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We are posting today’s 10pm Current Affairs Quiz
Daily Quiz: March 26 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements:
1. Adjournment sine die means termination of the sitting of the House without fixing any definite date for its next sitting.
2. The power to adjourn the House sine die vests exclusively with the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The adjournment of the House means the suspension of the sitting of the House till the following or some later day or hour of time. Adjournment sine die means termination of the sitting of the House without specifying or fixing any definite date for its next sitting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to adjourn the House from time to time or sine die vests in the Presiding Officer.
A session is terminated only by prorogation and not by adjournment. The session of the House is terminated by an order called the “Prorogation Order” made by the President under article 85(2) of the Constitution. Usually, prorogation follows the adjournment of the House sine die.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The adjournment of the House means the suspension of the sitting of the House till the following or some later day or hour of time. Adjournment sine die means termination of the sitting of the House without specifying or fixing any definite date for its next sitting.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power to adjourn the House from time to time or sine die vests in the Presiding Officer.
A session is terminated only by prorogation and not by adjournment. The session of the House is terminated by an order called the “Prorogation Order” made by the President under article 85(2) of the Constitution. Usually, prorogation follows the adjournment of the House sine die.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Electoral Bonds Scheme:
1. All Political Parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 are eligible for benefits under the scheme.
2. The bond is issued to the buyer on non-refundable basis and no interest is payable on these bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Only Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly are eligible to open Current Account for Redemption of Electoral Bonds.
Statement 2 is correct. Once the Electoral Bond is purchased it cannot be cancelled and no amount will be refunded to the Purchaser. Further, no interest is given by the banks on these bonds.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Only Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly are eligible to open Current Account for Redemption of Electoral Bonds.
Statement 2 is correct. Once the Electoral Bond is purchased it cannot be cancelled and no amount will be refunded to the Purchaser. Further, no interest is given by the banks on these bonds.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements:
1. Constitution provides for appointment of additional judges to the High Courts to look after any temporary increase in the business of a High Court.
2. A retired Judge appointed as ad-hoc Judge has all jurisdiction, powers and privileges and is deemed to be a Judge of that High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 224 (1) of the Constitution provides that if by reason of any temporary increase in the business of a High Court or by reason of arrears of work therein, it appears to the President that the number of the Judges of that Court should be for the time being increased, the President may appoint duly qualified persons to be additional Judges of the Court for such period not exceeding two years as he may specify.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 224A of the Constitution provides for appointment of retired Judges to sit and act as a Judge of the High Court for that State, and every such person so requested shall, while so sitting and acting, be entitled to such allowances as the President may by order determine and have all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of, but shall not otherwise be deemed to be, a Judge of that High Court.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 224 (1) of the Constitution provides that if by reason of any temporary increase in the business of a High Court or by reason of arrears of work therein, it appears to the President that the number of the Judges of that Court should be for the time being increased, the President may appoint duly qualified persons to be additional Judges of the Court for such period not exceeding two years as he may specify.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 224A of the Constitution provides for appointment of retired Judges to sit and act as a Judge of the High Court for that State, and every such person so requested shall, while so sitting and acting, be entitled to such allowances as the President may by order determine and have all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of, but shall not otherwise be deemed to be, a Judge of that High Court.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements:
1. India shares its longest land border with Bangladesh.
2. Feni Bridge connects India to Bangladesh.
3. Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India has 15,106 kilometers of land borders and a coastline of about 7,516 kilometers of which maximum of 4,096.7km is along Bangladesh border. Only 5 out of 29 Indian states have no international border or coastal line. Those long borders are shared with seven countries — China, Pakistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Afghanistan, Nepal and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct. Feni Bridge (Maitree Setu) connecting Subroom (Tripura) and Ramgarh (Bangladesh) was jointly inaugurated on virtual platform by both the Prime Ministers on 09 March 2021.
Statement 3 is correct. Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia. Bilateral trade between India and Bangladesh has grown steadily over the last decade and the exports of Bangladesh have tripled over the last decade to cross $1 bn in 2018-19. In the FY 2019-20, India’s exports to Bangladesh were $8.2 bn and imports were $1.26 bn.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India has 15,106 kilometers of land borders and a coastline of about 7,516 kilometers of which maximum of 4,096.7km is along Bangladesh border. Only 5 out of 29 Indian states have no international border or coastal line. Those long borders are shared with seven countries — China, Pakistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Afghanistan, Nepal and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct. Feni Bridge (Maitree Setu) connecting Subroom (Tripura) and Ramgarh (Bangladesh) was jointly inaugurated on virtual platform by both the Prime Ministers on 09 March 2021.
Statement 3 is correct. Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia. Bilateral trade between India and Bangladesh has grown steadily over the last decade and the exports of Bangladesh have tripled over the last decade to cross $1 bn in 2018-19. In the FY 2019-20, India’s exports to Bangladesh were $8.2 bn and imports were $1.26 bn.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the SARS-COV-2 mutant variation have been found in India so far?
1. 501Y.V1
2. 501Y.V3
3. CAL.20C
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Multiple SARS-CoV-2 variants are circulating globally. Several new variants emerged in the fall of 2020, of which UK, South Africa and Brazil variants have been found in India so far.
Incorrect
Multiple SARS-CoV-2 variants are circulating globally. Several new variants emerged in the fall of 2020, of which UK, South Africa and Brazil variants have been found in India so far.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements:
1. DigitalSky is a Ministry of Civil Aviation initiative for enabling flights permission digitally and managing Unmanned Aircraft operations and traffic efficiently.
2. ‘No Permission – No Take-off’ is a software program that enables Unmanned Aircrafts to obtain a valid permission through DigitalSky platform before operating in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
DigitalSky is a Ministry of Civil Aviation initiative, a highly secure and scalable platform which supports technology framework such as NPNT (No permission no take-off) designed for enabling flights permission digitally and managing Unmanned Aircraft operations and traffic efficiently.
Every UAS / RPAS sold in India under the regulations published by DGCA for UAS / RPAS, must have a secure mechanism built on to the equipment to self-authenticate its permission to take-off. It is made possible through a digitally signed document called a Permission Artefact (machine-readable) which when read by the equipment establishes its authenticity and permission to fly.
This technology framework is referred to as NPNT (No Permission No Take-off). NPNT or ‘No Permission – No Take-off’ is a software program that enables every RPA (except Nano) to obtain a valid permission through DigitalSky platform before operating in India.
Incorrect
DigitalSky is a Ministry of Civil Aviation initiative, a highly secure and scalable platform which supports technology framework such as NPNT (No permission no take-off) designed for enabling flights permission digitally and managing Unmanned Aircraft operations and traffic efficiently.
Every UAS / RPAS sold in India under the regulations published by DGCA for UAS / RPAS, must have a secure mechanism built on to the equipment to self-authenticate its permission to take-off. It is made possible through a digitally signed document called a Permission Artefact (machine-readable) which when read by the equipment establishes its authenticity and permission to fly.
This technology framework is referred to as NPNT (No Permission No Take-off). NPNT or ‘No Permission – No Take-off’ is a software program that enables every RPA (except Nano) to obtain a valid permission through DigitalSky platform before operating in India.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements:
1. Regulation and control of manufacture, supply and distribution is listed under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
2. India is the largest producer of Salt in the World.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Salt is a Central Subject in the Constitution of India and appears as Item No. 58 inf the Union List of the 7th Schedule, which reads:
–Manufacture, supply and Distribution of Salt by Union Agencies and Regulation and control of manufacture, supply and distribution of salt by other agencies.
The Central Government is responsible for controlling and regulating all aspects of Salt Industry. The Salt Commissioners’s Organization under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry (Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion), Government of India has been entrusted with the task of Manufacture, Supply and Distribution of Salt by Union Agencies and by other Agencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the third largest Salt producing Country in the World after China and USA. The Salt production has reached 30 million Tonnes (from less than 2 million Tonnes in pre-independence era), meeting all human and industrial requirements and then exporting surplus to the tune of 5 million Tonnes to foreign countries worldwide.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Salt is a Central Subject in the Constitution of India and appears as Item No. 58 inf the Union List of the 7th Schedule, which reads:
–Manufacture, supply and Distribution of Salt by Union Agencies and Regulation and control of manufacture, supply and distribution of salt by other agencies.
The Central Government is responsible for controlling and regulating all aspects of Salt Industry. The Salt Commissioners’s Organization under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry (Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion), Government of India has been entrusted with the task of Manufacture, Supply and Distribution of Salt by Union Agencies and by other Agencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the third largest Salt producing Country in the World after China and USA. The Salt production has reached 30 million Tonnes (from less than 2 million Tonnes in pre-independence era), meeting all human and industrial requirements and then exporting surplus to the tune of 5 million Tonnes to foreign countries worldwide.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Teesta River:
1. It originates in Nepal and enters India through Sikkim Himalayas.
2. Rangit River is major right bank tributary of the Teesta River.
3. Teesta river ultimately drains into Brahmaputra in Bangladesh.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Teesta river originates as Chhombo Chhu from a glacial lake Khangchung Chho at an elevation of 5,280 m in the northeastern corner of the Sikkim. The glacial lake lies at the snout of the Teesta Khangse glacier descending from Pauhunri peak (7,056 m) in north western direction.
Statement 2 is correct. Major Left bank tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, Rangpo Chhu.
Major Right bank tributaries: Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu, Rangit River.
Statement 3 is correct. Teesta river ultimately drains into Brahmaputra at Teestamukh Ghat in Kamarjani- Bahadurabad in Rangpur district of Bangladesh. Teesta and most of its tributaries are flashy mountain rivers and carry boulders and considerable quantity of sediment.
The flow of the river is highly variable and the reduction in its flow during lean season causes friction between India and Bangladesh. Bangladesh, being the lower riparian, is dependent on upper riparian India for keeping minimum flows in the Teesta river.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Teesta river originates as Chhombo Chhu from a glacial lake Khangchung Chho at an elevation of 5,280 m in the northeastern corner of the Sikkim. The glacial lake lies at the snout of the Teesta Khangse glacier descending from Pauhunri peak (7,056 m) in north western direction.
Statement 2 is correct. Major Left bank tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, Rangpo Chhu.
Major Right bank tributaries: Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu, Rangit River.
Statement 3 is correct. Teesta river ultimately drains into Brahmaputra at Teestamukh Ghat in Kamarjani- Bahadurabad in Rangpur district of Bangladesh. Teesta and most of its tributaries are flashy mountain rivers and carry boulders and considerable quantity of sediment.
The flow of the river is highly variable and the reduction in its flow during lean season causes friction between India and Bangladesh. Bangladesh, being the lower riparian, is dependent on upper riparian India for keeping minimum flows in the Teesta river.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements:
1. Coal can be imported in India by the consumers themselves considering their needs based on their commercial prudence.
2. India’s coking coal import has consistently reduced in last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As per the present Import policy, coal can be freely imported (under Open General Licence) by the consumers themselves considering their needs based on their commercial prudence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Coking Coal is being imported by Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and other Steel manufacturing units mainly to bridge the gap between the requirement and indigenous availability and to improve the quality. Coke is imported mainly by Pig-Iron manufacturers and Iron & Steel sector consumers using mini-blast furnace. Details of import of coal during the last six years (in Million Tonnes):
*Import upto December, 2020 (Source: DGCI&S and CBIS’s website)
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As per the present Import policy, coal can be freely imported (under Open General Licence) by the consumers themselves considering their needs based on their commercial prudence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Coking Coal is being imported by Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and other Steel manufacturing units mainly to bridge the gap between the requirement and indigenous availability and to improve the quality. Coke is imported mainly by Pig-Iron manufacturers and Iron & Steel sector consumers using mini-blast furnace. Details of import of coal during the last six years (in Million Tonnes):
*Import upto December, 2020 (Source: DGCI&S and CBIS’s website)
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhere are Garo Hills located?
1. Western margin of Mizoram State
2. West of Shillong Plateau
3. East of Jaintia Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Garo Hills, in western Meghalaya state, comprises the western margin of the Shillong Plateau and rises to a top elevation of about 4,600 feet (1,400 metres). It is much west of the Jaintia Hills, which are in eastern Meghalaya.
The population is mainly Garo. Nokrek National Park, in the western part of the region, protects a highly diverse plant and animal community.
Incorrect
Garo Hills, in western Meghalaya state, comprises the western margin of the Shillong Plateau and rises to a top elevation of about 4,600 feet (1,400 metres). It is much west of the Jaintia Hills, which are in eastern Meghalaya.
The population is mainly Garo. Nokrek National Park, in the western part of the region, protects a highly diverse plant and animal community.