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We are posting today’s 10pm Current Affairs Quiz
About 10pm Quiz - In this initiative, we post 10 MCQs daily. Questions are based on Current affairs. We at ForumIAS believe that practicing quality questions on a daily basis can boost students’ prelims preparation.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Contempt of Court:
Scandalizing the Court is a criminal offence in India.
Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
–Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
–Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
–Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
–Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees:
It has members from LokSabha only.
The committees consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make a report to the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 points
Which of the following statement correctly defines a Zero FIR?
Correct
First Information Report (FIR) is prepared by the police based on a complaint or available information in the case of cognizable offences. The information or the complaint is provided by an informant as per Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Zero FIR is a FIR lodged in any police station irrespective of the location of incidence or jurisdiction of the police station. It is later transferred to the appropriate jurisdictional police station.
Based on the Justice Verma Committee report, the Home Ministry, in 2013, issued an advisory to all states and union territories asking the police to register Zero FIR if an informant comes with the details of a cognizable crime irrespective of the jurisdiction in order to initiate investigation at the earliest.
# Cognizable offences are those which do not require an order from magistrate, and which requires the police to take immediate action on receipt of complaint or information.
Incorrect
First Information Report (FIR) is prepared by the police based on a complaint or available information in the case of cognizable offences. The information or the complaint is provided by an informant as per Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Zero FIR is a FIR lodged in any police station irrespective of the location of incidence or jurisdiction of the police station. It is later transferred to the appropriate jurisdictional police station.
Based on the Justice Verma Committee report, the Home Ministry, in 2013, issued an advisory to all states and union territories asking the police to register Zero FIR if an informant comes with the details of a cognizable crime irrespective of the jurisdiction in order to initiate investigation at the earliest.
# Cognizable offences are those which do not require an order from magistrate, and which requires the police to take immediate action on receipt of complaint or information.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points
Where is the Spalte Glacier located?
Correct
Nioghalvfjerdsfjorden or 79N is roughly 80km long by 20km wide and is the floating front end of the Northeast Greenland Ice Stream – where it flows off the land into the ocean to become buoyant.
At its leading edge, the glacier splits in two, with a minor offshoot turning directly north. It’s this offshoot, or tributary, called Spalte Glacier, that has now disintegrated.
The ice feature was already heavily fractured in 2019; this summer’s warmth has been its final undoing. Spalte Glacier has become a flotilla of icebergs.
Incorrect
Nioghalvfjerdsfjorden or 79N is roughly 80km long by 20km wide and is the floating front end of the Northeast Greenland Ice Stream – where it flows off the land into the ocean to become buoyant.
At its leading edge, the glacier splits in two, with a minor offshoot turning directly north. It’s this offshoot, or tributary, called Spalte Glacier, that has now disintegrated.
The ice feature was already heavily fractured in 2019; this summer’s warmth has been its final undoing. Spalte Glacier has become a flotilla of icebergs.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Brain Templates:
It is a standard representation from various brain images to understand brain functionality.
NIMHANS has developed Indian Brain Templates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Brain template is a standard/gross representation from various brain images to understand brain functionality in diseased conditions.
When brain scans (MRI) are taken, they need to be compared to a standard brain template — a model or standard for making comparisons from a group of individual brain scans. This helps researchers identify parts of the brain.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences (NIMHANS) has recently developed an Indian Brain Templates (IBT) and a brain atlas.
The neuroscientists studied over 500 brain scans of Indian patients to develop five sets of Indian brain templates and a brain atlas for five age groups covering late childhood to late adulthood (six to 60 years).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Brain template is a standard/gross representation from various brain images to understand brain functionality in diseased conditions.
When brain scans (MRI) are taken, they need to be compared to a standard brain template — a model or standard for making comparisons from a group of individual brain scans. This helps researchers identify parts of the brain.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences (NIMHANS) has recently developed an Indian Brain Templates (IBT) and a brain atlas.
The neuroscientists studied over 500 brain scans of Indian patients to develop five sets of Indian brain templates and a brain atlas for five age groups covering late childhood to late adulthood (six to 60 years).
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the PM Garib Kalyan Package: Insurance Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19:
The scheme covers accidental death on account of COVID-19 related duty.
The scheme covers individuals only in the age group 18-60.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package: Insurance Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19 is an accident insurance scheme covers; loss of life due to COVID19, and accidental death on account of COVID-19 related duty.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This Central Sector Scheme provides an insurance cover of Rs. 50 lakhs. Individual enrolment is not required and there’s no age limit for this scheme.
It was announced on 30th March this year for a period of 90 days and it was extended for a further period of 90 days up to 25th September. The scheme has now been extended for another 180 days.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package: Insurance Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19 is an accident insurance scheme covers; loss of life due to COVID19, and accidental death on account of COVID-19 related duty.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This Central Sector Scheme provides an insurance cover of Rs. 50 lakhs. Individual enrolment is not required and there’s no age limit for this scheme.
It was announced on 30th March this year for a period of 90 days and it was extended for a further period of 90 days up to 25th September. The scheme has now been extended for another 180 days.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements:
Currency revaluation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A Currency appreciation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate by central bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency.
Incorrect
The definitions of appreciation and revaluation have interchanged.
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. In a floating rate exchange system, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market.
A revaluation is a calculated upward adjustment to a country’s official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline, such as wage rates, the price of gold, or a foreign currency. In a fixed exchange rate regime, only a decision by a country’s government, such as its central bank, can alter the official value of the currency.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 points
Which of the following National Identity Element(s) of India have adaptation(s) from Ashoka’s reign?
State Emblem of India
National Flag
National Calendar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 points
Which of the following is/are the potential impact(s) of sale of Government securities by the Reserve Bank of India?
Increase in liquidity in the market.
Increase in interest rates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply.
Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Option 2 is correct. When the RBI pursues a tight monetary policy, it takes money out of the system by selling government securities. This raises interest rates because the demand for credit is high that lenders price their loans higher to take advantage of the demand.
The purchase of securities by RBI on other hand has potential to lower the lending rates in economy s it increases the money supply.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 points
India’s Forex Reserve comprises of which of the following assets?
Foreign Currency Assets
Gold
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
India’s forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and India’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
# The country’s foreign exchange reserves rose to reach a lifetime high of $542.013 billion in the week ended September 4.
# Guidotti Rule suggests that the countries should hold external assets sufficient to ensure that they could live without access to new foreign borrowings for up to twelve months.
Incorrect
India’s forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and India’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
# The country’s foreign exchange reserves rose to reach a lifetime high of $542.013 billion in the week ended September 4.
# Guidotti Rule suggests that the countries should hold external assets sufficient to ensure that they could live without access to new foreign borrowings for up to twelve months.
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