labour force migration.

The Global Trade Alert (GTA) was launched in June 2009 when it was feared that the global financial crisis would lead governments to adopt widespread restrictions on trade.

As per its recent study, nearly 90 governments blocked the export of medical supplies while 29 restricted food exports during the COVID-19 outbreak.

Both statements are correct.

A surety bond is a three-party agreement that legally binds together a principal who needs the bond, an obligee who requires the bond, and a surety company that sells the bond.

A surety is common in contracts in which one party requires the counterparty to come forward with a guarantor in order to reduce risk, with the guarantor entering into a contract of surety. This is intended to lower risk to the lender. This surety can be in the form of a “surety bond.”

Surety bonds provide financial guarantee that contracts will be completed according to pre-defined and mutual terms. When a principal breaks a bond’s terms, the harmed party can make a claim on the bond to recover losses.

The Deodhani dance is associated with the worship of the snake goddess Manasa. A Deodhani girl, in an inspired state, goes on dancing to the accompaniment of Kham (drum) and Ciphung (flute) propitiating many a deity beginning with Shiva and ending with Lakshmi.

Bihu folk dance of Assam is performed mostly during the annual Bihu festival celebrated around April. Bohag Bihu or Rongali Bihu marks the beginning of the Assamese New Year. It is performed by both men and women. Bihu dance has been an integral part of the culture of various ethnic groups in Assam like the Deoris, Sonowal Kacharis, Moran, Borahis and others.

Satriya Nritya is the classic dance form of Assam which represents the Satriya culture, the core of Satriya Nritya has usually been mythological stories. Satriya has remained a living tradition since its creation by the founder of Vaishnavism in Assam, the great saint Srimanta Sankardeva, in 15th century.

Statement 1 is correct. Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Ltd. (IRCTC) is a “Mini Ratna (Category-I)” Central Public Sector Enterprise under Ministry of Railways, Government of India.

IRCTC was incorporated as an extended arm of the Indian Railways to upgrade, professionalize and manage the catering and hospitality services at stations, on trains and other locations and to promote domestic and international tourism through development of budget hotels, special tour packages, information & commercial publicity and global reservation systems.

Statement 2 is correct. The Lucknow-Delhi Tejas Express was the first corporate passenger train run by the IRCTC. Indian Railways has decided to launch third corporate passenger train Kashi Mahakal Express on Varanasi-Indore Route after the successful run of the Tejas Express trains operating on the Lucknow-Delhi and Ahmedabad-Mumbai routes.

For further private participation Ministry of Railways has invited Request for Qualifications (RFQ) for private participation for operation of passenger train services over 109 Origin Destination (OD) pairs of routes through introduction of 151 modern Trains (Rakes).