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We are posting today’s 10pm Current Affairs Quiz
Daily Quiz: Apr 13 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following is/are among the country(s) that originally signed the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)?
1. Germany
2. China
3. Saudi Arabia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is a detailed agreement with five annexes reached by Iran and the P5+1 (China France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) on July 14, 2015. The nuclear deal was endorsed by UN Security Council Resolution 2231, adopted on July 20, 2015. Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related provisions of the JCPOA is verified by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) according to certain requirements set forth in the agreement.
# Former US President Donald Trump unilaterally withdrew the U.S. in May 2018.
# The Vienna talks between the remaining members of the Iran nuclear deal — China, Russia, the U.K., France, Germany and Iran are being held.
Incorrect
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is a detailed agreement with five annexes reached by Iran and the P5+1 (China France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) on July 14, 2015. The nuclear deal was endorsed by UN Security Council Resolution 2231, adopted on July 20, 2015. Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related provisions of the JCPOA is verified by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) according to certain requirements set forth in the agreement.
# Former US President Donald Trump unilaterally withdrew the U.S. in May 2018.
# The Vienna talks between the remaining members of the Iran nuclear deal — China, Russia, the U.K., France, Germany and Iran are being held.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
1. In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State has the exclusive right to construct artificial islands.
2. It explicitly provides for freedom of navigation to military vessels and warships of other States in the exclusive economic zone of a country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 60 of the convention states that in the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State shall have the exclusive right to construct and to authorize and regulate the construction, operation and use of:
— artificial islands;
— installations and structures for the purposes provided for in article 56 and other economic purposes;
— installations and structures which may interfere with the exercise of the rights of the coastal State in the zone.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not explicitly provide for the military vessels and warships movement in EEZs. Article 58 providing for the Rights and duties of other States in the exclusive economic zone provide that;
— In the exclusive economic zone, all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy, subject to the relevant provisions of this Convention, the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to these freedoms, such as those associated with the operation of ships, aircraft and submarine cables and pipelines, and compatible with the other provisions of this Convention.
# When India ratified the convention in 1995, New Delhi stated, “India understands that the provisions of the Convention do not authorize other States to carry out in the exclusive economic zone and on the continental shelf military exercises or manoeuvres, in particular those involving the use of weapons or explosives without the consent of the coastal State.”
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 60 of the convention states that in the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State shall have the exclusive right to construct and to authorize and regulate the construction, operation and use of:
— artificial islands;
— installations and structures for the purposes provided for in article 56 and other economic purposes;
— installations and structures which may interfere with the exercise of the rights of the coastal State in the zone.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not explicitly provide for the military vessels and warships movement in EEZs. Article 58 providing for the Rights and duties of other States in the exclusive economic zone provide that;
— In the exclusive economic zone, all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy, subject to the relevant provisions of this Convention, the freedoms of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea related to these freedoms, such as those associated with the operation of ships, aircraft and submarine cables and pipelines, and compatible with the other provisions of this Convention.
# When India ratified the convention in 1995, New Delhi stated, “India understands that the provisions of the Convention do not authorize other States to carry out in the exclusive economic zone and on the continental shelf military exercises or manoeuvres, in particular those involving the use of weapons or explosives without the consent of the coastal State.”
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the 1951 Refugee Convention:
1. Its core principle is that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom.
2. The UN Human Rights Council serves as the ‘guardian’ of the 1951 Convention.
3. India is not a signatory to this 1951 UN Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The 1951 Refugee Convention is the key legal document governing international standards for refugee work. The convention defines the term “refugee” and outlines the rights of the displaced, as well as the legal obligations of nations and states to protect them.
Statement 1 is correct. The core principle is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. This is now considered a rule of customary international law.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is administered by the United Nations High Commission on Refugees (UNHCR), established in 1950 to handle the millions of people displaced in the aftermath of World War II. UNHCR serves as the ‘guardian’ of the 1951 Convention and its 1967 Protocol and works with States to ensure that the rights of refugees are respected and protected.
Statement 3 is correct. India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention or the 1967 Protocol.
Incorrect
The 1951 Refugee Convention is the key legal document governing international standards for refugee work. The convention defines the term “refugee” and outlines the rights of the displaced, as well as the legal obligations of nations and states to protect them.
Statement 1 is correct. The core principle is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. This is now considered a rule of customary international law.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is administered by the United Nations High Commission on Refugees (UNHCR), established in 1950 to handle the millions of people displaced in the aftermath of World War II. UNHCR serves as the ‘guardian’ of the 1951 Convention and its 1967 Protocol and works with States to ensure that the rights of refugees are respected and protected.
Statement 3 is correct. India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention or the 1967 Protocol.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following is/are defense exercise(s) involving India and Bangladesh?
1. Sampriti
2. Ajeya Warrior
3. Shantir Ogrosena
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Exercise AJEYA WARRIOR with United Kingdom is an important exercise in terms of the security challenges faced by both the nations in the realm of changing facets of global terrorism. The exercise is conducted alternatively in United Kingdom and India.
SAMPRITI is a series of the joint exercise between India and Bangladesh, it is a very important military & diplomatic initiative between both countries.
Multinational Military Exercise SHANTIR OGROSHENA 2021 (Front Runner of the Peace) was recently held at Bangladesh to commemorate the birth centenary of Bangladesh ‘Father of the Nation’ Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and mark glorious 50 years of liberation. India, Bhutan and Sri Lanka were the participating countries along with observers from the U.S., the U.K., Russia, Turkey, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait and Singapore.
Incorrect
Exercise AJEYA WARRIOR with United Kingdom is an important exercise in terms of the security challenges faced by both the nations in the realm of changing facets of global terrorism. The exercise is conducted alternatively in United Kingdom and India.
SAMPRITI is a series of the joint exercise between India and Bangladesh, it is a very important military & diplomatic initiative between both countries.
Multinational Military Exercise SHANTIR OGROSHENA 2021 (Front Runner of the Peace) was recently held at Bangladesh to commemorate the birth centenary of Bangladesh ‘Father of the Nation’ Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and mark glorious 50 years of liberation. India, Bhutan and Sri Lanka were the participating countries along with observers from the U.S., the U.K., Russia, Turkey, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait and Singapore.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Foreigners Act, 1946:
1. It is not applicable to the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
2. The onus of proving whether a person is a foreigner or not, lies upon such person in question.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Foreigners Act, 1946 is applicable to whole of India and states that a “foreigner” means a person who is not a citizen of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 9 of the act, whether any person is or is not a foreigner or is or is not a foreigner of a particular class or description the onus of proving that such person is not a foreigner or is not a foreigner of such particular class, shall notwithstanding anything contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 lie upon such person.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Foreigners Act, 1946 is applicable to whole of India and states that a “foreigner” means a person who is not a citizen of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Section 9 of the act, whether any person is or is not a foreigner or is or is not a foreigner of a particular class or description the onus of proving that such person is not a foreigner or is not a foreigner of such particular class, shall notwithstanding anything contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 lie upon such person.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC):
1. Grounds for removal of the CEC are same as for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. Any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
Which of the statements given above s/are correct?
Correct
As per article 324 of the Constitution; subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine:
Provided that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:
Provided further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
# The President appointed Shri Sushil Chandra the senior-most Election Commissioner, as the Chief Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India.
Incorrect
As per article 324 of the Constitution; subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine:
Provided that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:
Provided further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
# The President appointed Shri Sushil Chandra the senior-most Election Commissioner, as the Chief Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhat was the mandate of the M.P. Bezbaruah Committee?
Correct
In order to deal with the concerns of persons hailing from the northeastern states and residing in different parts of the country, particularly in the metropolitan cities, the Union Government (MHA) constituted the Bezbaruah Committee on 05 February, 2014. The Committee submitted its report on 11 July, 2014.
It 4 recommended amendments to the IPC by creating new offences under Section 153C and 509A to deal with comments, gestures and acts intended to insult a member of a particular racial group. “It also suggested to make such offences as ‘gender-neutral’, ‘cognizable’ and ‘non-bailable’ with imprisonment extendable up to three years or five years with fine, respectively.
Incorrect
In order to deal with the concerns of persons hailing from the northeastern states and residing in different parts of the country, particularly in the metropolitan cities, the Union Government (MHA) constituted the Bezbaruah Committee on 05 February, 2014. The Committee submitted its report on 11 July, 2014.
It 4 recommended amendments to the IPC by creating new offences under Section 153C and 509A to deal with comments, gestures and acts intended to insult a member of a particular racial group. “It also suggested to make such offences as ‘gender-neutral’, ‘cognizable’ and ‘non-bailable’ with imprisonment extendable up to three years or five years with fine, respectively.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following state of India does not share border with Nepal?
1. Jharkhand
2. West Bengal
3. Bihar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
With an area of 147,181 sq. km and a population of 29 million, Nepal shares a border of about 1850 km with five Indian States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. An estimated 6 million Nepalese live and work in India. As close neighbours, India and Nepal share a unique relationship of friendship and cooperation characterized by open borders and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture.
Incorrect
With an area of 147,181 sq. km and a population of 29 million, Nepal shares a border of about 1850 km with five Indian States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. An estimated 6 million Nepalese live and work in India. As close neighbours, India and Nepal share a unique relationship of friendship and cooperation characterized by open borders and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Ugadi – Odisha
2. Sajibu Cheiraoba – Manipur
3. Vishu – Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ugadi also known as Samvatsarādi, is the New Year’s Day for the States of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in India.
Cheiraoba, the great ritual festival of Meiteis is observed on the first day of Manipur lunar month Shajibu, which falls in April every year.
Vishu is a Hindu festival celebrated in the Indian state of Kerala, Tulu Nadu region in Karnataka, Mahé district of Union Territory of Pondicherry, neighbouring areas of Tamil Nadu
Incorrect
Ugadi also known as Samvatsarādi, is the New Year’s Day for the States of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in India.
Cheiraoba, the great ritual festival of Meiteis is observed on the first day of Manipur lunar month Shajibu, which falls in April every year.
Vishu is a Hindu festival celebrated in the Indian state of Kerala, Tulu Nadu region in Karnataka, Mahé district of Union Territory of Pondicherry, neighbouring areas of Tamil Nadu
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following is/are issues considered under the One Health approach?
1. Zoonotic diseases
2. Antimicrobial resistance
3. Environmental contamination
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health issues include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, food safety and food security, vector-borne diseases, environmental contamination, and other health threats shared by people, animals, and the environment.
# Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare chaired ICMR’s International Symposium titled ‘One Health in India: Research informing biosafety, preparedness and response’ recently.
Incorrect
One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health issues include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, food safety and food security, vector-borne diseases, environmental contamination, and other health threats shared by people, animals, and the environment.
# Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare chaired ICMR’s International Symposium titled ‘One Health in India: Research informing biosafety, preparedness and response’ recently.