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10 PM Quiz: September 2, 2020
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
- It is a direct measure of the retail inflation prevalent in the economy.
- A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change in the economic condition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The most common PMI surveys are the manufacturing PMI and the services PMI.
The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
The most common elements include: New orders, Factory output, Employment, Suppliers’ delivery times, Stocks of purchases.
The most common answers include: Improvement, No change, Deterioration.
Statement 2 is correct. The headline PMI is a number from 0 to 100. A PMI above 50 represents an expansion when compared with the previous month. A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change. The further away from 50 the greater the level of change.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The purchasing managers’ index (PMI) is an economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers at businesses that make up a given sector. The most common PMI surveys are the manufacturing PMI and the services PMI.
The purchasing managers’ index consists of several different surveys that are compiled into a single numerical result depending on one of several possible answers to each question.
The most common elements include: New orders, Factory output, Employment, Suppliers’ delivery times, Stocks of purchases.
The most common answers include: Improvement, No change, Deterioration.
Statement 2 is correct. The headline PMI is a number from 0 to 100. A PMI above 50 represents an expansion when compared with the previous month. A PMI reading under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change. The further away from 50 the greater the level of change.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Kris Gopalakrishnan Committee – Personal Data Protection Framework
- BN Srikrishna committee – Non-Personal Data Governance Framework
- J Satyanarayana Committee – National Digital Health Blueprint
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. Kris Gopalakrishnan Committee was formed in 2019 to recommend on the Non-Personal Data Governance Framework.
Option 2 is incorrectly matched. The Justice BN Srikrishna Committee was constituted by the Union government in July 2017, to deliberate on a data protection framework. The committee submitted its report in 2018 also proposed a draft Personal Data Protection Bill.
Option 3 is correctly matched. In July 2018, the NITI Aayog released a proposal document, National Health Stack (NHS). A committee was formed to create an implementation framework for NHS as National Digital Health Blueprint, chaired by former UIDAI Chairman J. Satyanarayana. The committee submitted its report in 2019.
Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. Kris Gopalakrishnan Committee was formed in 2019 to recommend on the Non-Personal Data Governance Framework.
Option 2 is incorrectly matched. The Justice BN Srikrishna Committee was constituted by the Union government in July 2017, to deliberate on a data protection framework. The committee submitted its report in 2018 also proposed a draft Personal Data Protection Bill.
Option 3 is correctly matched. In July 2018, the NITI Aayog released a proposal document, National Health Stack (NHS). A committee was formed to create an implementation framework for NHS as National Digital Health Blueprint, chaired by former UIDAI Chairman J. Satyanarayana. The committee submitted its report in 2019.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the voting rights in India:
- Constitution provides for basis of adult suffrage for elections to both Houses of the Parliament and to the Legislative Assembly of every State.
- The electors under preventive detention have right to vote unlike those confined in a prison under sentence of imprisonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) hears appeals under which of the following law(s)?
- Trade Marks Act
- Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act
- Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides for the establishment of an Appellate Board to be known as the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). The Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been constituted by a Gazette notification of the Central Government in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in 2003.
It hears appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
In pursuance of the Finance Act, 2017, all the cases pending before the Copy Right Board under Copy Right Act, 1957 were transferred to Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
The Intellectual Property Appellate Board also exercises the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred with Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal to hear the appeals under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Act.
Incorrect
Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides for the establishment of an Appellate Board to be known as the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). The Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been constituted by a Gazette notification of the Central Government in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in 2003.
It hears appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
In pursuance of the Finance Act, 2017, all the cases pending before the Copy Right Board under Copy Right Act, 1957 were transferred to Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
The Intellectual Property Appellate Board also exercises the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred with Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal to hear the appeals under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Act.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Special Frontier Force (SFF) of India:
- It was raised after the India-Pakistan War of 1971.
- It falls under the purview of the Cabinet Secretariat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Special Frontier Force (SFF) referred to as Vikas Battalion was raised in the aftermath of the 1962 Sino-India war.
It mostly recruits Tibetans and Gorkhas and initially went by the name of Establishment 22. It was named so because it was raised by Major General Sujan Singh Uban, an Artillery officer who had commanded 22 Mountain Regiment.
Statement 2 is correct. Special Frontier Force falls under the purview of the Cabinet Secretariat headed by an Inspector General who is an Army officer of the rank of Major General.
# Wikipedia says it is under the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW). Technically R&AW is also under Cabinet Secretariat.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Special Frontier Force (SFF) referred to as Vikas Battalion was raised in the aftermath of the 1962 Sino-India war.
It mostly recruits Tibetans and Gorkhas and initially went by the name of Establishment 22. It was named so because it was raised by Major General Sujan Singh Uban, an Artillery officer who had commanded 22 Mountain Regiment.
Statement 2 is correct. Special Frontier Force falls under the purview of the Cabinet Secretariat headed by an Inspector General who is an Army officer of the rank of Major General.
# Wikipedia says it is under the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW). Technically R&AW is also under Cabinet Secretariat.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Coal Gasification:
- The gasification of coal can produce synthesis gas, a mixture primarily consisting of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
- Emission control is easier and simpler in coal gasification than in combustion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Coal is a complex and highly variable substance that can be converted into a variety of products. The gasification of coal is one method that can produce power, liquid fuels, chemicals, and hydrogen.
Coal gasification is the process of producing synthesis gas (syngas)—a mixture consisting primarily of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, natural gas, and water vapour—from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
After the impurities are removed from the synthesis gas, the carbon monoxide in the gas mixture is reacted with steam through the water-gas shift reaction to produce additional hydrogen and carbon dioxide. Hydrogen is removed by a separation system, and the highly concentrated carbon dioxide stream can subsequently be captured and stored.
The gasification has inherent advantages over combustion for emissions control. Emission control is simpler in gasification than in combustion because the produced syngas in gasification is at higher temperature and pressure than the exhaust gases produced in combustion. These higher temperatures and pressures allow for easier removal of sulfur and nitrous oxides (SOx, and NOx), and volatile trace contaminants such as mercury, arsenic, selenium, cadmium, etc.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Coal is a complex and highly variable substance that can be converted into a variety of products. The gasification of coal is one method that can produce power, liquid fuels, chemicals, and hydrogen.
Coal gasification is the process of producing synthesis gas (syngas)—a mixture consisting primarily of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, natural gas, and water vapour—from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
After the impurities are removed from the synthesis gas, the carbon monoxide in the gas mixture is reacted with steam through the water-gas shift reaction to produce additional hydrogen and carbon dioxide. Hydrogen is removed by a separation system, and the highly concentrated carbon dioxide stream can subsequently be captured and stored.
The gasification has inherent advantages over combustion for emissions control. Emission control is simpler in gasification than in combustion because the produced syngas in gasification is at higher temperature and pressure than the exhaust gases produced in combustion. These higher temperatures and pressures allow for easier removal of sulfur and nitrous oxides (SOx, and NOx), and volatile trace contaminants such as mercury, arsenic, selenium, cadmium, etc.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Group of Monuments at Hampi:
- Hampi, the capital of erstwhile Vijayanagar Empire, lies south of the river Tungabhadra.
- The Krishna temple at Hampi was built during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya of the Tuluva Dynasty.
- It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Hampi, the 14th century capital of the Vijayanagar Empire, lies in the Deccan heartland, in the state of Karnataka, protected by the river Tungabhadra in the north and rocky granite ridges on the other three sides.
Statement 2 is correct. The monuments of Vijayanagar city, also known as Vidyasagar in honour of the sage Vidyaranya was built between 1336-1570 AD, from the times of Harihara-I to Sadasiva Raya. A large number of royal buildings were raised by Krishnadeva Raya (A.D. 1509-30), the greatest ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.
Krishna temple, built by the Krishnadevaraya in 1513 AD to celebrate the conquest of the eastern kingdom of Udayagiri or Utkala, contains lofty gopurams (grand entry portals) that lead to shrines and structures for the worship of the idol Balakrishna.
Statement 3 is correct. Group of Monuments at Hampi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Hampi, the 14th century capital of the Vijayanagar Empire, lies in the Deccan heartland, in the state of Karnataka, protected by the river Tungabhadra in the north and rocky granite ridges on the other three sides.
Statement 2 is correct. The monuments of Vijayanagar city, also known as Vidyasagar in honour of the sage Vidyaranya was built between 1336-1570 AD, from the times of Harihara-I to Sadasiva Raya. A large number of royal buildings were raised by Krishnadeva Raya (A.D. 1509-30), the greatest ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.
Krishna temple, built by the Krishnadevaraya in 1513 AD to celebrate the conquest of the eastern kingdom of Udayagiri or Utkala, contains lofty gopurams (grand entry portals) that lead to shrines and structures for the worship of the idol Balakrishna.
Statement 3 is correct. Group of Monuments at Hampi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following country(s) has/have recently proposed a Supply Chain Resilience in Indo-Pacific initiative?
- United States of America
- Japan
- Australia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Australia-India-Japan Economic Ministers trilateral meeting proposed an initiative for Supply chain resilience in the Indo- Pacific.
The joint statement reads “In light of the COVID-19 crisis and the recent global-scale changes in the economic and technological landscape, the Ministers underscored the necessity and potential to enhance the resiliency of supply chains in the Indo-Pacific region.
Recognizing the pressing need for regional cooperation on supply chain resilience in the Indo- Pacific, the Ministers shared their intention to work toward the launch of a new initiative to achieve the objective through cooperation. They instructed their officials to promptly work out the details of the new initiative for its launch later this year. The Ministers noted the important role of business and academia in realizing the objective.”
Incorrect
Australia-India-Japan Economic Ministers trilateral meeting proposed an initiative for Supply chain resilience in the Indo- Pacific.
The joint statement reads “In light of the COVID-19 crisis and the recent global-scale changes in the economic and technological landscape, the Ministers underscored the necessity and potential to enhance the resiliency of supply chains in the Indo-Pacific region.
Recognizing the pressing need for regional cooperation on supply chain resilience in the Indo- Pacific, the Ministers shared their intention to work toward the launch of a new initiative to achieve the objective through cooperation. They instructed their officials to promptly work out the details of the new initiative for its launch later this year. The Ministers noted the important role of business and academia in realizing the objective.”
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM):
- The Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) has launched the GTAM on its platform.
- The pan India GTAM benefits buyers of Renewable Energy through competitive prices and sellers by providing access to nation-wide market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Energy Exchange recently launched the GTAM on its power trading platform after receiving approval from the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).
The market will offer trade in four types of green term-ahead contracts -Green Intra-day contracts, Day-ahead Contingency contracts, Daily Contracts and Weekly contracts. There will be separate contracts for Solar and Non-Solar energy to facilitate Solar and Non-Solar Renewable Purchase Obligations fulfillment.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own renewable purchase obligations. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country.
The GTAM platform will lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Energy Exchange recently launched the GTAM on its power trading platform after receiving approval from the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).
The market will offer trade in four types of green term-ahead contracts -Green Intra-day contracts, Day-ahead Contingency contracts, Daily Contracts and Weekly contracts. There will be separate contracts for Solar and Non-Solar energy to facilitate Solar and Non-Solar Renewable Purchase Obligations fulfillment.
Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own renewable purchase obligations. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country.
The GTAM platform will lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the payloads in the AstroSat Mission?
- Terrain Mapping Camera
- Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT)
- Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
Option 1 is incorrect. Terrain Mapping Camera (TMC) was used onboard the Chandrayaan 1 mission and TMC 2 was onboard the Orbiter payloads of Chandrayaan 2.
Option 2 and 3 are correct. Five payloads of ASTROSAT are chosen to facilitate a deeper insight into the various astrophysical processes occurring in the various types of astronomical objects constituting our universe.
–The Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT), capable of observing the sky in the Visible, Near Ultraviolet and Far Ultraviolet regions of the electromagnetic spectrum
–Large Area X-ray Proportional Counter (LAXPC), is designed for study the variations in the emission of X-rays from sources like X-ray binaries, Active Galactic Nuclei and other cosmic sources.
–Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT) is designed for studying how the X-ray spectrum of 0.3-8 keV range coming from distant celestial bodies varies with time.
–Cadmium Zinc Telluride Imager (CZTI), functioning in the X-ray region, extends the capability of the satellite to sense X-rays of high energy in 10-100 keV range.
–Scanning Sky Monitor (SSM), is intended to scan the sky for long term monitoring of bright X-ray sources in binary stars, and for the detection and location of sources that become bright in X-rays for a short duration of time.
# A galaxy called AUDFs01 located in the Extreme Deep field, was discovered through AstroSat recently by a team of Astronomers from the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
Incorrect
AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
Option 1 is incorrect. Terrain Mapping Camera (TMC) was used onboard the Chandrayaan 1 mission and TMC 2 was onboard the Orbiter payloads of Chandrayaan 2.
Option 2 and 3 are correct. Five payloads of ASTROSAT are chosen to facilitate a deeper insight into the various astrophysical processes occurring in the various types of astronomical objects constituting our universe.
–The Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT), capable of observing the sky in the Visible, Near Ultraviolet and Far Ultraviolet regions of the electromagnetic spectrum
–Large Area X-ray Proportional Counter (LAXPC), is designed for study the variations in the emission of X-rays from sources like X-ray binaries, Active Galactic Nuclei and other cosmic sources.
–Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT) is designed for studying how the X-ray spectrum of 0.3-8 keV range coming from distant celestial bodies varies with time.
–Cadmium Zinc Telluride Imager (CZTI), functioning in the X-ray region, extends the capability of the satellite to sense X-rays of high energy in 10-100 keV range.
–Scanning Sky Monitor (SSM), is intended to scan the sky for long term monitoring of bright X-ray sources in binary stars, and for the detection and location of sources that become bright in X-rays for a short duration of time.
# A galaxy called AUDFs01 located in the Extreme Deep field, was discovered through AstroSat recently by a team of Astronomers from the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
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