Pre-cum-Mains GS Foundation Program for UPSC 2026 | Starting from 5th Dec. 2024 Click Here for more information
Good Evening Friends,
We are posting today’s 10pm Current Affairs Quiz
About 10pm Quiz - In this initiative, we post 10 MCQs daily. Questions are based on Current affairs. We at ForumIAS believe that practicing quality questions on a daily basis can boost students’ prelims preparation.
For archives click HERE →
10 PM Quiz: July 22, 2020
Test-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Click on ‘Start Test’ button to start the Quiz.
All the Best!
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the N-95 respirators:
- It reduces exposure only to non-oil aerosols.
- It filters out at least 95% of airborne particles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
An N95 respirator is a respiratory protective device designed to achieve a very close facial fit and very efficient filtration of airborne particles.
Statement 1 is correct. N-95 respirator reduces wearer’s exposure to particles including small particle aerosols and large droplets (only non-oil aerosols). ‘N’ is a Respirator Rating Letter Class, it stands for “Non-Oil” meaning that it can be used if no oil-based particulates are present. Other masks ratings are R (resistant to oil for 8 hours) and P (oil proof).
Statement 2 is correct. N-95 code means that the respirator has 95 percent efficiency in filtering out airborne particles including large and small particles.
Incorrect
An N95 respirator is a respiratory protective device designed to achieve a very close facial fit and very efficient filtration of airborne particles.
Statement 1 is correct. N-95 respirator reduces wearer’s exposure to particles including small particle aerosols and large droplets (only non-oil aerosols). ‘N’ is a Respirator Rating Letter Class, it stands for “Non-Oil” meaning that it can be used if no oil-based particulates are present. Other masks ratings are R (resistant to oil for 8 hours) and P (oil proof).
Statement 2 is correct. N-95 code means that the respirator has 95 percent efficiency in filtering out airborne particles including large and small particles.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following location(s) is/are correctly matched?
- Pasamlung – Uttarakhand
- Kongka Pass – Bhutan
- Sakteng – Nepal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
None of the above locations are correctly matched.
The disputed areas claimed by China in Bhutan are: North West part constitutes the Doklam, Sinchulung, Dramana and Shakhatoe in Samste, Haa and Paro districts. Central parts constitute the Pasamlung and the Jakarlung valley in the Wangdue Phodrang district.
The Kongka Pass is a high mountain pass in Ladakh UT, of the Chang-Chemno Range on the Line of Actual Control between India and China.
Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) is in eastern Bhutan’s Trashigang district bordering India and China. Recently China objected to a grant by Global Environment Facility to SWS claiming that the location was disputed.
Incorrect
None of the above locations are correctly matched.
The disputed areas claimed by China in Bhutan are: North West part constitutes the Doklam, Sinchulung, Dramana and Shakhatoe in Samste, Haa and Paro districts. Central parts constitute the Pasamlung and the Jakarlung valley in the Wangdue Phodrang district.
The Kongka Pass is a high mountain pass in Ladakh UT, of the Chang-Chemno Range on the Line of Actual Control between India and China.
Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) is in eastern Bhutan’s Trashigang district bordering India and China. Recently China objected to a grant by Global Environment Facility to SWS claiming that the location was disputed.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Psoriasis:
- It is an autoimmune disease.
- Psoriasis is not contagious and does not spread from contact with a diseased person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Psoriasis causes patches of thick red skin and silvery scales. Patches are typically found on the elbows, knees, scalp, lower back, face, palms, and soles of feet, but can affect other places (fingernails, toenails, and mouth). The most common type of psoriasis is called plaque psoriasis.
Statement 1 is correct. Psoriasis is an autoimmune disease, meaning that part of the body’s own immune system becomes overactive and attacks normal tissues in the body. It causes the skin to regenerate at faster than normal rates. In plaque psoriasis, this rapid turnover of cells results in scales and red patches.
Statement 2 is correct. Psoriasis is not contagious, meaning that one cannot get psoriasis from contact (e.g., touching skin patches) with someone who has it.
Incorrect
Psoriasis causes patches of thick red skin and silvery scales. Patches are typically found on the elbows, knees, scalp, lower back, face, palms, and soles of feet, but can affect other places (fingernails, toenails, and mouth). The most common type of psoriasis is called plaque psoriasis.
Statement 1 is correct. Psoriasis is an autoimmune disease, meaning that part of the body’s own immune system becomes overactive and attacks normal tissues in the body. It causes the skin to regenerate at faster than normal rates. In plaque psoriasis, this rapid turnover of cells results in scales and red patches.
Statement 2 is correct. Psoriasis is not contagious, meaning that one cannot get psoriasis from contact (e.g., touching skin patches) with someone who has it.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the RAISE initiative:
- It is a joint collaboration between India and European Union.
- The program focuses on improving indoor air quality, thermal comfort and energy efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. “Retrofit of Air-conditioning to improve Indoor Air Quality for Safety and Efficiency” (RAISE) has been launched recently. It is a joint initiative of Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) and United States Agency for International Development (USAID).
Statement 2 is correct. RAISE initiative has been envisaged for healthy and energy efficient buildings, in partnership with USAID’s Market Integration and Transformation Program for Energy Efficiency (MAITREE) program. It focuses on improving indoor air quality (IAQ), thermal comfort, and energy efficiency (EE) in indoor systems.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. “Retrofit of Air-conditioning to improve Indoor Air Quality for Safety and Efficiency” (RAISE) has been launched recently. It is a joint initiative of Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) and United States Agency for International Development (USAID).
Statement 2 is correct. RAISE initiative has been envisaged for healthy and energy efficient buildings, in partnership with USAID’s Market Integration and Transformation Program for Energy Efficiency (MAITREE) program. It focuses on improving indoor air quality (IAQ), thermal comfort, and energy efficiency (EE) in indoor systems.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
- NFRA has been established under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It monitors and enforces compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards by companies.
- The NFRA is mandated to protect the public interest and the interests of investors, creditors associated with the companies.
Which h of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) was constituted in 2018 by the Government of India under Sub Section (1) of section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Statement 2 is correct. The duties of the NFRA are to:
-Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government.
-Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards;
-Oversee the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggest measures for improvement in the quality of service;
Statement 3 is correct. The Authority is mandated by NFRA Rules, 2018 to protect the public interest and the interests of investors, creditors and others associated with the companies by establishing high quality standards of accounting and auditing and exercising effective oversight of accounting functions.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) was constituted in 2018 by the Government of India under Sub Section (1) of section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Statement 2 is correct. The duties of the NFRA are to:
-Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government.
-Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards;
-Oversee the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggest measures for improvement in the quality of service;
Statement 3 is correct. The Authority is mandated by NFRA Rules, 2018 to protect the public interest and the interests of investors, creditors and others associated with the companies by establishing high quality standards of accounting and auditing and exercising effective oversight of accounting functions.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (the Global Fund):
- It is an international financing institution working as a non-profit foundation under the laws of Switzerland.
- The Global Fund is administered by the World Health Organization (WHO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (the “Global Fund”) is a multi-stakeholder international financing institution duly formed as a non-profit foundation under the laws of Switzerland.
The purpose of the Global Fund is to attract, leverage and invest additional resources to end the epidemics of HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria to support attainment of the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
The Global Fund was founded in 2002 in Geneva as a partnership between governments, civil society, the private sector and people affected by these diseases.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 2009, the Global Fund became an administratively autonomous international financing institution, separating from the World Health Organization (WHO) which provided a range of administrative and financial services to the Global Fund since 2002.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (the “Global Fund”) is a multi-stakeholder international financing institution duly formed as a non-profit foundation under the laws of Switzerland.
The purpose of the Global Fund is to attract, leverage and invest additional resources to end the epidemics of HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria to support attainment of the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
The Global Fund was founded in 2002 in Geneva as a partnership between governments, civil society, the private sector and people affected by these diseases.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 2009, the Global Fund became an administratively autonomous international financing institution, separating from the World Health Organization (WHO) which provided a range of administrative and financial services to the Global Fund since 2002.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are consumer right(s) granted by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- Right to be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.
- Right to seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.
- Right to be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above consumer rights are explicitly provided for by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
The “consumer rights” under the act includes:
-the right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services which are hazardous to life and property;
-the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services, as the case may be, so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices;
-the right to be assured, wherever possible, access to a variety of goods, products or services at competitive prices;
-the right to be heard and to be assured that consumer’s interests will receive due consideration at appropriate fora;
-the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers; and
-the right to consumer awareness;
Incorrect
All of the above consumer rights are explicitly provided for by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
The “consumer rights” under the act includes:
-the right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services which are hazardous to life and property;
-the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services, as the case may be, so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices;
-the right to be assured, wherever possible, access to a variety of goods, products or services at competitive prices;
-the right to be heard and to be assured that consumer’s interests will receive due consideration at appropriate fora;
-the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers; and
-the right to consumer awareness;
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Mega Food Park Scheme:
- The scheme provides for capital grant of 50 percent of the eligible project cost in general areas and 75 percent in difficult and hilly areas.
- Mega Food Park project is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body Corporate registered under the Companies Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Mega Food Park Scheme aims to facilitate the establishment of a strong food processing industry backed by an efficient supply chain, which includes Collection Centres (CCs), Primary Processing Centers (PPCs), Central Processing Center (CPC) and Cold Chain infrastructure.
It is based on cluster approach and envisages creation of state of art support infrastructure in a well-defined agri/horticultural zone.
Statement 1 is correct. The scheme provides for capital grant at the rate of 50 percent of the eligible project cost in general areas and at the rate of 75 percent of eligible project cost in difficult and hilly areas i.e. North East Region including Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and ITDP notified areas of the States subject to a maximum of Rs. 50 crore per project.
Statement 2 is correct. The Mega Food Park project is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body Corporate registered under the Companies Act.
State Government, State Government entities and Cooperatives are not required to form a separate SPV for implementation of Mega Food Park project.
Incorrect
The Mega Food Park Scheme aims to facilitate the establishment of a strong food processing industry backed by an efficient supply chain, which includes Collection Centres (CCs), Primary Processing Centers (PPCs), Central Processing Center (CPC) and Cold Chain infrastructure.
It is based on cluster approach and envisages creation of state of art support infrastructure in a well-defined agri/horticultural zone.
Statement 1 is correct. The scheme provides for capital grant at the rate of 50 percent of the eligible project cost in general areas and at the rate of 75 percent of eligible project cost in difficult and hilly areas i.e. North East Region including Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and ITDP notified areas of the States subject to a maximum of Rs. 50 crore per project.
Statement 2 is correct. The Mega Food Park project is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body Corporate registered under the Companies Act.
State Government, State Government entities and Cooperatives are not required to form a separate SPV for implementation of Mega Food Park project.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Adenoviruses:
- It can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, and sore throat in humans.
- It is highly contagious and spreads through the air by coughing.
- The adenovirus infects only children below the age of 15.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).
Statement 2 is correct. Adenovirus is highly contagious; it usually spreads from an infected person to others through close personal contact, such as touching, the air by coughing and sneezing.
Statement 3 is incorrect. One can get an adenovirus infection at any age. People with weakened immune systems or existing respiratory or cardiac disease are more likely than others to get very sick from an adenovirus infection.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).
Statement 2 is correct. Adenovirus is highly contagious; it usually spreads from an infected person to others through close personal contact, such as touching, the air by coughing and sneezing.
Statement 3 is incorrect. One can get an adenovirus infection at any age. People with weakened immune systems or existing respiratory or cardiac disease are more likely than others to get very sick from an adenovirus infection.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Governor of States in India:
- He/she holds office during the pleasure of the President and the Constitution does not provide a fixed term for them.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to their office are charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Under article 156, Constitution provides for the term of office of Governor as:
-The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
-The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
-Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The constitution under article 202(3) provides that the emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to his/her office are charged upon Consolidated Fund of respective State.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Under article 156, Constitution provides for the term of office of Governor as:
-The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
-The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
-Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The constitution under article 202(3) provides that the emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to his/her office are charged upon Consolidated Fund of respective State.
Discover more from Free UPSC IAS Preparation For Aspirants
Subscribe to get the latest posts sent to your email.