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10 PM Quiz: July 9, 2020
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Income Gini Index:
- It is a measure of income inequality in a region/country.
- A higher Gini index indicates lower inequality in distribution of income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Gini index or Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution developed by the Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912.
Income Gini coefficient is a measure of the deviation of the distribution of income among individuals or households within a country from a perfectly equal distribution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Gini index or Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution developed by the Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912.
Income Gini coefficient is a measure of the deviation of the distribution of income among individuals or households within a country from a perfectly equal distribution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Labour force participation rate (LFPR) is defined as the number of persons in the labour force per 1000 persons.
- Persons who are either working or seeking or available for work together constitute the labour force.
- Unemployment rate (UR) is defined as the number of persons unemployed per 1000 persons in the labour force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
All statements are correct.
Persons who are either working (or employed) or seeking or available for work (or unemployed) during the reference period together constitute the labour force.
–Labour force participation rate (LFPR) is defined as the number of persons in the labour force per 1000 persons.
–Worker-population ratio (WPR) is defined as the number of persons employed per 1000 persons.
–Unemployment rate (UR) is defined as the number of persons unemployed per 1000 persons in the labour force (employed & unemployed).
Incorrect
All statements are correct.
Persons who are either working (or employed) or seeking or available for work (or unemployed) during the reference period together constitute the labour force.
–Labour force participation rate (LFPR) is defined as the number of persons in the labour force per 1000 persons.
–Worker-population ratio (WPR) is defined as the number of persons employed per 1000 persons.
–Unemployment rate (UR) is defined as the number of persons unemployed per 1000 persons in the labour force (employed & unemployed).
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsTigers are found in which of the following conservation zone(s) in India?
- Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
- Panna National Park
- Bandhavgarh National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above conservation zones are part of Tiger range in India.
Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia Districts of Assam. Bengal Tiger, Elephants, hoolock gibbon, slow loris, Assamese macaque etc. are found in the region.
Panna National Park is located in Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) approved a proposal to translocate two tigers and two tigresses to the reserve which sustained the decreasing Tiger population in this reserve.
Bandhavgarh National Park is located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh. It is a Tiger reserve and the density of the tiger population at Bandhavgarh is one of the highest known in India.
Incorrect
All of the above conservation zones are part of Tiger range in India.
Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia Districts of Assam. Bengal Tiger, Elephants, hoolock gibbon, slow loris, Assamese macaque etc. are found in the region.
Panna National Park is located in Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) approved a proposal to translocate two tigers and two tigresses to the reserve which sustained the decreasing Tiger population in this reserve.
Bandhavgarh National Park is located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh. It is a Tiger reserve and the density of the tiger population at Bandhavgarh is one of the highest known in India.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP) allows government to enter into open sky air services agreement on reciprocal basis with SAARC nations.
- India is signatory to the Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
An open sky agreement is an agreement between two nations which generally permits unrestricted air travel between them.
Statement 1 is correct. The National Civil Aviation Policy (NACP) 2016 states that the government will enter into an ‘Open sky’ Air Service Agreements (ASA) on a reciprocal basis with SAARC countries and countries with territory located entirely beyond a 5000 km radius from New Delhi.
Statement 2 is correct. The Chicago Convention established the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the UN charged with coordinating international air travel. India signed the Convention in 1944 and ratified it in 1947.
Incorrect
An open sky agreement is an agreement between two nations which generally permits unrestricted air travel between them.
Statement 1 is correct. The National Civil Aviation Policy (NACP) 2016 states that the government will enter into an ‘Open sky’ Air Service Agreements (ASA) on a reciprocal basis with SAARC countries and countries with territory located entirely beyond a 5000 km radius from New Delhi.
Statement 2 is correct. The Chicago Convention established the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the UN charged with coordinating international air travel. India signed the Convention in 1944 and ratified it in 1947.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘Social Contract’ in political system?
Correct
The social contract is the agreement by which individuals mutually transfer their natural right. It is an agreement between the ruled and their rulers, defining their rights and duties. The aim of a social contract theory is to show that members of some society have reason to endorse and comply with the fundamental social rules, laws, institutions, and/or principles of that society.
According to this theory, individuals were born into an anarchic state of nature in primeval times, which was happy or unhappy according to the particular version. They then, by exercising natural reason, formed a society (and a government) by means of a contract among themselves.
Major philosophers of this theory are the Englishmen Thomas Hobbes and John Locke and the Frenchman Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
Incorrect
The social contract is the agreement by which individuals mutually transfer their natural right. It is an agreement between the ruled and their rulers, defining their rights and duties. The aim of a social contract theory is to show that members of some society have reason to endorse and comply with the fundamental social rules, laws, institutions, and/or principles of that society.
According to this theory, individuals were born into an anarchic state of nature in primeval times, which was happy or unhappy according to the particular version. They then, by exercising natural reason, formed a society (and a government) by means of a contract among themselves.
Major philosophers of this theory are the Englishmen Thomas Hobbes and John Locke and the Frenchman Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following mission(s) of Indian Navy is/are correctly matched to the respective crisis?
- Operation Raahat – Lebanon War
- Operation Sukoon – Yemen crisis
- Operation Samudra Setu – COVID-19 pandemic
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Operation Raahat was an operation of the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Yemen during the 2015 military intervention by Saudi Arabia and its allies
Operation Sukoon was an operation launched by the Indian Navy to evacuate Indian, Sri Lankan and Nepalese nationals from the conflict zone during the 2006 Lebanon War.
Indian Navy launched Operation Samudra Setu as a part of national effort to repatriate Indian citizens from overseas during COVID-19 pandemic. Landing Platform Dock INS Jalashwa and Landing Ship Tanks INS Airavat, Shardul and Magar participated in this operation
Incorrect
Operation Raahat was an operation of the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Yemen during the 2015 military intervention by Saudi Arabia and its allies
Operation Sukoon was an operation launched by the Indian Navy to evacuate Indian, Sri Lankan and Nepalese nationals from the conflict zone during the 2006 Lebanon War.
Indian Navy launched Operation Samudra Setu as a part of national effort to repatriate Indian citizens from overseas during COVID-19 pandemic. Landing Platform Dock INS Jalashwa and Landing Ship Tanks INS Airavat, Shardul and Magar participated in this operation
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lithium:
- Lithium generally gets depleted in a star by process of burning.
- Sun has lower amount of Lithium than Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Lithium was produced in the Big Bang, around 13.7 billion years ago along with other elements. The present abundance of lithium in the universe is four times the original [Big Bang] value.
Statement 1 is correct. Lithium burning is a nucleosynthetic process in which lithium is depleted in a star. Nucleosynthesis is the process that creates new atomic nuclei from pre-existing nucleons (protons and neutrons) and nuclei.
Statement 2 is correct. The vast majority of stars with mass similar to that of the Sun are expected to destroy lithium (Li) gradually over the course of their lives, via low-temperature nuclear burning.
Planets are known to have more lithium than their stars, as is the case with the Earth-Sun pair. The Sun, has about a factor of 100 lower amount of lithium than the Earth.
A new study by Bharat Kumar, a post-doctoral fellow at the National Astronomical Observatories of China, Beijing, and an international team of co-workers have shown that when stars grow beyond their Red Giant stage into the Red Clump stage, they produce lithium in what is known as a Helium Flash and this is what enriches them with lithium.
Incorrect
Lithium was produced in the Big Bang, around 13.7 billion years ago along with other elements. The present abundance of lithium in the universe is four times the original [Big Bang] value.
Statement 1 is correct. Lithium burning is a nucleosynthetic process in which lithium is depleted in a star. Nucleosynthesis is the process that creates new atomic nuclei from pre-existing nucleons (protons and neutrons) and nuclei.
Statement 2 is correct. The vast majority of stars with mass similar to that of the Sun are expected to destroy lithium (Li) gradually over the course of their lives, via low-temperature nuclear burning.
Planets are known to have more lithium than their stars, as is the case with the Earth-Sun pair. The Sun, has about a factor of 100 lower amount of lithium than the Earth.
A new study by Bharat Kumar, a post-doctoral fellow at the National Astronomical Observatories of China, Beijing, and an international team of co-workers have shown that when stars grow beyond their Red Giant stage into the Red Clump stage, they produce lithium in what is known as a Helium Flash and this is what enriches them with lithium.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Global value chains (GVCs):
- It is international production sharing concept where production is broken into activities and tasks carried out in different countries.
- Outsourcing by trans-national companies is a major phenomenon of GVCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Global value chains (GVCs) refer to international production sharing, a phenomenon where production is broken into activities and tasks carried out in different countries.
The full range of activities (design, production, marketing, distribution, support to the final consumer etc.) is divided among multiple firms and workers across geographic spaces to bring a product from its conception to its end use and beyond.
Statement 2 is correct. The development of GVCs has largely been driven by transnational corporations (TNCs), which continuously restructure their businesses and reorganize/ relocate their operations for reasons of competition. The major factor being the offshoring of labor-intensive stages of production from industrialized economies to low wage, labor abundant developing countries.
Outsourcing refers to the procurement of material inputs or services by a firm from another, the outside supplier being located in another country.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Global value chains (GVCs) refer to international production sharing, a phenomenon where production is broken into activities and tasks carried out in different countries.
The full range of activities (design, production, marketing, distribution, support to the final consumer etc.) is divided among multiple firms and workers across geographic spaces to bring a product from its conception to its end use and beyond.
Statement 2 is correct. The development of GVCs has largely been driven by transnational corporations (TNCs), which continuously restructure their businesses and reorganize/ relocate their operations for reasons of competition. The major factor being the offshoring of labor-intensive stages of production from industrialized economies to low wage, labor abundant developing countries.
Outsourcing refers to the procurement of material inputs or services by a firm from another, the outside supplier being located in another country.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice (ICJ):
- Only States can apply to and appear before the ICJ in the contentious cases.
- Judges of the ICJ are nominated by the UN Security Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The ICJ’s jurisdiction is twofold: disputes of a legal nature that are submitted to it by States (contentious cases); and advisory opinions on legal questions at the request of the organs of the United Nations, specialized agencies or one related organization authorized to make such a request, i.e. IAEA (advisory jurisdiction).
Statement 1 is correct. In the exercise of its jurisdiction in contentious cases, the International Court of Justice settles disputes of a legal nature that are submitted to it by States in accordance with international law.
Only States may apply to and appear before the International Court of Justice. International organizations, other authorities and private individuals are not entitled to institute proceedings before the Court.
The Court can only deal with a dispute when the States concerned have recognized its jurisdiction. No State can therefore be a party to proceedings before the Court unless it has in some manner or other consented thereto.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
In order to ensure a degree of continuity, one third of the Court is elected every three years. All States parties to the Statute of the Court have the right to propose candidates.
Incorrect
The ICJ’s jurisdiction is twofold: disputes of a legal nature that are submitted to it by States (contentious cases); and advisory opinions on legal questions at the request of the organs of the United Nations, specialized agencies or one related organization authorized to make such a request, i.e. IAEA (advisory jurisdiction).
Statement 1 is correct. In the exercise of its jurisdiction in contentious cases, the International Court of Justice settles disputes of a legal nature that are submitted to it by States in accordance with international law.
Only States may apply to and appear before the International Court of Justice. International organizations, other authorities and private individuals are not entitled to institute proceedings before the Court.
The Court can only deal with a dispute when the States concerned have recognized its jurisdiction. No State can therefore be a party to proceedings before the Court unless it has in some manner or other consented thereto.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
In order to ensure a degree of continuity, one third of the Court is elected every three years. All States parties to the Statute of the Court have the right to propose candidates.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Climate Solver program’ is an initiative of which of the following organization?
Correct
Climate Solver is a World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) global initiative to strengthen the development and widespread use of innovative low carbon technologies. The platform provides an interface between low carbon technology innovators and industry associations, investors, government, incubation centers and the media.
Climate Solvers are small and medium enterprises that are selected based on their potential to develop cutting edge technologies that are projected to lower carbon emissions by 20 million tonnes annually (ten years onwards) or provide sustainable solutions to enhance energy access.
WWF India (World Wide Fund for Nature) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) have released a report titled “Sustainable Space Heating Solutions in the Himalayan Region”. This report is part of an ongoing initiative of WWF-India’s ‘Climate Solver’ program.
Incorrect
Climate Solver is a World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) global initiative to strengthen the development and widespread use of innovative low carbon technologies. The platform provides an interface between low carbon technology innovators and industry associations, investors, government, incubation centers and the media.
Climate Solvers are small and medium enterprises that are selected based on their potential to develop cutting edge technologies that are projected to lower carbon emissions by 20 million tonnes annually (ten years onwards) or provide sustainable solutions to enhance energy access.
WWF India (World Wide Fund for Nature) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) have released a report titled “Sustainable Space Heating Solutions in the Himalayan Region”. This report is part of an ongoing initiative of WWF-India’s ‘Climate Solver’ program.
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