Interview Guidance Program (IGP) for UPSC CSE 2024, Registrations Open Click Here to know more and registration
Good Evening Friends,
We are posting today’s 10pm Current Affairs Quiz
About 10pm Quiz - In this initiative, we post 10 MCQs daily. Questions are based on Current affairs. We at ForumIAS believe that practicing quality questions on a daily basis can boost students’ prelims preparation.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 scores, (0)
Categories
current affairs0%
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Answered
Review
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
1. Consider the following statements regarding the CRISPR technology: 1. It is used to alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. 2. The technology has been adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technology is a tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (CRISPR-associated-9) is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. Statement 2 is correct. CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms). These organisms use CRISPR-derived RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader. When these components are transferred into other, more complex, organisms, it allows for the manipulation of genes, or “editing.”
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technology is a tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (CRISPR-associated-9) is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. Statement 2 is correct. CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms). These organisms use CRISPR-derived RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader. When these components are transferred into other, more complex, organisms, it allows for the manipulation of genes, or “editing.”
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Global Network of Advanced Manufacturing Hubs (AMHUBs) is a project of which of the following organisation?
Correct
The Advanced Manufacturing HUB or AMHUB is one of the 19 platforms designed by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This platform focuses on engaging entire regional production ecosystems to identify and address regional opportunities and challenges brought by the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) by amplifying regional success stories, sharing best practices & incubating new partnerships The Global Network of AMHUBs uses the Forum’s platform to aggregate and accelerate regional efforts to adapt to the future of advanced manufacturing and production and highlight key regional case examples on the global stage, while creating a feedback loop wherein best practices from around the world are conveyed to the regional level to further amplify the impact potential of this network. # Guidance, nodal investment promotion and facilitation agency of the state of Tamil Nadu has partnered with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish India’s first advanced manufacturing hub (AMHUB) in Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
The Advanced Manufacturing HUB or AMHUB is one of the 19 platforms designed by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This platform focuses on engaging entire regional production ecosystems to identify and address regional opportunities and challenges brought by the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) by amplifying regional success stories, sharing best practices & incubating new partnerships The Global Network of AMHUBs uses the Forum’s platform to aggregate and accelerate regional efforts to adapt to the future of advanced manufacturing and production and highlight key regional case examples on the global stage, while creating a feedback loop wherein best practices from around the world are conveyed to the regional level to further amplify the impact potential of this network. # Guidance, nodal investment promotion and facilitation agency of the state of Tamil Nadu has partnered with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish India’s first advanced manufacturing hub (AMHUB) in Tamil Nadu.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: 1. CAG has the authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State. 2. The Governor of a State can request the CAG to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law of state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him. Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State. # Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him. Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State. # Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) relates to which of the following issue?
Correct
In pursuant to the Supreme Court’s order dated December 02, 2016 in the matter of M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India regarding air quality in National Capital Region of Delhi, a Graded Response Action Plan was prepared and notified for implementation under different Air Quality Index (AQI) categories namely, Moderate & Poor, Very Poor, and Severe as per National Air Quality Index. Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change had notified for implementation of Graded Response Action Plan through Environment Pollution (Prevention & Control) Authority in 2017. # The Environment Pollution (Prevention & Control) Authority (EPCA) has directed Delhi and neighboring States to implement air pollution control measures under “very poor” and “severe” category air quality of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) from October 15, including a ban on the use of diesel generators, except for emergency activities.
Incorrect
In pursuant to the Supreme Court’s order dated December 02, 2016 in the matter of M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India regarding air quality in National Capital Region of Delhi, a Graded Response Action Plan was prepared and notified for implementation under different Air Quality Index (AQI) categories namely, Moderate & Poor, Very Poor, and Severe as per National Air Quality Index. Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change had notified for implementation of Graded Response Action Plan through Environment Pollution (Prevention & Control) Authority in 2017. # The Environment Pollution (Prevention & Control) Authority (EPCA) has directed Delhi and neighboring States to implement air pollution control measures under “very poor” and “severe” category air quality of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) from October 15, including a ban on the use of diesel generators, except for emergency activities.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Television Rating Points (TRP): 1. It represents the traffic of viewers a television channel or program receives. 2. Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) is a statutory body measuring TRPs in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Television Rating Points (TRPs) represent how many people, from diverse socio-economic categories, watched which channels for how much time during a particular period of hours/days/week/months. Television ratings in turn influence programmes produced for the viewers. Better ratings would promote a programme while poor ratings will discourage a programme. It also has commercial impact as program/channel with higher ratings is able to attract more and profitable advertisements. Statement 2 is incorrect. Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) India is a Joint Industry Company founded by stakeholder bodies that represent Broadcasters, Advertisers, and Advertising and Media Agencies. The I&B Ministry notified the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies in India in January 2014 and registered BARC in July 2015 under these guidelines, to carry out television ratings in India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Television Rating Points (TRPs) represent how many people, from diverse socio-economic categories, watched which channels for how much time during a particular period of hours/days/week/months. Television ratings in turn influence programmes produced for the viewers. Better ratings would promote a programme while poor ratings will discourage a programme. It also has commercial impact as program/channel with higher ratings is able to attract more and profitable advertisements. Statement 2 is incorrect. Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) India is a Joint Industry Company founded by stakeholder bodies that represent Broadcasters, Advertisers, and Advertising and Media Agencies. The I&B Ministry notified the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies in India in January 2014 and registered BARC in July 2015 under these guidelines, to carry out television ratings in India.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
. Which of the following institution has published the Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020 report?
Correct
The Poverty and Shared Prosperity biennial series published by the World Bank provides a global audience with the latest and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity. Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020: Reversals of Fortune report presents new estimates of COVID-19’s impacts on global poverty and inequality. Harnessing fresh data from frontline surveys and economic simulations, it shows that pandemic-related job losses and deprivation worldwide are hitting already-poor and vulnerable people hard, while also partly changing the profile of global poverty by creating millions of “new poor.” Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by COVID-19. Around 9.1% to 9.4% of the world will be affected by extreme poverty in 2020.
Incorrect
The Poverty and Shared Prosperity biennial series published by the World Bank provides a global audience with the latest and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity. Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020: Reversals of Fortune report presents new estimates of COVID-19’s impacts on global poverty and inequality. Harnessing fresh data from frontline surveys and economic simulations, it shows that pandemic-related job losses and deprivation worldwide are hitting already-poor and vulnerable people hard, while also partly changing the profile of global poverty by creating millions of “new poor.” Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by COVID-19. Around 9.1% to 9.4% of the world will be affected by extreme poverty in 2020.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Who among the following has been awarded with Nobel Prize in Literature 2020?
Correct
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2020 has been awarded to American poet and essayist Louise Glück “for her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence universal”. The Nobel Prize in Literature 2019: Peter Handke “for an influential work that with linguistic ingenuity has explored the periphery and the specificity of human experience”. The Nobel Prize in Literature 2018: Olga Tokarczuk “for a narrative imagination that with encyclopedic passion represents the crossing of boundaries as a form of life”. Bob Dylan was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2016.
Incorrect
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2020 has been awarded to American poet and essayist Louise Glück “for her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence universal”. The Nobel Prize in Literature 2019: Peter Handke “for an influential work that with linguistic ingenuity has explored the periphery and the specificity of human experience”. The Nobel Prize in Literature 2018: Olga Tokarczuk “for a narrative imagination that with encyclopedic passion represents the crossing of boundaries as a form of life”. Bob Dylan was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2016.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
As per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms? 1. Public order 2. Sovereignty and integrity of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms. Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order. # Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.
Incorrect
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms. Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order. # Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Which of the following was/were the recommendation(s) of the Justice J.S. Verma Committee? 1. It rejected the proposal for chemical castration for crimes against women. 2. Electoral candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences. 3. It proposed death penalty for the offence of rape. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
: Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report in January 2013. Statement 1 is correct. The Committee rejected the proposal for chemical castration as it fails to treat the social foundations of rape. Statement 2 is correct. The Committee recommended the amendment of the Representation of People Act, 1951. The Committee was of the opinion that filing of charge sheet and cognizance by the Court was sufficient for disqualification of a candidate under the Act. It further recommended that candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences. Statement 3 is incorrect. It opined that death penalty should not be awarded for the offence of rape as there was considerable evidence that death penalty was not a deterrence to serious crimes. It recommended life imprisonment for rape.
Incorrect
: Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report in January 2013. Statement 1 is correct. The Committee rejected the proposal for chemical castration as it fails to treat the social foundations of rape. Statement 2 is correct. The Committee recommended the amendment of the Representation of People Act, 1951. The Committee was of the opinion that filing of charge sheet and cognizance by the Court was sufficient for disqualification of a candidate under the Act. It further recommended that candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences. Statement 3 is incorrect. It opined that death penalty should not be awarded for the offence of rape as there was considerable evidence that death penalty was not a deterrence to serious crimes. It recommended life imprisonment for rape.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 points
Category: current affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the Gyan Circle Ventures: 1. It is a Technology Business Incubator (TBI) funded by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. 2. It aims to provide investments, infrastructure and mentoring support for innovation and startups. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Minister of Education recently inaugurated the Gyan Circle Ventures, a Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology funded Technology Business Incubator (TBI) of Indian Institute of Information Technology, Sri City (Chittoor), Andhra Pradesh. Gyan Circle Ventures would function as a Technology Incubation and Development of Entrepreneurs (TIDE 2.0) incubation center as approved by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). # TIDE 2.0 scheme promotes tech entrepreneurship through financial and technical support to incubators engaged in supporting ICT startups primarily engaged in using emerging technologies such as IoT, AI, Block-chain, Robotics etc. in pre-identified areas of societal relevance. Statement 2 is correct. The Gyan Circle Ventures will serve as a hub for innovation and startups by providing support, in various phases, via investments, infrastructure and mentoring. The TBI would have an Advisory Committee comprising leading Industrialists, entrepreneurs and technical experts. It would enable incubatees to leverage these expert mentors and networks from both academia and the industry.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Minister of Education recently inaugurated the Gyan Circle Ventures, a Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology funded Technology Business Incubator (TBI) of Indian Institute of Information Technology, Sri City (Chittoor), Andhra Pradesh. Gyan Circle Ventures would function as a Technology Incubation and Development of Entrepreneurs (TIDE 2.0) incubation center as approved by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). # TIDE 2.0 scheme promotes tech entrepreneurship through financial and technical support to incubators engaged in supporting ICT startups primarily engaged in using emerging technologies such as IoT, AI, Block-chain, Robotics etc. in pre-identified areas of societal relevance. Statement 2 is correct. The Gyan Circle Ventures will serve as a hub for innovation and startups by providing support, in various phases, via investments, infrastructure and mentoring. The TBI would have an Advisory Committee comprising leading Industrialists, entrepreneurs and technical experts. It would enable incubatees to leverage these expert mentors and networks from both academia and the industry.
Discover more from Free UPSC IAS Preparation Syllabus and Materials For Aspirants
Subscribe to get the latest posts sent to your email.