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Quiz: Daily Quiz:February 7 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019:
1. It allows the DNA testing only in offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 and completely bars its usage in civil matters.
2. The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Standing Committee on the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 has recently submitted its report.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Bill, DNA testing is allowed only in respect of matters listed in the Schedule to the Bill. These include offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, and for civil matters such as paternity suits. Further, the Schedule includes DNA testing for matters related to establishment of individual identity.
Statement 2 is correct. The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states. DNA laboratories are required to share DNA data prepared by them with the National and Regional DNA Data Banks.
# The Standing Committee report suggests one National Data Bank only, to limit the chances of misuse of data.
Every Data Bank will be required to maintain indices for the following categories of data: (i) a crime scene index, (ii) a suspects’ or undertrials’ index, (iii) an offenders’ index, (iv) a missing persons’ index, and (v) an unknown deceased persons’ index.Incorrect
The Standing Committee on the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 has recently submitted its report.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Bill, DNA testing is allowed only in respect of matters listed in the Schedule to the Bill. These include offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, and for civil matters such as paternity suits. Further, the Schedule includes DNA testing for matters related to establishment of individual identity.
Statement 2 is correct. The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states. DNA laboratories are required to share DNA data prepared by them with the National and Regional DNA Data Banks.
# The Standing Committee report suggests one National Data Bank only, to limit the chances of misuse of data.
Every Data Bank will be required to maintain indices for the following categories of data: (i) a crime scene index, (ii) a suspects’ or undertrials’ index, (iii) an offenders’ index, (iv) a missing persons’ index, and (v) an unknown deceased persons’ index. - Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following locations in India have the Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) facilities?
1. Vishakhapatnam
2. Mangaluru
3. Padur
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), a Government of India Special Purpose Vehicle, has established Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) facilities with total capacity of 5.33 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) at 3 locations, namely Vishakhapatnam, Mangaluru and Padur.
As per the consumption pattern of 2019-20, the total capacity is estimated to provide for about 9.5 days of crude oil requirement. In addition, Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) in the country have storage facilities for crude oil and petroleum products for 64.5 days, thus the current total national capacity for storage of crude oil and petroleum products currently is 74 days.
Under Phase II of the SPR Programme, the Government has given ‘in principle’ approval in June 2018 for establishing two additional SPR facilities with total storage capacity of 6.5 MMT at two locations namely Chandikhol in Odisha (4 MMT) and Padur in Karnataka (2.5 MMT).Incorrect
Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), a Government of India Special Purpose Vehicle, has established Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) facilities with total capacity of 5.33 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) at 3 locations, namely Vishakhapatnam, Mangaluru and Padur.
As per the consumption pattern of 2019-20, the total capacity is estimated to provide for about 9.5 days of crude oil requirement. In addition, Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) in the country have storage facilities for crude oil and petroleum products for 64.5 days, thus the current total national capacity for storage of crude oil and petroleum products currently is 74 days.
Under Phase II of the SPR Programme, the Government has given ‘in principle’ approval in June 2018 for establishing two additional SPR facilities with total storage capacity of 6.5 MMT at two locations namely Chandikhol in Odisha (4 MMT) and Padur in Karnataka (2.5 MMT). - Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the National Safety Council (NSC):
1. Its objective is to provide guidance and services to make workplaces safer and environment friendly.
2. Minister of Labour and Employment is the ex-officio chairperson of NSC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The 24th Session of the Standing Labour Committee accepted the proposal concerning the constitution of the National Safety Council (NSC) in 1966.
Statement 1 is correct. Its objective is providing guidance and services to make workplaces safer, healthier and environment friendly, building capacity, developing material, methods, procedures and strengthening the national movement (including unorganized sector) on Safety, Health and Environment to prevent and mitigate the loss of life, human suffering and economic losses.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The affairs of the Council are managed by a Board of Governers. The Board consist of 51 members besides the Chairman. The Board is tripartite in nature with members from Government, Employers Organizations and Trade Union Organizations.
An eminent industrialist, nominates by the Govt. of India as the Chairman of NSC.Incorrect
The 24th Session of the Standing Labour Committee accepted the proposal concerning the constitution of the National Safety Council (NSC) in 1966.
Statement 1 is correct. Its objective is providing guidance and services to make workplaces safer, healthier and environment friendly, building capacity, developing material, methods, procedures and strengthening the national movement (including unorganized sector) on Safety, Health and Environment to prevent and mitigate the loss of life, human suffering and economic losses.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The affairs of the Council are managed by a Board of Governers. The Board consist of 51 members besides the Chairman. The Board is tripartite in nature with members from Government, Employers Organizations and Trade Union Organizations.
An eminent industrialist, nominates by the Govt. of India as the Chairman of NSC. - Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):
1. It is a framework promulgated by Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence.
2. Support for Prototype and Research Kickstart (SPARK) grants are offered under iDEX to startups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Explanation: Both statements are correct.
Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) is a framework promulgated by Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence and launched by the Hon’ble PM in April 2018. iDEX aims to achieve self – reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia.
iDEX-DIO launches of Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC) with problem statements from Armed Forces, DPSUs & OFB. Winner start-ups/ individuals receive innovation grants in technological areas through the Prototype funding guidelines called “Support for Prototype and Research Kickstart” (SPARK), which entail provisioning of grants upto Rs 1.5 crore to the Startups on the basis of milestones through multiple tranches, for prototype development.Incorrect
Explanation: Both statements are correct.
Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) is a framework promulgated by Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence and launched by the Hon’ble PM in April 2018. iDEX aims to achieve self – reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia.
iDEX-DIO launches of Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC) with problem statements from Armed Forces, DPSUs & OFB. Winner start-ups/ individuals receive innovation grants in technological areas through the Prototype funding guidelines called “Support for Prototype and Research Kickstart” (SPARK), which entail provisioning of grants upto Rs 1.5 crore to the Startups on the basis of milestones through multiple tranches, for prototype development. - Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020:
1. The central government may regulate the supply of certain food items in times of natural calamity.
2. The any Central Government action of imposing any stock limit on agricultural produce must be based on price rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020 provides that the central government may regulate the supply of certain food items including cereals, pulses, potatoes, onions, edible oilseeds, and oils, only under extraordinary circumstances. These include: (i) war, (ii) famine, (iii) extraordinary price rise and (iv) natural calamity of grave nature.
Statement 2 is correct. It requires that imposition of any stock limit on agricultural produce must be based on price rise. A stock limit may be imposed only if there is: (i) a 100% increase in retail price of horticultural produce; and (ii) a 50% increase in the retail price of non-perishable agricultural food items.
The increase will be calculated over the price prevailing immediately preceding twelve months, or the average retail price of the last five years, whichever is lower.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020 provides that the central government may regulate the supply of certain food items including cereals, pulses, potatoes, onions, edible oilseeds, and oils, only under extraordinary circumstances. These include: (i) war, (ii) famine, (iii) extraordinary price rise and (iv) natural calamity of grave nature.
Statement 2 is correct. It requires that imposition of any stock limit on agricultural produce must be based on price rise. A stock limit may be imposed only if there is: (i) a 100% increase in retail price of horticultural produce; and (ii) a 50% increase in the retail price of non-perishable agricultural food items.
The increase will be calculated over the price prevailing immediately preceding twelve months, or the average retail price of the last five years, whichever is lower.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following is/are potential uses of the Seaweeds?
1. Anti-inflammatory agent
2. Binding agent
3. Nutritious food
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
“Seaweed” is the common name for countless species of marine plants and algae that grow in the ocean as well as in rivers, lakes, and other water bodies.
Seaweed is full of vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and can be tasty. For at least 1,500 years, the Japanese have enrobed a mixture of raw fish, sticky rice, and other ingredients in a seaweed called nori.
Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory and anti-microbial agents. Their known medicinal effects have been legion for thousands of years; the ancient Romans used them to treat wounds, burns, and rashes.
These versatile marine plants and algae have also contributed to economic growth. Among their many uses in manufacturing, they are effective binding agents (emulsifiers) in such commercial goods as toothpaste and fruit jelly, and popular softeners (emollients) in organic cosmetics and skin-care products.
# In Budget 2021-22, the Finance Minister has proposed to set up a multi-purpose seaweed park in Tamil Nadu.Incorrect
“Seaweed” is the common name for countless species of marine plants and algae that grow in the ocean as well as in rivers, lakes, and other water bodies.
Seaweed is full of vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and can be tasty. For at least 1,500 years, the Japanese have enrobed a mixture of raw fish, sticky rice, and other ingredients in a seaweed called nori.
Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory and anti-microbial agents. Their known medicinal effects have been legion for thousands of years; the ancient Romans used them to treat wounds, burns, and rashes.
These versatile marine plants and algae have also contributed to economic growth. Among their many uses in manufacturing, they are effective binding agents (emulsifiers) in such commercial goods as toothpaste and fruit jelly, and popular softeners (emollients) in organic cosmetics and skin-care products.
# In Budget 2021-22, the Finance Minister has proposed to set up a multi-purpose seaweed park in Tamil Nadu. - Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Wetlands in India:
1. Gujarat has highest wetland area among all states of India.
2. Inland natural wetland area of India is more than the coastal natural wetland area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Among Indian states, Gujarat ranks first with 3.47 m ha (about 23% of the total wetland area of country) comprising vast stretches of intertidal mudflats and salt pans.
Gujarat is followed by Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Maharasthra having more than 1 m ha area of wetlands.
Statement 2 is correct. Inland natural wetland area accounts for around 43% while coastal natural wetland area accounts for around 24% of the total wetland area.# The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Sh. Babul Supriyo has announced the establishment of a Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management (CWCM), as a part of the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), Chennai, an institution under the Ministry.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Among Indian states, Gujarat ranks first with 3.47 m ha (about 23% of the total wetland area of country) comprising vast stretches of intertidal mudflats and salt pans.
Gujarat is followed by Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Maharasthra having more than 1 m ha area of wetlands.
Statement 2 is correct. Inland natural wetland area accounts for around 43% while coastal natural wetland area accounts for around 24% of the total wetland area.# The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Sh. Babul Supriyo has announced the establishment of a Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management (CWCM), as a part of the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), Chennai, an institution under the Ministry.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsThe Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following State?
Correct
Dudhwa National Park or the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve residing the areas of Lakhimpur & Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh, lying adjacent to the Indo-Nepal border bringing together two most incredible sanctuaries of the area namely, Kishanpur and Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuaries to represent the excellent natural forests and greenery along the Terai region.
# With funding support under TARA Scheme of Science for Equity, Empowerment & Development (SEED) Division, Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India, and implemented through Core Support Group- WWF India; women belonging to the Tharu Hath Karga Gharelu Udyog – a Self Help Group (SHG) have recorded significant increase in revenue from sale of their wares in 2020.Incorrect
Dudhwa National Park or the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve residing the areas of Lakhimpur & Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh, lying adjacent to the Indo-Nepal border bringing together two most incredible sanctuaries of the area namely, Kishanpur and Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuaries to represent the excellent natural forests and greenery along the Terai region.
# With funding support under TARA Scheme of Science for Equity, Empowerment & Development (SEED) Division, Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India, and implemented through Core Support Group- WWF India; women belonging to the Tharu Hath Karga Gharelu Udyog – a Self Help Group (SHG) have recorded significant increase in revenue from sale of their wares in 2020. - Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsWhich of the following institution has released the Corruption Perception Index 2021?
Correct
Transparency International publishes the Corruption Perception Index annually, since 1995. The CPI scores and ranks 180 countries/territories based on how corrupt a country’s public sector is perceived to be by experts and business executives. It is a composite index, a combination of 13 surveys and assessments of corruption, collected by a variety of reputable institutions.
New Zealand and Denmark are ranked at the first position with scores of 88. India ranks at 86 with score of 40.Incorrect
Transparency International publishes the Corruption Perception Index annually, since 1995. The CPI scores and ranks 180 countries/territories based on how corrupt a country’s public sector is perceived to be by experts and business executives. It is a composite index, a combination of 13 surveys and assessments of corruption, collected by a variety of reputable institutions.
New Zealand and Denmark are ranked at the first position with scores of 88. India ranks at 86 with score of 40. - Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: current affairsConsider the following statements regarding the Global Climate Risk Index 2021:
1. It has been released by the Germany-based think tank Germanwatch.
2. India was the most affected country by the impacts of extreme weather events in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Climate Risk Index annually published by the Germanwatch is an analysis based on one of the most reliable data sets available on the impacts of extreme weather events and associated socio-economic data.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Mozambique, Zimbabwe and the Bahamas were the countries most affected by the impacts of extreme weather events in 2019. India is seventh, most affected country.
Between 2000 and 2019, Puerto Rico, Myanmar and Haiti were the countries most affected by the impacts of extreme weather events.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Climate Risk Index annually published by the Germanwatch is an analysis based on one of the most reliable data sets available on the impacts of extreme weather events and associated socio-economic data.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Mozambique, Zimbabwe and the Bahamas were the countries most affected by the impacts of extreme weather events in 2019. India is seventh, most affected country.
Between 2000 and 2019, Puerto Rico, Myanmar and Haiti were the countries most affected by the impacts of extreme weather events.
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