Contents
- 1 Physics
- 2 Chemistry
- 2.0.1 Test-summary
- 2.0.2 Information
- 2.0.3 Results
- 2.0.4 Categories
- 2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 2.0.4.2 2. Question
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- 2.0.4.25 25. Question
- 3 Chemistry 2
- 4 Biology and diseases
- 4.0.1 Test-summary
- 4.0.2 Information
- 4.0.3 Results
- 4.0.4 Categories
- 4.0.4.1 1. Question
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- 5 Biology and diseases 2
- 5.0.1 Test-summary
- 5.0.2 Information
- 5.0.3 Results
- 5.0.4 Categories
- 5.0.4.1 1. Question
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- 6 Biology and diseases 3
- 6.0.1 Test-summary
- 6.0.2 Information
- 6.0.3 Results
- 6.0.4 Categories
- 6.0.4.1 1. Question
- 6.0.4.2 2. Question
- 6.0.4.3 3. Question
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- 6.0.4.5 5. Question
- 6.0.4.6 6. Question
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- 7 Biology and diseases 4
- 8 Bio-Technology
- 8.0.1 Test-summary
- 8.0.2 Information
- 8.0.3 Results
- 8.0.4 Categories
- 8.0.4.1 1. Question
- 8.0.4.2 2. Question
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- 9 Bio-Technology 2
- 9.0.1 Test-summary
- 9.0.2 Information
- 9.0.3 Results
- 9.0.4 Categories
- 9.0.4.1 1. Question
- 9.0.4.2 2. Question
- 9.0.4.3 3. Question
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- 10 Bio-Technology 3
- 11 Defence
- 11.0.1 Test-summary
- 11.0.2 Information
- 11.0.3 Results
- 11.0.4 Categories
- 11.0.4.1 1. Question
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- 12 Defence 2
- 13 IPR, Government Policies and initiatives
- 13.0.1 Test-summary
- 13.0.2 Information
- 13.0.3 Results
- 13.0.4 Categories
- 13.0.4.1 1. Question
- 13.0.4.2 2. Question
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- 14 IT, Robotics and computer related
- 14.0.1 Test-summary
- 14.0.2 Information
- 14.0.3 Results
- 14.0.4 Categories
- 14.0.4.1 1. Question
- 14.0.4.2 2. Question
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- 15 IT, Robotics and computer related 2
- 16 Space Technology
- 16.0.1 Test-summary
- 16.0.2 Information
- 16.0.3 Results
- 16.0.4 Categories
- 16.0.4.1 1. Question
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- 17 Space Technology 2
- 17.0.1 Test-summary
- 17.0.2 Information
- 17.0.3 Results
- 17.0.4 Categories
- 17.0.4.1 1. Question
- 17.0.4.2 2. Question
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- 18 Space Technology 3
- 18.0.1 Test-summary
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- 18.0.3 Results
- 18.0.4 Categories
- 18.0.4.1 1. Question
- 18.0.4.2 2. Question
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- 19 Space Technology 4
- 20 Miscellaneous
- 20.0.1 Test-summary
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- 21 Miscellaneous 2
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- 22 Miscellaneous 3
- 23 Other Technological developments
- 23.0.1 Test-summary
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- Question 1 of 7
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly defines the Wet-Bulb Temperature?
Correct
The Wet Bulb temperature is the temperature of adiabatic saturation. This is the temperature indicated by a moistened thermometer bulb exposed to the air flow.
Wet Bulb temperature can be measured by using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin. The wet bulb temperature is always lower than the dry bulb temperature but will be identical with 100% relative humidity (the air is at the saturation line).
-The Dry Bulb Temperature refers basically to the ambient air temperature. It is called “Dry Bulb” because the air temperature is indicated by a thermometer not affected by the moisture of the air. Dry-bulb temperature can be measured using a normal thermometer freely exposed to the air but shielded from radiation and moisture.
Incorrect
The Wet Bulb temperature is the temperature of adiabatic saturation. This is the temperature indicated by a moistened thermometer bulb exposed to the air flow.
Wet Bulb temperature can be measured by using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin. The wet bulb temperature is always lower than the dry bulb temperature but will be identical with 100% relative humidity (the air is at the saturation line).
-The Dry Bulb Temperature refers basically to the ambient air temperature. It is called “Dry Bulb” because the air temperature is indicated by a thermometer not affected by the moisture of the air. Dry-bulb temperature can be measured using a normal thermometer freely exposed to the air but shielded from radiation and moisture.
- Question 2 of 7
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Water has more specific heat capacity than Air.
- Water expands as it gets warmer at all temperatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Water has a much higher heat capacity than air, meaning the oceans can absorb larger amounts of heat energy with only a slight increase in temperature.
Water’s specific heat capacity is 4200 Jkg-1K-1 and Air’s is 993 Jkg-1K-1 therefore water has 4.23 times more specific heat capacity.
The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy that must be added, in the form of heat, to one unit of mass of the substance in order to cause an increase of one unit in its temperature.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Water is an unusual liquid and has unique properties. Water does indeed expand when warms, and it contracts when it cools, but not at all temperatures. An oddity occurs between 4 and 0 degrees Celsius (about 40- and 32-degrees Fahrenheit).
Between the temperatures of 32 F (0 C) to 40 F (4 C), liquid water actually contracts with increasing temperature.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Water has a much higher heat capacity than air, meaning the oceans can absorb larger amounts of heat energy with only a slight increase in temperature.
Water’s specific heat capacity is 4200 Jkg-1K-1 and Air’s is 993 Jkg-1K-1 therefore water has 4.23 times more specific heat capacity.
The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy that must be added, in the form of heat, to one unit of mass of the substance in order to cause an increase of one unit in its temperature.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Water is an unusual liquid and has unique properties. Water does indeed expand when warms, and it contracts when it cools, but not at all temperatures. An oddity occurs between 4 and 0 degrees Celsius (about 40- and 32-degrees Fahrenheit).
Between the temperatures of 32 F (0 C) to 40 F (4 C), liquid water actually contracts with increasing temperature.
- Question 3 of 7
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Elastocaloric effect is recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Explanation: When rubbers bands are twisted and untwisted, it produces a cooling effect. This is called the “elastocaloric” effect, and researchers have suggested that it can be used in a very relevant context today.
Researchers from multiple universities, including Nankai University in China, have found that the elastocaloric effect, if harnessed, may be able to do away with the need of fluid refrigerants used in fridges and air-conditioners.
These fluids are susceptible to leakages, and can contribute to global warming. In the elastocaloric effect, the transfer of heat works much the same way as when fluid refrigerants are compressed and expanded.
When a rubber band is stretched, it absorbs heat from its environment, and when it is released, it gradually cools down.
In order to figure out how the twisting mechanism might be able to enable a fridge, the researchers compared the cooling power of rubber fibres, nylon and polyethylene fishing lines and nickel-titanium wires.
They observed high cooling from twist changes in twisted, coiled and super-coiled fibres.
Incorrect
Explanation: When rubbers bands are twisted and untwisted, it produces a cooling effect. This is called the “elastocaloric” effect, and researchers have suggested that it can be used in a very relevant context today.
Researchers from multiple universities, including Nankai University in China, have found that the elastocaloric effect, if harnessed, may be able to do away with the need of fluid refrigerants used in fridges and air-conditioners.
These fluids are susceptible to leakages, and can contribute to global warming. In the elastocaloric effect, the transfer of heat works much the same way as when fluid refrigerants are compressed and expanded.
When a rubber band is stretched, it absorbs heat from its environment, and when it is released, it gradually cools down.
In order to figure out how the twisting mechanism might be able to enable a fridge, the researchers compared the cooling power of rubber fibres, nylon and polyethylene fishing lines and nickel-titanium wires.
They observed high cooling from twist changes in twisted, coiled and super-coiled fibres.
- Question 4 of 7
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are cause/causes for the formation of rainbow?
- Reflection
- Refraction
- Dispersion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
A rainbow is a meteorological phenomenon that is caused by reflection,
refraction and dispersion of light in water droplets resulting in a spectrum of light
appearing as a circular arc in the sky. It is often visible after rainfall due to highly humid
atmosphere and absence of air pollution. The position of the sun and the raindrops in
relation to the observer need to be just right for a rainbow to form:
- The sun needs to be behind the viewer
- The sun needs to be low in the sky, at an angle of less than 42° above the horizon.
The lower the sun in the sky the more of an arc of a rainbow the viewer will see
- Rain, fog or some other source of water droplets must be in front of the viewer
The size of the raindrops does not directly affect the geometry of a rainbow, but mist or fog
tends to disperse the effect more. Rainbows only appear semi-circular over level ground at
sunrise or sunset, when the sun is exactly on the horizon, the majority of the time a smaller
segment of an arc is seen.
Incorrect
A rainbow is a meteorological phenomenon that is caused by reflection,
refraction and dispersion of light in water droplets resulting in a spectrum of light
appearing as a circular arc in the sky. It is often visible after rainfall due to highly humid
atmosphere and absence of air pollution. The position of the sun and the raindrops in
relation to the observer need to be just right for a rainbow to form:
- The sun needs to be behind the viewer
- The sun needs to be low in the sky, at an angle of less than 42° above the horizon.
The lower the sun in the sky the more of an arc of a rainbow the viewer will see
- Rain, fog or some other source of water droplets must be in front of the viewer
The size of the raindrops does not directly affect the geometry of a rainbow, but mist or fog
tends to disperse the effect more. Rainbows only appear semi-circular over level ground at
sunrise or sunset, when the sun is exactly on the horizon, the majority of the time a smaller
segment of an arc is seen.
- Question 5 of 7
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Government of India launched a prestigious programme “National Optical Fibre
Network (NOFN)” to provide broadband services to rural areas. On which principle the
optical fibre works?
Correct
Optical fibre is a device which works on the principle of total internal
reflection by which light signals can be transmitted from one place to another with
negligible loss of energy.
Incorrect
Optical fibre is a device which works on the principle of total internal
reflection by which light signals can be transmitted from one place to another with
negligible loss of energy.
- Question 6 of 7
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about double rainbow?
- Double rainbows are formed when sunlight is reflected twice within a raindrop.
- A key feature of double rainbows is that the colour sequence in the second rainbow is
reversed, so instead of red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet (ROYGBIV), the
colours appear in VIBGYOR order.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Double rainbow.
Statement 1 is correct: Double rainbows are formed when sunlight is reflected twice
within a raindrop with the violet light that reaches the observers eye coming from the
higher raindrops and the red light from lower raindrops.
Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of double rainbows is that the colour sequence in
the second rainbow is reversed, ROYGBIV instead of VIBGYOR order in primary rainbow.
Incorrect
Double rainbow.
Statement 1 is correct: Double rainbows are formed when sunlight is reflected twice
within a raindrop with the violet light that reaches the observers eye coming from the
higher raindrops and the red light from lower raindrops.
Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of double rainbows is that the colour sequence in
the second rainbow is reversed, ROYGBIV instead of VIBGYOR order in primary rainbow.
- Question 7 of 7
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe polarimetry technique is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Polarimetry is a sensitive, nondestructive technique for measuring the
optical activity exhibited by inorganic and organic compounds.
- A compound is considered to be optically active if linearly polarized light is rotated
when passing through it.
- A team of astronomers has discovered that the closest known brown dwarf, Luhman
16A, shows signs of cloud bands similar to those seen on Jupiter and Saturn.
- The researchers used an instrument on the Very Large Telescope in Chile to study
polarised light from the Luhman 16 system. Polarisation is a property of light that
represents the direction that the light wave oscillates.
- The polarimetry technique is not limited to brown dwarfs. It can also be applied to
exoplanets orbiting distant stars. The atmospheres of hot, gas giant exoplanets are
similar to those of brown dwarfs
Incorrect
Polarimetry is a sensitive, nondestructive technique for measuring the
optical activity exhibited by inorganic and organic compounds.
- A compound is considered to be optically active if linearly polarized light is rotated
when passing through it.
- A team of astronomers has discovered that the closest known brown dwarf, Luhman
16A, shows signs of cloud bands similar to those seen on Jupiter and Saturn.
- The researchers used an instrument on the Very Large Telescope in Chile to study
polarised light from the Luhman 16 system. Polarisation is a property of light that
represents the direction that the light wave oscillates.
- The polarimetry technique is not limited to brown dwarfs. It can also be applied to
exoplanets orbiting distant stars. The atmospheres of hot, gas giant exoplanets are
similar to those of brown dwarfs
Chemistry
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Plastic microbeads can be found in which of the following cosmetic product(s)?
1. Toothpaste
2. Sunscreen
3. Facial scrubs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm and don’t degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products.
Microbeads are used as ingredients in these products for a variety of purposes. This includes as an abrasive or exfoliant, a bulking agent, for controlled timed release of active ingredients, and to prolong shelf life. They are also a relatively cheap ingredient.
Microbeads may be found in some products. These include toothpaste, sunscreen, facial scrubs, body wash, cosmetics such as foundation and blush, and other care products.Incorrect
Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm and don’t degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products.
Microbeads are used as ingredients in these products for a variety of purposes. This includes as an abrasive or exfoliant, a bulking agent, for controlled timed release of active ingredients, and to prolong shelf life. They are also a relatively cheap ingredient.
Microbeads may be found in some products. These include toothpaste, sunscreen, facial scrubs, body wash, cosmetics such as foundation and blush, and other care products. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Ammonium nitrate:
1.It has utility in making explosives and fertilizers.
2.It does not burn on its own but acts as a source of oxygen that can accelerate the combustion of other materials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) is a crystal-like white solid which is made in large industrial quantities. Its major use is as a source of nitrogen for fertilizer and is also used to create explosives for mining.Ammonium nitrate does not burn on its own. Instead, it acts as a source of oxygen that can accelerate the combustion (burning) of other materials.
At high enough temperatures ammonium nitrate can violently decompose on its own. This process creates gases including nitrogen oxides and water vapour. It is this rapid release of gases that causes an explosion.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) is a crystal-like white solid which is made in large industrial quantities. Its major use is as a source of nitrogen for fertilizer and is also used to create explosives for mining.Ammonium nitrate does not burn on its own. Instead, it acts as a source of oxygen that can accelerate the combustion (burning) of other materials.
At high enough temperatures ammonium nitrate can violently decompose on its own. This process creates gases including nitrogen oxides and water vapour. It is this rapid release of gases that causes an explosion. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Desalination plants:
1. It can turn salt water into drinkable water.
2. There are no desalination plants in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A desalination plant turns salt water into water that is fit to drink. The most commonly used technology used for the process is reverse osmosis where an external pressure is applied to push solvents from an area of high-solute concentration to an area of low-solute concentration through a membrane.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, Tamil Nadu has been the pioneer in using this technology, setting up two up in Chennai. The other states that have proposed these plants are Gujarat, which has announced to set up a 100 MLD RO plant at the Jodiya coast in Jamnagar district.
# Desalination has largely been limited to affluent countries in the Middle East and has recently started making inroads in parts of the United States and AustraliaIncorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A desalination plant turns salt water into water that is fit to drink. The most commonly used technology used for the process is reverse osmosis where an external pressure is applied to push solvents from an area of high-solute concentration to an area of low-solute concentration through a membrane.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, Tamil Nadu has been the pioneer in using this technology, setting up two up in Chennai. The other states that have proposed these plants are Gujarat, which has announced to set up a 100 MLD RO plant at the Jodiya coast in Jamnagar district.
# Desalination has largely been limited to affluent countries in the Middle East and has recently started making inroads in parts of the United States and Australia - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2020 has been awarded for which of the following
research?Correct
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2020 has been awarded jointly to
Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna “for the development of a method for
genome editing.”
Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna have discovered one of gene technology’s
sharpest tools: the CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors. Using these, researchers can change
the DNA of animals, plants and microorganisms with extremely high precision.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2019: John B. Goodenough, M. Stanley Whittingham and
Akira Yoshino “for the development of lithium-ion batteries”.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2018: Frances H. Arnold “for the directed evolution of
enzymes”, George P. Smith and Sir Gregory P. Winter “for the phage display of peptides and
antibodies”.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2017: Jacques Dubochet, Joachim Frank and Richard
Henderson “for developing cryo-electron microscopy for the high-resolution structure
determination of biomolecules in solution”.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2016: Jean-Pierre Sauvage, Sir J. Fraser Stoddart and
Bernard L. Feringa “for the design and synthesis of molecular machines”.Incorrect
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2020 has been awarded jointly to
Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna “for the development of a method for
genome editing.”
Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna have discovered one of gene technology’s
sharpest tools: the CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors. Using these, researchers can change
the DNA of animals, plants and microorganisms with extremely high precision.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2019: John B. Goodenough, M. Stanley Whittingham and
Akira Yoshino “for the development of lithium-ion batteries”.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2018: Frances H. Arnold “for the directed evolution of
enzymes”, George P. Smith and Sir Gregory P. Winter “for the phage display of peptides and
antibodies”.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2017: Jacques Dubochet, Joachim Frank and Richard
Henderson “for developing cryo-electron microscopy for the high-resolution structure
determination of biomolecules in solution”.
# The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2016: Jean-Pierre Sauvage, Sir J. Fraser Stoddart and
Bernard L. Feringa “for the design and synthesis of molecular machines”. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the CRISPR technology:
1. It is used to alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
2. The technology has been adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats) technology is a tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to
easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function
CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (CRISPR-associated-9) is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops.
Statement 2 is correct. CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms).
These organisms use CRISPR-derived RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader. When these components are transferred into other, more complex, organisms, it allows for the manipulation of genes, or “editing.”Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats) technology is a tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to
easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function
CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (CRISPR-associated-9) is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops.
Statement 2 is correct. CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms).
These organisms use CRISPR-derived RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader. When these components are transferred into other, more complex, organisms, it allows for the manipulation of genes, or “editing.” - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are potential applications of Calcium nitrate?
1. Agricultural fertilizer
2. Waste water treatment
3. As baking soda
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Calcium nitrate also known as Norwegian saltpeter is mainly produced as a fertilizer, used for plant nutrition purposes, and for wastewater treatment. It is a source of both calcium and nitrogen, for plants.
‘Calcium Nitrate’ & ‘Boronated Calcium Nitrate’ is now being manufactured for the first time in India by Gujrat State Fertilizers and Chemicals -GSFC India Ltd. GSFC launched these two products in the retail market for the first time from Solan in Himachal Pradesh and Bhavnagar in Gujarat.Sodium bicarbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
Incorrect
Calcium nitrate also known as Norwegian saltpeter is mainly produced as a fertilizer, used for plant nutrition purposes, and for wastewater treatment. It is a source of both calcium and nitrogen, for plants.
‘Calcium Nitrate’ & ‘Boronated Calcium Nitrate’ is now being manufactured for the first time in India by Gujrat State Fertilizers and Chemicals -GSFC India Ltd. GSFC launched these two products in the retail market for the first time from Solan in Himachal Pradesh and Bhavnagar in Gujarat.Sodium bicarbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the van der Waals (VdW) materials:
1. They are made of atomically thin layers are not mixed through a chemical reaction but rather attached to each other via a weak so called van der Waals interaction.
2. Graphene is a good example of van der Waal (VdW) material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Until six years ago, such materials did not exist but today, researchers believe that they hold the key to‘post-silicon’ electronics.
• VdW materials are made of piles of ultra-thin layers that are held together by weak van der Waals bonds, which arise when atoms are in close proximity.
• The success of graphene — a well-known vdW material — stimulated scientists to look for other 2D crystals, where layers can be changed, added or removed in order to introduce new physical properties such as magnetism.
• Controlling magnetism, as is typical of such materials, could replace the current hard drive assemblies in computers and even become the key to quantum computing.Incorrect
Until six years ago, such materials did not exist but today, researchers believe that they hold the key to‘post-silicon’ electronics.
• VdW materials are made of piles of ultra-thin layers that are held together by weak van der Waals bonds, which arise when atoms are in close proximity.
• The success of graphene — a well-known vdW material — stimulated scientists to look for other 2D crystals, where layers can be changed, added or removed in order to introduce new physical properties such as magnetism.
• Controlling magnetism, as is typical of such materials, could replace the current hard drive assemblies in computers and even become the key to quantum computing. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) nuclear fusion reactor is recently in news was developed by which country?
Correct
Scientists around the world have been trying for decades to recreate the unfathomable power of the sun here on Earth, and a team in China has managed to best our local star. Not for very long, though.
• The team operating the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) managed to heat the reactor’s internal plasma to 100 million degrees Celsius (212 million Fahrenheit).
• That’s six times hotter than the sun, but it doesn’t have any net power generation. In stars, hydrogen fuses into helium, and eventually into heavier elements.
• The fusion process releases large amounts of energy, and the byproducts of fusion aren’t radioactive.
• The only nuclear power we’ve managed to utilize on Earth is fission, which requires dangerous radioactive materials and comes with the risk of a reactor meltdown.Incorrect
Scientists around the world have been trying for decades to recreate the unfathomable power of the sun here on Earth, and a team in China has managed to best our local star. Not for very long, though.
• The team operating the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) managed to heat the reactor’s internal plasma to 100 million degrees Celsius (212 million Fahrenheit).
• That’s six times hotter than the sun, but it doesn’t have any net power generation. In stars, hydrogen fuses into helium, and eventually into heavier elements.
• The fusion process releases large amounts of energy, and the byproducts of fusion aren’t radioactive.
• The only nuclear power we’ve managed to utilize on Earth is fission, which requires dangerous radioactive materials and comes with the risk of a reactor meltdown. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “world’s first-ever thermal battery plant” was launched in which of the following state?
Correct
India became home to the world’s first-ever thermal battery plant, which was inaugurated in Andhra Pradesh.
Conventional battery technology: is based on the system of charging/discharging cycles that are driven by electricity.
• For example, the Lithium-ion battery, a staple of many electronic devices, consists of electric charges being transferred from electrodes.
• Energy is derived from this battery, when lithium atoms turn into lithium ions (Li+), and get stored when this reaction reverses.
• Therefore, Li-ion batteries work on the basis of electrical energy.Thermal batteries: on the other hand, use thermal energy to operate, i.e., the energy created by temperature differences.
• Therefore, the energy transfer in thermal batteries helps store heat when heat travels from one part of the battery setup to the other.
• For that to happen, a thermal battery consists of two parts: a cool zone known as sink, and a hot source called source.
• Both these sides consist of compounds known as phase-changing materials (PCMs), which can change their state of matter on the basis of a physical/chemical reaction.Incorrect
India became home to the world’s first-ever thermal battery plant, which was inaugurated in Andhra Pradesh.
Conventional battery technology: is based on the system of charging/discharging cycles that are driven by electricity.
• For example, the Lithium-ion battery, a staple of many electronic devices, consists of electric charges being transferred from electrodes.
• Energy is derived from this battery, when lithium atoms turn into lithium ions (Li+), and get stored when this reaction reverses.
• Therefore, Li-ion batteries work on the basis of electrical energy.Thermal batteries: on the other hand, use thermal energy to operate, i.e., the energy created by temperature differences.
• Therefore, the energy transfer in thermal batteries helps store heat when heat travels from one part of the battery setup to the other.
• For that to happen, a thermal battery consists of two parts: a cool zone known as sink, and a hot source called source.
• Both these sides consist of compounds known as phase-changing materials (PCMs), which can change their state of matter on the basis of a physical/chemical reaction. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Novichok that was in news recently?
Correct
The name Novichok means “newcomer” in Russian, and applies to a group of
advanced nerve agents developed by the Soviet Union in the 1970s and 1980s.
They were known as fourth-generation chemical weapons and were developed under a
Soviet programme codenamed Foliant.
Novichok agents have similar effects to other nerve agents – they act by blocking messages
from the nerves to the muscles, causing a collapse of many bodily functions.
While some Novichok agents are liquids, others are thought to exist in solid form. This
means they could be dispersed as an ultra-fine powder.
Nerve agents enter the body primarily through the respiratory tract, although they may
be absorbed through the eyes or skin. In the liquid state, nerve agents are hazardous via
skin or eye contact and through ingestion. Generally, all nerve agents are highly toxic and
fast acting.
# Britain says Russia used Novichok to poison former spy Sergei Skripal and his daughter
Yulia in the British city of Salisbury two years ago.
# Germany says Novichok was used to poison Alexei Navalny, a critic of Russian President
Vladimir Putin.Incorrect
The name Novichok means “newcomer” in Russian, and applies to a group of
advanced nerve agents developed by the Soviet Union in the 1970s and 1980s.
They were known as fourth-generation chemical weapons and were developed under a
Soviet programme codenamed Foliant.
Novichok agents have similar effects to other nerve agents – they act by blocking messages
from the nerves to the muscles, causing a collapse of many bodily functions.
While some Novichok agents are liquids, others are thought to exist in solid form. This
means they could be dispersed as an ultra-fine powder.
Nerve agents enter the body primarily through the respiratory tract, although they may
be absorbed through the eyes or skin. In the liquid state, nerve agents are hazardous via
skin or eye contact and through ingestion. Generally, all nerve agents are highly toxic and
fast acting.
# Britain says Russia used Novichok to poison former spy Sergei Skripal and his daughter
Yulia in the British city of Salisbury two years ago.
# Germany says Novichok was used to poison Alexei Navalny, a critic of Russian President
Vladimir Putin. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Phosphine gas:
1. It is a colorless flammable gas.
2. It is an artificially produced gas and does not occur naturally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Phosphine is a colorless, flammable, and explosive
gas at ambient temperature.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a natural gaseous carrier of phosphorus in its biogeochemical
cycles, has been found ubiquitously present in the environment. Small amounts occur
naturally from the breakdown of organic matter.
# Recent discovery of phosphine on Venus has sparked debate on presence of life outside
Earth.
On rocky planets such as Venus and Earth, phosphine can only be made by life—whether
human or microbe.
Phosphine is manufactured as an agricultural fumigant, is used in the semiconductor
industry, and is a byproduct of meth labs.
But phosphine is also made naturally by some species of anaerobic bacteria—organisms that
live in the oxygen-starved environments of landfills, marshlands, and even animal guts.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Phosphine is a colorless, flammable, and explosive
gas at ambient temperature.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a natural gaseous carrier of phosphorus in its biogeochemical
cycles, has been found ubiquitously present in the environment. Small amounts occur
naturally from the breakdown of organic matter.
# Recent discovery of phosphine on Venus has sparked debate on presence of life outside
Earth.
On rocky planets such as Venus and Earth, phosphine can only be made by life—whether
human or microbe.
Phosphine is manufactured as an agricultural fumigant, is used in the semiconductor
industry, and is a byproduct of meth labs.
But phosphine is also made naturally by some species of anaerobic bacteria—organisms that
live in the oxygen-starved environments of landfills, marshlands, and even animal guts. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the hydrogen fuel cells:
1. It uses the chemical energy of hydrogen to produce electricity.
2. In a hydrogen fuel cell, water is a byproduct.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A fuel cell is like a battery in that it generates
electricity from an electrochemical reaction. It uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or
another fuel to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity.
Statement 2 is correct. In hydrogen fuel cell; electricity, water, and heat are the only
products.
# Fuel cell working:
A fuel cell consists of two electrodes—a negative electrode (or anode) and a positive electrode
(or cathode)—sandwiched around an electrolyte.
A fuel, such as hydrogen, is fed to the anode, and air is fed to the cathode. In a hydrogen fuel
cell, a catalyst at the anode separates hydrogen molecules into protons and electrons, which
take different paths to the cathode.
The electrons go through an external circuit, creating a flow of electricity. The protons migrate
through the electrolyte to the cathode, where they unite with oxygen and the electrons to
produce water and heat.
# The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has notified the Standards for Safety
Evaluation of vehicles being propelled by Hydrogen Fuel Cells.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A fuel cell is like a battery in that it generates
electricity from an electrochemical reaction. It uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or
another fuel to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity.
Statement 2 is correct. In hydrogen fuel cell; electricity, water, and heat are the only
products.
# Fuel cell working:
A fuel cell consists of two electrodes—a negative electrode (or anode) and a positive electrode
(or cathode)—sandwiched around an electrolyte.
A fuel, such as hydrogen, is fed to the anode, and air is fed to the cathode. In a hydrogen fuel
cell, a catalyst at the anode separates hydrogen molecules into protons and electrons, which
take different paths to the cathode.
The electrons go through an external circuit, creating a flow of electricity. The protons migrate
through the electrolyte to the cathode, where they unite with oxygen and the electrons to
produce water and heat.
# The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has notified the Standards for Safety
Evaluation of vehicles being propelled by Hydrogen Fuel Cells. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are potential advantage(s) of the fuel cells over the
conventional combustion-based technology?
1. They can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines.
2. They produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases.
3. Fuel cells have fewer moving parts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Fuel cells have strong benefits over conventional combustion-based
technologies currently used in many power plants and cars.
-They produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases and none of the air
pollutants that create smog and cause health problems.
– Fuel cells can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines, and can convert
the chemical energy in the fuel to electrical energy with efficiencies of up to 60%.
-If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, fuel cells emit only heat and water as a byproduct.
Hydrogen-powered fuel cells are also far more energy efficient than traditional combustion
technologies.
-Fuel cells are quiet during operation as they have fewer moving parts.Incorrect
Fuel cells have strong benefits over conventional combustion-based
technologies currently used in many power plants and cars.
-They produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases and none of the air
pollutants that create smog and cause health problems.
– Fuel cells can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines, and can convert
the chemical energy in the fuel to electrical energy with efficiencies of up to 60%.
-If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, fuel cells emit only heat and water as a byproduct.
Hydrogen-powered fuel cells are also far more energy efficient than traditional combustion
technologies.
-Fuel cells are quiet during operation as they have fewer moving parts. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is measure by the Octane Rating/Number?
Correct
Octane Number/Rating, measure of the ability of a fuel to resist knocking when ignited in a mixture with air in the cylinder of an internal-combustion engine. The octane number is determined by comparing, under standard conditions, the knock intensity of the fuel with that of blends of two reference fuels: iso-octane, which resists knocking, and heptane, which knocks readily.
The higher the number, the better the fuel burns within the engine of a vehicle. Higher performance vehicles require fuels with a higher-octane rating.
Indian Oil has launched world-class premium grade Petrol (Octane 100) branded as XP100 in the country recently.
# Knocking, in an internal-combustion engine, sharp sounds caused by premature combustion of part of the compressed air-fuel mixture in the cylinder.Incorrect
Octane Number/Rating, measure of the ability of a fuel to resist knocking when ignited in a mixture with air in the cylinder of an internal-combustion engine. The octane number is determined by comparing, under standard conditions, the knock intensity of the fuel with that of blends of two reference fuels: iso-octane, which resists knocking, and heptane, which knocks readily.
The higher the number, the better the fuel burns within the engine of a vehicle. Higher performance vehicles require fuels with a higher-octane rating.
Indian Oil has launched world-class premium grade Petrol (Octane 100) branded as XP100 in the country recently.
# Knocking, in an internal-combustion engine, sharp sounds caused by premature combustion of part of the compressed air-fuel mixture in the cylinder. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following can be the reason for the foam in rivers?
1. Fatty acids released from decaying organic material
2. Discharge of detergents to water bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
As with most liquids, water molecules are normally attracted to each other. This attraction creates tension at the surface of the water, often referred to as a thin “skin,” which allows some insects to glide across it.
–When leaves, twigs or other organic substances fall into water and begin decaying, they release compounds known as surfacants.
This interaction breaks the surface tension, which in turn allows air to more easily mix with water and creates bubbles. These bubbles congregate as natural foam.
–Not all foam is natural. Certain man-made products, including detergents can cause foam that is similar in appearance, but may be harmful to fish and other aquatic life.
In addition, human activities that cause an increase in algae or aquatic plant growth such as the introduction of fertilisers can cause plant and algae blooms and an increase in foam production.Incorrect
As with most liquids, water molecules are normally attracted to each other. This attraction creates tension at the surface of the water, often referred to as a thin “skin,” which allows some insects to glide across it.
–When leaves, twigs or other organic substances fall into water and begin decaying, they release compounds known as surfacants.
This interaction breaks the surface tension, which in turn allows air to more easily mix with water and creates bubbles. These bubbles congregate as natural foam.
–Not all foam is natural. Certain man-made products, including detergents can cause foam that is similar in appearance, but may be harmful to fish and other aquatic life.
In addition, human activities that cause an increase in algae or aquatic plant growth such as the introduction of fertilisers can cause plant and algae blooms and an increase in foam production. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the HL-2M Tokamak reactor:
1. It is based on nuclear fission tokamak reactor.
2. It is a collaborative project between European Union and USA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
The HL-2M Tokamak reactor is China’s largest and most advanced nuclear fusion experimental research device.
Located in southwestern Sichuan province and completed late last year, the reactor is often called an “artificial sun” on account of the enormous heat and power it produces.
Fusion is considered the source of energy and is what powers our sun. It merges atomic nuclei to create massive amounts of energy—the opposite of the fission process used in atomic weapons and nuclear power plants, which splits them into fragments.
Unlike fission, fusion does not create radioactive waste, and carries less risk of accidents or the theft of atomic material.
# International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) is an international nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject, which will be the world’s largest magnetic confinement plasma physics experiment. ITER Members: China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
The HL-2M Tokamak reactor is China’s largest and most advanced nuclear fusion experimental research device.
Located in southwestern Sichuan province and completed late last year, the reactor is often called an “artificial sun” on account of the enormous heat and power it produces.
Fusion is considered the source of energy and is what powers our sun. It merges atomic nuclei to create massive amounts of energy—the opposite of the fission process used in atomic weapons and nuclear power plants, which splits them into fragments.
Unlike fission, fusion does not create radioactive waste, and carries less risk of accidents or the theft of atomic material.
# International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) is an international nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject, which will be the world’s largest magnetic confinement plasma physics experiment. ITER Members: China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Ammonia:
1. It is a major ingredient in fertilizer industry.
2. Exposure to high concentrations of ammonia can result in respiratory distress or failure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A tri-hydroid of nitrogen (NH3), ammonia is a building block for ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) that is used in agriculture as a high-nitrogen fertiliser.
Ammonia is also used as a refrigerant gas, for purification of water supplies, and in the manufacture of plastics, explosives, textiles, pesticides, dyes and other chemicals.
Statement 2 is correct. Ammonia is irritating and corrosive. Exposure to high concentrations of ammonia in air causes immediate burning of the nose, throat and respiratory tract. This can cause bronchiolar and alveolar edema, and airway destruction resulting in respiratory distress or failure.
Inhalation of lower concentrations can cause coughing, and nose and throat irritation. Ammonia’s odor provides adequate early warning of its presence, but ammonia also causes olfactory fatigue or adaptation, reducing awareness of one’s prolonged exposure at low concentrations.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A tri-hydroid of nitrogen (NH3), ammonia is a building block for ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) that is used in agriculture as a high-nitrogen fertiliser.
Ammonia is also used as a refrigerant gas, for purification of water supplies, and in the manufacture of plastics, explosives, textiles, pesticides, dyes and other chemicals.
Statement 2 is correct. Ammonia is irritating and corrosive. Exposure to high concentrations of ammonia in air causes immediate burning of the nose, throat and respiratory tract. This can cause bronchiolar and alveolar edema, and airway destruction resulting in respiratory distress or failure.
Inhalation of lower concentrations can cause coughing, and nose and throat irritation. Ammonia’s odor provides adequate early warning of its presence, but ammonia also causes olfactory fatigue or adaptation, reducing awareness of one’s prolonged exposure at low concentrations. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the “benzoic acid”:
1. It is white crystalline organic compound belongs to the family of carboxylic acid.
2. It is commonly used as a pH adjustor and preservative in food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Benzoic acid is an organic compound which is described by the chemical formula C6H5COOH.
• It consists of a carboxyl group attached to a benzene ring. Therefore, benzoic acid is said to be an aromatic carboxylic acid.
• This compound exists as a crystalline, colorless solid under normal conditions.
• It is white and belongs to the family of carboxylic acid.
• The term ‘benzoate’ refers to the esters and salts of C6H5COOH.
• The commercial production of benzoic acid is done via the partial oxidation of toluene with oxygen, catalyzed by manganese or cobalt naphthenates.Some important uses of C6H5COOH are listed below.
• The production of phenol involves the use of benzoic acid.
• This compound is used in ointments that prevent or treat fungal skin diseases.
• C6H5COOH is used as a preservative in the food industry.
• Benzoic acid is an ingredient in many cosmetic products, such as lipsticks.
• It is also a precursor to benzoyl chloride.
• One of the components of toothpaste, mouthwash, and face-wash creams is C6H5
• This compound is also used in the manufacture of dyes and in insect repellants.Incorrect
Benzoic acid is an organic compound which is described by the chemical formula C6H5COOH.
• It consists of a carboxyl group attached to a benzene ring. Therefore, benzoic acid is said to be an aromatic carboxylic acid.
• This compound exists as a crystalline, colorless solid under normal conditions.
• It is white and belongs to the family of carboxylic acid.
• The term ‘benzoate’ refers to the esters and salts of C6H5COOH.
• The commercial production of benzoic acid is done via the partial oxidation of toluene with oxygen, catalyzed by manganese or cobalt naphthenates.Some important uses of C6H5COOH are listed below.
• The production of phenol involves the use of benzoic acid.
• This compound is used in ointments that prevent or treat fungal skin diseases.
• C6H5COOH is used as a preservative in the food industry.
• Benzoic acid is an ingredient in many cosmetic products, such as lipsticks.
• It is also a precursor to benzoyl chloride.
• One of the components of toothpaste, mouthwash, and face-wash creams is C6H5
• This compound is also used in the manufacture of dyes and in insect repellants. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAccording to the Directorate General Foreign Trade (DGFT), Beach Sand Minerals (BSM) comprised a suite of seven minerals. Which of the following minerals are consists of BSM?
1. Limonite
2. Rutile
3. Zircon
4. Strontium
5. Monazite
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
According to the Directorate General Foreign Trade (DGFT) Beach Sand Minerals (BSM) comprised a suite of seven minerals.
• They are limonite, rutile, leucoxene (titanium being mineral), zircon (zirconium being mineral), garnet, sillimanite and monazite (a proscribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962 since it covers uranium and thorium).
• The suites of BSM were also called atomic minerals. Except garnet and sillimanite, others were prescribed substances under the Atomic Energy Act.Incorrect
According to the Directorate General Foreign Trade (DGFT) Beach Sand Minerals (BSM) comprised a suite of seven minerals.
• They are limonite, rutile, leucoxene (titanium being mineral), zircon (zirconium being mineral), garnet, sillimanite and monazite (a proscribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962 since it covers uranium and thorium).
• The suites of BSM were also called atomic minerals. Except garnet and sillimanite, others were prescribed substances under the Atomic Energy Act. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following scientist (s) is/are defined the weight of a hydrogen atom as one?
1. Dalton
2. Johann Dobereiner
3. Dimitri Mendeleev
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
Mankind has known materials such as gold, silver, mercury, iron, phosphorous, sulphur and others since antiquity.
• Alchemists tried making gold out of “base” metals — with no success. But we had to wait until the English school teacher John Dalton who in 1808 came up with his “new system of chemical philosophy”, where he proposed that chemical elements are made of atoms;
• Any given element is made entirely of one kind of atom and that each atom has a characteristic weight; chemical reactions occur when atoms of different elements interact with one another•Dalton and Thomas Thomson from England and Berzelius from Europe defined the weight of a hydrogen atom as one, and the atomic weights of other elements were measured using this standard.
• By the 1860s, the atomic weights of a large number of elements were published.Incorrect
Mankind has known materials such as gold, silver, mercury, iron, phosphorous, sulphur and others since antiquity.
• Alchemists tried making gold out of “base” metals — with no success. But we had to wait until the English school teacher John Dalton who in 1808 came up with his “new system of chemical philosophy”, where he proposed that chemical elements are made of atoms;
• Any given element is made entirely of one kind of atom and that each atom has a characteristic weight; chemical reactions occur when atoms of different elements interact with one another•Dalton and Thomas Thomson from England and Berzelius from Europe defined the weight of a hydrogen atom as one, and the atomic weights of other elements were measured using this standard.
• By the 1860s, the atomic weights of a large number of elements were published. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term ethephon, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) seized one tonne of artificially ripened bananas and plantains from a market in Tiruppur (Tamil Nadu). According to FSSAI officials, a trader had used ripening agent ethephon (2-chloroethylphosphonic acid) on the bananas and plantains kept for sale.
Incorrect
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) seized one tonne of artificially ripened bananas and plantains from a market in Tiruppur (Tamil Nadu). According to FSSAI officials, a trader had used ripening agent ethephon (2-chloroethylphosphonic acid) on the bananas and plantains kept for sale.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements regarding the periodic table is/are correct?
- It was first designed by Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev.
- United Nations announced 2019 as the International Year of the Periodic Table.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The United Nations announced 2019 as the International Year of the Periodic Table of the Chemical Elements to highlight its first publication in 1869.
The periodic table as we know it today was first designed by the Russian scientist Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev.
This year marks the 150th anniversary of the first publication of the periodic table by Mendeleev.
Since its creation, the periodic table has been at the centre of a lot of vivid debates and is now considered as “one of the most important and influential achievements in modern science reflecting the essence not only of chemistry, but also of physics, biology and other disciplines.”
Mendeleev’s genius lies in the acknowledgement that at the time, not all the elements were known yet, so he left gaps in the table for undiscovered elements
- At that time, only 63 elements had been identified. Still the properties of five other elements (the gaps brilliantly added to complete the table) could already been determined using the table.
Incorrect
The United Nations announced 2019 as the International Year of the Periodic Table of the Chemical Elements to highlight its first publication in 1869.
The periodic table as we know it today was first designed by the Russian scientist Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev.
This year marks the 150th anniversary of the first publication of the periodic table by Mendeleev.
Since its creation, the periodic table has been at the centre of a lot of vivid debates and is now considered as “one of the most important and influential achievements in modern science reflecting the essence not only of chemistry, but also of physics, biology and other disciplines.”
Mendeleev’s genius lies in the acknowledgement that at the time, not all the elements were known yet, so he left gaps in the table for undiscovered elements
- At that time, only 63 elements had been identified. Still the properties of five other elements (the gaps brilliantly added to complete the table) could already been determined using the table.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently, which of the following institute Successfully/efficiently removes heavy metals simultaneously from water?
Correct
Simultaneously removing heavy metals such as arsenic, chromium, cadmium and mercury from waste water with very high efficiency now appears possible, thanks to the work of researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay.
The carbon-based nanostructure that the team fabricated shows 80-90% adsorption efficiency for all the four heavy metals studied.
No electricity is required for the nanostructure to remove heavy metals from water as it allows for gravity-driven purification of the water.
The nanostructures can be recycled and reused multiple times.
While there is an initial drop of about 8% after the first cycle, the efficiency remains constant at 75-85% in the subsequent cycles.
The carbon nanostructure is able to adsorb the heavy metals in the wide range of pH conditions — pH 2 to 13.
Incorrect
Simultaneously removing heavy metals such as arsenic, chromium, cadmium and mercury from waste water with very high efficiency now appears possible, thanks to the work of researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay.
The carbon-based nanostructure that the team fabricated shows 80-90% adsorption efficiency for all the four heavy metals studied.
No electricity is required for the nanostructure to remove heavy metals from water as it allows for gravity-driven purification of the water.
The nanostructures can be recycled and reused multiple times.
While there is an initial drop of about 8% after the first cycle, the efficiency remains constant at 75-85% in the subsequent cycles.
The carbon nanostructure is able to adsorb the heavy metals in the wide range of pH conditions — pH 2 to 13.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently which of the following Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) designed a new sodium sulphur battery which can be operated at room temprature?
Correct
While conventional sodium sulphur batteries require very high temperature (300 degree C) for operation, researchers at the Indian Institute of technology (IIT) Madras have designed a new sodium sulphur battery that can be operated at room temperature.
By operating the battery at room temperature, the team was able to achieve higher charge storage capacity (technically called the specific capacity) and nearly zero self-discharge when the battery is not being used.
Incorrect
While conventional sodium sulphur batteries require very high temperature (300 degree C) for operation, researchers at the Indian Institute of technology (IIT) Madras have designed a new sodium sulphur battery that can be operated at room temperature.
By operating the battery at room temperature, the team was able to achieve higher charge storage capacity (technically called the specific capacity) and nearly zero self-discharge when the battery is not being used.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently which institute used defected silica as a catalyst to produce methane from carbon dioxide?
Correct
Converting the global-warming compound carbon dioxide into a useful fuel has been engaging the attention of scientists for some time.
Scientists at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) have discovered an easier and cheaper way of converting CO2 into methane. Scientists have generally used metal nanoparticles as catalysts for this process.
But TIFR employed ‘defected silica’ — silicon dioxide with a few oxygen atoms knocked off — instead of the costlier metal nanoparticles.
‘Defected silca’ has ‘holes’, where the oxygen atoms used to be. These holes get filled by hydrogen atoms to form silicon hydride. For this, hydrogen molecules, that exist in nature in pairs (hence H2) are ripped apart.
Each hydrogen atom, then, is desperate to join hands with something; alongside, defected silica is agonising for something to fill the gap where earlier oxygen atoms used to be.
A happy marriage results. But this marriage is short-lived because carbon dioxide dives in to break the marriage.
The carbon in CO2 and the hydrogen in silicon hydride desert their spouses and join hands to become methane.
The leftovers, silicon and oxygen, re-marry to form silicon dioxide — the original catalyst.
Incorrect
Converting the global-warming compound carbon dioxide into a useful fuel has been engaging the attention of scientists for some time.
Scientists at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) have discovered an easier and cheaper way of converting CO2 into methane. Scientists have generally used metal nanoparticles as catalysts for this process.
But TIFR employed ‘defected silica’ — silicon dioxide with a few oxygen atoms knocked off — instead of the costlier metal nanoparticles.
‘Defected silca’ has ‘holes’, where the oxygen atoms used to be. These holes get filled by hydrogen atoms to form silicon hydride. For this, hydrogen molecules, that exist in nature in pairs (hence H2) are ripped apart.
Each hydrogen atom, then, is desperate to join hands with something; alongside, defected silica is agonising for something to fill the gap where earlier oxygen atoms used to be.
A happy marriage results. But this marriage is short-lived because carbon dioxide dives in to break the marriage.
The carbon in CO2 and the hydrogen in silicon hydride desert their spouses and join hands to become methane.
The leftovers, silicon and oxygen, re-marry to form silicon dioxide — the original catalyst.
Chemistry 2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Polycrack Technology”?
- It is world’s first patented heterogeneous catalytic process which converts multiple feed
stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water.
- Polycrack has high tolerance to moisture hence drying of waste is not required.
- In polycrack, biological decomposition is not allowed as the Waste is treated as it is
received.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Polycrack technology is world’s first patented heterogeneous catalytic
process which converts multiple feed stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon
and water. Polycrack Plant can be fed with all types of Plastic, Petroleum sludge, Unsegregated
MSW (Municipal Solid Waste) with moisture up to 50%, E–Waste, Automobile
fluff, Organic waste including bamboo, garden waste etc., and Jatropha fruit and palm
bunch.
Polycrack has the following advantages over the conventional approach of treating solid
waste:-
- Pre-segregation of waste is not required to reform the waste. Waste as collected can
be directly fed into Polycrack.
- It has high tolerance to moisture hence drying of waste is not required.
- Waste is processed and reformed within 24 hours.
- It is an enclosed unit hence the working environment is dust free.
- Excellent air quality surrounding the plant.
- Biological decomposition is not allowed as the Waste is treated as it is
received.
- The foot print of the plant is small hence the area required for installing the plant is
less when compared with conventional method of processing.
- All constituents are converted into valuable energy thereby making it Zero Discharge
Process.
- Gas generated in the process is re-used to provide energy to the system thereby
making it self-reliant and also bring down the operating cost.
- There is no atmospheric emission during the process unlike other conventional
methods except for combustion gases which have pollutants less than the
prescribed norms the world over.
- Operates around 450 degrees, making it a low temperature process when compared
with other options.
- Safe and efficient system with built-in safety features enables even an unskilled user
to operate the machine with ease.
- Low capital cost and low operating cost.
- Fully automated system requires minimum man power.
NOTE: A patent is defined as a statutory privilege granted by the government to inventors,
and to other persons deriving their rights from the inventor, for fixed years, to exclude other
persons from manufacturing, using or selling a patented product or process.
- Hence a patent can be for a process or for a product. There is strict divergence
between product and process patent regimes. The developed countries follow
product patent system. On the other, process patent system is preferred by the
developing world.
- The two systems are known for their different levels of protection to inventors. Under
a process patent, the patent is granted for a particular manufacturing process, and
not for the product itself.
- Any other person can produce the same product through some other PROCESS,
modifying the various parameters. The implication is that there will be more than
one producer for the same product because of the possibility of different process for
the manufacturing of the product.
Incorrect
Polycrack technology is world’s first patented heterogeneous catalytic
process which converts multiple feed stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon
and water. Polycrack Plant can be fed with all types of Plastic, Petroleum sludge, Unsegregated
MSW (Municipal Solid Waste) with moisture up to 50%, E–Waste, Automobile
fluff, Organic waste including bamboo, garden waste etc., and Jatropha fruit and palm
bunch.
Polycrack has the following advantages over the conventional approach of treating solid
waste:-
- Pre-segregation of waste is not required to reform the waste. Waste as collected can
be directly fed into Polycrack.
- It has high tolerance to moisture hence drying of waste is not required.
- Waste is processed and reformed within 24 hours.
- It is an enclosed unit hence the working environment is dust free.
- Excellent air quality surrounding the plant.
- Biological decomposition is not allowed as the Waste is treated as it is
received.
- The foot print of the plant is small hence the area required for installing the plant is
less when compared with conventional method of processing.
- All constituents are converted into valuable energy thereby making it Zero Discharge
Process.
- Gas generated in the process is re-used to provide energy to the system thereby
making it self-reliant and also bring down the operating cost.
- There is no atmospheric emission during the process unlike other conventional
methods except for combustion gases which have pollutants less than the
prescribed norms the world over.
- Operates around 450 degrees, making it a low temperature process when compared
with other options.
- Safe and efficient system with built-in safety features enables even an unskilled user
to operate the machine with ease.
- Low capital cost and low operating cost.
- Fully automated system requires minimum man power.
NOTE: A patent is defined as a statutory privilege granted by the government to inventors,
and to other persons deriving their rights from the inventor, for fixed years, to exclude other
persons from manufacturing, using or selling a patented product or process.
- Hence a patent can be for a process or for a product. There is strict divergence
between product and process patent regimes. The developed countries follow
product patent system. On the other, process patent system is preferred by the
developing world.
- The two systems are known for their different levels of protection to inventors. Under
a process patent, the patent is granted for a particular manufacturing process, and
not for the product itself.
- Any other person can produce the same product through some other PROCESS,
modifying the various parameters. The implication is that there will be more than
one producer for the same product because of the possibility of different process for
the manufacturing of the product.
- Question 2 of 2
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the recently discovered mineral Goldschmidtite:
- It was discovered in deep sea mines of Arctic Ocean.
- It has high concentrations of elements like magnesium, iron, niobium and potassium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A new, curious mineral has been discovered inside a diamond unearthed from a mine in South Africa.
The mineral has been named goldschmidtite, after Victor Moritz Goldschmidt, the Norwegian scientist acknowledged as the founder of modern geochemistry.
Goldschmidtite has an unusual chemical signature for a mineral from Earth’s mantle, according to the University of Alberta, a student of which discovered it.
While the mantle is dominated by elements such as magnesium and iron, goldschmidtite has high concentrations of niobium, potassium and the rare earth elements lanthanum and cerium.
PhD student Nicole Meyer found a single grain of the mineral in the diamond, unearthed in Koffiefontein, South Africa.
The university described it as dark green and opaque.
Incorrect
A new, curious mineral has been discovered inside a diamond unearthed from a mine in South Africa.
The mineral has been named goldschmidtite, after Victor Moritz Goldschmidt, the Norwegian scientist acknowledged as the founder of modern geochemistry.
Goldschmidtite has an unusual chemical signature for a mineral from Earth’s mantle, according to the University of Alberta, a student of which discovered it.
While the mantle is dominated by elements such as magnesium and iron, goldschmidtite has high concentrations of niobium, potassium and the rare earth elements lanthanum and cerium.
PhD student Nicole Meyer found a single grain of the mineral in the diamond, unearthed in Koffiefontein, South Africa.
The university described it as dark green and opaque.
Biology and diseases
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Visceral Leishmaniasis:
1.It is caused by protozoan parasites.
2.It is never a fatal disease and may remain undetected in asymptomatic person throughout lifespan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The leishmaniases are a group of diseases caused by protozoan parasites from more than 20 Leishmania species. These parasites are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, a tiny – 2–3 mm long – insect vector.
The most common forms are cutaneous leishmaniasis, which causes skin sores, and visceral leishmaniasis, which affects several internal organs (usually spleen, liver, and bone marrow).
Some people have a silent infection, without any symptoms or signs. People who develop clinical evidence of infection usually have fever, weight loss, enlargement (swelling) of the spleen and liver, and abnormal blood tests.
Statement 2 is incorrect. If not treated, severe (advanced) cases of visceral leishmaniasis typically are fatal.
# To recognize the significant contributions towards defining the survival tactics of Leishmania donovani, Society of Biological Chemists (India) has chosen Dr Susanta Kar, Senior Scientist, CSIR-CDRI for this year’s Prof.A N Bhaduri Memorial Lecture Award.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The leishmaniases are a group of diseases caused by protozoan parasites from more than 20 Leishmania species. These parasites are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, a tiny – 2–3 mm long – insect vector.
The most common forms are cutaneous leishmaniasis, which causes skin sores, and visceral leishmaniasis, which affects several internal organs (usually spleen, liver, and bone marrow).
Some people have a silent infection, without any symptoms or signs. People who develop clinical evidence of infection usually have fever, weight loss, enlargement (swelling) of the spleen and liver, and abnormal blood tests.
Statement 2 is incorrect. If not treated, severe (advanced) cases of visceral leishmaniasis typically are fatal.
# To recognize the significant contributions towards defining the survival tactics of Leishmania donovani, Society of Biological Chemists (India) has chosen Dr Susanta Kar, Senior Scientist, CSIR-CDRI for this year’s Prof.A N Bhaduri Memorial Lecture Award. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Cancer:
1. The cancer cells are less specialized in their functions than normal cells.
2. The Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) 2013 does not include any cancer treatment drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is correct. Cancer is the name given to a collection of related diseases. In all types of cancer, some of the body’s cells begin to divide without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues.
Cancer cells differ from normal cells in many ways that allow them to grow out of control and become invasive. One important difference is that cancer cells are less specialized than normal cells. That is, whereas normal cells mature into very distinct cell types with specific functions, cancer cells do not. This is one reason that, unlike normal cells, cancer cells continue to divide without stopping.
In addition, cancer cells are able to ignore signals that normally tell cells to stop dividing or that begin a process known as programmed cell death, or apoptosis, which the body uses to get rid of unneeded cells.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates the prices of all Drugs as per the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) 2013.
It fixes the Ceiling Price of scheduled formulations as per the list of medicines specified in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) which are included in the First Schedule of Drug Pricing Control Order (DPCO), 2013.
First Schedule of DPCO, 2013 also includes select drugs used for the treatment of cancer. However, there has been a long standing felt need to further regulate the Non Scheduled segment also where high markups have led to arbitrary pricing practices.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is correct. Cancer is the name given to a collection of related diseases. In all types of cancer, some of the body’s cells begin to divide without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues.
Cancer cells differ from normal cells in many ways that allow them to grow out of control and become invasive. One important difference is that cancer cells are less specialized than normal cells. That is, whereas normal cells mature into very distinct cell types with specific functions, cancer cells do not. This is one reason that, unlike normal cells, cancer cells continue to divide without stopping.
In addition, cancer cells are able to ignore signals that normally tell cells to stop dividing or that begin a process known as programmed cell death, or apoptosis, which the body uses to get rid of unneeded cells.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates the prices of all Drugs as per the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) 2013.
It fixes the Ceiling Price of scheduled formulations as per the list of medicines specified in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) which are included in the First Schedule of Drug Pricing Control Order (DPCO), 2013.
First Schedule of DPCO, 2013 also includes select drugs used for the treatment of cancer. However, there has been a long standing felt need to further regulate the Non Scheduled segment also where high markups have led to arbitrary pricing practices. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat are the Aptameters?
Correct
Aptameters are oligonucleotide or peptide molecules that bind to a specific target molecule. Aptamers can be classified as: DNA or RNA aptamers consisting of (usually short) strands of oligonucleotides and Peptide aptamers consisting of one (or more) short variable peptide domains, attached at both ends to a protein scaffold.
These the artificial single-stranded DNA or RNA sequences (or peptides) fold into secondary and tertiary structures making them bind to certain targets with extremely high specificity.
# Birla Institute of Technology, Ranchi, has initiated the research with support from the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) under DST on the covid-19 detection kit, which can be stored under less stringent conditions.
Scientists are working on detecting a target spike protein using bioinformatics tools. The kit will use aptamer (a biosensor) to detect SARS-Co-V2.Incorrect
Aptameters are oligonucleotide or peptide molecules that bind to a specific target molecule. Aptamers can be classified as: DNA or RNA aptamers consisting of (usually short) strands of oligonucleotides and Peptide aptamers consisting of one (or more) short variable peptide domains, attached at both ends to a protein scaffold.
These the artificial single-stranded DNA or RNA sequences (or peptides) fold into secondary and tertiary structures making them bind to certain targets with extremely high specificity.
# Birla Institute of Technology, Ranchi, has initiated the research with support from the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) under DST on the covid-19 detection kit, which can be stored under less stringent conditions.
Scientists are working on detecting a target spike protein using bioinformatics tools. The kit will use aptamer (a biosensor) to detect SARS-Co-V2. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe contaminated water and poor sanitation are linked to transmission of which of the following disease(s)?
1. Cholera
2. Hepatitis A
3. Typhoid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Contaminated water and poor sanitation are linked to transmission of diseases such as cholera, diarrhoea, dysentery, hepatitis A, typhoid, and polio.
Diarrhoea is the most widely known disease linked to contaminated food and water but there are other hazards. In 2017, over 220 million people required preventative treatment for schistosomiasis – an acute and chronic disease caused by parasitic worms contracted through exposure to infested water.
In 2017, 71% of the global population (5.3 billion people) used a safely managed drinking-water service – that is, one located on premises, available when needed, and free from contamination.
In 2010, the UN General Assembly explicitly recognized the human right to water and sanitation.
# Data Source: World Health Organisation Website.Incorrect
Contaminated water and poor sanitation are linked to transmission of diseases such as cholera, diarrhoea, dysentery, hepatitis A, typhoid, and polio.
Diarrhoea is the most widely known disease linked to contaminated food and water but there are other hazards. In 2017, over 220 million people required preventative treatment for schistosomiasis – an acute and chronic disease caused by parasitic worms contracted through exposure to infested water.
In 2017, 71% of the global population (5.3 billion people) used a safely managed drinking-water service – that is, one located on premises, available when needed, and free from contamination.
In 2010, the UN General Assembly explicitly recognized the human right to water and sanitation.
# Data Source: World Health Organisation Website. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Glanders Disease:
1. It is a bacterial disease.
2. It only affects animals and not humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Glanders is an infectious disease that is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Though not common, people have gotten glanders from sick animals. People who are in close contact with animals that have glanders are more likely to get the disease than those who are not.
# In the past, the germs that cause glanders, the bacteria called Burkholderia mallei, have been used as a biological weapon during wars.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Glanders is an infectious disease that is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Though not common, people have gotten glanders from sick animals. People who are in close contact with animals that have glanders are more likely to get the disease than those who are not.
# In the past, the germs that cause glanders, the bacteria called Burkholderia mallei, have been used as a biological weapon during wars. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are source(s) of passive immunity?
1. Antibodies transported across the placenta to infant receives from its mother
2. Blood plasma transfusion from patients who have recovered from an infection
3. Vaccination by live attenuated vaccines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 and 2 are correct. Passive immunity is the transfer of antibody produced by one human or another animal to another. Passive immunity provides protection against some infections, but this protection is temporary.
-The most common form of passive immunity is that which an infant receives from its mother. Antibodies are transported across the placenta during pregnancy. As a result, a full-term infant will have the same antibodies as its mother. These antibodies will protect the infant from certain diseases for up to a year.
-Many types of blood products contain antibody. Some products (e.g., washed or reconstituted red blood cells) contain a relatively small amount of antibody and some (e.g., intravenous immune globulin and plasma products) contain a large amount which is used for antibody transfusion.Option 3 is incorrect. Active immunity is stimulation of the immune system to produce antigen-specific humoral (antibody) and cellular immunity. Unlike passive immunity, which is temporary, active immunity usually lasts for many years, often for a lifetime.
-One way to acquire active immunity is to survive infection with the disease-causing form of the organism.
-Another way to produce active immunity is by vaccination. Vaccines interact with the immune system and often produce an immune response similar to that produced by the natural infection, but they do not subject the recipient to the disease and its potential complications.Incorrect
Option 1 and 2 are correct. Passive immunity is the transfer of antibody produced by one human or another animal to another. Passive immunity provides protection against some infections, but this protection is temporary.
-The most common form of passive immunity is that which an infant receives from its mother. Antibodies are transported across the placenta during pregnancy. As a result, a full-term infant will have the same antibodies as its mother. These antibodies will protect the infant from certain diseases for up to a year.
-Many types of blood products contain antibody. Some products (e.g., washed or reconstituted red blood cells) contain a relatively small amount of antibody and some (e.g., intravenous immune globulin and plasma products) contain a large amount which is used for antibody transfusion.Option 3 is incorrect. Active immunity is stimulation of the immune system to produce antigen-specific humoral (antibody) and cellular immunity. Unlike passive immunity, which is temporary, active immunity usually lasts for many years, often for a lifetime.
-One way to acquire active immunity is to survive infection with the disease-causing form of the organism.
-Another way to produce active immunity is by vaccination. Vaccines interact with the immune system and often produce an immune response similar to that produced by the natural infection, but they do not subject the recipient to the disease and its potential complications. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding immune system of Human body:
1. Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, dead or dying cells.
2. Antibodies are produced by specialized white blood cells called B lymphocytes.
3. T-lymphocytes attack cells in the body that have already been infected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
All of the above statements are correct.
The immune system uses several tools to fight infection. Blood contains red blood cells, for carrying oxygen to tissues and organs, and white or immune cells, for fighting infection. These white cells consist primarily of macrophages, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes:
Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, plus dead or dying cells. The macrophages leave behind parts of the invading germs called antigens. The body identifies antigens as dangerous and stimulates antibodies to attack them.
B-lymphocytes are defensive white blood cells. They produce antibodies that attack the antigens left behind by the macrophages. Each B cell produces a single species of antibody, each with a unique antigen-binding site.
T-lymphocytes are another type of defensive white blood cell. There are two major types of T cells: the helper T cell and the cytotoxic T cell. As the names suggest helper T cells ‘help’ other cells of the immune system, whilst cytotoxic T cells kill virally infected cells and tumors.Incorrect
All of the above statements are correct.
The immune system uses several tools to fight infection. Blood contains red blood cells, for carrying oxygen to tissues and organs, and white or immune cells, for fighting infection. These white cells consist primarily of macrophages, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes:
Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, plus dead or dying cells. The macrophages leave behind parts of the invading germs called antigens. The body identifies antigens as dangerous and stimulates antibodies to attack them.
B-lymphocytes are defensive white blood cells. They produce antibodies that attack the antigens left behind by the macrophages. Each B cell produces a single species of antibody, each with a unique antigen-binding site.
T-lymphocytes are another type of defensive white blood cell. There are two major types of T cells: the helper T cell and the cytotoxic T cell. As the names suggest helper T cells ‘help’ other cells of the immune system, whilst cytotoxic T cells kill virally infected cells and tumors. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Influenza Viruses:
1. Influenza A viruses are found in different animals, including chickens, pigs, horses and whales.
2. Influenza D viruses primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
# Influenza A(H1N1) viruses are related to the pandemic 2009 H1N1 virus that emerged in the spring of 2009 and caused a flu pandemic.Correct
Both statements are correct.
There are four types of influenza viruses: A, B, C and D. Human influenza A and B viruses cause seasonal epidemics of disease (known as the flu season) almost every year.Influenza A viruses also are found in many different animals, including ducks, chickens, pigs, whales, horses and seals.
Influenza A viruses are divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus: hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).Influenza type C infections generally cause mild illness and are not thought to cause human flu epidemics. Influenza D viruses primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
There are four types of influenza viruses: A, B, C and D. Human influenza A and B viruses cause seasonal epidemics of disease (known as the flu season) almost every year.Influenza A viruses also are found in many different animals, including ducks, chickens, pigs, whales, horses and seals.
Influenza A viruses are divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus: hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).Influenza type C infections generally cause mild illness and are not thought to cause human flu epidemics. Influenza D viruses primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the SARS-COV-2:
1. It is a DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) virus.
2. It enters human cells by its Spike proteins binding to the ACE2 receptors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is incorrect. The SARS-CoV-2 is a positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus.
An RNA virus is a virus that has RNA (ribonucleic acid) as its genetic material. RNA viruses replicate their genomes using virally encoded RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp).The RNA may be either double- or single-stranded.Statement 2 is correct. The SARS-COV-2 has spike proteins which binds with the Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) on cell membranes in human body.
Incorrect
: Statement 1 is incorrect. The SARS-CoV-2 is a positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus.
An RNA virus is a virus that has RNA (ribonucleic acid) as its genetic material. RNA viruses replicate their genomes using virally encoded RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp).The RNA may be either double- or single-stranded.Statement 2 is correct. The SARS-COV-2 has spike proteins which binds with the Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) on cell membranes in human body.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Thalassemia disease?
1. It is an inherited blood disorder.
2. The human body doesn’t make enough hemoglobin protein.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Both statements are correct.
Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder caused when the body doesn’t make enough of a protein called hemoglobin, an important part of red blood cells.
When there isn’t enough hemoglobin, the body’s red blood cells don’t function properly and they last shorter periods of time, so there are fewer healthy red blood cells traveling in the bloodstream.
People with thalassemia may have mild or severe anemia because Red blood cells carry oxygen to all the cells of the body and when there are not enough healthy red blood cells, there is also not enough oxygen delivered to all the other cells of the body..Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder caused when the body doesn’t make enough of a protein called hemoglobin, an important part of red blood cells.
When there isn’t enough hemoglobin, the body’s red blood cells don’t function properly and they last shorter periods of time, so there are fewer healthy red blood cells traveling in the bloodstream.
People with thalassemia may have mild or severe anemia because Red blood cells carry oxygen to all the cells of the body and when there are not enough healthy red blood cells, there is also not enough oxygen delivered to all the other cells of the body.. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Adenovirus:
- It can spread from an infected person to others through the air by coughing and sneezing.
- The Sputnik V vaccine for COVID-19 is based on adenovirus vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).
Adenoviruses usually spread from infected people to others through: close personal contact such as touching or shaking hands, the air by coughing and sneezing, touching objects or surfaces with adenoviruses on them then touching your mouth, nose, or eyes.
Statement 2 is correct. Vectors are viruses that have had the gene responsible for replication removed. Therefore, they no longer pose any threat of infection. Adenoviral vectors are considered safe, and are some of the easiest to engineer.
Scientists use vectors to transport genetic material from a different virus -the one that is being vaccinated against -into a human cell.
Sputnik V uses two types of adenoviral vectors — Ad5 and Ad26 — in the COVID-19 vaccine. In this way, they trick the body, which has developed immunity against the first type of vector and boost the effectiveness of the vaccine with the second shot using a different vector.
Oxford University and China’s Cansino Biologics are also using Adenovirus vector for developing COVID-19 vaccine.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).
Adenoviruses usually spread from infected people to others through: close personal contact such as touching or shaking hands, the air by coughing and sneezing, touching objects or surfaces with adenoviruses on them then touching your mouth, nose, or eyes.
Statement 2 is correct. Vectors are viruses that have had the gene responsible for replication removed. Therefore, they no longer pose any threat of infection. Adenoviral vectors are considered safe, and are some of the easiest to engineer.
Scientists use vectors to transport genetic material from a different virus -the one that is being vaccinated against -into a human cell.
Sputnik V uses two types of adenoviral vectors — Ad5 and Ad26 — in the COVID-19 vaccine. In this way, they trick the body, which has developed immunity against the first type of vector and boost the effectiveness of the vaccine with the second shot using a different vector.
Oxford University and China’s Cansino Biologics are also using Adenovirus vector for developing COVID-19 vaccine.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following disease has the highest average Case fatality Rate?
Correct
The case-fatality rate is the proportion of persons with a particular condition (cases) who die from that condition.
The overall case-fatality rate of Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV) infection is around 35%.
Ebola virus disease (EVD), formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever, is a rare but severe, often fatal illness in humans. The average EVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 25% to 90% in past outbreaks.
The case-fatality ratio of SARS is estimated to range from 0% to more than 50% depending on the age group affected, with an overall CFR estimate of approximately 15%. A global case-fatality ratio of 11% was recorded at the end of the outbreak (2003).
COVID-19 fatality rate has been hovering significantly below 5% globally. India’s CFR has been reported to be around 2%.
Incorrect
The case-fatality rate is the proportion of persons with a particular condition (cases) who die from that condition.
The overall case-fatality rate of Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV) infection is around 35%.
Ebola virus disease (EVD), formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever, is a rare but severe, often fatal illness in humans. The average EVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 25% to 90% in past outbreaks.
The case-fatality ratio of SARS is estimated to range from 0% to more than 50% depending on the age group affected, with an overall CFR estimate of approximately 15%. A global case-fatality ratio of 11% was recorded at the end of the outbreak (2003).
COVID-19 fatality rate has been hovering significantly below 5% globally. India’s CFR has been reported to be around 2%.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Sickle Cell Disease:
- These are genetically inherited red blood cell disorders.
- The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant shortage of red blood cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Sickle Cell Disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders.
Healthy red blood cells are round, and they move through small blood vessels to carry oxygen to all parts of the body. In someone who has SCD, the red blood cells become hard and sticky and look like a C-shaped farm tool called a “sickle”.
The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant shortage of red blood cells. Also, when they travel through small blood vessels, they get stuck and clog the blood flow. This can cause pain and other serious problems such infection, acute chest syndrome and stroke.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Sickle Cell Disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders.
Healthy red blood cells are round, and they move through small blood vessels to carry oxygen to all parts of the body. In someone who has SCD, the red blood cells become hard and sticky and look like a C-shaped farm tool called a “sickle”.
The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant shortage of red blood cells. Also, when they travel through small blood vessels, they get stuck and clog the blood flow. This can cause pain and other serious problems such infection, acute chest syndrome and stroke.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are inherited blood disorders?
- Thalassemia
- Sickle Cell Disease
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. Thalassemia is an inherited (passed from parents to
children through genes) blood disorder caused when the body doesn’t make enough of a
protein called hemoglobin, an important part of red blood cells.
When there isn’t enough hemoglobin, the body’s red blood cells don’t function properly and
they last shorter periods of time, so there are fewer healthy red blood cells traveling in the
bloodstream.
Option 2 is correct. Sickle Cell Disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders.
Healthy red blood cells are round, and they move through small blood vessels to carry
oxygen to all parts of the body. In someone who has SCD, the red blood cells become hard
and sticky and look like a C-shaped farm tool called a “sickle”.
The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant shortage of red blood cells. Also, when
they travel through small blood vessels, they get stuck and clog the blood flow. This can
cause pain and other serious problems such infection, acute chest syndrome and stroke.
# Second phase of “Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojna” for the underprivileged Thalassemic
patients was launched recently. It is a Coal India CSR funded Hematopoietic Stem Cell
Transplantation (HSCT) program that aims to provide a one-time cure opportunity for
Haemoglobinopathies like Thalassaemia and Sickle Cell Disease for patients who have a
matched family donor.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Thalassemia is an inherited (passed from parents to
children through genes) blood disorder caused when the body doesn’t make enough of a
protein called hemoglobin, an important part of red blood cells.
When there isn’t enough hemoglobin, the body’s red blood cells don’t function properly and
they last shorter periods of time, so there are fewer healthy red blood cells traveling in the
bloodstream.
Option 2 is correct. Sickle Cell Disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders.
Healthy red blood cells are round, and they move through small blood vessels to carry
oxygen to all parts of the body. In someone who has SCD, the red blood cells become hard
and sticky and look like a C-shaped farm tool called a “sickle”.
The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant shortage of red blood cells. Also, when
they travel through small blood vessels, they get stuck and clog the blood flow. This can
cause pain and other serious problems such infection, acute chest syndrome and stroke.
# Second phase of “Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojna” for the underprivileged Thalassemic
patients was launched recently. It is a Coal India CSR funded Hematopoietic Stem Cell
Transplantation (HSCT) program that aims to provide a one-time cure opportunity for
Haemoglobinopathies like Thalassaemia and Sickle Cell Disease for patients who have a
matched family donor.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome’ (SFTS):
- It is a tick-borne viral disease.
- It is endemic to Africa with no known cases in rest of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome virus (SFTSV) is a tickborne virus (genus Phlebovirus, family Phenuiviridae) that can cause a mild to severe febrile illness similar to hemorrhagic fever.
SFTS is characterized by acute high fever, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, elevated serum hepatic enzymes, gastrointestinal symptoms, and multiorgan failure.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome (SFTS) illness was first confirmed in China in 2009. It was retrospectively identified in South Korea in 2010 and the western regions of Japan in 2013.
Recently the disease has killed seven and infected at least 60 in China.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome virus (SFTSV) is a tickborne virus (genus Phlebovirus, family Phenuiviridae) that can cause a mild to severe febrile illness similar to hemorrhagic fever.
SFTS is characterized by acute high fever, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, elevated serum hepatic enzymes, gastrointestinal symptoms, and multiorgan failure.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome (SFTS) illness was first confirmed in China in 2009. It was retrospectively identified in South Korea in 2010 and the western regions of Japan in 2013.
Recently the disease has killed seven and infected at least 60 in China.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the :
- It is a protein on the surface of several cell types in the body.
- The SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2 using Spike proteins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen.
ACE2 is present in many cell types and tissues including the lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, liver and gastrointestinal tract. It is present in epithelial cells, which line certain tissues and create protective barriers.
The SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2, using the spike-like protein on its surface, prior to entry and infection of cells. Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular receptor for the virus that causes COVID-19.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen.
ACE2 is present in many cell types and tissues including the lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, liver and gastrointestinal tract. It is present in epithelial cells, which line certain tissues and create protective barriers.
The SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2, using the spike-like protein on its surface, prior to entry and infection of cells. Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular receptor for the virus that causes COVID-19.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Blood Plasma:
- The Convalescent plasma therapy uses blood from people who’ve recovered from an
infection.
- Plasma makes up more than half of the Blood content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Convalescent plasma, extracted from the blood of
patients recovering from an infection, is a source of antibodies against the infection. The
therapy involves using their plasma to help others recover.
Statement 2 is correct. Blood is a specialized body fluid. It has four main components:
plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Plasma is the largest part of your blood. It, makes up more than half (about 55%) of its
overall content. When separated from the rest of the blood, plasma is a light-yellow liquid.
Plasma carries water, salts and enzymes.
The main role of plasma is to take nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the
body that need it. Cells also put their waste products into the plasma. The plasma then
helps remove this waste from the body. Blood plasma also carries all parts of the blood
through your circulatory system.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Convalescent plasma, extracted from the blood of
patients recovering from an infection, is a source of antibodies against the infection. The
therapy involves using their plasma to help others recover.
Statement 2 is correct. Blood is a specialized body fluid. It has four main components:
plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Plasma is the largest part of your blood. It, makes up more than half (about 55%) of its
overall content. When separated from the rest of the blood, plasma is a light-yellow liquid.
Plasma carries water, salts and enzymes.
The main role of plasma is to take nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the
body that need it. Cells also put their waste products into the plasma. The plasma then
helps remove this waste from the body. Blood plasma also carries all parts of the blood
through your circulatory system.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C:
- It is a major cause of liver cancer.
- It can spread through exposure to blood from infected person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Hepatitis C is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis
C virus (HCV): the virus can cause both acute and chronic hepatitis, ranging in severity
from a mild illness lasting a few weeks to a serious, lifelong illness. Hepatitis C is a major
cause of liver cancer.
Statement 2 is correct. The hepatitis C virus is a bloodborne virus: the most common
modes of infection are through exposure to small quantities of blood. This may happen
through injection drug use, unsafe injection practices, unsafe health care, transfusion of
unscreened blood and blood products, and sexual practices that lead to exposure to blood.
# This year’s Nobel Prize winners in Medicine; Harvey J. Alter, Michael Houghton and Charles
- Rice made seminal discoveries that led to the identification of a novel virus, Hepatitis C
virus.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Hepatitis C is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis
C virus (HCV): the virus can cause both acute and chronic hepatitis, ranging in severity
from a mild illness lasting a few weeks to a serious, lifelong illness. Hepatitis C is a major
cause of liver cancer.
Statement 2 is correct. The hepatitis C virus is a bloodborne virus: the most common
modes of infection are through exposure to small quantities of blood. This may happen
through injection drug use, unsafe injection practices, unsafe health care, transfusion of
unscreened blood and blood products, and sexual practices that lead to exposure to blood.
# This year’s Nobel Prize winners in Medicine; Harvey J. Alter, Michael Houghton and Charles
- Rice made seminal discoveries that led to the identification of a novel virus, Hepatitis C
virus.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the National Viral Hepatitis Control
Program (NVHCP):
- It aims to achieve country wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030.
- Its components include prevention, diagnosis as well as treatment of Hepatitis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program was launched by Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare on the World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.
It is an integrated initiative for the prevention and control of viral hepatitis in India to achieve Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.3 which aims to ending viral hepatitis by 2030.
Statement 1 is correct.
Aim of the program:
– Combat hepatitis and achieve country wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030;
– Achieve significant reduction in the infected population, morbidity and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C viz. Cirrhosis and Hepato-cellular carcinoma (liver cancer);
– Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.
Statement 2 is correct. Components of NVHCP: Prevention, Diagnosis and Treatment,
Monitoring and Evaluation, Surveillance and Research; and Training and Capacity
Building
Hepatitis A is usually a short-term infection. Hepatitis B and hepatitis C can also begin as
short-term infections, but in some people, the virus remains in the body and causes chronic
(long-term) infection. There are vaccines to prevent hepatitis A and hepatitis B; however,
there is no vaccine for hepatitis C.
Incorrect
The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program was launched by Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare on the World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.
It is an integrated initiative for the prevention and control of viral hepatitis in India to achieve Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.3 which aims to ending viral hepatitis by 2030.
Statement 1 is correct.
Aim of the program:
– Combat hepatitis and achieve country wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030;
– Achieve significant reduction in the infected population, morbidity and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C viz. Cirrhosis and Hepato-cellular carcinoma (liver cancer);
– Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.
Statement 2 is correct. Components of NVHCP: Prevention, Diagnosis and Treatment,
Monitoring and Evaluation, Surveillance and Research; and Training and Capacity
Building
Hepatitis A is usually a short-term infection. Hepatitis B and hepatitis C can also begin as
short-term infections, but in some people, the virus remains in the body and causes chronic
(long-term) infection. There are vaccines to prevent hepatitis A and hepatitis B; however,
there is no vaccine for hepatitis C.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyVaccine(s) is/are available for which of the following disease(s)?
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver. When the liver is inflamed or damaged, its function can be affected. The common hepatitis viruses are hepatitis A virus, hepatitis B virus, and hepatitis C virus.
Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are liver infections caused by three different viruses. Although each can cause similar symptoms, they are spread in different ways and can affect the liver differently
Incorrect
Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver. When the liver is inflamed or damaged, its function can be affected. The common hepatitis viruses are hepatitis A virus, hepatitis B virus, and hepatitis C virus.
Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are liver infections caused by three different viruses. Although each can cause similar symptoms, they are spread in different ways and can affect the liver differently
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Cat Que Virus:
- Domestic pigs are considered to be the primary mammalian hosts for CQV.
- Humans can get infected through mosquitoes carrying CQV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The presence of the Cat Que virus has been largely reported in Culex
mosquitoes in China and in pigs in Vietnam.
The domestic pigs are considered to be the primary mammalian hosts for CQV.
CQV belongs to the Simbu serogroup and infects both humans and economically important
livestock species. Humans can get infected through mosquitoes as well.
# In a study published in July in the Indian Journal of Medical Research, scientists from the
Pune-based Maximum Containment Laboratory and ICMR-National Institute of Virology have
noted the presence of antibodies against the Cat Que virus (CQV) in two human serum
samples.
Incorrect
The presence of the Cat Que virus has been largely reported in Culex
mosquitoes in China and in pigs in Vietnam.
The domestic pigs are considered to be the primary mammalian hosts for CQV.
CQV belongs to the Simbu serogroup and infects both humans and economically important
livestock species. Humans can get infected through mosquitoes as well.
# In a study published in July in the Indian Journal of Medical Research, scientists from the
Pune-based Maximum Containment Laboratory and ICMR-National Institute of Virology have
noted the presence of antibodies against the Cat Que virus (CQV) in two human serum
samples.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correct regarding the Community transmission of a
disease?
Correct
A disease is said to be in Community transmission stage when there is no clear source of origin of the infection in a new person/community. It can no longer be identified who became infected after being exposed to someone, who interacted with infected people.
The source and chain of infections can no longer be established. Therefore, contact tracing becomes difficult and has limited use in arresting the spread of disease.
# Herd immunity occurs when a large portion of a community becomes immune to a disease, making the spread of disease from person to person unlikely. This can happen in two ways:
- Many people contract the disease and in time build up an immune response to it (natural immunity)
- Many people are vaccinated against the disease to achieve immunity.
Incorrect
A disease is said to be in Community transmission stage when there is no clear source of origin of the infection in a new person/community. It can no longer be identified who became infected after being exposed to someone, who interacted with infected people.
The source and chain of infections can no longer be established. Therefore, contact tracing becomes difficult and has limited use in arresting the spread of disease.
# Herd immunity occurs when a large portion of a community becomes immune to a disease, making the spread of disease from person to person unlikely. This can happen in two ways:
- Many people contract the disease and in time build up an immune response to it (natural immunity)
- Many people are vaccinated against the disease to achieve immunity.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the term ‘Immunogenicity’?
Correct
Immunogenicity is the ability of a foreign substance, such as an antigen, to provoke an immune response in the body of a human or other animal. It is the ability to induce a humoral and/or cell-mediated immune responses.
Antigenicity is the ability to be specifically recognized by the antibodies generated as a result of the immune response to the given substance.
Incorrect
Immunogenicity is the ability of a foreign substance, such as an antigen, to provoke an immune response in the body of a human or other animal. It is the ability to induce a humoral and/or cell-mediated immune responses.
Antigenicity is the ability to be specifically recognized by the antibodies generated as a result of the immune response to the given substance.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Trans fats:
- It is a byproduct of hydrogenation that is used to turn healthy oils into solids.
- Trans fats raise the (high-density lipoprotein) HDL cholesterol levels in bloodstream.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Trans fats are a byproduct of a process called hydrogenation that is used to turn healthy oils into solids and to prevent them from becoming rancid.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Trans fats raise the bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower good (high-density lipoprotein) HDL cholesterol levels. Eating trans fats increases risk of developing heart disease and stroke. It’s also associated with a higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
# World Food Day is observed on Oct. 16 and this year’s theme is Grow, Nourish, sustain.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Trans fats are a byproduct of a process called hydrogenation that is used to turn healthy oils into solids and to prevent them from becoming rancid.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Trans fats raise the bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower good (high-density lipoprotein) HDL cholesterol levels. Eating trans fats increases risk of developing heart disease and stroke. It’s also associated with a higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
# World Food Day is observed on Oct. 16 and this year’s theme is Grow, Nourish, sustain.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are source(s) of Vitamin A?
- Milk
- Eggs
- Fish oil
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Vitamin A is involved in immune function, vision, reproduction, and cellular communication. Two forms of vitamin A are available in the human diet: preformed vitamin
A (retinol and its esterified form, retinyl ester) and provitamin A carotenoids.
Concentrations of preformed vitamin A are in liver and fish oils, milk and eggs, which also include some provitamin A. Most dietary provitamin A comes from leafy green vegetables, orange and yellow vegetables, tomato products, fruits, and some vegetable oils.
# Three out of four rural Indians cannot afford a nutritious diet, according to a paper recently published in journal Food Policy.
Incorrect
Vitamin A is involved in immune function, vision, reproduction, and cellular communication. Two forms of vitamin A are available in the human diet: preformed vitamin
A (retinol and its esterified form, retinyl ester) and provitamin A carotenoids.
Concentrations of preformed vitamin A are in liver and fish oils, milk and eggs, which also include some provitamin A. Most dietary provitamin A comes from leafy green vegetables, orange and yellow vegetables, tomato products, fruits, and some vegetable oils.
# Three out of four rural Indians cannot afford a nutritious diet, according to a paper recently published in journal Food Policy.
Biology and diseases 2
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is B.1.1.7, which has been in news recently?
Correct
The highly infectious variant of SARS-COV-2 that has been reported to have emerged in south-east England that is spreading rapidly to the rest of the UK and is already present elsewhere in the world.
The World Health Organisation said its Evolution Working Group is working closely with the UK medical authorities to understand how the variant, now called B.1.1.7, is likely to affect the course of the pandemic. It has been detected in the Netherlands, Denmark and Australia.
Scientists say two aspects of B.1.1.7 give cause for concern. One is the unprecedented number of mutations it carries. The other is the speed with which it is supplanting other strains of the Sars-Cov-2 virus in south-east England.
Incorrect
The highly infectious variant of SARS-COV-2 that has been reported to have emerged in south-east England that is spreading rapidly to the rest of the UK and is already present elsewhere in the world.
The World Health Organisation said its Evolution Working Group is working closely with the UK medical authorities to understand how the variant, now called B.1.1.7, is likely to affect the course of the pandemic. It has been detected in the Netherlands, Denmark and Australia.
Scientists say two aspects of B.1.1.7 give cause for concern. One is the unprecedented number of mutations it carries. The other is the speed with which it is supplanting other strains of the Sars-Cov-2 virus in south-east England.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following can cause a mutation in genes?
- If an error is made as DNA copies itself during cell division
- Exposure to ultraviolet radiation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can lead to changes in the structure of an encoded protein or to a decrease or complete loss in its expression.
–When a cell divides, it makes a copy of its DNA — and sometimes the copy is not quite perfect. That small difference from the original DNA sequence is a mutation.
— Mutations can also be caused by exposure to specific chemicals or radiation. Ultraviolet (UV) light has strong genotoxic effects to produce DNA damage, induce mutations, and, in the worst case, cause the development of tumors.
Incorrect
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can lead to changes in the structure of an encoded protein or to a decrease or complete loss in its expression.
–When a cell divides, it makes a copy of its DNA — and sometimes the copy is not quite perfect. That small difference from the original DNA sequence is a mutation.
— Mutations can also be caused by exposure to specific chemicals or radiation. Ultraviolet (UV) light has strong genotoxic effects to produce DNA damage, induce mutations, and, in the worst case, cause the development of tumors.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the FELUDA test:
- It is aimed at detection of genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
- It uses CRISPR technology for COVID-19 diagnosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay (FELUDA) test is a paper strip test for diaagnosis of SARS-COV-2.
It uses CRISPR-Cas technology for the detection of genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
In this method, a protein called FnCas9 and a guide RNA (gRNA) which helps in recognising the viral genes is used. If the patient sample has the viral gene, this gRNA-FnCas9 complex binds to the gene and using a paper strip this binding can be visualised.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay (FELUDA) test is a paper strip test for diaagnosis of SARS-COV-2.
It uses CRISPR-Cas technology for the detection of genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
In this method, a protein called FnCas9 and a guide RNA (gRNA) which helps in recognising the viral genes is used. If the patient sample has the viral gene, this gRNA-FnCas9 complex binds to the gene and using a paper strip this binding can be visualised.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Spike proteins:
- These are carbohydrate containing proteins protruding from envelope of coronaviruses.
- The spike proteins latch the virus onto a human body cell.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Members of the coronavirus family have sharp bumps that protrude from the surface of their outer envelopes. Those bumps are known as spike proteins. They’re actually glycoproteins. That means they contain a carbohydrate (such as a sugar molecule).
Statement 2 is correct. Spike proteins play an important role in how these viruses infect their hosts. S proteins can change shape to interact with a protein on the surface of human cells. Those spike proteins latch the virus onto a cell. This allows them to get entry into those cells.
Without the S protein, viruses like the novel SARS-CoV-2 would not be able to interact with the cells of potential hosts like animals and humans to cause infection. As a result, the S protein represents an ideal target for vaccine and antiviral research endeavors.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Members of the coronavirus family have sharp bumps that protrude from the surface of their outer envelopes. Those bumps are known as spike proteins. They’re actually glycoproteins. That means they contain a carbohydrate (such as a sugar molecule).
Statement 2 is correct. Spike proteins play an important role in how these viruses infect their hosts. S proteins can change shape to interact with a protein on the surface of human cells. Those spike proteins latch the virus onto a cell. This allows them to get entry into those cells.
Without the S protein, viruses like the novel SARS-CoV-2 would not be able to interact with the cells of potential hosts like animals and humans to cause infection. As a result, the S protein represents an ideal target for vaccine and antiviral research endeavors.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is ‘Variant Under Investigation (VUI)-20212/01’?
Correct
A new variant of SARS- CoV 2 virus [Variant Under Investigation (VUI)-20212/01] also referred to as B.1.1.7 has been reported by the Government of United Kingdom (UK) to World Health Organization (WHO).
This variant is estimated by European Center for Disease Control (ECDC) to be more transmissible and affecting younger population. This variant is defined by a set of 17 changes or mutations. One of the most significant is an N501Y mutation in the spike protein that the virus uses to bind to the human ACE2 receptor. Changes in this part of the spike protein may result in the virus becoming more infectious and spreading more easily between people.
Incorrect
A new variant of SARS- CoV 2 virus [Variant Under Investigation (VUI)-20212/01] also referred to as B.1.1.7 has been reported by the Government of United Kingdom (UK) to World Health Organization (WHO).
This variant is estimated by European Center for Disease Control (ECDC) to be more transmissible and affecting younger population. This variant is defined by a set of 17 changes or mutations. One of the most significant is an N501Y mutation in the spike protein that the virus uses to bind to the human ACE2 receptor. Changes in this part of the spike protein may result in the virus becoming more infectious and spreading more easily between people.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe 501.V2 variant of SARS-COV-2 has been identified in which of the following country?
Correct
The new variant known as 501Y.V2 was discovered through routine surveillance by a network of laboratories in South Africa.
South Africa reported last week that scientists have found a new genetic mutation which might be responsible for the recent surge in Covid-19 cases in South Africa.
The new variant has multiple changes in the spike protein, the part of the virus that binds to cells inside the human body and that is also the main target for many of the antibodies produced during infection or after vaccination. Scientists have isolated one particular mutation – N501Y, common to both the new UK variant and that from South Africa – which they believe is important to its ability to spread fast.
Incorrect
The new variant known as 501Y.V2 was discovered through routine surveillance by a network of laboratories in South Africa.
South Africa reported last week that scientists have found a new genetic mutation which might be responsible for the recent surge in Covid-19 cases in South Africa.
The new variant has multiple changes in the spike protein, the part of the virus that binds to cells inside the human body and that is also the main target for many of the antibodies produced during infection or after vaccination. Scientists have isolated one particular mutation – N501Y, common to both the new UK variant and that from South Africa – which they believe is important to its ability to spread fast.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Shigella infection:
- It is a bacterial infection.
- Children are more susceptible to the Shigella infection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Shigella bacteria cause an infection called shigellosis. Most people with Shigella infection have diarrhea (sometimes bloody), fever, and stomach cramps. Symptoms usually begin 1–2 days after infection and last 7 days.
Shigella is very contagious. People get infected with shigella when they come in contact with and swallow small amounts of bacteria from the stool of a person who is infected with shigella.
Statement 2 is correct. Children under age 10 are most likely to get shigella infection but it can occur at any age.
# Recently, several cases of the Shigella infection have been reported in North Kerala.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Shigella bacteria cause an infection called shigellosis. Most people with Shigella infection have diarrhea (sometimes bloody), fever, and stomach cramps. Symptoms usually begin 1–2 days after infection and last 7 days.
Shigella is very contagious. People get infected with shigella when they come in contact with and swallow small amounts of bacteria from the stool of a person who is infected with shigella.
Statement 2 is correct. Children under age 10 are most likely to get shigella infection but it can occur at any age.
# Recently, several cases of the Shigella infection have been reported in North Kerala.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Keratinocytes” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Keratinocytes are the primary type of cell found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin.
In humans they constitute 90% of epidermal skin cells.
Basal cells in the basal layer (stratum basale) of the skin are sometimes referred to as basal keratinocytes.
By using an indigenously developed hydrogel made of a polymer (polyacrylamide) in lieu of the conventional plastic tissue culture plates, researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay have been able to achieve many-fold increase in the number of skin cells (keratinocytes) cultured in the lab.
- Unlike traditional methods, no feeder layer or drug is needed when cells are grown on the hydrogel substrate.
The “G Finder survey” is often seen in news is related
Incorrect
Keratinocytes are the primary type of cell found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin.
In humans they constitute 90% of epidermal skin cells.
Basal cells in the basal layer (stratum basale) of the skin are sometimes referred to as basal keratinocytes.
By using an indigenously developed hydrogel made of a polymer (polyacrylamide) in lieu of the conventional plastic tissue culture plates, researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay have been able to achieve many-fold increase in the number of skin cells (keratinocytes) cultured in the lab.
- Unlike traditional methods, no feeder layer or drug is needed when cells are grown on the hydrogel substrate.
The “G Finder survey” is often seen in news is related
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “G Finder survey” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
It is encouraging that India was reported to be the fourth largest funder of research and development (R&D) in neglected diseases as per the G Finder Survey which tracks global investments in R&D for the neglected diseases.
This reflects the government’s commitment towards addressing the innovation problem in neglected diseases.
Neglected diseases are mostly tropical infectious diseases, and the market size for drugs for such diseases is small due to their limited geographical incidence.
To highlight the common problem of lack of innovation for drugs, diagnostics and vaccines for this basket of diseases, WHO started addressing these as neglected diseases from late 1980s.
Some examples of neglected diseases are malaria, tuberculosis, leishmaniasis (kala azar), dengue, leprosy, lymphatic filariasis and diarrhoeal diseases.
NOTE: These diseases face an innovation deficit as they are neglected in R&D efforts of the pharmaceutical industry.
However, it is not just the neglected diseases in the developing world that face this innovation deficit.
Several rare diseases that affect the developed markets are called “orphan diseases.”
These are called orphans because the pharmaceutical industry does not find it profitable to develop and market products intended for only a small number of patients suffering from rare diseases.
Incorrect
It is encouraging that India was reported to be the fourth largest funder of research and development (R&D) in neglected diseases as per the G Finder Survey which tracks global investments in R&D for the neglected diseases.
This reflects the government’s commitment towards addressing the innovation problem in neglected diseases.
Neglected diseases are mostly tropical infectious diseases, and the market size for drugs for such diseases is small due to their limited geographical incidence.
To highlight the common problem of lack of innovation for drugs, diagnostics and vaccines for this basket of diseases, WHO started addressing these as neglected diseases from late 1980s.
Some examples of neglected diseases are malaria, tuberculosis, leishmaniasis (kala azar), dengue, leprosy, lymphatic filariasis and diarrhoeal diseases.
NOTE: These diseases face an innovation deficit as they are neglected in R&D efforts of the pharmaceutical industry.
However, it is not just the neglected diseases in the developing world that face this innovation deficit.
Several rare diseases that affect the developed markets are called “orphan diseases.”
These are called orphans because the pharmaceutical industry does not find it profitable to develop and market products intended for only a small number of patients suffering from rare diseases.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES):
- It is characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status and/or new-onset of seizures in a person of any age at any time of the year.
- The causative agents of AES are viruses, Bacteria, fungus, Chemicals and toxins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Acute encephalitis syndrome (AES) is a serious public health problem in India. It is characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status (mental confusion, disorientation, delirium, or coma) and/or new-onset of seizures in a person of any age at any time of the year.
The syndrome most commonly affects children and young adults and can lead to considerable morbidity and mortality.
Viruses are the main causative agents in AES cases, although other sources such as bacteria, fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemicals, toxins and noninfectious agents have also been reported over the past few decades.
In May-June 2019, the acute encephalitis syndrome (AES) in Bihar’s Muzaffarpur, Vaishali, Sheohar and East Champaran districts has so far claimed the lives of over 100 children.
More than 400 children with AES have been admitted to various hospitals. Most of the deaths have been attributed to low blood sugar level (hypoglycaemia).
In Bihar, convulsions in children (which is AES) are found in combination with hypoglycaemia.
Incorrect
Acute encephalitis syndrome (AES) is a serious public health problem in India. It is characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status (mental confusion, disorientation, delirium, or coma) and/or new-onset of seizures in a person of any age at any time of the year.
The syndrome most commonly affects children and young adults and can lead to considerable morbidity and mortality.
Viruses are the main causative agents in AES cases, although other sources such as bacteria, fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemicals, toxins and noninfectious agents have also been reported over the past few decades.
In May-June 2019, the acute encephalitis syndrome (AES) in Bihar’s Muzaffarpur, Vaishali, Sheohar and East Champaran districts has so far claimed the lives of over 100 children.
More than 400 children with AES have been admitted to various hospitals. Most of the deaths have been attributed to low blood sugar level (hypoglycaemia).
In Bihar, convulsions in children (which is AES) are found in combination with hypoglycaemia.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Japanese Encephalitis (JE):
- It is a mosquito-borne viral infection of the brain
- It will spread from one person to another.
- There is no cure for JE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is a mosquito-borne viral infection of the brain. There is, however, a debate about the origin of the disease and whether it is enteroviruses — caused by virus found in pigs and birds. There is no cure for JE.
The efficacy of the JE vaccine is between 85-90%. The lessons learnt from polio vaccination drives is that people left out of each round of vaccination are the most disenfranchised, most likely to take ill and least likely to seek medical care in time.
One hundred and ninety positive cases of Japanese Encephalitis (JE) have been reported and 49 people have died of the vector-borne disease in Assam since January 2019 to June 2019.
Assam is an ecologically favorable region for the spread of JE due to heavy rainfall, large paddy fields and water bodies and pig farming almost throughout the State.
Pigs act as amplifying host for the JE virus transmitted through culex mosquito, as do wading birds such as herons and egrets.
Incorrect
Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is a mosquito-borne viral infection of the brain. There is, however, a debate about the origin of the disease and whether it is enteroviruses — caused by virus found in pigs and birds. There is no cure for JE.
The efficacy of the JE vaccine is between 85-90%. The lessons learnt from polio vaccination drives is that people left out of each round of vaccination are the most disenfranchised, most likely to take ill and least likely to seek medical care in time.
One hundred and ninety positive cases of Japanese Encephalitis (JE) have been reported and 49 people have died of the vector-borne disease in Assam since January 2019 to June 2019.
Assam is an ecologically favorable region for the spread of JE due to heavy rainfall, large paddy fields and water bodies and pig farming almost throughout the State.
Pigs act as amplifying host for the JE virus transmitted through culex mosquito, as do wading birds such as herons and egrets.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus:
- It is a zoonotic virus.
- It is an RNA or Ribonucleic Acid virus.
- It is classified under Bio-safety Level 4.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A virus named after Kampung Sungai Nipah, a village in Malaysia, where it was first discovered in 1998-99.
According to the World Health Organization (WHO) Nipah is Zoonotic Virus. “A zoonosis is any disease transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans.”
It could be caused by a virus, bacteria, fungi or parasite; some examples include anthrax, bird flu, ebola, dengue, rabies, malaria, swine flu and leptospirosis.
Nipah is believed to be transmitted from what are called flying foxes, or mega bats, so called because they are the largest bat species. They eat fruits and live in trees.
These are a part of the old-world fruit bat family, called pteropid bats. Bats often end up being reservoirs for a number of severe infectious diseases, including Ebola, SARS coronavirus, Nipah and Hendra.
Nipah is an RNA or Ribonucleic Acid virus. “RNA viruses are the most common cause of emerging diseases in humans, attributable to the high mutation rate in RNA viruses compared to DNA viruses,” says the book Essential Human Virology.
Nipah belongs to a genus (category, in layperson speak) called the Henipavirus; the Hendra virus, also found on pteropid bats, belongs to this category too.
The virus, which is classified as Bio-safety Level 4, meaning that it is highly infectious and needs a maximum containment facility, can be confirmed by an ELISA, RT-PCR or Serum Neutralization Test.
The incubation period is anywhere between 5-14 days, but it can soon affect the respiratory and nervous system and patients can go into delirium or coma. Unfortunately, there is no definite treatment, except intensive supported care.
Incorrect
A virus named after Kampung Sungai Nipah, a village in Malaysia, where it was first discovered in 1998-99.
According to the World Health Organization (WHO) Nipah is Zoonotic Virus. “A zoonosis is any disease transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans.”
It could be caused by a virus, bacteria, fungi or parasite; some examples include anthrax, bird flu, ebola, dengue, rabies, malaria, swine flu and leptospirosis.
Nipah is believed to be transmitted from what are called flying foxes, or mega bats, so called because they are the largest bat species. They eat fruits and live in trees.
These are a part of the old-world fruit bat family, called pteropid bats. Bats often end up being reservoirs for a number of severe infectious diseases, including Ebola, SARS coronavirus, Nipah and Hendra.
Nipah is an RNA or Ribonucleic Acid virus. “RNA viruses are the most common cause of emerging diseases in humans, attributable to the high mutation rate in RNA viruses compared to DNA viruses,” says the book Essential Human Virology.
Nipah belongs to a genus (category, in layperson speak) called the Henipavirus; the Hendra virus, also found on pteropid bats, belongs to this category too.
The virus, which is classified as Bio-safety Level 4, meaning that it is highly infectious and needs a maximum containment facility, can be confirmed by an ELISA, RT-PCR or Serum Neutralization Test.
The incubation period is anywhere between 5-14 days, but it can soon affect the respiratory and nervous system and patients can go into delirium or coma. Unfortunately, there is no definite treatment, except intensive supported care.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following countries of World Health Organization’s south-east Asia region is/are successfully controlled hepatitis B?
- Bangladesh
- Bhutan
- Nepal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
On September 3 (2019), Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal and Thailand became the first four countries in the World Health Organization’s south-east Asia region to have successfully controlled hepatitis B. The virus is said to be controlled when the disease prevalence is reduced to less than 1% among children less than five years of age.
Incorrect
On September 3 (2019), Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal and Thailand became the first four countries in the World Health Organization’s south-east Asia region to have successfully controlled hepatitis B. The virus is said to be controlled when the disease prevalence is reduced to less than 1% among children less than five years of age.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyBats serve as natural hosts for numerous viruses including Ebola virus, Nipah virus and corona viruses, but they rarely effected by these viruses. What would be the appropriate reason?
Correct
Bats serves as natural hosts for numerous viruses including Ebola virus, Nipah virus, corona viruses such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) and the 2019 novel corona virus that has infected nearly 10,000 people and killed over 200 others.
Even as these viruses cause harm in humans, they rarely if at all cause any harmful effects in bats. This is the case even when the viral load is extremely high in bats.
The reason why bats can harbour these viruses without getting affected is simply because bats can avoid excessive virus-induced inflammation, which often causes severe diseases in animals and people infected with viruses.
The researchers found that significantly reduced inflammation in bats was because activation of an important protein — NLRP3 — that recognises both cellular stress and viral/bacterial infections was significantly dampened in bat immune cells.
Studying further, the researchers found that reduced activation of the NLRP3 protein was in turn due to impaired production of mRNA (transcript).
Since mRNA production is impaired the NLRP3 protein production gets compromised leading to less amount of the protein being produced.
But this was not the case with mice and humans — there was no impairment to mRNA production so the NLRP3 protein was unaffected
Incorrect
Bats serves as natural hosts for numerous viruses including Ebola virus, Nipah virus, corona viruses such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) and the 2019 novel corona virus that has infected nearly 10,000 people and killed over 200 others.
Even as these viruses cause harm in humans, they rarely if at all cause any harmful effects in bats. This is the case even when the viral load is extremely high in bats.
The reason why bats can harbour these viruses without getting affected is simply because bats can avoid excessive virus-induced inflammation, which often causes severe diseases in animals and people infected with viruses.
The researchers found that significantly reduced inflammation in bats was because activation of an important protein — NLRP3 — that recognises both cellular stress and viral/bacterial infections was significantly dampened in bat immune cells.
Studying further, the researchers found that reduced activation of the NLRP3 protein was in turn due to impaired production of mRNA (transcript).
Since mRNA production is impaired the NLRP3 protein production gets compromised leading to less amount of the protein being produced.
But this was not the case with mice and humans — there was no impairment to mRNA production so the NLRP3 protein was unaffected
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe maximum residue limit (MRL) is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The traces pesticides leave in treated products or those left by veterinary drugs in animals are called “residues”.
The traces pesticides leave in treated products or those left by veterinary drugs in animals are called “residues”.
A study of fruits and vegetables grown in the Nilgiris has found that some of the produce might be harbouring high levels of pesticide, beyond what is considered advisable. This was mainly true of potato and carrot.
While the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) prescribes a maximum residual level (MRL) for some of the organophosphate pesticides used, it does not prescribe it for some other pesticides used in the cultivation of fruit and vegetables.
Incorrect
The traces pesticides leave in treated products or those left by veterinary drugs in animals are called “residues”.
The traces pesticides leave in treated products or those left by veterinary drugs in animals are called “residues”.
A study of fruits and vegetables grown in the Nilgiris has found that some of the produce might be harbouring high levels of pesticide, beyond what is considered advisable. This was mainly true of potato and carrot.
While the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) prescribes a maximum residual level (MRL) for some of the organophosphate pesticides used, it does not prescribe it for some other pesticides used in the cultivation of fruit and vegetables.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology“Truenat” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
In a Rapid Communication published on January 14 – 2020, the World Health Organization (WHO) had mentioned that the India-made Truenat MTB, a molecular diagnostic test to diagnose pulmonary and extrapulmonary TB and rifampicin-resistant TB, has high diagnostic accuracy.
Truenat MTB has “high diagnostic accuracy as initial test to diagnose TB and to sequentially detect rifampicin resistance”, says the WHO Communication.
Truenat MTB will be used as an initial test to diagnose TB thus replacing sputum smear microscopy.
Truenat is developed by the Goa-based Molbio Diagnostics.
The company was provided with technical assistance and resources by the Foundation for Innovative New Diagnostics (FIND) to help commercialize Truenat. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) had assessed and validated the diagnostic tool.
Incorrect
In a Rapid Communication published on January 14 – 2020, the World Health Organization (WHO) had mentioned that the India-made Truenat MTB, a molecular diagnostic test to diagnose pulmonary and extrapulmonary TB and rifampicin-resistant TB, has high diagnostic accuracy.
Truenat MTB has “high diagnostic accuracy as initial test to diagnose TB and to sequentially detect rifampicin resistance”, says the WHO Communication.
Truenat MTB will be used as an initial test to diagnose TB thus replacing sputum smear microscopy.
Truenat is developed by the Goa-based Molbio Diagnostics.
The company was provided with technical assistance and resources by the Foundation for Innovative New Diagnostics (FIND) to help commercialize Truenat. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) had assessed and validated the diagnostic tool.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAccording to the World Health Organization (WHO), which of the following disease (s) is/are considered as Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD)?
- Chagas disease
- Dengue fever
- Rabies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) – a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries – affect more than one billion people and cost developing economies billions of dollars every year.
Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected.
As of 2017, the World Health Organization categorizes the following communicable diseases as neglected tropical diseases (NTDs):
Buruli Ulcer
Chagas Disease
Chromoblastomycosisexternal icon
Cysticercosis
Dengue Fever
Dracunculiasis (Guinea Worm Disease)
Echinococcosis
Fascioliasis
Human African Trypanosomiasis (African Sleeping Sickness)
Leishmaniasis
Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)
Lymphatic Filariasis
Mycetoma
Onchocerciasis
Rabies
Schistosomiasis
Soil-transmitted Helminths (STH) (Ascaris, Hookworm, and Whipworm)
Trachoma
Yawsexternal icon
Incorrect
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) – a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries – affect more than one billion people and cost developing economies billions of dollars every year.
Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected.
As of 2017, the World Health Organization categorizes the following communicable diseases as neglected tropical diseases (NTDs):
Buruli Ulcer
Chagas Disease
Chromoblastomycosisexternal icon
Cysticercosis
Dengue Fever
Dracunculiasis (Guinea Worm Disease)
Echinococcosis
Fascioliasis
Human African Trypanosomiasis (African Sleeping Sickness)
Leishmaniasis
Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)
Lymphatic Filariasis
Mycetoma
Onchocerciasis
Rabies
Schistosomiasis
Soil-transmitted Helminths (STH) (Ascaris, Hookworm, and Whipworm)
Trachoma
Yawsexternal icon
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “FODMAP compounds” is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Many plant-based products, especially legumes such as chickpeas, beans, soybeans, contain FODMAP compounds that are poorly digestible and cause unpleasant intestinal symptoms, but now researchers have succeeded in breaking down FODMAPs with enzymes and producing new, stomach-friendly plant-based food products.
FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrate molecules that are poorly absorbed in the human small intestine.
These non-absorbed compounds move along to the large intestine, where intestinal microbes feed on them.
This results in the production of gases that causes symptoms especially for those suffering from intestinal disorders.
The research team focused on two key FODMAP compounds: galactan and fructan.
Galactan is abundant in, for example, legumes, while fructan is found in many cereals, among other things.
Incorrect
Many plant-based products, especially legumes such as chickpeas, beans, soybeans, contain FODMAP compounds that are poorly digestible and cause unpleasant intestinal symptoms, but now researchers have succeeded in breaking down FODMAPs with enzymes and producing new, stomach-friendly plant-based food products.
FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrate molecules that are poorly absorbed in the human small intestine.
These non-absorbed compounds move along to the large intestine, where intestinal microbes feed on them.
This results in the production of gases that causes symptoms especially for those suffering from intestinal disorders.
The research team focused on two key FODMAP compounds: galactan and fructan.
Galactan is abundant in, for example, legumes, while fructan is found in many cereals, among other things.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the “LUKOSKIN”:
- It is a traditional drug for treating vitiligo or leucoderma.
- It is developed by Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A traditional drug developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for treating vitiligo or leucoderma is now available for commercial sale in India.
The herbal drug, called Lukoskin, was developed by scientists of the Defence Bio-Energy Research (DIBER) centre at Haldwani in Uttarakhand.
Developer conferred ‘Science Award’ for ‘Lukoskin’ that treats the skin condition.
Ahead of the International Vitiligo Day, an herbal drug developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) offers a new hope to those suffering from leucoderma, a condition in which white patches develop on the skin.
Incorrect
A traditional drug developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for treating vitiligo or leucoderma is now available for commercial sale in India.
The herbal drug, called Lukoskin, was developed by scientists of the Defence Bio-Energy Research (DIBER) centre at Haldwani in Uttarakhand.
Developer conferred ‘Science Award’ for ‘Lukoskin’ that treats the skin condition.
Ahead of the International Vitiligo Day, an herbal drug developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) offers a new hope to those suffering from leucoderma, a condition in which white patches develop on the skin.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Botulinum” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by a bacterium known as Clostridium
botulin. It produces the toxin when it starts reproducing.
- The bacterium is commonly found in the soil, river, and sea water.
- There are around eight types — A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of botulinum toxin
and they are distinguishable when diagnosed. But all types of toxins attack the
neurons, which leads to muscle paralysis.
- Botulinum affects both humans and animals but the type of the toxin varies —
botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in humans. The toxin has been recognised as
a major cause of mortality in wild birds since the 1900s.
- Avian botulism killed over 18,000 birds in and around Rajasthan’s Sambhar
Lake.
Incorrect
Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by a bacterium known as Clostridium
botulin. It produces the toxin when it starts reproducing.
- The bacterium is commonly found in the soil, river, and sea water.
- There are around eight types — A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of botulinum toxin
and they are distinguishable when diagnosed. But all types of toxins attack the
neurons, which leads to muscle paralysis.
- Botulinum affects both humans and animals but the type of the toxin varies —
botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in humans. The toxin has been recognised as
a major cause of mortality in wild birds since the 1900s.
- Avian botulism killed over 18,000 birds in and around Rajasthan’s Sambhar
Lake.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Measles:
- Measles is caused by a virus in the paramyxovirus family and it is normally passed
through direct contact and through the air.
- Measles is a human disease and is not known to occur in animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Measles.
- Measles is caused by a virus in the paramyxovirus family and it is normally
passed through direct contact and through the air.
- The virus infects the respiratory tract, and then spreads throughout the body.
Measles is a human disease and is not known to occur in animals.
- Measles is a highly contagious, serious disease caused by a virus. Before the
introduction of measles vaccine in 1963 and widespread vaccination, major
epidemics occurred approximately every 2–3 years and measles caused an estimated
2.6 million deaths each year.
- Accelerated immunization activities have had a major impact on reducing measles
deaths. During 2000– 2018, measles vaccination prevented an estimated 23.2
million deaths. Global measles deaths have decreased by 73% from an estimated
536000 in 2000 to 142,000 in 2018.
Incorrect
Measles.
- Measles is caused by a virus in the paramyxovirus family and it is normally
passed through direct contact and through the air.
- The virus infects the respiratory tract, and then spreads throughout the body.
Measles is a human disease and is not known to occur in animals.
- Measles is a highly contagious, serious disease caused by a virus. Before the
introduction of measles vaccine in 1963 and widespread vaccination, major
epidemics occurred approximately every 2–3 years and measles caused an estimated
2.6 million deaths each year.
- Accelerated immunization activities have had a major impact on reducing measles
deaths. During 2000– 2018, measles vaccination prevented an estimated 23.2
million deaths. Global measles deaths have decreased by 73% from an estimated
536000 in 2000 to 142,000 in 2018.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the nucleotide of DNA:
- It is made up of three parts consists of phosphate group, a 5-carbon sugar, and
a nitrogenous base.
- The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A nucleotide is an organic molecule that is the building block of DNA and
RNA.
- They also have functions related to cell signaling, metabolism, and enzyme
reactions.
- A nucleotide is made up of three parts: a phosphate group, a 5-carbon sugar,
and a nitrogenous base.
- The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine,
and thymine.
- RNA contains uracil, instead of thymine.
- A nucleotide within a chain makes up the genetic material of all known living things.
- They also serve a number of functions outside of genetic information storage, as
messengers and energy moving molecules.
Incorrect
A nucleotide is an organic molecule that is the building block of DNA and
RNA.
- They also have functions related to cell signaling, metabolism, and enzyme
reactions.
- A nucleotide is made up of three parts: a phosphate group, a 5-carbon sugar,
and a nitrogenous base.
- The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine,
and thymine.
- RNA contains uracil, instead of thymine.
- A nucleotide within a chain makes up the genetic material of all known living things.
- They also serve a number of functions outside of genetic information storage, as
messengers and energy moving molecules.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Archaea” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Archaea.
- Archaea (singular archaeon) are a primitive group of microorganisms that thrive
in extreme habitats such as hot springs, cold deserts and hyper-saline lakes.
- These slow-growing organisms are also present in the human gut, and have a
potential relationship with human health.
- They are known for producing antimicrobial molecules, and for anti-oxidant activity
with applications in eco-friendly waste-water treatment
Incorrect
Archaea.
- Archaea (singular archaeon) are a primitive group of microorganisms that thrive
in extreme habitats such as hot springs, cold deserts and hyper-saline lakes.
- These slow-growing organisms are also present in the human gut, and have a
potential relationship with human health.
- They are known for producing antimicrobial molecules, and for anti-oxidant activity
with applications in eco-friendly waste-water treatment
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following animal (s) is/are examples of pack animal (s)?
1. Horses
2. Dogs
3. Mules
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
A pack animal is a type of animal used by humans to carry heavy loads. These animals carry goods and supplies upon their backs across long distances or difficult terrain.
They are not to be confused with draft animals, which pull weight on a cart or sled. The use of animals to carry cargo dates as far back as 3500 BC.
Historical evidence suggests that donkeys have served as pack animals for longer than any other species. Other types of common pack animals include camels, yaks, horses, llamas, oxen, and water buffalos.
Horses are used as a draught animal even in the Western countries.
Dogs and reindeer are used in North America, North Europe and Siberia to draw sledges over snow-covered ground.
Mules are preferred in the mountainous regions; while camels are used for caravan movement in deserts. In India, bullocks are used for pulling carts.
Incorrect
A pack animal is a type of animal used by humans to carry heavy loads. These animals carry goods and supplies upon their backs across long distances or difficult terrain.
They are not to be confused with draft animals, which pull weight on a cart or sled. The use of animals to carry cargo dates as far back as 3500 BC.
Historical evidence suggests that donkeys have served as pack animals for longer than any other species. Other types of common pack animals include camels, yaks, horses, llamas, oxen, and water buffalos.
Horses are used as a draught animal even in the Western countries.
Dogs and reindeer are used in North America, North Europe and Siberia to draw sledges over snow-covered ground.
Mules are preferred in the mountainous regions; while camels are used for caravan movement in deserts. In India, bullocks are used for pulling carts.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Trimethoprim, Metronidazole and Ciproflaxacin” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
An assessment of antibiotic pollution in rivers across the world shows that the concentration of antibiotics in some rivers is much higher than what is considered safe.
According to the antimicrobial resistance (AMR) industry alliance standards, the safe level ranges from 20-32,000 nanogramme per litre, depending on the antibiotic.
However, in Bangladesh, the antibiotic metronidazole was found to 300 times the safe level — this was 170 times higher than what was estimated in London’s River Thames.
The researchers — who presented their findings at the two day annual meeting of the Society of Environmental Toxicology and Chemistry (SETAC) in Helsinki, which began on May 27 — estimated presence of 14 antibiotics in rivers of 72 countries across six continents.
A total of 711 sites were tested and antibiotics were found at 65 per cent of them.
Trimethoprim, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infection, was found at 307 of the 711 sites tested.
Ciproflaxacin most frequently exceeded safe levels, surpassing the safety threshold at 51 places.
Incorrect
An assessment of antibiotic pollution in rivers across the world shows that the concentration of antibiotics in some rivers is much higher than what is considered safe.
According to the antimicrobial resistance (AMR) industry alliance standards, the safe level ranges from 20-32,000 nanogramme per litre, depending on the antibiotic.
However, in Bangladesh, the antibiotic metronidazole was found to 300 times the safe level — this was 170 times higher than what was estimated in London’s River Thames.
The researchers — who presented their findings at the two day annual meeting of the Society of Environmental Toxicology and Chemistry (SETAC) in Helsinki, which began on May 27 — estimated presence of 14 antibiotics in rivers of 72 countries across six continents.
A total of 711 sites were tested and antibiotics were found at 65 per cent of them.
Trimethoprim, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infection, was found at 307 of the 711 sites tested.
Ciproflaxacin most frequently exceeded safe levels, surpassing the safety threshold at 51 places.
Biology and diseases 3
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Immunoglobulins (Ig):
- These are proteins made by the immune system to fight foreign antigens.
- Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the most abundant type of antibody in human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The immune system develops a defense against
antigens, which are substances that can stimulate the immune system. This defense is
known as the immune response and usually involves the production of:
–Protein molecules (immunoglobulins or antibodies, the major component of humoral
immunity) by B-lymphocytes (B-cells)
-Specific cells, including T-lymphocytes (also known as cell-mediated immunity).
Statement 2 is correct. There are five immunoglobulin classes (isotypes) of antibody
molecules: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, and IgD.
–Immunoglobulin A (IgA), which is found in high concentrations in the mucous
membranes, particularly those lining the respiratory passages and gastrointestinal tract, as
well as in saliva and tears.
–Immunoglobulin G (IgG), the most abundant type of antibody, is found in all body fluids
and protects against bacterial and viral infections.
–Immunoglobulin M (IgM), which is found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid, is the first
antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection.
–Immunoglobulin E (IgE), which is associated mainly with allergic reactions. It is found in
the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes.
–Immunoglobulin D (IgD) exists in small amounts in the blood.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The immune system develops a defense against
antigens, which are substances that can stimulate the immune system. This defense is
known as the immune response and usually involves the production of:
–Protein molecules (immunoglobulins or antibodies, the major component of humoral
immunity) by B-lymphocytes (B-cells)
-Specific cells, including T-lymphocytes (also known as cell-mediated immunity).
Statement 2 is correct. There are five immunoglobulin classes (isotypes) of antibody
molecules: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, and IgD.
–Immunoglobulin A (IgA), which is found in high concentrations in the mucous
membranes, particularly those lining the respiratory passages and gastrointestinal tract, as
well as in saliva and tears.
–Immunoglobulin G (IgG), the most abundant type of antibody, is found in all body fluids
and protects against bacterial and viral infections.
–Immunoglobulin M (IgM), which is found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid, is the first
antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection.
–Immunoglobulin E (IgE), which is associated mainly with allergic reactions. It is found in
the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes.
–Immunoglobulin D (IgD) exists in small amounts in the blood.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Disease transmission:
- Droplet transmission occurs when a person is in close contact (within 1 m) with someone
who has respiratory symptoms.
- Airborne transmission refers to situations where droplet nuclei containing
microorganisms can remain suspended in air for long periods of time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Droplet transmission occurs when a person is in in
close contact (within 1 m) with someone who has respiratory symptoms (e.g., coughing or
sneezing) and is therefore at risk of having his/her mucosae (mouth and nose) or
conjunctiva (eyes) exposed to potentially infective respiratory droplets.
Statement 2 is correct. Airborne transmission refers to situations where droplet nuclei
(residue from evaporated droplets) or dust particles containing microorganisms can remain
suspended in air for long periods of time.
Droplet nuclei, which are generally considered to be particles <5μm in diameter, can
remain in the air for long periods of time and be transmitted to others over distances
greater than 1 m.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Droplet transmission occurs when a person is in in
close contact (within 1 m) with someone who has respiratory symptoms (e.g., coughing or
sneezing) and is therefore at risk of having his/her mucosae (mouth and nose) or
conjunctiva (eyes) exposed to potentially infective respiratory droplets.
Statement 2 is correct. Airborne transmission refers to situations where droplet nuclei
(residue from evaporated droplets) or dust particles containing microorganisms can remain
suspended in air for long periods of time.
Droplet nuclei, which are generally considered to be particles <5μm in diameter, can
remain in the air for long periods of time and be transmitted to others over distances
greater than 1 m.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Viruses:
- Each virus consists of genetic material, either DNA or RNA, encapsulated in capsid.
- Viruses cannot reproduce without the help of a host cell.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Viruses are small particles of genetic material that are surrounded by a
protein coat.
Statement 1 is correct. Each one consists of genetic material—either DNA or RNA—
encapsulated in a protein pocket called a capsid. Some are additionally enveloped in a soft,
lipid wrapping.
Statement 2 is correct. Due to their simple structure, viruses cannot move or even
reproduce without the help of a host cell. But when it finds a host, a virus can multiply
and spread rapidly.
To identify the correct host, viruses have evolved receptors on their surfaces that match up
with those of their ideal target cell, letting the virus get its genetic material inside and
hijack its host’s cellular machinery to help it reproduce by multiplying the virus’ genetic
material and proteins.
# Viruses and bacteria are two types of potentially disease-causing (pathogenic) particles.
Viruses are much smaller than bacteria and can’t reproduce without the assistance of a host.
Bacteria are capable of reproducing on their own.
Incorrect
Viruses are small particles of genetic material that are surrounded by a
protein coat.
Statement 1 is correct. Each one consists of genetic material—either DNA or RNA—
encapsulated in a protein pocket called a capsid. Some are additionally enveloped in a soft,
lipid wrapping.
Statement 2 is correct. Due to their simple structure, viruses cannot move or even
reproduce without the help of a host cell. But when it finds a host, a virus can multiply
and spread rapidly.
To identify the correct host, viruses have evolved receptors on their surfaces that match up
with those of their ideal target cell, letting the virus get its genetic material inside and
hijack its host’s cellular machinery to help it reproduce by multiplying the virus’ genetic
material and proteins.
# Viruses and bacteria are two types of potentially disease-causing (pathogenic) particles.
Viruses are much smaller than bacteria and can’t reproduce without the assistance of a host.
Bacteria are capable of reproducing on their own.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Myelin sheath:
- It is an insulating layer that forms around bones in the body.
- It allows electrical impulses to transmit quickly and efficiently.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Myelin is an insulating layer, or sheath that forms
around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord. It is made up of protein and
fatty substances.
Statement 2 is correct. This myelin sheath allows electrical impulses to transmit quickly
and efficiently along the nerve cells. If myelin is damaged, these impulses slow down. This
can cause diseases such as multiple sclerosis.
# Coronaviruses have been postulated to cause demyelinating disease through the direct
effect on oligodendrocytes (cells in the nervous system), and through immune mechanisms in
which similarities between the virus and myelin lead to T-cells attacking the body’s own
myelin. [The Hindu]
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Myelin is an insulating layer, or sheath that forms
around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord. It is made up of protein and
fatty substances.
Statement 2 is correct. This myelin sheath allows electrical impulses to transmit quickly
and efficiently along the nerve cells. If myelin is damaged, these impulses slow down. This
can cause diseases such as multiple sclerosis.
# Coronaviruses have been postulated to cause demyelinating disease through the direct
effect on oligodendrocytes (cells in the nervous system), and through immune mechanisms in
which similarities between the virus and myelin lead to T-cells attacking the body’s own
myelin. [The Hindu]
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Anosmia – Reduced sense of touch or sensation
- Ageusia – Loss of taste functions of the tongue
- Insomnia – Inability to fall asleep
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. Hypoesthesia is a decrease in your normal
sensations such as touch or temperature.
Anosmia is an absent or decreased sense of smell.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Ageusia is the loss of taste functions of the tongue.
Option 3 is correctly matched. Insomnia is the inability to fall asleep or stay asleep at night
Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. Hypoesthesia is a decrease in your normal
sensations such as touch or temperature.
Anosmia is an absent or decreased sense of smell.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Ageusia is the loss of taste functions of the tongue.
Option 3 is correctly matched. Insomnia is the inability to fall asleep or stay asleep at night
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Spanish flu:
- It was caused by an H1N1 virus with genes of avian origin.
- India was not affected by the Spanish flu pandemic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The 1918 influenza (Spanish flu) pandemic was the
most severe pandemic in recent history. It was caused by an H1N1 virus with genes of avian
origin.
The conditions of World War I (overcrowding and global troop movement) helped the 1918
flu spread. The vulnerability of healthy young adults and the lack of vaccines and
treatments created a major public health crisis, causing at least 50 million deaths
worldwide
Statement 2 is incorrect. 1918 flu pandemic in India as a part of the worldwide Spanish flu
pandemic severely affected Indian population. Also referred to as the Bombay Influenza or
the Bombay Fever in India, the pandemic is believed to have killed up to 14 -17 million
people in the country.
# The decade between 1911 and 1921 was the only census period in which India’s
population fell.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The 1918 influenza (Spanish flu) pandemic was the
most severe pandemic in recent history. It was caused by an H1N1 virus with genes of avian
origin.
The conditions of World War I (overcrowding and global troop movement) helped the 1918
flu spread. The vulnerability of healthy young adults and the lack of vaccines and
treatments created a major public health crisis, causing at least 50 million deaths
worldwide
Statement 2 is incorrect. 1918 flu pandemic in India as a part of the worldwide Spanish flu
pandemic severely affected Indian population. Also referred to as the Bombay Influenza or
the Bombay Fever in India, the pandemic is believed to have killed up to 14 -17 million
people in the country.
# The decade between 1911 and 1921 was the only census period in which India’s
population fell.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Cyanobacteria:
- These are photosynthetic bacteria that can manufacture their own food.
- They can grow into large blooms known as blue-green algae.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Cyanobacteria are aquatic and photosynthetic, that is, they live in the water, and can
manufacture their own food. Because they are bacteria, they are quite small and usually
unicellular, though they often grow in colonies large enough to see.
Cyanobacteria can occur naturally in standing water and sometimes grow into large
blooms known as blue-green algae.
They are also important providers of nitrogen fertilizer in the cultivation of rice and beans.
Some species of cyanobacteria produce toxins that affect animals and humans.
# Botswana is home to about a third of Africa’s declining elephant population. Recently many
elephant carcasses were spotted in the country’s Okavango Delta between May and June.
# Officials say a total of 330 elephants are now known to have died from ingesting
cyanobacteria.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Cyanobacteria are aquatic and photosynthetic, that is, they live in the water, and can
manufacture their own food. Because they are bacteria, they are quite small and usually
unicellular, though they often grow in colonies large enough to see.
Cyanobacteria can occur naturally in standing water and sometimes grow into large
blooms known as blue-green algae.
They are also important providers of nitrogen fertilizer in the cultivation of rice and beans.
Some species of cyanobacteria produce toxins that affect animals and humans.
# Botswana is home to about a third of Africa’s declining elephant population. Recently many
elephant carcasses were spotted in the country’s Okavango Delta between May and June.
# Officials say a total of 330 elephants are now known to have died from ingesting
cyanobacteria.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Sandalwood Spike Disease:
- It is characterized by reduction in leaf size.
- The disease has been reported for first time in India in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Sandal spike disease has several symptoms; there is
a reduction in leaf size, loss of apical dominance of the branches giving a “witches-broom”
condition and phyllody of the flowers, stiffening and reduction of internode length.
In advanced stage, the entire shoot gives the appearance of a spike inflorescence. Spiked
trees die within 1–2 years after the appearance of visible symptoms.
Presently, there is no option but to cut down and remove the infected tree to prevent the
spread of the disease, caused by phytoplasma bacterial parasites of plant tissues, which are
transmitted by insect vectors.
Statement 2 is incorrect. SPIKE disease of Sandal (Santalum album L.) is of considerable
importance to the sandal-wood industry of southern India. It has been one of the major
causes for the decline in sandalwood production in the country for over a century. The
disease was first reported in Kodagu in 1899.
# It has been reported that India’s sandalwood trees are facing a serious threat with the
return of the Sandalwood Spike Disease (SSD).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Sandal spike disease has several symptoms; there is
a reduction in leaf size, loss of apical dominance of the branches giving a “witches-broom”
condition and phyllody of the flowers, stiffening and reduction of internode length.
In advanced stage, the entire shoot gives the appearance of a spike inflorescence. Spiked
trees die within 1–2 years after the appearance of visible symptoms.
Presently, there is no option but to cut down and remove the infected tree to prevent the
spread of the disease, caused by phytoplasma bacterial parasites of plant tissues, which are
transmitted by insect vectors.
Statement 2 is incorrect. SPIKE disease of Sandal (Santalum album L.) is of considerable
importance to the sandal-wood industry of southern India. It has been one of the major
causes for the decline in sandalwood production in the country for over a century. The
disease was first reported in Kodagu in 1899.
# It has been reported that India’s sandalwood trees are facing a serious threat with the
return of the Sandalwood Spike Disease (SSD).
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Herd Immunity:
- It provides indirect protection to those who are not immune to the disease.
- It can only be achieved when people are vaccinated against the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Herd immunity happens when so many people in a
community become immune to an infectious disease. As many viral and bacterial infections
spread from person to person. This chain is broken when most people don’t get or transmit
the infection.
This provides indirect protection (herd protection) to those who are not immune to the
disease.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Herd Immunity can be developed when many people in the
population:
–contract the disease and in time build up an immune response to it (natural immunity).
-are vaccinated against the disease to achieve immunity.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Herd immunity happens when so many people in a
community become immune to an infectious disease. As many viral and bacterial infections
spread from person to person. This chain is broken when most people don’t get or transmit
the infection.
This provides indirect protection (herd protection) to those who are not immune to the
disease.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Herd Immunity can be developed when many people in the
population:
–contract the disease and in time build up an immune response to it (natural immunity).
-are vaccinated against the disease to achieve immunity.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Coronaviruses:
- It is a group of viruses that cause diseases in animals and humans.
- MERS-CoV was the first ever coronavirus to be discovered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Coronaviruses are a large group of viruses that cause diseases in animals and humans. They often circulate among camels, cats, and bats, and can sometimes evolve and infect people.
In animals, coronaviruses can cause diarrhea in cows and pigs, and upper respiratory disease in chickens. In humans, the viruses can cause mild respiratory infections, like the common cold, but can lead to serious illnesses, like pneumonia.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Coronaviruses are named for the crown-like spikes on their surface. Human coronaviruses were first identified in the mid-1960s.
There are currently seven coronaviruses known to infect humans. Four of them cause mild to moderate disease. More specifically, HCoV-OC43, HCoV-HKU1 and HCoV-229E cause common colds, and severe lower respiratory tract infections in the youngest and oldest age groups, while HCoV-NL63 is an important cause of (pseudo) croup and bronchiolitis in children.
The other three cause more severe and even fatal disease and have emerged more recently: SARS-CoV responsible for the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) in 2002, MERS-CoV the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) in 2012 and SARS-CoV-2, identified with a cluster of pneumonia cases in Wuhan, China in late 2019.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Coronaviruses are a large group of viruses that cause diseases in animals and humans. They often circulate among camels, cats, and bats, and can sometimes evolve and infect people.
In animals, coronaviruses can cause diarrhea in cows and pigs, and upper respiratory disease in chickens. In humans, the viruses can cause mild respiratory infections, like the common cold, but can lead to serious illnesses, like pneumonia.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Coronaviruses are named for the crown-like spikes on their surface. Human coronaviruses were first identified in the mid-1960s.
There are currently seven coronaviruses known to infect humans. Four of them cause mild to moderate disease. More specifically, HCoV-OC43, HCoV-HKU1 and HCoV-229E cause common colds, and severe lower respiratory tract infections in the youngest and oldest age groups, while HCoV-NL63 is an important cause of (pseudo) croup and bronchiolitis in children.
The other three cause more severe and even fatal disease and have emerged more recently: SARS-CoV responsible for the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) in 2002, MERS-CoV the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) in 2012 and SARS-CoV-2, identified with a cluster of pneumonia cases in Wuhan, China in late 2019.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following disease(s) have zoonotic origin?
- Lyme disease
- COVID-19
- Brucellosis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above diseases have zoonotic origin.
Zoonotic diseases (also known as zoonoses) are caused by germs that spread between animals and people.
Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and rarely, Borrelia mayonii. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected blacklegged ticks. Typical symptoms include fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans.
All available evidence for COVID-19 suggests that SARS-CoV-2 has a zoonotic source. Since there is usually limited close contact between humans and bats, it is more likely that transmission of the virus to humans happened through another animal species, one that is more likely to be handled by humans [World Health Organisation].
Brucellosis is a disease caused by a group of bacteria from the genus Brucella. These bacteria can infect both humans and animals. Most commonly, people are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products.
Incorrect
All of the above diseases have zoonotic origin.
Zoonotic diseases (also known as zoonoses) are caused by germs that spread between animals and people.
Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and rarely, Borrelia mayonii. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected blacklegged ticks. Typical symptoms include fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans.
All available evidence for COVID-19 suggests that SARS-CoV-2 has a zoonotic source. Since there is usually limited close contact between humans and bats, it is more likely that transmission of the virus to humans happened through another animal species, one that is more likely to be handled by humans [World Health Organisation].
Brucellosis is a disease caused by a group of bacteria from the genus Brucella. These bacteria can infect both humans and animals. Most commonly, people are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term ‘Long Covid’ have been used with reference to which of the following condition?
Correct
Long Covid is not medically definitive, but a term that describes a portion of the population struggling with symptoms for weeks or months after being infected with Covid-19, and not just those who were seriously ill.
The most common feature is crippling fatigue. Others symptoms include: breathlessness, a cough that won’t go away, joint pain, muscle aches, hearing and eyesight problems, headaches, loss of smell and taste as well as damage to the heart, lungs, kidneys and gut.
Mental health problems have been reported including depression, anxiety and struggling to think clearly.
Incorrect
Long Covid is not medically definitive, but a term that describes a portion of the population struggling with symptoms for weeks or months after being infected with Covid-19, and not just those who were seriously ill.
The most common feature is crippling fatigue. Others symptoms include: breathlessness, a cough that won’t go away, joint pain, muscle aches, hearing and eyesight problems, headaches, loss of smell and taste as well as damage to the heart, lungs, kidneys and gut.
Mental health problems have been reported including depression, anxiety and struggling to think clearly.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR):
- It refers to a phenomenon of human body acquiring resistance to antibiotics.
- It only occurs in case of the bacterial infection diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness and death.
Antibiotic resistance does not mean the body is becoming resistant to antibiotics; it is that bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics designed to kill them.
Especially alarming is the rapid global spread of multi- and pan-resistant bacteria (also known as “superbugs”) that cause infections that are not treatable with existing antimicrobial medicines such as antibiotics.
The clinical pipeline of new antimicrobials is scarce. In 2019 WHO identified 32 antibiotics in clinical development that address the WHO list of priority pathogens, of which only six were classified as innovative.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness and death.
Antibiotic resistance does not mean the body is becoming resistant to antibiotics; it is that bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics designed to kill them.
Especially alarming is the rapid global spread of multi- and pan-resistant bacteria (also known as “superbugs”) that cause infections that are not treatable with existing antimicrobial medicines such as antibiotics.
The clinical pipeline of new antimicrobials is scarce. In 2019 WHO identified 32 antibiotics in clinical development that address the WHO list of priority pathogens, of which only six were classified as innovative.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- A concussion is a type of traumatic brain injury caused by a blow or jolt to the head.
- A contusion happens when an injured capillary or blood vessel leaks blood into the surrounding area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A concussion is a type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) caused by a bump, blow, or jolt to the head or by a hit to the body that causes the head and brain to move rapidly back and forth. This sudden movement can cause the brain to bounce around or twist in the skull, creating chemical changes in the brain and sometimes stretching and damaging brain cells.
Statement 2 is correct. A contusion happens when an injured capillary or blood vessel leaks blood into the surrounding area. Contusions are a type of hematoma, which refers to any collection of blood outside of a blood vessel. It is a medical term for the common bruise.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A concussion is a type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) caused by a bump, blow, or jolt to the head or by a hit to the body that causes the head and brain to move rapidly back and forth. This sudden movement can cause the brain to bounce around or twist in the skull, creating chemical changes in the brain and sometimes stretching and damaging brain cells.
Statement 2 is correct. A contusion happens when an injured capillary or blood vessel leaks blood into the surrounding area. Contusions are a type of hematoma, which refers to any collection of blood outside of a blood vessel. It is a medical term for the common bruise.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following may result in Vasoplegic syndrome?
Correct
Vasoplegia is the syndrome of pathological low systemic vascular resistance, the dominant clinical feature of which is reduced blood pressure in the presence of a normal or raised cardiac output.
Vasoplegic syndrome is a common occurrence following cardiothoracic surgery and is characterized as a high-output shock state with poor systemic vascular resistance. The pathophysiology is complex and includes dysregulation of vasodilatory and vasoconstrictive properties of smooth vascular muscle cells.
Incorrect
Vasoplegia is the syndrome of pathological low systemic vascular resistance, the dominant clinical feature of which is reduced blood pressure in the presence of a normal or raised cardiac output.
Vasoplegic syndrome is a common occurrence following cardiothoracic surgery and is characterized as a high-output shock state with poor systemic vascular resistance. The pathophysiology is complex and includes dysregulation of vasodilatory and vasoconstrictive properties of smooth vascular muscle cells.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RT-LAMP:
- It can be used as a serological test for viral diagnosis.
- It is faster than a RT-PCR test for diagnosis of disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not a serological test. Serologic tests measure the antibody response in an individual.
Loop-mediated isothermal amplification, or LAMP, is an assay that can be used for viral RNA detection. This is a one step nucleic acid amplification method to multiply specific sequences of RNA of the coronavirus. Here, the RNA is first made into cDNA (copy DNA) by the usual reverse transcription. Then, the DNA is amplified by the LAMP technique.
Statement 2 is correct. The benefits of RT-LAMP are important for the viability of broadscale use of this technology. Chief among these is that amplification of genetic material is done quickly under isothermal conditions, which removes the requirements for a thermal cycler.
This also allows for higher amplification efficiency, because there is no need to wait for thermal changes, and thus no time is lost. Whereas a traditional PCR can take around 3 to 4 hours, RT-LAMP takes less than an hour. Other benefits include the high specificity and selectivity for the genetic material in question.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not a serological test. Serologic tests measure the antibody response in an individual.
Loop-mediated isothermal amplification, or LAMP, is an assay that can be used for viral RNA detection. This is a one step nucleic acid amplification method to multiply specific sequences of RNA of the coronavirus. Here, the RNA is first made into cDNA (copy DNA) by the usual reverse transcription. Then, the DNA is amplified by the LAMP technique.
Statement 2 is correct. The benefits of RT-LAMP are important for the viability of broadscale use of this technology. Chief among these is that amplification of genetic material is done quickly under isothermal conditions, which removes the requirements for a thermal cycler.
This also allows for higher amplification efficiency, because there is no need to wait for thermal changes, and thus no time is lost. Whereas a traditional PCR can take around 3 to 4 hours, RT-LAMP takes less than an hour. Other benefits include the high specificity and selectivity for the genetic material in question.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the objective of the SHINE trial?
Correct
The study, named SHINE (Shorter Treatment for Minimal Tuberculosis in Children), was sponsored by University College London (UCL).
Children often have mild forms of TB and it is likely that they could be successfully treated for less than the standard 6 months. This would have major advantages for the child, their family and carers, and for overburdened health systems, by reducing the number of clinic visits children need to make to take their drugs.
This study is examined whether a shorter 4-month regimen will be non-inferior to the standard 6-month regimen in terms of unfavourable outcomes at 72 weeks.
The trial has found no significant differences between children who received the shortened four-month long treatment compared to those who received the standard six-month treatment plan.
Incorrect
The study, named SHINE (Shorter Treatment for Minimal Tuberculosis in Children), was sponsored by University College London (UCL).
Children often have mild forms of TB and it is likely that they could be successfully treated for less than the standard 6 months. This would have major advantages for the child, their family and carers, and for overburdened health systems, by reducing the number of clinic visits children need to make to take their drugs.
This study is examined whether a shorter 4-month regimen will be non-inferior to the standard 6-month regimen in terms of unfavourable outcomes at 72 weeks.
The trial has found no significant differences between children who received the shortened four-month long treatment compared to those who received the standard six-month treatment plan.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat does the Ramachandran Plot relate to?
Correct
The Ramachandran plot is a foundational concept used in biochemistry courses to describe the basic elements of protein structure.
It was developed in 1963 by G. N. Ramachandran, C. Ramakrishnan, and V. Sasisekharan, to visualize energetically allowed regions for backbone dihedral angles ψ against φ of amino acid residues in protein structure.
# Proteins are made of long-chain polymers called polypeptides. There can be one or multiple polypeptide chains that come together to form a protein. The novel coronavirus’s spike protein comprises three identical peptide chains. Each chain consists of repeating units called amino acids.
Incorrect
The Ramachandran plot is a foundational concept used in biochemistry courses to describe the basic elements of protein structure.
It was developed in 1963 by G. N. Ramachandran, C. Ramakrishnan, and V. Sasisekharan, to visualize energetically allowed regions for backbone dihedral angles ψ against φ of amino acid residues in protein structure.
# Proteins are made of long-chain polymers called polypeptides. There can be one or multiple polypeptide chains that come together to form a protein. The novel coronavirus’s spike protein comprises three identical peptide chains. Each chain consists of repeating units called amino acids.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are essential amino acids?
- Histidine
- Leucine
- Valine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Protein is made from twenty-plus basic building blocks called amino acids. Because we don’t store amino acids, our bodies make them in two different ways: either from scratch, or by modifying others.
Nine amino acids—histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine—known as the essential amino acids, must come from food.
Nonessential means that our bodies produce an amino acid, even if we do not get it from the food we eat. Nonessential amino acids include: alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine.
Incorrect
Protein is made from twenty-plus basic building blocks called amino acids. Because we don’t store amino acids, our bodies make them in two different ways: either from scratch, or by modifying others.
Nine amino acids—histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine—known as the essential amino acids, must come from food.
Nonessential means that our bodies produce an amino acid, even if we do not get it from the food we eat. Nonessential amino acids include: alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAlphaFold artificial intelligence program has been in news recently, what is its utility?
Correct
AlphaFold is an artificial intelligence program developed by Google’s DeepMind which performs predictions of protein structure.
It has outperformed around 100 other teams in a biennial protein-structure prediction challenge called Critical Assessment of Structure Prediction (CASP). The results were announced on 30 November, at the start of the conference — held virtually this year — that takes stock of the exercise.
The ability to accurately predict protein structures from their amino-acid sequence would be a huge boon to life sciences and medicine. It would vastly accelerate efforts to understand the building blocks of cells and enable quicker and more advanced drug discovery.
Incorrect
AlphaFold is an artificial intelligence program developed by Google’s DeepMind which performs predictions of protein structure.
It has outperformed around 100 other teams in a biennial protein-structure prediction challenge called Critical Assessment of Structure Prediction (CASP). The results were announced on 30 November, at the start of the conference — held virtually this year — that takes stock of the exercise.
The ability to accurately predict protein structures from their amino-acid sequence would be a huge boon to life sciences and medicine. It would vastly accelerate efforts to understand the building blocks of cells and enable quicker and more advanced drug discovery.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Parkinson’s disease:
- There is no cure for this disease.
- No women have ever been diagnosed with the Parkinson’s disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is the second most common neurodegenerative disease after Alzheimer’s disease. Early symptoms of PD include tremor, rigidity, and difficulty walking; cognitive decline is common at later stages. The underlying pathology of PD is selective death of dopamine-generating cells in the substantia nigra, a part of the brain involved in movement, reward, and addiction.
Statement 1 is correct. There is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can often relieve some symptoms.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Both men and women can have Parkinson’s disease. However, the disease affects about 50 percent more men than women.
One clear risk factor for Parkinson’s is age. Although most people with Parkinson’s first develop the disease at about age 60, about 5 to 10 percent of people with Parkinson’s have “early-onset” disease, which begins before the age of 50.
Incorrect
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is the second most common neurodegenerative disease after Alzheimer’s disease. Early symptoms of PD include tremor, rigidity, and difficulty walking; cognitive decline is common at later stages. The underlying pathology of PD is selective death of dopamine-generating cells in the substantia nigra, a part of the brain involved in movement, reward, and addiction.
Statement 1 is correct. There is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can often relieve some symptoms.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Both men and women can have Parkinson’s disease. However, the disease affects about 50 percent more men than women.
One clear risk factor for Parkinson’s is age. Although most people with Parkinson’s first develop the disease at about age 60, about 5 to 10 percent of people with Parkinson’s have “early-onset” disease, which begins before the age of 50.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is ‘Ischaemum janarthanamii’ that has been in news recently?
Correct
A new species of Indian Muraingrasses known for their ecological and economic importance, such as fodder, have been spotted by scientists in Goa in the Western Ghats, one of the four global biodiversity hotspots of India. The species has adapted to survive harsh conditions, low nutrient availability, and blossoms every monsoon.
Globally 85 species are known from Ischaemum, of which 61 species are exclusively found in India. The Western Ghats have 40 species with the highest concentration of the genus.
The species was named Ischaemum janarthanamiiin honor of Prof. M. K. Janarthanam, Professor of Botany, Goa University, for his contribution to the Indian grass taxonomy and documentation of the floristic diversity of Goa state.
Incorrect
A new species of Indian Muraingrasses known for their ecological and economic importance, such as fodder, have been spotted by scientists in Goa in the Western Ghats, one of the four global biodiversity hotspots of India. The species has adapted to survive harsh conditions, low nutrient availability, and blossoms every monsoon.
Globally 85 species are known from Ischaemum, of which 61 species are exclusively found in India. The Western Ghats have 40 species with the highest concentration of the genus.
The species was named Ischaemum janarthanamiiin honor of Prof. M. K. Janarthanam, Professor of Botany, Goa University, for his contribution to the Indian grass taxonomy and documentation of the floristic diversity of Goa state.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are malaria parasites that infect humans?
- Plasmodium falciparum
- Plasmodium vivax
- Plasmodium ovale
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Four kinds of malaria parasites infect humans: Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae. In addition, P. knowlesi, a type of malaria that naturally infects macaques in Southeast Asia, also infects humans, causing malaria that is transmitted from animal to human (“zoonotic” malaria).
- falciparum is the type of malaria that is most likely to result in severe infections and if not promptly treated, may lead to death. Although malaria can be a deadly disease, illness and death from malaria can usually be prevented.
# Recently it was reported that a soldier in Kerala is believed to have contracted Plasmodium ovale during his posting in Sudan.
Incorrect
Four kinds of malaria parasites infect humans: Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae. In addition, P. knowlesi, a type of malaria that naturally infects macaques in Southeast Asia, also infects humans, causing malaria that is transmitted from animal to human (“zoonotic” malaria).
- falciparum is the type of malaria that is most likely to result in severe infections and if not promptly treated, may lead to death. Although malaria can be a deadly disease, illness and death from malaria can usually be prevented.
# Recently it was reported that a soldier in Kerala is believed to have contracted Plasmodium ovale during his posting in Sudan.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding ACE2 receptors:
- It is found on the cells and tissues of heart and lungs.
- It provides entry point to SARS-CoV-2 to infect the human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen – that then go on to regulate functions in the cell.
ACE2 is present in many cell types and tissues including the lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, liver and gastrointestinal tract. It is present in epithelial cells, which line certain tissues and create protective barriers.
Using its spike proteins the SARS-CoV-2 binds to the ACE2 receptors which acts as a doorway for the virus to enter the human body.
When the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2, it prevents ACE2 from performing its normal function to regulate ANG II signaling. Thus, ACE2 action is “inhibited,” removing the brakes from ANG II signaling and making more ANG II available to injure tissues. This “decreased braking” likely contributes to injury, especially to the lungs and heart, in COVID-19 patients.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen – that then go on to regulate functions in the cell.
ACE2 is present in many cell types and tissues including the lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, liver and gastrointestinal tract. It is present in epithelial cells, which line certain tissues and create protective barriers.
Using its spike proteins the SARS-CoV-2 binds to the ACE2 receptors which acts as a doorway for the virus to enter the human body.
When the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2, it prevents ACE2 from performing its normal function to regulate ANG II signaling. Thus, ACE2 action is “inhibited,” removing the brakes from ANG II signaling and making more ANG II available to injure tissues. This “decreased braking” likely contributes to injury, especially to the lungs and heart, in COVID-19 patients.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following causes the Alpha-gal Syndrome?
Correct
Alpha-gal syndrome (AGS) (also called alpha-gal allergy, red meat allergy, or tick bite meat allergy) is a serious, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. AGS may occur after people eat red meat or are exposed to other products containing alpha-gal.
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recently approved a first-of-its-kind intentional genomic alteration (IGA) in a line of domestic pigs referred to as GalSafe pigs. It aims to eliminate a type of sugar found in mammals called alpha-gal.
Incorrect
Alpha-gal syndrome (AGS) (also called alpha-gal allergy, red meat allergy, or tick bite meat allergy) is a serious, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. AGS may occur after people eat red meat or are exposed to other products containing alpha-gal.
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recently approved a first-of-its-kind intentional genomic alteration (IGA) in a line of domestic pigs referred to as GalSafe pigs. It aims to eliminate a type of sugar found in mammals called alpha-gal.
Biology and diseases 4
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- Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Human Immuno-deficiency Virus
(HIV):
- All people infected with HIV also have Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS).
- India has completely eliminated the prevalence of HIV in pregnant women across the
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. HIV after entering the human body gradually
destroys the immune system, i.e. the ability to fight infections/diseases.
AIDS is the later stage of HIV infection. It is a condition in which a group of symptoms
appear as the immune system becomes very weak. It can take around 8-10 years from the
time of HIV infection to the stage of AIDS.
Being diagnosed with HIV does not mean a person will also be diagnosed with AIDS.
Healthcare professionals diagnose AIDS only when people with HIV infection begin to get
severe opportunistic infections (OIs), or their CD4cell counts fall below a certain level.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 2019 HIV estimates by the National AIDS Control
Organization (NACO) states that there has been a 66.1% reduction in new HIV infections
among children and a 65.3% reduction in AIDS-related deaths in India over a nine-year
period. The number of pregnant women living with HIV has reduced from 31,000 in
2010 to 20,000 in 2019.
Under the leadership of NACO, a ‘Fast-Tracking of EMTCT (elimination of mother-to-child
transmission) strategy-cum-action plan’ was outlined by June 2019, in the run-up towards
December 2020: the deadline to achieve
EMTCT.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. HIV after entering the human body gradually
destroys the immune system, i.e. the ability to fight infections/diseases.
AIDS is the later stage of HIV infection. It is a condition in which a group of symptoms
appear as the immune system becomes very weak. It can take around 8-10 years from the
time of HIV infection to the stage of AIDS.
Being diagnosed with HIV does not mean a person will also be diagnosed with AIDS.
Healthcare professionals diagnose AIDS only when people with HIV infection begin to get
severe opportunistic infections (OIs), or their CD4cell counts fall below a certain level.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 2019 HIV estimates by the National AIDS Control
Organization (NACO) states that there has been a 66.1% reduction in new HIV infections
among children and a 65.3% reduction in AIDS-related deaths in India over a nine-year
period. The number of pregnant women living with HIV has reduced from 31,000 in
2010 to 20,000 in 2019.
Under the leadership of NACO, a ‘Fast-Tracking of EMTCT (elimination of mother-to-child
transmission) strategy-cum-action plan’ was outlined by June 2019, in the run-up towards
December 2020: the deadline to achieve
EMTCT.
- Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Soil-transmitted helminths
(STH):
- These infections are caused by species of parasitic worms.
- STHs are considered Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Soil-transmitted helminth infections are caused by different species of parasitic worms.
They are transmitted by eggs present in human faeces, which contaminate the soil in areas where sanitation is poor.
Infected children are nutritionally and physically impaired.
Soil-transmitted helminth infection is found mainly in areas with warm and moist climates where sanitation and hygiene are poor, including in temperate zones during warmer months.
These STHs are considered Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) because they inflict tremendous disability and suffering yet can be controlled or eliminated.
# Since its launch in 2015, the National Deworming Day (NDD), a flagship program of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is implemented as a biannual single day programme implemented through the platforms of schools and anganwadis. Albendazole tablet, approved by World Health Organization (WHO), is used for treatment of intestinal worms in children and adolescents as part of Mass Drug Administration (MDA) programmes globally.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Soil-transmitted helminth infections are caused by different species of parasitic worms.
They are transmitted by eggs present in human faeces, which contaminate the soil in areas where sanitation is poor.
Infected children are nutritionally and physically impaired.
Soil-transmitted helminth infection is found mainly in areas with warm and moist climates where sanitation and hygiene are poor, including in temperate zones during warmer months.
These STHs are considered Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) because they inflict tremendous disability and suffering yet can be controlled or eliminated.
# Since its launch in 2015, the National Deworming Day (NDD), a flagship program of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is implemented as a biannual single day programme implemented through the platforms of schools and anganwadis. Albendazole tablet, approved by World Health Organization (WHO), is used for treatment of intestinal worms in children and adolescents as part of Mass Drug Administration (MDA) programmes globally.
- Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “SPINK1” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The SPINK1-positive prostate cancer subtype derives its name from the excess amount of SPINK1 oncogene found in the cancer cells.
Excess production of SPINK1 gene responsible for tumour and metastasis is not restricted to prostate cancer alone but also seen in colorectal, lung, pancreatic, breast and ovarian cancers.
the molecular mechanism and pathobiology of SPINK1-positive prostate cancer subtype, the second most recurrent and aggressive in nature that affects about 15% of patients has been finally unravelled.
The insights gained in this study might therefore help in the treatment and disease management of several SPINK1-positive malignancies.
In addition to excess amount of the SPINK1 oncogene, the researchers found that most cancer cells belonging to this subtype also have more than normal amount of a particular protein called EZH2.
Also, the levels of two micro RNAs (miRNA-338-5p and miRNA-421) produced in SPINK1-positive cancer cells were much less.
Incorrect
The SPINK1-positive prostate cancer subtype derives its name from the excess amount of SPINK1 oncogene found in the cancer cells.
Excess production of SPINK1 gene responsible for tumour and metastasis is not restricted to prostate cancer alone but also seen in colorectal, lung, pancreatic, breast and ovarian cancers.
the molecular mechanism and pathobiology of SPINK1-positive prostate cancer subtype, the second most recurrent and aggressive in nature that affects about 15% of patients has been finally unravelled.
The insights gained in this study might therefore help in the treatment and disease management of several SPINK1-positive malignancies.
In addition to excess amount of the SPINK1 oncogene, the researchers found that most cancer cells belonging to this subtype also have more than normal amount of a particular protein called EZH2.
Also, the levels of two micro RNAs (miRNA-338-5p and miRNA-421) produced in SPINK1-positive cancer cells were much less.
- Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Wolbachia bacteria:
- It is an artificially developed genus of intracellular bacteria.
- It is used to prevent transmission of mosquito-borne viral diseases such as dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Wolbachia are extremely common and natural
bacteria that occur naturally in 60 per cent of insect species, including some
mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies
Statement 2 is correct. It is often reported to be used in prevention of mosquito-borne
viral diseases. However, it is not usually found in the Aedes aegypti mosquito (responsible
for transmitting viruses such as Zika, dengue and chikungunya).
Prevention methods involve introducing Wolbachia into populations of Aedes aegypti. When
the Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes breed with their wild counterparts, the percentage of
mosquitoes carrying the bacterium grows.
Wolbachia has been seen to decrease the lifespan of Aedes aegypti, carriers of mosquitoborne
diseases, and decreases their efficacy of pathogen transmission.
The World Mosquito Program uses safe and natural bacteria called Wolbachia to prevent
the transmission of mosquito-borne viral diseases such as dengue, Zika, chikungunya and
yellow fever.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Wolbachia are extremely common and natural
bacteria that occur naturally in 60 per cent of insect species, including some
mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies
Statement 2 is correct. It is often reported to be used in prevention of mosquito-borne
viral diseases. However, it is not usually found in the Aedes aegypti mosquito (responsible
for transmitting viruses such as Zika, dengue and chikungunya).
Prevention methods involve introducing Wolbachia into populations of Aedes aegypti. When
the Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes breed with their wild counterparts, the percentage of
mosquitoes carrying the bacterium grows.
Wolbachia has been seen to decrease the lifespan of Aedes aegypti, carriers of mosquitoborne
diseases, and decreases their efficacy of pathogen transmission.
The World Mosquito Program uses safe and natural bacteria called Wolbachia to prevent
the transmission of mosquito-borne viral diseases such as dengue, Zika, chikungunya and
yellow fever.
- Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines Haemodynamic Monitoring?
Correct
Haemodynamic monitoring is the study of how blood flows through the
cardiovascular system (i.e. the heart and blood vessels). The purpose of the cardiovascular
system is to deliver blood carrying oxygen and other vital nutrients to the cells and tissues
the body.
The results of haemodynamic monitoring allow the healthcare team to check whether a
person has:
-enough blood, to decide whether more or less is needed
-a suitable blood pressure
-structural problems with their heart that stops it from working properly
-good heart rate, to decide the heart needs more support.
Incorrect
Haemodynamic monitoring is the study of how blood flows through the
cardiovascular system (i.e. the heart and blood vessels). The purpose of the cardiovascular
system is to deliver blood carrying oxygen and other vital nutrients to the cells and tissues
the body.
The results of haemodynamic monitoring allow the healthcare team to check whether a
person has:
-enough blood, to decide whether more or less is needed
-a suitable blood pressure
-structural problems with their heart that stops it from working properly
-good heart rate, to decide the heart needs more support.
- Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the African trypanosomiasis:
- It is transmitted by the tsetse fly which is found only in Africa.
- It is not a fatal disease and has a zero mortality rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. There are two types of African trypanosomiasis (also
called sleeping sickness); each is named for the region of Africa in which they were found
historically.
East African trypanosomiasis is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.
West African trypanosomiasis is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.
Both types of African trypanosomiasis are transmitted by the tsetse fly which is found only
in rural Africa.
Statement 2 is incorrect. East and West African trypanosomiasis are eventually fatal if not
treated.
Progressive confusion, personality changes, and other neurologic problems occur after
infection has invaded the central nervous system (second stage). If left untreated, the illness
becomes worse and death will occur within months.
# The World Health Organization (WHO) has declared that Togo has become the first country
in Africa to eliminate human African Trypanosomiasis
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. There are two types of African trypanosomiasis (also
called sleeping sickness); each is named for the region of Africa in which they were found
historically.
East African trypanosomiasis is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.
West African trypanosomiasis is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.
Both types of African trypanosomiasis are transmitted by the tsetse fly which is found only
in rural Africa.
Statement 2 is incorrect. East and West African trypanosomiasis are eventually fatal if not
treated.
Progressive confusion, personality changes, and other neurologic problems occur after
infection has invaded the central nervous system (second stage). If left untreated, the illness
becomes worse and death will occur within months.
# The World Health Organization (WHO) has declared that Togo has become the first country
in Africa to eliminate human African Trypanosomiasis
- Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the term ‘Immunogenicity’?
Correct
: Immunogenicity is the ability of a foreign substance, such as an antigen, to
provoke an immune response in the body of a human or other animal. It is the ability to
induce a humoral and/or cell-mediated immune responses.
Antigenicity is the ability to be specifically recognized by the antibodies generated as a
result of the immune response to the given substance.
Incorrect
: Immunogenicity is the ability of a foreign substance, such as an antigen, to
provoke an immune response in the body of a human or other animal. It is the ability to
induce a humoral and/or cell-mediated immune responses.
Antigenicity is the ability to be specifically recognized by the antibodies generated as a
result of the immune response to the given substance.
- Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are immunogenicity evaluation tests?
- ELISA test
- Plaque reduction neutralization test
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Both are immunogenicity evaluation tests.
Immunogenicity is the ability of a foreign substance, such as an antigen, to provoke an
immune response in the body of a human or other animal. It is the ability to induce a
humoral and/or cell-mediated immune responses.
ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a plate-based assay technique designed
for detecting and quantifying soluble substances such as peptides, proteins, antibodies,
and hormones.
The plaque-reduction neutralization test (PRNT) is a serological test which measures
virus-specific neutralizing antibody titers.
Incorrect
Both are immunogenicity evaluation tests.
Immunogenicity is the ability of a foreign substance, such as an antigen, to provoke an
immune response in the body of a human or other animal. It is the ability to induce a
humoral and/or cell-mediated immune responses.
ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a plate-based assay technique designed
for detecting and quantifying soluble substances such as peptides, proteins, antibodies,
and hormones.
The plaque-reduction neutralization test (PRNT) is a serological test which measures
virus-specific neutralizing antibody titers.
- Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- RECOVERY trial – Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations
- Solidarity trial – World Health Organization
- COVAX – Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Randomised Evaluation of COVID-19 Therapy
(RECOVERY Trial) is supported by a grant to the University of Oxford from United
Kingdom Research and Innovation/National Institute for Health Research (NIHR).
RECOVERY Trial is currently testing some of these suggested treatments:
-Low-dose Dexamethasone (now only recruiting children)
-Azithromycin (a commonly used antibiotic)
-Tocilizumab (an anti-inflammatory treatment given by injection)
-Convalescent plasma (collected from donors who have recovered from COVID-19 and
contains antibodies against the SARS-CoV-2 virus).
Option 2 is correct. Solidarity is an international clinical trial to help find an effective
treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
The treatment options are: Remdesivir and Lopinavir/Ritonavir with Interferon beta-1a. On
4 July 2020, WHO accepted the recommendation from the Solidarity Trial’s International
Steering Committee to discontinue the trial’s hydroxychloroquine and lopinavir/ritonavir
arm.
Option 3 is correct. COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness
Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of
COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the
world.
COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Randomised Evaluation of COVID-19 Therapy
(RECOVERY Trial) is supported by a grant to the University of Oxford from United
Kingdom Research and Innovation/National Institute for Health Research (NIHR).
RECOVERY Trial is currently testing some of these suggested treatments:
-Low-dose Dexamethasone (now only recruiting children)
-Azithromycin (a commonly used antibiotic)
-Tocilizumab (an anti-inflammatory treatment given by injection)
-Convalescent plasma (collected from donors who have recovered from COVID-19 and
contains antibodies against the SARS-CoV-2 virus).
Option 2 is correct. Solidarity is an international clinical trial to help find an effective
treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
The treatment options are: Remdesivir and Lopinavir/Ritonavir with Interferon beta-1a. On
4 July 2020, WHO accepted the recommendation from the Solidarity Trial’s International
Steering Committee to discontinue the trial’s hydroxychloroquine and lopinavir/ritonavir
arm.
Option 3 is correct. COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness
Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of
COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the
world.
COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
- Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘Serial interval‘ in epidemiology?
Correct
The serial interval of an infectious disease represents the duration between
symptom onset of a primary case and symptom onset of its secondary cases, i.e. the time
duration between a primary case-patient (infector) having symptom onset and a secondary
case-patient (infectee) having symptom onset.
The serial interval helps to gauge the effectiveness of infection control interventions
while also indicating rising population immunity and forecast future incidence. The more
quickly persons who contracted a disease are identified and isolated; the shorter the serial
interval becomes and cuts down opportunities for transmission of the virus.
Incorrect
The serial interval of an infectious disease represents the duration between
symptom onset of a primary case and symptom onset of its secondary cases, i.e. the time
duration between a primary case-patient (infector) having symptom onset and a secondary
case-patient (infectee) having symptom onset.
The serial interval helps to gauge the effectiveness of infection control interventions
while also indicating rising population immunity and forecast future incidence. The more
quickly persons who contracted a disease are identified and isolated; the shorter the serial
interval becomes and cuts down opportunities for transmission of the virus.
- Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Brucellosis disease:
- It is an infectious disease caused by a bacterium.
- It mostly spreads by eating or drinking unpasteurized or raw dairy products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Brucellosis is a bacterial disease caused by various Brucella species, which mainly infect
cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs. Humans generally acquire the disease through direct
contact with infected animals, by eating or drinking contaminated animal products, or by
inhaling airborne agents.
Most cases are caused by ingesting unpasteurized milk or cheese from infected goats or
sheep. Person-to-person transmission is rare. The disease causes flu-like symptoms,
including fever, weakness, malaise and weight loss.
# Authorities of Lanzhou city, China recently confirmed that several thousand people have
tested positive for bacterial disease brucellosis due to a leak caused by a biopharmaceutical
company in 2019.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Brucellosis is a bacterial disease caused by various Brucella species, which mainly infect
cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs. Humans generally acquire the disease through direct
contact with infected animals, by eating or drinking contaminated animal products, or by
inhaling airborne agents.
Most cases are caused by ingesting unpasteurized milk or cheese from infected goats or
sheep. Person-to-person transmission is rare. The disease causes flu-like symptoms,
including fever, weakness, malaise and weight loss.
# Authorities of Lanzhou city, China recently confirmed that several thousand people have
tested positive for bacterial disease brucellosis due to a leak caused by a biopharmaceutical
company in 2019.
- Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the pulmonary edema:
- It is caused by excess fluid in the lungs making it difficult to breathe.
- High-altitude pulmonary edema is caused by increased pressures in heart.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Pulmonary edema is a condition caused by excess
fluid in the lungs. This fluid collects in the numerous air sacs in the lungs, making it
difficult to breathe. Pulmonary edema that develops suddenly (acute pulmonary edema) is a
medical emergency requiring immediate care.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Pulmonary edema that isn’t caused by increased pressures in
your heart is called non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) is a life-threatening form of non-cardiogenic
pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) that occurs in otherwise healthy
people at high altitudes.
# There have been reports of risks of High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) to the soldiers
deployed at Pangong Tso and other heights recently.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Pulmonary edema is a condition caused by excess
fluid in the lungs. This fluid collects in the numerous air sacs in the lungs, making it
difficult to breathe. Pulmonary edema that develops suddenly (acute pulmonary edema) is a
medical emergency requiring immediate care.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Pulmonary edema that isn’t caused by increased pressures in
your heart is called non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) is a life-threatening form of non-cardiogenic
pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) that occurs in otherwise healthy
people at high altitudes.
# There have been reports of risks of High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) to the soldiers
deployed at Pangong Tso and other heights recently.
- Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) refers to formation of a blood clot in a vein.
- Blood clots in veins can break loose and travel through the bloodstream.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is a blood clot in a vein, usually the leg. Leg pain or swelling
may occur, but there may also be no symptoms.
DVT can be very serious because blood clots in veins can break loose, travel through the
bloodstream and get stuck in lungs. This is called a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary
embolism can be life threatening and needs treatment straight away.
# Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum (SCTIMST),
an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, has recently developed
a device for the prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). Scientists have come up with a
device that can facilitate flow of blood from the veins in the legs thus preventing DVT.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is a blood clot in a vein, usually the leg. Leg pain or swelling
may occur, but there may also be no symptoms.
DVT can be very serious because blood clots in veins can break loose, travel through the
bloodstream and get stuck in lungs. This is called a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary
embolism can be life threatening and needs treatment straight away.
# Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum (SCTIMST),
an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, has recently developed
a device for the prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). Scientists have come up with a
device that can facilitate flow of blood from the veins in the legs thus preventing DVT.
- Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the pulmonary edema:
- It is caused by excess fluid in the lungs making it difficult to breathe.
- High-altitude pulmonary edema is caused by increased pressures in heart.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Pulmonary edema is a condition caused by excess
fluid in the lungs. This fluid collects in the numerous air sacs in the lungs, making it
difficult to breathe. Pulmonary edema that develops suddenly (acute pulmonary edema) is a
medical emergency requiring immediate care.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Pulmonary edema that isn’t caused by increased pressures in
your heart is called non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) is a life-threatening form of non-cardiogenic
pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) that occurs in otherwise healthy
people at high altitudes.
# There have been reports of risks of High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) to the soldiers
deployed at Pangong Tso and other heights recently.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Pulmonary edema is a condition caused by excess
fluid in the lungs. This fluid collects in the numerous air sacs in the lungs, making it
difficult to breathe. Pulmonary edema that develops suddenly (acute pulmonary edema) is a
medical emergency requiring immediate care.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Pulmonary edema that isn’t caused by increased pressures in
your heart is called non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) is a life-threatening form of non-cardiogenic
pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) that occurs in otherwise healthy
people at high altitudes.
# There have been reports of risks of High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) to the soldiers
deployed at Pangong Tso and other heights recently.
- Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) refers to formation of a blood clot in a vein.
- Blood clots in veins can break loose and travel through the bloodstream.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is a blood clot in a vein, usually the leg. Leg pain or swelling
may occur, but there may also be no symptoms.
DVT can be very serious because blood clots in veins can break loose, travel through the
bloodstream and get stuck in lungs. This is called a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary
embolism can be life threatening and needs treatment straight away.
# Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum (SCTIMST),
an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, has recently developed
a device for the prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). Scientists have come up with a
device that can facilitate flow of blood from the veins in the legs thus preventing DVT.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is a blood clot in a vein, usually the leg. Leg pain or swelling
may occur, but there may also be no symptoms.
DVT can be very serious because blood clots in veins can break loose, travel through the
bloodstream and get stuck in lungs. This is called a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary
embolism can be life threatening and needs treatment straight away.
# Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum (SCTIMST),
an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, has recently developed
a device for the prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). Scientists have come up with a
device that can facilitate flow of blood from the veins in the legs thus preventing DVT.
Bio-Technology
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Serological Surveys:
1.It is based on antibody test conducted on a sample of the population.
2.It is used to estimate the part of population that has already been infected with an infection.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Serological surveys are conducted to assess the prevalence of a disease in a population. It is done by detecting the presence of specific antibodies that are produced against the virus.
A serological survey generally includes the IgG Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) test. It estimates the proportion of the population exposed to an infection.
The human body produces Immunoglobulin M (IgM) and Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies to fight against a pathogen.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Serological surveys are conducted to assess the prevalence of a disease in a population. It is done by detecting the presence of specific antibodies that are produced against the virus.
A serological survey generally includes the IgG Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) test. It estimates the proportion of the population exposed to an infection.
The human body produces Immunoglobulin M (IgM) and Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies to fight against a pathogen. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement is correct regarding the Antigens?
Correct
Antigens are substances that cause an immune response in the body by identifying substances in or markers on cells. The human body produces antibodies to fight antigens, or harmful substances, and tries to eliminate them.
# An antigen may be a substance from the environment, such as chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or pollen.Incorrect
Antigens are substances that cause an immune response in the body by identifying substances in or markers on cells. The human body produces antibodies to fight antigens, or harmful substances, and tries to eliminate them.
# An antigen may be a substance from the environment, such as chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or pollen. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding food fortification:
1.It is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient of the food.
2.Rice fortification is not possible due to its brittle character.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in a food, so as to improve the nutritional quality of the food supply and provide a public health benefit with minimal risk to health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Rice can be fortified by adding a micronutrient powder to the rice that adheres to the grains or spraying of the surface of ordinary rice grains in several layers with a vitamin and mineral mix to form a protective coating.
Rice can also be extruded and shaped into partially precooked grain-like structures resembling rice grains, which can then be blended with natural polished rice. Rice kernels can be fortified with several micronutrients, such as iron, folic acid and other B-complex vitamins, vitamin A and zinc.
# To initiate the process of taking the country towards nutritional security, Department of Food & Public Distribution (DFPD) has been running a “Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme on Fortification of Rice & its distribution through Public Distribution System”.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in a food, so as to improve the nutritional quality of the food supply and provide a public health benefit with minimal risk to health.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Rice can be fortified by adding a micronutrient powder to the rice that adheres to the grains or spraying of the surface of ordinary rice grains in several layers with a vitamin and mineral mix to form a protective coating.
Rice can also be extruded and shaped into partially precooked grain-like structures resembling rice grains, which can then be blended with natural polished rice. Rice kernels can be fortified with several micronutrients, such as iron, folic acid and other B-complex vitamins, vitamin A and zinc.
# To initiate the process of taking the country towards nutritional security, Department of Food & Public Distribution (DFPD) has been running a “Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme on Fortification of Rice & its distribution through Public Distribution System”. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the potential impact of the D614G mutation in coronavirus?
Correct
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses.
In the D614G mutation in coronavirus, the virus replaced the aspartic acid (D) in the 614th position of the amino acid with glycine (G). Hence the mutation is called the D614G.
# It has also been reported in India.
A preprint posted in medRxiv, which has not undergone peer-review, explains the sequenced genomes of 5,085 SARS-CoV-2 strains in Houston. By doing so, it discovered that not only did the D614G show increased infectivity but it also displayed greater ability at attaching itself to the cell walls inside an individual’s nose and throat, increasing the viral load.Incorrect
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses.
In the D614G mutation in coronavirus, the virus replaced the aspartic acid (D) in the 614th position of the amino acid with glycine (G). Hence the mutation is called the D614G.
# It has also been reported in India.
A preprint posted in medRxiv, which has not undergone peer-review, explains the sequenced genomes of 5,085 SARS-CoV-2 strains in Houston. By doing so, it discovered that not only did the D614G show increased infectivity but it also displayed greater ability at attaching itself to the cell walls inside an individual’s nose and throat, increasing the viral load. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RNA vaccine technology:
1.The antigen of the pathogen is directly introduced in the body by injecting a serum.
2.The production of RNA-based vaccines is more rapid compared to production of traditional vaccines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. For a classical vaccine, the antigen is introduced in the body to produce an immune response. However, in the case of DNA- or RNA-based vaccines, no antigen is introduced, only the RNA or DNA containing the genetic information to produce the antigen. That is, for this specific class of vaccines, introduction of DNA and RNA provides the instructions to the body to produce the antigen itself.
After this step, the mechanism is similar to classical vaccines: the antigen is presented at the surface of a subset of cells and triggers the activation of specific cells of the immune system.
Statement 2 is correct. RNA vaccines are faster and cheaper to produce than traditional vaccines, and an RNA based vaccine is also safer for the patient, as they are not produced using infectious elements
Production of RNA vaccines is laboratory based, and the process could be standardized and scaled, allowing quick responses to large outbreaks and epidemics.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. For a classical vaccine, the antigen is introduced in the body to produce an immune response. However, in the case of DNA- or RNA-based vaccines, no antigen is introduced, only the RNA or DNA containing the genetic information to produce the antigen. That is, for this specific class of vaccines, introduction of DNA and RNA provides the instructions to the body to produce the antigen itself.
After this step, the mechanism is similar to classical vaccines: the antigen is presented at the surface of a subset of cells and triggers the activation of specific cells of the immune system.
Statement 2 is correct. RNA vaccines are faster and cheaper to produce than traditional vaccines, and an RNA based vaccine is also safer for the patient, as they are not produced using infectious elements
Production of RNA vaccines is laboratory based, and the process could be standardized and scaled, allowing quick responses to large outbreaks and epidemics. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RNA vaccines:
1.They work by introducing an mRNA sequence in body which is coded for a disease specific antigen.
2.Production of RNA vaccines is laboratory based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
RNA vaccines work by introducing an mRNA sequence (the molecule which tells cells what to build) which is coded for a disease specific antigen, once produced within the body, the antigen is recognised by the immune system, preparing it to fight the real thing
RNA vaccines are faster and cheaper to produce than traditional vaccines, and a RNA based vaccine is also safer for the patient, as they are not produced using infectious elements
Production of RNA vaccines is laboratory based, and the process could be standardised and scaled, allowing quick responses to large outbreaks and epidemicsIncorrect
Both statements are correct.
RNA vaccines work by introducing an mRNA sequence (the molecule which tells cells what to build) which is coded for a disease specific antigen, once produced within the body, the antigen is recognised by the immune system, preparing it to fight the real thing
RNA vaccines are faster and cheaper to produce than traditional vaccines, and a RNA based vaccine is also safer for the patient, as they are not produced using infectious elements
Production of RNA vaccines is laboratory based, and the process could be standardised and scaled, allowing quick responses to large outbreaks and epidemics - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is κappa-carrageenan that has been in news recently?
Correct
An injectable hydrogel derived from spirulina can help accelerated wound repair in internal injuries and rapid healing in diabetic patients.
Repeated dressing of diabetic wound badly affects its healing process while it is difficult to assess the wound repair in internal injuries due to treatment complications.
To address this need, Scientists at the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali, an autonomous Institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), have recently developed an injectable hydrogel from κappa-carrageenan, a water-soluble polysaccharide found in edible red seaweeds and a pigmented protein called C-phycocyanin found in spirulina.
The gelling property of κ-carrageenan was utilized by the researchers along with C-phycocyanin as an injectable and regenerative wound dressing matrix to heal the wound rapidly and also to monitor it progress in real-time.Incorrect
An injectable hydrogel derived from spirulina can help accelerated wound repair in internal injuries and rapid healing in diabetic patients.
Repeated dressing of diabetic wound badly affects its healing process while it is difficult to assess the wound repair in internal injuries due to treatment complications.
To address this need, Scientists at the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali, an autonomous Institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), have recently developed an injectable hydrogel from κappa-carrageenan, a water-soluble polysaccharide found in edible red seaweeds and a pigmented protein called C-phycocyanin found in spirulina.
The gelling property of κ-carrageenan was utilized by the researchers along with C-phycocyanin as an injectable and regenerative wound dressing matrix to heal the wound rapidly and also to monitor it progress in real-time. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Rotavirus:
1. It can cause severe watery diarrhea among children.
2. ROTAVAC is a rotavirus vaccine developed in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Rotavirus spreads easily among infants and young children. The virus can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. Children who get rotavirus disease can become dehydrated and may need to be hospitalized.
Good hygiene like handwashing and cleanliness are important, but are not enough to control the spread of the disease.
Statement 2 is correct. The ROTAVAC vaccine developed by Bharat Biotech originated in India from an attenuated (weakened) strain of rotavirus that was isolated from an Indian child at the All-India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi in 1985-86.
Rotavac received WHO-Prequalification in January 2018.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Rotavirus spreads easily among infants and young children. The virus can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. Children who get rotavirus disease can become dehydrated and may need to be hospitalized.
Good hygiene like handwashing and cleanliness are important, but are not enough to control the spread of the disease.
Statement 2 is correct. The ROTAVAC vaccine developed by Bharat Biotech originated in India from an attenuated (weakened) strain of rotavirus that was isolated from an Indian child at the All-India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi in 1985-86.
Rotavac received WHO-Prequalification in January 2018. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Antigen tests for disease diagnosis:
1. The test is done on the blood sample of a suspected patient.
2. It detects if a person was infected by the disease in past.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The sample for the rapid Antigen test is taken through a Nasal or throat swab. The Antibody test on the other hand requires a blood sample.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An antigen test reveals if a person is currently infected with a pathogen such as the SARS-CoV-2 virus. Once the infection has gone, the antigen disappears. It is a diagnosis for an active infection.
Antigen tests detect proteins or glycans, such as the spike proteins found on the surface of the SARS-CoV-2 virus.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The sample for the rapid Antigen test is taken through a Nasal or throat swab. The Antibody test on the other hand requires a blood sample.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An antigen test reveals if a person is currently infected with a pathogen such as the SARS-CoV-2 virus. Once the infection has gone, the antigen disappears. It is a diagnosis for an active infection.
Antigen tests detect proteins or glycans, such as the spike proteins found on the surface of the SARS-CoV-2 virus. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly defines the Sputnik V?
Correct
Sputnik V is potential COVID-19 vaccine developed by the Gamaleya Institute in Moscow, uses two strains of adenovirus as its base.
After tweaking the adenovirus to remove its disease causing ability, genes that code for the coronavirus’s “spike” protein — a structure that plugs into cells to trigger infection — have been added to it, which the immune system should recognize and use to target the pathogen should the body ever become exposed.
The vaccines developed by CanSino Biologics in China and Oxford University and AstraZeneca in Britain also use adenoviruses as their base.
Russia named the newly approved vaccine “Sputnik V,” in reference to the world’s first artificial satellite launched by Russia in 1957.Incorrect
Sputnik V is potential COVID-19 vaccine developed by the Gamaleya Institute in Moscow, uses two strains of adenovirus as its base.
After tweaking the adenovirus to remove its disease causing ability, genes that code for the coronavirus’s “spike” protein — a structure that plugs into cells to trigger infection — have been added to it, which the immune system should recognize and use to target the pathogen should the body ever become exposed.
The vaccines developed by CanSino Biologics in China and Oxford University and AstraZeneca in Britain also use adenoviruses as their base.
Russia named the newly approved vaccine “Sputnik V,” in reference to the world’s first artificial satellite launched by Russia in 1957. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Biodiesel:
1. Biodiesel is produced from vegetable oils, fats or greases.
2. It cannot be blended with the with petroleum diesel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Biodiesel, also called Green Diesel is a liquid fuel produced from renewable sources, such as new and used vegetable oils and animal fats and is a cleaner-burning replacement for petroleum-based diesel fuel.
Biodiesel is nontoxic and biodegradable and is produced by combining alcohol with vegetable oil, animal fat, or recycled cooking grease.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Like petroleum-derived diesel, biodiesel is used to fuel compression-ignition (diesel) engines. Biodiesel can be blended with petroleum diesel.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Biodiesel, also called Green Diesel is a liquid fuel produced from renewable sources, such as new and used vegetable oils and animal fats and is a cleaner-burning replacement for petroleum-based diesel fuel.
Biodiesel is nontoxic and biodegradable and is produced by combining alcohol with vegetable oil, animal fat, or recycled cooking grease.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Like petroleum-derived diesel, biodiesel is used to fuel compression-ignition (diesel) engines. Biodiesel can be blended with petroleum diesel. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Ethanol:
1.It is produced from by-product of the sugar industry.
2.The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) mandates Oil Marketing Companies to blend upto ten percent of ethanol in Petrol.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Ethanol is a renewable biofuel because it is made from biomass. Fuel ethanol feedstocks include grains and crops with high starch and sugar content such as corn, sorghum, barley, sugar cane, and sugar beets. One of the most commonly used sources is molasses, a by-product of the sugar industry.
The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with motor sprit with a view to reducing pollution, conserve foreign exchange and increase value addition in the sugar industry enabling them to clear cane price arrears of farmers. Under EBP programme, OMCs are to blend upto 10% of ethanol in Petrol.
To incentivize 2G Ethanol sector and support this nascent industry, Government launched Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv lndhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana in 2019 for providing financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lingo cellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Ethanol is a renewable biofuel because it is made from biomass. Fuel ethanol feedstocks include grains and crops with high starch and sugar content such as corn, sorghum, barley, sugar cane, and sugar beets. One of the most commonly used sources is molasses, a by-product of the sugar industry.
The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with motor sprit with a view to reducing pollution, conserve foreign exchange and increase value addition in the sugar industry enabling them to clear cane price arrears of farmers. Under EBP programme, OMCs are to blend upto 10% of ethanol in Petrol.
To incentivize 2G Ethanol sector and support this nascent industry, Government launched Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv lndhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana in 2019 for providing financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lingo cellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly defines a Drop-in Fuel?
Correct
Drop-in biofuels are liquid bio-hydrocarbons that are functionally equivalent to petroleum fuels and are fully compatible with existing petroleum infrastructure.
A drop-in fuel is a synthetic and completely interchangeable substitute for conventional petroleum-derived hydrocarbons (gasoline, jet fuel, and diesel). Therefore, it does not require adaptation of the engine, fuel system or the fuel distribution network. It can be used “as is” in currently available engines either in pure form and/or blended in any amount with other drop-in neat, drop-in blend, or conventional fuels.Incorrect
Drop-in biofuels are liquid bio-hydrocarbons that are functionally equivalent to petroleum fuels and are fully compatible with existing petroleum infrastructure.
A drop-in fuel is a synthetic and completely interchangeable substitute for conventional petroleum-derived hydrocarbons (gasoline, jet fuel, and diesel). Therefore, it does not require adaptation of the engine, fuel system or the fuel distribution network. It can be used “as is” in currently available engines either in pure form and/or blended in any amount with other drop-in neat, drop-in blend, or conventional fuels. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019:
1.It provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks.
2.The authorities are not required to obtain consent for collection of bodily substances of any arrested person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister for Science and Technology in July, 2019.
The Bill provides for the regulation of use of DNA technology for establishing the identity of certain persons. It was referred to standing committee for further scrutiny and the final report is awaited.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states. DNA laboratories are required to share DNA data prepared by them with the National and Regional DNA Data Banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Authorities are required to obtain consent for collection in certain situations. For arrested persons, authorities are required to obtain written consent if the offence carries a punishment of up to seven years. If the offence carries more than seven years of imprisonment or death, consent is not required.
The authorities can also approach a Magistrate who may order the taking of bodily substances.
-The Bill provides for the establishment of a DNA Regulatory Board, which will supervise the DNA Data Banks and DNA laboratories.
-The Bill specifies penalties for various offences, including: (i) for disclosure of DNA information, or (ii) using DNA sample without authorization.Incorrect
The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister for Science and Technology in July, 2019.
The Bill provides for the regulation of use of DNA technology for establishing the identity of certain persons. It was referred to standing committee for further scrutiny and the final report is awaited.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states. DNA laboratories are required to share DNA data prepared by them with the National and Regional DNA Data Banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Authorities are required to obtain consent for collection in certain situations. For arrested persons, authorities are required to obtain written consent if the offence carries a punishment of up to seven years. If the offence carries more than seven years of imprisonment or death, consent is not required.
The authorities can also approach a Magistrate who may order the taking of bodily substances.
-The Bill provides for the establishment of a DNA Regulatory Board, which will supervise the DNA Data Banks and DNA laboratories.
-The Bill specifies penalties for various offences, including: (i) for disclosure of DNA information, or (ii) using DNA sample without authorization. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
1.The Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator is an ICMR initiative for accelerated development and production of COVID-19 vaccines.
2.The COVAX facility aims at ensuring global equitable access to COVID-19 vaccines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator is a global collaboration to accelerate development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and vaccines.
The Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator brings together governments, scientists, businesses, civil society, and philanthropists and global health organizations (the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, CEPI, FIND, Gavi, The Global Fund, Unitaid, Wellcome, the WHO, the World Bank and Global Financing Facility).
The ACT-Accelerator is organized into four pillars of work: diagnostics, treatment, vaccines and health system strengthening.
Statement 2 is correct. COVAX Facility is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the world.
# A collaboration between Serum Institute of India (SII), Gavi and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation announced recently will ensure up to 100 million doses of AstraZeneca or Novavax’s candidate vaccines, if successful, will be available to low- and middle-income economies through the COVAX Facility at just US$ 3 per dose.
# In June Gavi launched the COVAX Advance Market Commitment (AMC), a financing instrument aimed at supporting the participation of 92 lower- and middle-income economies in the COVAX Facility.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator is a global collaboration to accelerate development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and vaccines.
The Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator brings together governments, scientists, businesses, civil society, and philanthropists and global health organizations (the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, CEPI, FIND, Gavi, The Global Fund, Unitaid, Wellcome, the WHO, the World Bank and Global Financing Facility).
The ACT-Accelerator is organized into four pillars of work: diagnostics, treatment, vaccines and health system strengthening.
Statement 2 is correct. COVAX Facility is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the world.
# A collaboration between Serum Institute of India (SII), Gavi and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation announced recently will ensure up to 100 million doses of AstraZeneca or Novavax’s candidate vaccines, if successful, will be available to low- and middle-income economies through the COVAX Facility at just US$ 3 per dose.
# In June Gavi launched the COVAX Advance Market Commitment (AMC), a financing instrument aimed at supporting the participation of 92 lower- and middle-income economies in the COVAX Facility. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. SalivaDirect – COVID-19 Antibody based diagnostic test
2. Sputnik V – COVID-19 Vaccine developed by Russia
3. Covishield – COVID-19 Vaccine developed by ICMR and Bharat Biotech
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. SalivaDirect is a saliva-based laboratory diagnostic test developed by researchers at the Yale School of Public Health to determine whether someone is infected with the novel coronavirus.
It is not an antibody test. SalivaDirect test involve three steps — collecting saliva without preservative buffers, proteinase K treatment and heat inactivation, and duplex RT-qPCR virus detection.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Sputnik V is a potential COVID-19 vaccine developed by Russian researchers using two different types of adenovirus vectors (rAd26 and rAd5) for the first and second vaccination.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Covishield is a potential COVID-19 vaccine under trial in India by Serum Institute of India. It has been developed by the Oxford University.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrectly matched. SalivaDirect is a saliva-based laboratory diagnostic test developed by researchers at the Yale School of Public Health to determine whether someone is infected with the novel coronavirus.
It is not an antibody test. SalivaDirect test involve three steps — collecting saliva without preservative buffers, proteinase K treatment and heat inactivation, and duplex RT-qPCR virus detection.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Sputnik V is a potential COVID-19 vaccine developed by Russian researchers using two different types of adenovirus vectors (rAd26 and rAd5) for the first and second vaccination.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Covishield is a potential COVID-19 vaccine under trial in India by Serum Institute of India. It has been developed by the Oxford University. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Pusa Decomposer:
1. It is a fungi-based liquid solution that can soften the hard stubble.
2. The decomposer is an immediate solution for converting the agricultural waste into
compost overnight.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Pusa Decomposer developed by the Indian
Agriculture Research Institute (IARI) is essentially a fungi-based liquid solution that can
soften hard stubble to the extent that it can be easily mixed with soil in the field to act as
compost.
This would then rule out the need to burn the stubble, and also help in retaining the
essential microbes and nutrients in soil that are otherwise damaged when the residue is
burned.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The window of time required for the solution to work, which is
currently the main concern of farmers, is around 20 to 25 days, as per the IARI.
Farmers argue that this window is too long for them, as they ideally wait about a week or 10
days after harvesting the non-basmati variety of rice — which leaves hard stubble — to sow
the wheat crop.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Pusa Decomposer developed by the Indian
Agriculture Research Institute (IARI) is essentially a fungi-based liquid solution that can
soften hard stubble to the extent that it can be easily mixed with soil in the field to act as
compost.
This would then rule out the need to burn the stubble, and also help in retaining the
essential microbes and nutrients in soil that are otherwise damaged when the residue is
burned.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The window of time required for the solution to work, which is
currently the main concern of farmers, is around 20 to 25 days, as per the IARI.
Farmers argue that this window is too long for them, as they ideally wait about a week or 10
days after harvesting the non-basmati variety of rice — which leaves hard stubble — to sow
the wheat crop. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements correctly defines Antisera?
Correct
Antisera are blood sera that contain antibodies against a specific viral
toxin or antigen and are injected to help in the treatment or prevention of the diseases
associated with that virus.
Antisera are prepared by injecting antigens or venoms into healthy animals such as horses
so as to produce in them antibodies which are normally associated with a globulin fraction
serum.
Plasma recovered from Covid-19 patients could serve a similar purpose, but the profile of
antibodies, their efficacy and concentration keep varying from patient to patient.
# Hyderabad-based vaccine maker Biological E, in collaboration with the Indian Council of
Medical Research (ICMR), has developed “highly purified antisera” that can be used in
prevention and treatment of Covid-19.Incorrect
Antisera are blood sera that contain antibodies against a specific viral
toxin or antigen and are injected to help in the treatment or prevention of the diseases
associated with that virus.
Antisera are prepared by injecting antigens or venoms into healthy animals such as horses
so as to produce in them antibodies which are normally associated with a globulin fraction
serum.
Plasma recovered from Covid-19 patients could serve a similar purpose, but the profile of
antibodies, their efficacy and concentration keep varying from patient to patient.
# Hyderabad-based vaccine maker Biological E, in collaboration with the Indian Council of
Medical Research (ICMR), has developed “highly purified antisera” that can be used in
prevention and treatment of Covid-19. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding diagnostic tests:
1. A test with high Sensitivity correctly identifies patients who do not have the disease.
2. A test with high Specificity correctly identifies patients infected with the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The definitions of Sensitivity and Specificity have been interchanged in the
statements.
The sensitivity of a test (also called the true positive rate) is defined as the proportion
of people with the disease who will have a positive result. A highly sensitive test is one that
correctly identifies patients with a disease.
The specificity of a test (also called the true negative Rate) is the proportion of people
without the disease who will have a negative result. The specificity of a test refers to how
well a test identifies patients who do not have a disease.Incorrect
The definitions of Sensitivity and Specificity have been interchanged in the
statements.
The sensitivity of a test (also called the true positive rate) is defined as the proportion
of people with the disease who will have a positive result. A highly sensitive test is one that
correctly identifies patients with a disease.
The specificity of a test (also called the true negative Rate) is the proportion of people
without the disease who will have a negative result. The specificity of a test refers to how
well a test identifies patients who do not have a disease. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the COVID-19 RT-PCR test:
1. Real time RT–PCR is a nuclear-derived method for detecting the presence of specific
genetic material.
2. The test uses sample from the upper and lower respiratory system.
3. The real time RT–PCR cannot be used to detect past infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Real time RT–PCR is a nuclear-derived method for
detecting the presence of specific genetic material in any pathogen, including a virus.
In order for an RNA virus like the COVID-19 virus to be detected early in the body using
real time RT–PCR, scientists need to convert the RNA to DNA (because only DNA can be
copied or amplified). This is a process called ‘reverse transcription’. Scientists amplify a
specific part of the transcribed viral DNA hundreds of thousands of times to accurately
confirm that the virus is present.
Statement 2 is correct. The RT-PCR test for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from
SARS-CoV-2 in upper and lower respiratory specimens (such as nasopharyngeal or
oropharyngeal swabs, sputum, lower respiratory tract aspirates, bronchoalveolar lavage,
and nasopharyngeal wash/aspirate) collected from individuals suspected of COVID-19.
Statement 3 is correct. The real time RT–PCR cannot be used to detect past infections it
can only detect the current infections.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Real time RT–PCR is a nuclear-derived method for
detecting the presence of specific genetic material in any pathogen, including a virus.
In order for an RNA virus like the COVID-19 virus to be detected early in the body using
real time RT–PCR, scientists need to convert the RNA to DNA (because only DNA can be
copied or amplified). This is a process called ‘reverse transcription’. Scientists amplify a
specific part of the transcribed viral DNA hundreds of thousands of times to accurately
confirm that the virus is present.
Statement 2 is correct. The RT-PCR test for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from
SARS-CoV-2 in upper and lower respiratory specimens (such as nasopharyngeal or
oropharyngeal swabs, sputum, lower respiratory tract aspirates, bronchoalveolar lavage,
and nasopharyngeal wash/aspirate) collected from individuals suspected of COVID-19.
Statement 3 is correct. The real time RT–PCR cannot be used to detect past infections it
can only detect the current infections. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the COVAX Facility:
1.It is a mechanism designed to guarantee rapid, fair and equitable access to COVID-19 vaccines worldwide.
2.It is an initiative of the European Union and Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX Facility is a mechanism designed to guarantee rapid, fair and equitable access to COVID-19 vaccines worldwide. Seventy-five countries have submitted expressions of interest to protect their populations and those of other nations through joining the COVAX.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) and World Health Organisation (WHO).
COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
The ACT-Accelerator brings together leaders of governments, global health organizations, businesses and philanthropies in a united response against COVID-19. The ACT-Accelerator is organized into four pillars of work: diagnostics, treatment, vaccines and health system strengthening.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX Facility is a mechanism designed to guarantee rapid, fair and equitable access to COVID-19 vaccines worldwide. Seventy-five countries have submitted expressions of interest to protect their populations and those of other nations through joining the COVAX.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) and World Health Organisation (WHO).
COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
The ACT-Accelerator brings together leaders of governments, global health organizations, businesses and philanthropies in a united response against COVID-19. The ACT-Accelerator is organized into four pillars of work: diagnostics, treatment, vaccines and health system strengthening. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the COVAX Facility:
1. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
2. It is led by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-
19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the
development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and
vaccines.
Statement 2 is incorrect. COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness
Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of
COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the
world.
# World Health Organization Director General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus has said that
184 countries have now joined the COVAX facility.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-
19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the
development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and
vaccines.
Statement 2 is incorrect. COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness
Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of
COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the
world.
# World Health Organization Director General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus has said that
184 countries have now joined the COVAX facility. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Coalition for Epidemic
Preparedness Innovations (CEPI):
1. It is part of the COVAX pillar of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
2. It has launched a Global network of Laboratories for centralized assessment of COVID-19
Vaccines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-
19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator
The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and vaccines.
COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the world.
Statement 2 is correct. The international non-profit, Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) has launched a ‘Global network of Laboratories for centralized assessment of COVID-19 Vaccines’.
The clinical sample testing laboratories selected for this collaborative vaccine network are:
Nexelis (Canada) and Public Health England (PHE; UK), VisMederi Srl (Italy), Viroclinics-
DDL (The Netherlands), icddr,b (formerly International Centre for Diarrhoeal Disease
Research Bangladesh), and Translational Health Sciences and Technological Institute
(THSTI, India).Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX is the vaccines pillar of the Access to COVID-
19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator
The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, and vaccines.
COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the world.
Statement 2 is correct. The international non-profit, Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) has launched a ‘Global network of Laboratories for centralized assessment of COVID-19 Vaccines’.
The clinical sample testing laboratories selected for this collaborative vaccine network are:
Nexelis (Canada) and Public Health England (PHE; UK), VisMederi Srl (Italy), Viroclinics-
DDL (The Netherlands), icddr,b (formerly International Centre for Diarrhoeal Disease
Research Bangladesh), and Translational Health Sciences and Technological Institute
(THSTI, India). - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the DNA barcoding:
1. It is a methodology for rapidly and accurately identifying species by sequencing a short segment of standardized gene regions.
2. BIOSCAN is a global project that aims to generate barcode coverage for two million species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. DNA barcoding is a methodology for rapidly and accurately identifying species by sequencing a short segment of standardized gene regions and comparing individual sequences to a reference database.
Statement 2 is correct. International Barcode of Life (iBOL), a Canadian not-for-profit corporation, after successful completion of BARCODE 500K in 2015, has launched project BIOSCAN in 2019 to generate barcode coverage for two million species# Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), a subordinate organization under Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change and International Barcode of Life (iBOL) have signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).
# The MoU will enable ZSI to participate at the Global level programmes like Bioscan and
Planetary Biodiversity Mission.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. DNA barcoding is a methodology for rapidly and accurately identifying species by sequencing a short segment of standardized gene regions and comparing individual sequences to a reference database.
Statement 2 is correct. International Barcode of Life (iBOL), a Canadian not-for-profit corporation, after successful completion of BARCODE 500K in 2015, has launched project BIOSCAN in 2019 to generate barcode coverage for two million species# Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), a subordinate organization under Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change and International Barcode of Life (iBOL) have signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).
# The MoU will enable ZSI to participate at the Global level programmes like Bioscan and
Planetary Biodiversity Mission. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Biofortification:
1. It aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than through
manual means during processing of the crops.
2. Bt-Cotton is a biofortified variety of cotton
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in a food.
Biofortification is the process by which the nutritional quality of food crops is improved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or modern biotechnology.Biofortification differs from conventional fortification in that biofortification aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than through manual means during processing of the crops.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bt cotton is a genetically modified pest resistant plant cotton variety, which produces an insecticide to combat bollworm.
Examples of biofortification projects include:
–iron-biofortification of rice, beans, sweet potato, cassava and legumes;
–zinc-biofortification of wheat, rice, beans, sweet potato and maize;
–provitamin A carotenoid-biofortification of sweet potato, maize and cassava; and
–amino acid and protein-biofortification of sourghum and cassava.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in a food.
Biofortification is the process by which the nutritional quality of food crops is improved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or modern biotechnology.Biofortification differs from conventional fortification in that biofortification aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than through manual means during processing of the crops.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bt cotton is a genetically modified pest resistant plant cotton variety, which produces an insecticide to combat bollworm.
Examples of biofortification projects include:
–iron-biofortification of rice, beans, sweet potato, cassava and legumes;
–zinc-biofortification of wheat, rice, beans, sweet potato and maize;
–provitamin A carotenoid-biofortification of sweet potato, maize and cassava; and
–amino acid and protein-biofortification of sourghum and cassava.
Bio-Technology 2
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Corticosteroids:
1. It is a class of drug that lowers inflammation in the body.
2. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends systemic corticosteroids for the
treatment of patients with severe and critical COVID-19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Corticosteroids are a class of drug that lowers
inflammation in the body. They also reduce immune system activity. Because
corticosteroids ease swelling, itching, redness, and allergic reactions, doctors often
prescribe them to help treat diseases like: asthma, arthritis.
Three commonly used corticosteroids are dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, and
methylprednisolone.
Statement 2 is correct. Corticosteroids are listed in the WHO model list of essential
medicines, readily available globally at a low cost. World Health Organization encourages
countries to maintain sufficient stocks of corticosteroids to treat COVID-19 and the other
diseases.
World Health Organization recently recommended systemic corticosteroids for the
treatment of patients with severe and critical COVID-19. It suggests snot to use
corticosteroids in the treatment of patients with non-severe COVID-19 as the treatment
brought no benefits, and could even prove harmful.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Corticosteroids are a class of drug that lowers
inflammation in the body. They also reduce immune system activity. Because
corticosteroids ease swelling, itching, redness, and allergic reactions, doctors often
prescribe them to help treat diseases like: asthma, arthritis.
Three commonly used corticosteroids are dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, and
methylprednisolone.
Statement 2 is correct. Corticosteroids are listed in the WHO model list of essential
medicines, readily available globally at a low cost. World Health Organization encourages
countries to maintain sufficient stocks of corticosteroids to treat COVID-19 and the other
diseases.
World Health Organization recently recommended systemic corticosteroids for the
treatment of patients with severe and critical COVID-19. It suggests snot to use
corticosteroids in the treatment of patients with non-severe COVID-19 as the treatment
brought no benefits, and could even prove harmful. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Recombinant vector vaccines:
1. These are live replicating viruses that are engineered to carry extra genes derived from a
pathogen.
2. Oral polio vaccine (OPV) is a recombinant vector vaccine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Recombinant vector vaccines are live replicating
viruses that are engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen—and these extra
genes produce proteins against which we want to generate immunity.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Polio vaccines are vaccines used to prevent poliomyelitis (polio).
Two types are used: an inactivated poliovirus given by injection (IPV) and a weakened
poliovirus given by mouth (OPV).
# COVID-19 vaccines under development using adenovirus as vector are recombinant vector
vaccines.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Recombinant vector vaccines are live replicating
viruses that are engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen—and these extra
genes produce proteins against which we want to generate immunity.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Polio vaccines are vaccines used to prevent poliomyelitis (polio).
Two types are used: an inactivated poliovirus given by injection (IPV) and a weakened
poliovirus given by mouth (OPV).
# COVID-19 vaccines under development using adenovirus as vector are recombinant vector
vaccines. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Bt Cotton:
1. It is an insect-resistant transgenic crop that can combat the bollworm.
2. It is the only genetically modified (GM) crop approved in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Bt cotton is an insect-resistant transgenic crop
designed to combat the bollworm. Bt cotton was created by genetically altering the cotton
genome to express a microbial protein from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
Statement 2 is correct. Genetically modified (GM) crops are those crops whose DNA has
been modified by introducing alien genes in the seeds to get desired effects.
Bt cotton is the only Genetically modified (GM) crop approved in India by the Genetic
Engineering Appraisal Committee of Ministry of Environment.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Bt cotton is an insect-resistant transgenic crop
designed to combat the bollworm. Bt cotton was created by genetically altering the cotton
genome to express a microbial protein from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
Statement 2 is correct. Genetically modified (GM) crops are those crops whose DNA has
been modified by introducing alien genes in the seeds to get desired effects.
Bt cotton is the only Genetically modified (GM) crop approved in India by the Genetic
Engineering Appraisal Committee of Ministry of Environment. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Brain Templates:
1. It is a standard representation from various brain images to understand brain
functionality.
2. NIMHANS has developed Indian Brain Templates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Brain template is a standard/gross representation
from various brain images to understand brain functionality in diseased conditions.
When brain scans (MRI) are taken, they need to be compared to a standard brain template
— a model or standard for making comparisons from a group of individual brain scans.
This helps researchers identify parts of the brain.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences
(NIMHANS) has recently developed an Indian Brain Templates (IBT) and a brain atlas.
The neuroscientists studied over 500 brain scans of Indian patients to develop five sets of
Indian brain templates and a brain atlas for five age groups covering late childhood to late
adulthood (six to 60 years).Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Brain template is a standard/gross representation
from various brain images to understand brain functionality in diseased conditions.
When brain scans (MRI) are taken, they need to be compared to a standard brain template
— a model or standard for making comparisons from a group of individual brain scans.
This helps researchers identify parts of the brain.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences
(NIMHANS) has recently developed an Indian Brain Templates (IBT) and a brain atlas.
The neuroscientists studied over 500 brain scans of Indian patients to develop five sets of
Indian brain templates and a brain atlas for five age groups covering late childhood to late
adulthood (six to 60 years). - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following potential COVID-19 vaccines have been indigenously
developed in India?
1. COVAXIN
2. ZyCov-D
3. ChAdOx1
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
: ChAdOx1 has been developed by the Oxford University in collaboration with
AstraZeneca. It utilizes a replication-deficient chimpanzee adenovirus to deliver a SARSCoV-
2 protein to induce a protective immune response.
COVAXIN is a COVID-19 vaccine by Bharat Biotech, developed in collaboration with the
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) – National Institute of Virology (NIV).
ZyCov-D is also a candidate for COVID-19 vaccination indigenously developed in India. It is
the plasmid DNA-vaccine being developed by Zydus Cadilla.
In Phase-2 trials now, both are being tested for their ability to produce a satisfactory
immune response.Incorrect
: ChAdOx1 has been developed by the Oxford University in collaboration with
AstraZeneca. It utilizes a replication-deficient chimpanzee adenovirus to deliver a SARSCoV-
2 protein to induce a protective immune response.
COVAXIN is a COVID-19 vaccine by Bharat Biotech, developed in collaboration with the
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) – National Institute of Virology (NIV).
ZyCov-D is also a candidate for COVID-19 vaccination indigenously developed in India. It is
the plasmid DNA-vaccine being developed by Zydus Cadilla.
In Phase-2 trials now, both are being tested for their ability to produce a satisfactory
immune response. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the CRISPR technology:
1. It is used to alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
2. The Tata CRISPR test is the world’s first diagnostic test to deploy a Cas9 protein to
successfully detect the SARS-COV-2.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats) technology is a tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to
easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (CRISPR-associated-9) is an
enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing
the spread of diseases and improving crops.
Statement 2 is correct. The Tata CRISPR test, powered by CSIR-IGIB (Institute of
Genomics and Integrative Biology) FELUDA, received regulatory approvals recently from the
Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) for commercial launch.
The Tata CRISPR test is the world’s first diagnostic test to deploy a specially adapted
Cas9 protein to successfully detect the virus causing Covid-19.
The Tata CRISPR test achieves accuracy levels of traditional RT-PCR tests, with quicker
turnaround time, less expensive equipment, and better ease of use.
# CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and
archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms). These organisms use CRISPR-derived
RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign
bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader.
When these components are transferred into other, more complex, organisms, it allows for the
manipulation of genes, or “editing.”Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats) technology is a tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to
easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (CRISPR-associated-9) is an
enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing
the spread of diseases and improving crops.
Statement 2 is correct. The Tata CRISPR test, powered by CSIR-IGIB (Institute of
Genomics and Integrative Biology) FELUDA, received regulatory approvals recently from the
Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) for commercial launch.
The Tata CRISPR test is the world’s first diagnostic test to deploy a specially adapted
Cas9 protein to successfully detect the virus causing Covid-19.
The Tata CRISPR test achieves accuracy levels of traditional RT-PCR tests, with quicker
turnaround time, less expensive equipment, and better ease of use.
# CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and
archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms). These organisms use CRISPR-derived
RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign
bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader.
When these components are transferred into other, more complex, organisms, it allows for the
manipulation of genes, or “editing.” - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the COVAX facility:
1. It is one of three pillars of the Access to COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator.
2. It is focused on developing high-quality rapid tests for COVID-19 and training healthcare
professionals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX is one of three pillars of the Access to
COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator, which was launched in April by the World Health
Organization (WHO), the European Commission and France in response to pandemic.
The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the
development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, vaccines
and health systems.
Statement 2 is incorrect. COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness
Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of
COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the
world.The Facility continually monitors the COVID-19 vaccine landscape to identify the most
suitable vaccine candidates, based on scientific merit and scalability, and works with
manufacturers to incentivize them to expand their production capacity in advance of
vaccines receiving regulatory approval.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. COVAX is one of three pillars of the Access to
COVID-19 Tools (ACT) Accelerator, which was launched in April by the World Health
Organization (WHO), the European Commission and France in response to pandemic.
The ACT Accelerator is a ground-breaking global collaboration to accelerate the
development, production, and equitable access to COVID-19 tests, treatments, vaccines
and health systems.
Statement 2 is incorrect. COVAX is co-led by Gavi, the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness
Innovations (CEPI) and WHO. Its aim is to accelerate the development and manufacture of
COVID-19 vaccines, and to guarantee fair and equitable access for every country in the
world.The Facility continually monitors the COVID-19 vaccine landscape to identify the most
suitable vaccine candidates, based on scientific merit and scalability, and works with
manufacturers to incentivize them to expand their production capacity in advance of
vaccines receiving regulatory approval. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the utility of the Molnupiravir drug?
Correct
A new drug called Molnupiravir has been shown to stop the transmission of SARS-CoV-2 in 24 hours. Results of the research by scientists at the Institute of Biomedical Sciences, Georgia State University, have been published in the journal Nature Microbiology.
Molnupiravir is being developed by the biotechnology firm Ridgeback Biotherapeutics in collaboration with pharmaceutical firm Merck.Incorrect
A new drug called Molnupiravir has been shown to stop the transmission of SARS-CoV-2 in 24 hours. Results of the research by scientists at the Institute of Biomedical Sciences, Georgia State University, have been published in the journal Nature Microbiology.
Molnupiravir is being developed by the biotechnology firm Ridgeback Biotherapeutics in collaboration with pharmaceutical firm Merck. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. COVAXIN – Inactivated SARS-COV-2
2. COVISHIELD – Adenovirus vector
3. ZyCoV-D – Plasmid DNA vaccine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Covaxin is an indigenous inactivated whole SARS-CoV-2 virus vaccine that has been developed by the Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the NIV/ICMR.
Covishield is based on the chimpanzee adenovirus vector-based vaccine developed by Oxford University in partnership with the British-Swedish vaccine manufacturer AstraZeneca called ChAdOx1/AZD1222. The Serum Institute of India (SII), Pune, will, under licence from Oxford University and AstraZeneca, produce the vaccine under its brand name Covishield for domestic and regional consumption.
ZyCoV-D is a plasmid DNA vaccine developed by the Indian company Cadila Healthcare Ltd. Plasmids are circular double-stranded DNA molecules usually found in bacteria. But these are external to the bacterial chromosomes and can replicate independently. Plasmids are used as the platform to directly deliver the antigenic determinant (its DNA sequence) into the body.Incorrect
Covaxin is an indigenous inactivated whole SARS-CoV-2 virus vaccine that has been developed by the Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the NIV/ICMR.
Covishield is based on the chimpanzee adenovirus vector-based vaccine developed by Oxford University in partnership with the British-Swedish vaccine manufacturer AstraZeneca called ChAdOx1/AZD1222. The Serum Institute of India (SII), Pune, will, under licence from Oxford University and AstraZeneca, produce the vaccine under its brand name Covishield for domestic and regional consumption.
ZyCoV-D is a plasmid DNA vaccine developed by the Indian company Cadila Healthcare Ltd. Plasmids are circular double-stranded DNA molecules usually found in bacteria. But these are external to the bacterial chromosomes and can replicate independently. Plasmids are used as the platform to directly deliver the antigenic determinant (its DNA sequence) into the body. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are mRNA vaccine candidates for COVID-19?
1. ChAdOx1 nCoV-19
2. COVAXIN
3. HGCO19
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The mRNA vaccines do not use the conventional model to produce immune response. Instead, mRNA vaccine carries the molecular instructions to make the protein in the body through a synthetic RNA of the virus. The host body uses this to produce the viral protein that is recognized and thereby making the body mount an immune response against the disease.
Option 1 is incorrect. ChAdOx1 nCoV-19 is a recombinant adenovirus vaccine candidate against SARS-CoV-2. It has been developed by Oxford University in collaboration with AstraZeneca. It is being produced in India by Serum Institute of India under brand name COVISHIELD.
Option 2 is incorrect. COVAXIN by Bharat Biotech is an inactivated vaccine developed from an Indian strain of the novel coronavirus isolated by NIV.
Option 3 is correct. India’s first indigenous mRNA vaccine candidate has received approval from Indian Drug regulators to initiate Phase I/II human clinical trial. The novel mRNA vaccine candidate, HGCO19 has been developed by Gennova, Pune and supported with seed grant under the Ind-CEPI mission of Department of Biotechnology of Ministry of Science & Technology.Incorrect
The mRNA vaccines do not use the conventional model to produce immune response. Instead, mRNA vaccine carries the molecular instructions to make the protein in the body through a synthetic RNA of the virus. The host body uses this to produce the viral protein that is recognized and thereby making the body mount an immune response against the disease.
Option 1 is incorrect. ChAdOx1 nCoV-19 is a recombinant adenovirus vaccine candidate against SARS-CoV-2. It has been developed by Oxford University in collaboration with AstraZeneca. It is being produced in India by Serum Institute of India under brand name COVISHIELD.
Option 2 is incorrect. COVAXIN by Bharat Biotech is an inactivated vaccine developed from an Indian strain of the novel coronavirus isolated by NIV.
Option 3 is correct. India’s first indigenous mRNA vaccine candidate has received approval from Indian Drug regulators to initiate Phase I/II human clinical trial. The novel mRNA vaccine candidate, HGCO19 has been developed by Gennova, Pune and supported with seed grant under the Ind-CEPI mission of Department of Biotechnology of Ministry of Science & Technology. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following organization has launched the Asia Pacific Vaccine Access Facility (APVAX)?
Correct
Asian Development Bank (ADB) has launched $9 billion COVID-19 vaccine initiative, the Asia Pacific Vaccine Access Facility, or APVAX.
The Rapid Response Component will provide timely support for critical vaccine diagnostics, procurement of vaccines, and transporting vaccines from the place of purchase to ADB’s developing members.
The Project Investment Component will support investments in systems for successful distribution, delivery, and administration of vaccines along with associated investments in building capacity, community outreach, and surveillance. This may include such areas as cold-chain storage and transportation, vehicles, distribution infrastructure, processing facilities, and other physical investments.
Incorrect
Asian Development Bank (ADB) has launched $9 billion COVID-19 vaccine initiative, the Asia Pacific Vaccine Access Facility, or APVAX.
The Rapid Response Component will provide timely support for critical vaccine diagnostics, procurement of vaccines, and transporting vaccines from the place of purchase to ADB’s developing members.
The Project Investment Component will support investments in systems for successful distribution, delivery, and administration of vaccines along with associated investments in building capacity, community outreach, and surveillance. This may include such areas as cold-chain storage and transportation, vehicles, distribution infrastructure, processing facilities, and other physical investments.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the term Epigenetics?
Correct
Epigenetics literally means “above” or “on top of” genetics. It refers to external modifications to DNA that turn genes “on” or “off.” These modifications do not change the DNA sequence, but instead, they affect how cells “read” genes. Unlike genetic changes, epigenetic changes are reversible.
It is therefore, the study of heritable changes in gene expression (active versus inactive genes) that do not involve changes to the underlying DNA sequence — a change in phenotype without a change in genotype — which in turn affects how cells read the genes.
Incorrect
Epigenetics literally means “above” or “on top of” genetics. It refers to external modifications to DNA that turn genes “on” or “off.” These modifications do not change the DNA sequence, but instead, they affect how cells “read” genes. Unlike genetic changes, epigenetic changes are reversible.
It is therefore, the study of heritable changes in gene expression (active versus inactive genes) that do not involve changes to the underlying DNA sequence — a change in phenotype without a change in genotype — which in turn affects how cells read the genes.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the benefits of Gene Editing:
1. It can be used to treat many human diseases & genetic disorders like HIV/AIDS, hemophilia.
2. It could form the basis of highly efficient & cost effective next generation antibiotics.
3. It can be used to bring to life extinct species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
It is a type of genetic engineering in which DNA is inserted, deleted or replaced in the genome of an organism using artificially engineered nucleases, or “molecular scissors”.
• Human genome editing can be used to treat many human diseases & genetic disorders like HIV/AIDS, hemophilia etc.
• It could substantially bolster disease resistance in humans & increase life span.
• It could form the basis of highly efficient & cost effective next generation antibiotics (based on bacteriophage viruses).
• Gene editing can be used to protect endangered species or bring to life extinct species.
• It can be used to grow healthier food (via fortification) and increasing harvest.
• It has the potential to slow down the spread of diseases by eliminating its means of transmission. E.g. Gene editing can be used to introduce sterile mosquitoes into the environment.Incorrect
It is a type of genetic engineering in which DNA is inserted, deleted or replaced in the genome of an organism using artificially engineered nucleases, or “molecular scissors”.
• Human genome editing can be used to treat many human diseases & genetic disorders like HIV/AIDS, hemophilia etc.
• It could substantially bolster disease resistance in humans & increase life span.
• It could form the basis of highly efficient & cost effective next generation antibiotics (based on bacteriophage viruses).
• Gene editing can be used to protect endangered species or bring to life extinct species.
• It can be used to grow healthier food (via fortification) and increasing harvest.
• It has the potential to slow down the spread of diseases by eliminating its means of transmission. E.g. Gene editing can be used to introduce sterile mosquitoes into the environment. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently, which of the following country unveiled a 3D print of a heart with human tissue and vessels?
Correct
Scientists in Israel unveiled a 3D print of a heart with human tissue and vessels, calling it a first and a “major medical breakthrough” that advances possibilities for transplants.
• The heart marked “the first time anyone has successfully engineered and printed an entire heart replete with cells, blood vessels, ventricles and chambers,” said Tel Aviv University’s Tal Dvir, who led the project.
• People have managed to 3D-print the structure of a heart in the past, but not with cells or with blood vessels.Incorrect
Scientists in Israel unveiled a 3D print of a heart with human tissue and vessels, calling it a first and a “major medical breakthrough” that advances possibilities for transplants.
• The heart marked “the first time anyone has successfully engineered and printed an entire heart replete with cells, blood vessels, ventricles and chambers,” said Tel Aviv University’s Tal Dvir, who led the project.
• People have managed to 3D-print the structure of a heart in the past, but not with cells or with blood vessels. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe National Genome Grid is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
In a move to take cancer research to the next level and make treatment viable for people of different economic classes, the government has plans to set up a National Genomic Grid, which will study genomic data of cancer patients from India.
• The grid to be formed will be in line with the National Cancer Tissue Biobank (NCTB) set up at the Indian Indian Institute of Technology, Madras.
• And it will collect samples from cancer patients to study genomic factors influencing cancer and identifying the right treatment modalities for the Indian population•“The NCTB is functioning in close association with the Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR).
• NCTB, which has the capacity to stock 50,000 genomic samples from cancer patients, already has samples from 3,000 patients.
• The genomic samples will help researches to have India-specific studies on cancers.
• The government plans to set up the National Genomic Grid in the same style with pan-India collection centres by bringing all cancer treatment institutions on board.Incorrect
In a move to take cancer research to the next level and make treatment viable for people of different economic classes, the government has plans to set up a National Genomic Grid, which will study genomic data of cancer patients from India.
• The grid to be formed will be in line with the National Cancer Tissue Biobank (NCTB) set up at the Indian Indian Institute of Technology, Madras.
• And it will collect samples from cancer patients to study genomic factors influencing cancer and identifying the right treatment modalities for the Indian population•“The NCTB is functioning in close association with the Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR).
• NCTB, which has the capacity to stock 50,000 genomic samples from cancer patients, already has samples from 3,000 patients.
• The genomic samples will help researches to have India-specific studies on cancers.
• The government plans to set up the National Genomic Grid in the same style with pan-India collection centres by bringing all cancer treatment institutions on board. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe ETVAX vaccine is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
A potential vaccine against diarrhea has been proven safe and effective in an early stage clinical trial carried out in Bangladesh in November 2019
•The study, published in the journal The Lancet Infectious Diseases, studied the safety and effectiveness of an oral, inactivated vaccine candidate — ETVAX — against toxin-producing E. coli bacteria which caused diarrhea.
• According to the researchers, including those from the University of Gothenburg in Sweden, the specific type of the bacteria are the primary cause of diarrhea, leading to substantial illness and death in children in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs) as well as in travelers to LMICs.Incorrect
A potential vaccine against diarrhea has been proven safe and effective in an early stage clinical trial carried out in Bangladesh in November 2019
•The study, published in the journal The Lancet Infectious Diseases, studied the safety and effectiveness of an oral, inactivated vaccine candidate — ETVAX — against toxin-producing E. coli bacteria which caused diarrhea.
• According to the researchers, including those from the University of Gothenburg in Sweden, the specific type of the bacteria are the primary cause of diarrhea, leading to substantial illness and death in children in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs) as well as in travelers to LMICs. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe genetic strategy known as RIDL (the Release of Insects carrying Dominant Lethal genes), sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
A new initiative aims at reducing the population of Aedes aegypti mosquito by introducing genetically modified version of mosquitoes.
• Aedes aegypti mosquito is the carrier of diseases such as Zika, dengue and chikungunya.
• The genetic strategy employed to control A. aegypti population known as RIDL (the Release of Insects carrying Dominant Lethal genes) is to reduce the population of the naturally occurring A. aegypti mosquitoes and not affect or alter their genetics.Incorrect
A new initiative aims at reducing the population of Aedes aegypti mosquito by introducing genetically modified version of mosquitoes.
• Aedes aegypti mosquito is the carrier of diseases such as Zika, dengue and chikungunya.
• The genetic strategy employed to control A. aegypti population known as RIDL (the Release of Insects carrying Dominant Lethal genes) is to reduce the population of the naturally occurring A. aegypti mosquitoes and not affect or alter their genetics. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently scientists mapped the complete genome of basmati rice variety – “Dom Sufid” belongs to which of the following country?
Correct
Scientists have mapped the complete genome of two basmati rice varieties, including one that is drought-tolerant and resistant to bacterial disease.
• The researchers focused on two basmati rice varieties: Basmati 334 from Pakistan, known to be drought tolerant and resistant to rice-killing bacterial blight, and Dom Sufid from Iran, aromatic long-grain rice that is one of the most expensive on the market.
• Most genetic material in basmati comes from japonica —a rice group found in East Asia — followed by the rice group aus found in Bangladesh.Incorrect
Scientists have mapped the complete genome of two basmati rice varieties, including one that is drought-tolerant and resistant to bacterial disease.
• The researchers focused on two basmati rice varieties: Basmati 334 from Pakistan, known to be drought tolerant and resistant to rice-killing bacterial blight, and Dom Sufid from Iran, aromatic long-grain rice that is one of the most expensive on the market.
• Most genetic material in basmati comes from japonica —a rice group found in East Asia — followed by the rice group aus found in Bangladesh. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Biosimilars”?
1. A biosimilar is a biological product that is an exact duplicate of branded biological
product.
2. A biosimilar drug costs less than generic drug.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Biosimilars.
•A biosimilar is a biological product that is developed to be similar to an already
FDA-approved biologic, known as the reference product. It can be tempting to think
of a biosimilar as a “generic” version of the reference product. However, there are
many important differences between biosimilars and generic versions of
conventional medications (generic drugs).
•A generic drug is chemically identical to its brand-name counterpart—an exact
copy. The generic drug and brand-name drug have the same active ingredient,
dosage form, safety profile, strength, route of administration, performance
characteristics, and intended use. Accordingly, the brand-name drug and generic
drug are considered to be bioequivalent.
•A biosimilar is not an exact duplicate of another biologic. There is a degree of
natural variability in all biological products; it is not possible to generate a precise
copy of a product that comes from living cells. All biologics—including reference
products—show some batch-to-batch variation.
•Generic drugs are chemically identical to the original branded drug and, as such,
cost significantly less because they don’t require much testing. Because biosimilars
are made from living organisms, though, and don’t contain identical ingredients to
their name-brand counterparts, they still require some testing. So, they cost more
than generics, but less than the branded biologic.Incorrect
Biosimilars.
•A biosimilar is a biological product that is developed to be similar to an already
FDA-approved biologic, known as the reference product. It can be tempting to think
of a biosimilar as a “generic” version of the reference product. However, there are
many important differences between biosimilars and generic versions of
conventional medications (generic drugs).
•A generic drug is chemically identical to its brand-name counterpart—an exact
copy. The generic drug and brand-name drug have the same active ingredient,
dosage form, safety profile, strength, route of administration, performance
characteristics, and intended use. Accordingly, the brand-name drug and generic
drug are considered to be bioequivalent.
•A biosimilar is not an exact duplicate of another biologic. There is a degree of
natural variability in all biological products; it is not possible to generate a precise
copy of a product that comes from living cells. All biologics—including reference
products—show some batch-to-batch variation.
•Generic drugs are chemically identical to the original branded drug and, as such,
cost significantly less because they don’t require much testing. Because biosimilars
are made from living organisms, though, and don’t contain identical ingredients to
their name-brand counterparts, they still require some testing. So, they cost more
than generics, but less than the branded biologic. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology“Project Soli” is launched by which of the following?
Correct
Project Soli, driven by Google’s Advanced Technology and Projects
(ATAP) team, was first showcased back in 2015. The idea is that a radar chip can be used
to detect hand movements and gestures to interpret what they could mean. It’s only
recently that Google figured out how to reduce the size of this radar chip and fit it on the
front of the smart phone, still ensuring accuracy.Incorrect
Project Soli, driven by Google’s Advanced Technology and Projects
(ATAP) team, was first showcased back in 2015. The idea is that a radar chip can be used
to detect hand movements and gestures to interpret what they could mean. It’s only
recently that Google figured out how to reduce the size of this radar chip and fit it on the
front of the smart phone, still ensuring accuracy. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following ape shares 99% of its DNA with human DNA?
Correct
Ever since researchers sequenced the chimp genome in 2005, they have
known that humans share about 99% of our DNA with chimpanzees, making them our
closest living relatives.
•But there are actually two species of apes that are this closely related to humans:
bonobos (Pan paniscus) and the common chimpanzee (Pan troglodytes).
•This has prompted researchers to speculate whether the ancestor of humans,
chimpanzees, and bonobos looked and acted more like a bonobo, a chimpanzee, or
something else—and how all three species have evolved differently since the
ancestor of humans split with the common ancestor of bonobos and chimps between
4 million and 7 million years ago in Africa.Incorrect
Ever since researchers sequenced the chimp genome in 2005, they have
known that humans share about 99% of our DNA with chimpanzees, making them our
closest living relatives.
•But there are actually two species of apes that are this closely related to humans:
bonobos (Pan paniscus) and the common chimpanzee (Pan troglodytes).
•This has prompted researchers to speculate whether the ancestor of humans,
chimpanzees, and bonobos looked and acted more like a bonobo, a chimpanzee, or
something else—and how all three species have evolved differently since the
ancestor of humans split with the common ancestor of bonobos and chimps between
4 million and 7 million years ago in Africa. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the IndiGen programme:
1. IndiGen programme aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of ten thousand Indian
individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
2. IndiGen is funded by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
IndiGen programme aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of a
thousand Indian individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
•The objective is to create a pilot dataset to enable genetic epidemiology of
carrier genetic diseases towards enabling affordable carrier screening approaches
in India.
•We also hope to mine allele frequencies for genetic variants for estimating
population scale prevalence for diverse clinical applications.
•The human genome data sets would also be utilized for prioritizing
Pharmacogenomics variants specific for Indian population for optimizing therapy
and minimizing adverse events.
•IndiGen is funded by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).Incorrect
IndiGen programme aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of a
thousand Indian individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
•The objective is to create a pilot dataset to enable genetic epidemiology of
carrier genetic diseases towards enabling affordable carrier screening approaches
in India.
•We also hope to mine allele frequencies for genetic variants for estimating
population scale prevalence for diverse clinical applications.
•The human genome data sets would also be utilized for prioritizing
Pharmacogenomics variants specific for Indian population for optimizing therapy
and minimizing adverse events.
•IndiGen is funded by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are type/types of vaccines?
1. Live-attenuated vaccines
2. Inactivated vaccines
3. Toxoid vaccines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
There are several different types of vaccines. Each type is designed to teach
your immune system how to fight off certain kinds of germs — and the serious diseases
they cause. There are 4 main types of vaccines:
Live-attenuated vaccines: Live vaccines use a weakened (or attenuated) form of the germ
that causes a disease.
•Because these vaccines are so similar to the natural infection that they help prevent,
they create a strong and long-lasting immune response. Just 1 or 2 doses of most
live vaccines can give you a lifetime of protection against a germ and the disease it
causes.
•Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine) Varicella (chickenpox) Influenza
(nasal spray) Rotavirus Yellow fever are examples of Live-attenuated vaccines.
Inactivated vaccines: use the killed version of the germ that causes a disease.
•Inactivated vaccines usually don’t provide immunity (protection) that’s as strong as
live vaccines.
•So you may need several doses over time (booster shots) in order to get ongoing
immunity against diseases. Polio (IPV) Hepatitis A Rabies is examples of In-activated
vaccines.
Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, and conjugate vaccines: use specific pieces of
the germ — like its protein, sugar, or capsid (a casing around the germ).
•Because these vaccines use only specific pieces of the germ, they give a very strong
immune response that’s targeted to key parts of the germ.
•They can also be used on almost everyone who needs them, including people with
weakened immune systems and long-term health problems.
•Hepatitis B, Influenza (injection), Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), Pertussis (part
of DTaP combined immunization), Pneumococcal, Meningococcal and Human
papillomavirus (HPV) are examples of Subunit and recombinant vaccines.
Toxoid vaccines use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease.
•They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the
germ itself.
•That means the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ.
•Diphtheria, tetanus (part of DTaP combined immunization) are examples of Toxoid
vaccines.Incorrect
There are several different types of vaccines. Each type is designed to teach
your immune system how to fight off certain kinds of germs — and the serious diseases
they cause. There are 4 main types of vaccines:
Live-attenuated vaccines: Live vaccines use a weakened (or attenuated) form of the germ
that causes a disease.
•Because these vaccines are so similar to the natural infection that they help prevent,
they create a strong and long-lasting immune response. Just 1 or 2 doses of most
live vaccines can give you a lifetime of protection against a germ and the disease it
causes.
•Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine) Varicella (chickenpox) Influenza
(nasal spray) Rotavirus Yellow fever are examples of Live-attenuated vaccines.
Inactivated vaccines: use the killed version of the germ that causes a disease.
•Inactivated vaccines usually don’t provide immunity (protection) that’s as strong as
live vaccines.
•So you may need several doses over time (booster shots) in order to get ongoing
immunity against diseases. Polio (IPV) Hepatitis A Rabies is examples of In-activated
vaccines.
Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, and conjugate vaccines: use specific pieces of
the germ — like its protein, sugar, or capsid (a casing around the germ).
•Because these vaccines use only specific pieces of the germ, they give a very strong
immune response that’s targeted to key parts of the germ.
•They can also be used on almost everyone who needs them, including people with
weakened immune systems and long-term health problems.
•Hepatitis B, Influenza (injection), Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), Pertussis (part
of DTaP combined immunization), Pneumococcal, Meningococcal and Human
papillomavirus (HPV) are examples of Subunit and recombinant vaccines.
Toxoid vaccines use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease.
•They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the
germ itself.
•That means the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ.
•Diphtheria, tetanus (part of DTaP combined immunization) are examples of Toxoid
vaccines. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “prickly pear cactus” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Mexico’s prickly pear cactus, which is emblazoned on the country’s flag, could soon play a new and innovative role in the production of biodegradable plastics.
• A packaging material that is made from the plant has been developed by a Mexican researcher and is offering a promising solution to one of the world’s biggest pollution conundrums.
• That substance is then mixed with non-toxic additives and stretched to produce sheets that are coloured with pigments and folded to form different types of packaging.Incorrect
Mexico’s prickly pear cactus, which is emblazoned on the country’s flag, could soon play a new and innovative role in the production of biodegradable plastics.
• A packaging material that is made from the plant has been developed by a Mexican researcher and is offering a promising solution to one of the world’s biggest pollution conundrums.
• That substance is then mixed with non-toxic additives and stretched to produce sheets that are coloured with pigments and folded to form different types of packaging. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “miscanthus, reed canary and switch grasses” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
A long-term research has revealed that reed canary grass can be turned into an excellent ‘green’ fuel for biomass power stations and, on a smaller scale, boilers in buildings like schools.
• The five-year research project was carried out by researchers from Teesside University’s Contaminated Land and Water Centre.
• Reed canary grass, which is native to Britain, is turned into bricks and pellets. These not only burn well but also don’t add to greenhouse gases or contribute to global warming.
• The research team experimented with four types of plant, willow trees, the current favourite for biomass power stations, and the miscanthus, reed canary and switch grasses.Incorrect
A long-term research has revealed that reed canary grass can be turned into an excellent ‘green’ fuel for biomass power stations and, on a smaller scale, boilers in buildings like schools.
• The five-year research project was carried out by researchers from Teesside University’s Contaminated Land and Water Centre.
• Reed canary grass, which is native to Britain, is turned into bricks and pellets. These not only burn well but also don’t add to greenhouse gases or contribute to global warming.
• The research team experimented with four types of plant, willow trees, the current favourite for biomass power stations, and the miscanthus, reed canary and switch grasses.
Bio-Technology 3
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- Question 1 of 8
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding FELUDA test for COVID-19:
1. It detects antibodies generated in the body in response to SARS-COV-2 infection.
2. It uses CRISPR-Cas9 technology for diagnosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
It has been reported that the Feluda test, a coronavirus detection test developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and to be commercialised by Tata Sons, will be commercially available in laboratories recently .
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not an antibody-based test. It rather detects genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Statement 2 is correct. FELUDA is an acronym for FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay. It uses CRISPR-Cas technology for the detection of genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Test procedure: The nasopharyngeal swab is collected—RNA is extracted—A single step
RTPCR is done—The FELUDA mix is prepared by incubating the dead FnCas9 protein, guide
RNA and the amplified viral DNA—The dip stick is immersed in the FELUDA mix—Gold nanoparticle on the strip bind to the FELUDA complex—A protein called Streptavidin on the test line captures this gold nanoparticle bound-FELUDA complex—Unbound gold particles are captured on the control line–Colour develops on the test line and/or control line. One line indicates negative and two lines mean positive.Incorrect
It has been reported that the Feluda test, a coronavirus detection test developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and to be commercialised by Tata Sons, will be commercially available in laboratories recently .
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not an antibody-based test. It rather detects genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Statement 2 is correct. FELUDA is an acronym for FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay. It uses CRISPR-Cas technology for the detection of genes specific to SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Test procedure: The nasopharyngeal swab is collected—RNA is extracted—A single step
RTPCR is done—The FELUDA mix is prepared by incubating the dead FnCas9 protein, guide
RNA and the amplified viral DNA—The dip stick is immersed in the FELUDA mix—Gold nanoparticle on the strip bind to the FELUDA complex—A protein called Streptavidin on the test line captures this gold nanoparticle bound-FELUDA complex—Unbound gold particles are captured on the control line–Colour develops on the test line and/or control line. One line indicates negative and two lines mean positive. - Question 2 of 8
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Sputnik V vaccine:
1. It is a two-shot vaccine using adenovirus vector.
2. A gene coding S-protein of the SARS-CoV-2 has been inserted in the vector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Sputnik V, Russian adenovirus vector-based
vaccine was registered by the Russian Ministry of Health on August 11 and became the
first registered COVID-19 vaccine on the market.
It is a two-shot vaccine being developed by Russia’s Gamaleya Research Institute using
adenovirus vectors (rAd26 and rAd5) for the first and second vaccination.
Statement 2 is correct. “Vectors” are vehicles, which can induce a genetic material from
another virus into a cell. The gene from adenovirus, which causes the infection, is removed
while a gene with the genetic code of a Spike protein from SARS-CoV-2 is inserted.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Sputnik V, Russian adenovirus vector-based
vaccine was registered by the Russian Ministry of Health on August 11 and became the
first registered COVID-19 vaccine on the market.
It is a two-shot vaccine being developed by Russia’s Gamaleya Research Institute using
adenovirus vectors (rAd26 and rAd5) for the first and second vaccination.
Statement 2 is correct. “Vectors” are vehicles, which can induce a genetic material from
another virus into a cell. The gene from adenovirus, which causes the infection, is removed
while a gene with the genetic code of a Spike protein from SARS-CoV-2 is inserted. - Question 3 of 8
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are diagnostic test(s) for the COVID-19 disease?
1. Standard Q COVID-19 Ag detection
2. SalivaDirect
3. RT-PCR test
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
: All of the above are diagnostic tests for COVID-19.
Standard Q COVID-19 Ag detection kit is a rapid chromatographic immunoassay for
qualitative detection of specific antigens to SARS-CoV-2 has been developed by SD
Biosensor, a South Korea based company.
SalivaDirect is a real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (rRT-PCR) test
intended for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from SARS-CoV-2 in saliva collected
without preservatives in a sterile container from individuals suspected of COVID-19 by their
healthcare provider.
The COVID-19 RT-PCR test is a real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction
(rRT-PCR) test for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from SARS-CoV-2 in upper and
lower respiratory specimens (such as nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal swabs, sputum,
lower respiratory tract aspirates, bronchoalveolar lavage, and nasopharyngeal
wash/aspirate) collected from individuals suspected of COVID 19.Incorrect
: All of the above are diagnostic tests for COVID-19.
Standard Q COVID-19 Ag detection kit is a rapid chromatographic immunoassay for
qualitative detection of specific antigens to SARS-CoV-2 has been developed by SD
Biosensor, a South Korea based company.
SalivaDirect is a real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (rRT-PCR) test
intended for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from SARS-CoV-2 in saliva collected
without preservatives in a sterile container from individuals suspected of COVID-19 by their
healthcare provider.
The COVID-19 RT-PCR test is a real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction
(rRT-PCR) test for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from SARS-CoV-2 in upper and
lower respiratory specimens (such as nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal swabs, sputum,
lower respiratory tract aspirates, bronchoalveolar lavage, and nasopharyngeal
wash/aspirate) collected from individuals suspected of COVID 19. - Question 4 of 8
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Solidarity Trial:
1. It is an international clinical trial to help find an effective treatment for COVID-19.
2. Interim results from the trial indicate that Remdesivir has considerable effect to reduce
the mortality rate of COVID-19 patients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is correct. Solidarity is an international clinical trial to help
find an effective treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and
partners.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Interim results from the Solidarity Therapeutics Trial, coordinated
by the World Health Organization, indicate that remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine,
lopinavir/ritonavir and interferon regimens appeared to have little or no effect on 28-day
mortality or the in-hospital course of COVID-19 among hospitalized patients.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is correct. Solidarity is an international clinical trial to help
find an effective treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and
partners.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Interim results from the Solidarity Therapeutics Trial, coordinated
by the World Health Organization, indicate that remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine,
lopinavir/ritonavir and interferon regimens appeared to have little or no effect on 28-day
mortality or the in-hospital course of COVID-19 among hospitalized patients. - Question 5 of 8
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following treatment options (s) was/were used in Solidarity Trial for
COVID-19?
1. Remdesivir
2. Lopinavir
3. Isoniazid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Solidarity is an international clinical trial to help find an effective treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
Treatment options used under the trial so far are: Remdesivir, Lopinavir/ritonavir,
Interferon beta-1a and Hydroxychloroquine.The Solidarity Trial published interim results on 15 October 2020. It found that all 4 treatments evaluated (remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir and interferon) had little or no effect on overall mortality, initiation of ventilation and duration of hospital stay in hospitalized patients.
The Solidarity Trial is considering evaluating other treatments, to continue the search for effective COVID-19 therapeutics.
So far, only corticosteroids have been proven effective against severe and critical COVID-
19.Incorrect
Solidarity is an international clinical trial to help find an effective treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
Treatment options used under the trial so far are: Remdesivir, Lopinavir/ritonavir,
Interferon beta-1a and Hydroxychloroquine.The Solidarity Trial published interim results on 15 October 2020. It found that all 4 treatments evaluated (remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir and interferon) had little or no effect on overall mortality, initiation of ventilation and duration of hospital stay in hospitalized patients.
The Solidarity Trial is considering evaluating other treatments, to continue the search for effective COVID-19 therapeutics.
So far, only corticosteroids have been proven effective against severe and critical COVID-
19. - Question 6 of 8
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the COVIRAP diagnostic test:
1. This diagnostic test is based on the genomic analysis.
2. It has been indigenously developed by the IIT Kharagpur researchers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has successfully validated ‘COVIRAP’ the
diagnostic machine evolved by the IIT Kharagpur researchers, for its efficacy in COVID-19
detection.
It has an automated pre-programmable temperature control unit, a special detection unit
on genomic analysis, and a customised smartphone app for results. Three master mixes
work as markers of different genes to confirm the presence of SARS-CoV-2.
# Other than COVID-19 testing, many other tests, falling under the category of ‘isothermal
nucleic acid-based tests’ (INAT), can be performed in the same machine. In other words,
Influenza, Malaria, Dengue, Japanese encephalitis, Tuberculosis and many other infectious,
as well as vector-borne diseases, can be tested using the same machine.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has successfully validated ‘COVIRAP’ the
diagnostic machine evolved by the IIT Kharagpur researchers, for its efficacy in COVID-19
detection.
It has an automated pre-programmable temperature control unit, a special detection unit
on genomic analysis, and a customised smartphone app for results. Three master mixes
work as markers of different genes to confirm the presence of SARS-CoV-2.
# Other than COVID-19 testing, many other tests, falling under the category of ‘isothermal
nucleic acid-based tests’ (INAT), can be performed in the same machine. In other words,
Influenza, Malaria, Dengue, Japanese encephalitis, Tuberculosis and many other infectious,
as well as vector-borne diseases, can be tested using the same machine. - Question 7 of 8
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are diagnostic kits for COVID-19?
1. COVIRAP
2. FELUDA
3. ZyCoV-D
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. COVIRAP diagnostic kit using a low-cost portable unit
developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kharagpur, has been
approved by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Option 2 is correct. FELUDA (FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay) is a
coronavirus detection test developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(CSIR) and to be commercialized by Tata Sons.
Option 3 is incorrect. Currently, three vaccine candidates are at different phases of trial in
India. Two homegrown vaccine candidates — Covaxin by Bharat Biotech and ZyCoV-D by
Zydus Cadila have already started the phase II clinical trial. Another vaccine candidate,
Covishield, developed by the University of Oxford has recently commenced the phase III
clinical trial in India.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. COVIRAP diagnostic kit using a low-cost portable unit
developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kharagpur, has been
approved by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Option 2 is correct. FELUDA (FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay) is a
coronavirus detection test developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(CSIR) and to be commercialized by Tata Sons.
Option 3 is incorrect. Currently, three vaccine candidates are at different phases of trial in
India. Two homegrown vaccine candidates — Covaxin by Bharat Biotech and ZyCoV-D by
Zydus Cadila have already started the phase II clinical trial. Another vaccine candidate,
Covishield, developed by the University of Oxford has recently commenced the phase III
clinical trial in India. - Question 8 of 8
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the monoclonal antibodies:
1. Monoclonal antibodies recognize unique binding sites on a single antigen.
2. These can be used in treatment of Cancer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
An antibody is a protein that sticks to a specific protein called an antigen. Antibodies circulate throughout the body until they find and attach to the antigen. Once attached, they can force other parts of the immune system to destroy the cells containing the antigen.
Researchers can design antibodies that specifically target a certain antigen, such as one found on cancer cells. They can then make many copies of that antibody in the lab.These are known as monoclonal antibodies.
Mono-clonal antibodies are used to treat many diseases, including some types of cancer.
To make a monoclonal antibody, researchers first have to identify the right antigen to attack.# Serum Institute of India (SII), along with the International AIDS Vaccine Initiative (IAVI), a non-profit scientific research organisation recently announced an agreement with pharmaceutical major Merck to develop SARS-CoV-2 neutralizing monoclonal antibodies (mAbs).
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
An antibody is a protein that sticks to a specific protein called an antigen. Antibodies circulate throughout the body until they find and attach to the antigen. Once attached, they can force other parts of the immune system to destroy the cells containing the antigen.
Researchers can design antibodies that specifically target a certain antigen, such as one found on cancer cells. They can then make many copies of that antibody in the lab.These are known as monoclonal antibodies.
Mono-clonal antibodies are used to treat many diseases, including some types of cancer.
To make a monoclonal antibody, researchers first have to identify the right antigen to attack.# Serum Institute of India (SII), along with the International AIDS Vaccine Initiative (IAVI), a non-profit scientific research organisation recently announced an agreement with pharmaceutical major Merck to develop SARS-CoV-2 neutralizing monoclonal antibodies (mAbs).
Defence
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the PINAKA Rocket System:
1. It is a beyond visual range air to air missile system.
2. It has been developed by the Dassault Aviation of France
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
PINAKA is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Army. The system has a maximum range of 40 km for Mark-I and 75 km for Mark-II.
Enhanced PINAKA rocket, developed by DRDO has been successfully flight tested from Integrated Test Range, Chandipur off the coast of Odisha recently.
Enhanced version of the Pinaka rocket would replace the existing Pinaka Mk-I rockets which are currently under production.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
PINAKA is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Army. The system has a maximum range of 40 km for Mark-I and 75 km for Mark-II.
Enhanced PINAKA rocket, developed by DRDO has been successfully flight tested from Integrated Test Range, Chandipur off the coast of Odisha recently.
Enhanced version of the Pinaka rocket would replace the existing Pinaka Mk-I rockets which are currently under production. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are Scorpene submarine of Project-75?
1. INS Karanj
2. INS Vela
3. INS Vagir
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Two submarines of the ongoing Project-75 Scorpene programme at MDL, Kalvari and Khanderi, have been commissioned into the Indian Navy. The third submarine, Karanj, is in the last phase of rigorous sea trials. The fourth Scorpene, Vela, has commenced her sea trials, fifth Scorpene submarine of Project-75 named ‘Vagir’ has been launched at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai recently whilst the sixth and last submarine, Vagsheer, is being readied for boot together.
Scorpene submarines can undertake multifarious types of missions i.e Anti-Surface warfare, Anti-Submarine warfare, Intelligence gathering, Mine Laying, Area Surveillance etc.
The Scorpene project is given support by the Department of Defence Production (MoD) and Indian Navy throughout its various phases of construction.
# The number 75 in Project 75 refers to such unique identifier which was assigned to a programme for series production of submarines in India. Based on the specifications drawn for Project 75, the Scorpene class submarine from France, chosen under the project, is being constructed at the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) in Mumbai.Incorrect
Two submarines of the ongoing Project-75 Scorpene programme at MDL, Kalvari and Khanderi, have been commissioned into the Indian Navy. The third submarine, Karanj, is in the last phase of rigorous sea trials. The fourth Scorpene, Vela, has commenced her sea trials, fifth Scorpene submarine of Project-75 named ‘Vagir’ has been launched at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai recently whilst the sixth and last submarine, Vagsheer, is being readied for boot together.
Scorpene submarines can undertake multifarious types of missions i.e Anti-Surface warfare, Anti-Submarine warfare, Intelligence gathering, Mine Laying, Area Surveillance etc.
The Scorpene project is given support by the Department of Defence Production (MoD) and Indian Navy throughout its various phases of construction.
# The number 75 in Project 75 refers to such unique identifier which was assigned to a programme for series production of submarines in India. Based on the specifications drawn for Project 75, the Scorpene class submarine from France, chosen under the project, is being constructed at the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) in Mumbai. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements correctly defines the ‘White shipping information’?
Correct
White shipping information refers to exchange of relevant advance information on the identity and movement of commercial non-military merchant vessels.
The seas around India abound in vessels of various types ranging from small inland fishing crafts to larger fishing vessels, coastal crafts carrying personnel and cargo and merchant ships of all shapes and sizes that carry various types of cargo.
Being aware of the identity of these vessels is imperative to preventing any potential threat from the sea from impinging on the coastal and offshore security of the country. The 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attack is a case in point. Indian Navy has thus been working towards achieving complete Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA) along with all other concerned agencies like the coast guard, customs, ports, fisheries, etc.
# White Shipping agreements refer to exchange of relevant advance information on the identity and movement of commercial non-military merchant vesselsIncorrect
White shipping information refers to exchange of relevant advance information on the identity and movement of commercial non-military merchant vessels.
The seas around India abound in vessels of various types ranging from small inland fishing crafts to larger fishing vessels, coastal crafts carrying personnel and cargo and merchant ships of all shapes and sizes that carry various types of cargo.
Being aware of the identity of these vessels is imperative to preventing any potential threat from the sea from impinging on the coastal and offshore security of the country. The 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attack is a case in point. Indian Navy has thus been working towards achieving complete Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA) along with all other concerned agencies like the coast guard, customs, ports, fisheries, etc.
# White Shipping agreements refer to exchange of relevant advance information on the identity and movement of commercial non-military merchant vessels - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework:
1.It is an initiative of the NITI Aayog-Atal Innovation Mission.
2.It aims at creation of an ecosystem to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence.
Statement 2 is correct. It was launched with the aim to achieve self-reliance and to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace Sector by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia.
This initiative provides them grants/funding and other support to carry out R&D which has good potential for future adoption for Indian defence and aerospace needs. iDEX is being funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’.
The share of domestic procurement in overall Defence procurement is about 60 per cent.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence.
Statement 2 is correct. It was launched with the aim to achieve self-reliance and to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace Sector by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia.
This initiative provides them grants/funding and other support to carry out R&D which has good potential for future adoption for Indian defence and aerospace needs. iDEX is being funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’.
The share of domestic procurement in overall Defence procurement is about 60 per cent. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following military weapon system(s) has been indigenously developed in India?
1. Hammer missiles
2. T-90 Tank
3. Pinaka-multi-barrel rocket launcher
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Armement Air-Sol Modulaire (AASM) HAMMER (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) is a medium-range modular air-to-ground weapon designed and manufactured by Sagem (Safran group), for the French Air Force and Navy.
Option 2 is incorrect. The T-90 is a third-generation Russian battle tank that entered service in 1993 and are also operated by India.
Option 3 is correct. Pinaka is a multi-barrel rocket launcher developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army.
Other products of Indian defence industry include Agni and Prithvi series of missiles; Tejas-light combat aircraft; Pinaka-multi-barrel rocket launcher; Akash-air defence system; Dhanush-artillery gun; Arjun-main battle tank etc.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Armement Air-Sol Modulaire (AASM) HAMMER (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) is a medium-range modular air-to-ground weapon designed and manufactured by Sagem (Safran group), for the French Air Force and Navy.
Option 2 is incorrect. The T-90 is a third-generation Russian battle tank that entered service in 1993 and are also operated by India.
Option 3 is correct. Pinaka is a multi-barrel rocket launcher developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army.
Other products of Indian defence industry include Agni and Prithvi series of missiles; Tejas-light combat aircraft; Pinaka-multi-barrel rocket launcher; Akash-air defence system; Dhanush-artillery gun; Arjun-main battle tank etc. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology6.Which of the following weapon system(s) have been barred from import in India beyond December 2020?
1. Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft
2. Light Combat Helicopters
3. Ship-borne Cruise Missiles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Department of Military Affairs (DMA), Ministry of Defence (MoD) has prepared a list of 101 items for which there would be an embargo on the import beyond the timeline. The embargo on imports is planned to be progressively implemented between 2020 to 2024.
Option 1 is incorrect. Fifth Gen Fighter Aircraft has not been listed in the import embargo list put out by the Department of Military Affairs (DMA), Ministry of Defence (MoD).Option 2 and 3 are correct. The list of 101 embargoed items comprises of not just simple parts but also some high technology weapon systems like artillery guns, assault rifles, corvettes, sonar systems, transport aircrafts, light combat helicopters (LCHs), Short Range Surface to Air Missiles (Land variant), Shipborne Cruise Missiles etc.
The light combat helicopters (LCHs), Shipborne Cruise Missiles and other 67 weapon systems have indicative import embargo date of December 2020.Incorrect
Department of Military Affairs (DMA), Ministry of Defence (MoD) has prepared a list of 101 items for which there would be an embargo on the import beyond the timeline. The embargo on imports is planned to be progressively implemented between 2020 to 2024.
Option 1 is incorrect. Fifth Gen Fighter Aircraft has not been listed in the import embargo list put out by the Department of Military Affairs (DMA), Ministry of Defence (MoD).Option 2 and 3 are correct. The list of 101 embargoed items comprises of not just simple parts but also some high technology weapon systems like artillery guns, assault rifles, corvettes, sonar systems, transport aircrafts, light combat helicopters (LCHs), Short Range Surface to Air Missiles (Land variant), Shipborne Cruise Missiles etc.
The light combat helicopters (LCHs), Shipborne Cruise Missiles and other 67 weapon systems have indicative import embargo date of December 2020. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following weapon system(s) is/are correctly matched?
1. Pinaka – Multi-barrel Rocket Launcher
2. Mareech – Advanced Torpedo Defence System
3. Astra – Inter Continental Ballistic Missile
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correctly matched. Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Army.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Maareech Advanced Torpedo Defence System is a torpedo detection and countermeasure system used by the Indian Navy.
BEL has launched fully indigenized Maareech Integration facility for manufacturing, integration and testing of Anti Torpedo Defence System Maareech which has been designed by DRDO.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Astra is India’s first beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile indigenously designed and developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation. The maximum range of Astra is 110 km in head-on chase and 20 km in tail chase.Incorrect
Option 1 is correctly matched. Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Army.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Maareech Advanced Torpedo Defence System is a torpedo detection and countermeasure system used by the Indian Navy.
BEL has launched fully indigenized Maareech Integration facility for manufacturing, integration and testing of Anti Torpedo Defence System Maareech which has been designed by DRDO.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Astra is India’s first beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile indigenously designed and developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation. The maximum range of Astra is 110 km in head-on chase and 20 km in tail chase. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Arihant– Nuclear-powered Submarine
2. Sarthak– Offshore Patrol Vessel
3. Airavat– Amphibious Warfare Vessel
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are correctly matched.
INS Arihant is the lead ship of India’s Arihant class of nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines. The 6,000 tonne vessel was built under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project at the Ship Building Centre in the port city of Visakhapatnam.
Recently an Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) for the Indian Coast Guard was launched today and re-christened as Indian Coast Guard Ship ‘Sarthak’. It has been designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Limited.
INS Airavat is a Shardul-class amphibious warfare vessel of the Indian Navy. It was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers in Kolkata. Primarily designed for amphibious assault operations, Airavat’s missions also include humanitarian assistance & disaster relief (HADR) during natural disasters, including tsunamis, cyclones and earthquakes.Incorrect
All of the above are correctly matched.
INS Arihant is the lead ship of India’s Arihant class of nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines. The 6,000 tonne vessel was built under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project at the Ship Building Centre in the port city of Visakhapatnam.
Recently an Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) for the Indian Coast Guard was launched today and re-christened as Indian Coast Guard Ship ‘Sarthak’. It has been designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Limited.
INS Airavat is a Shardul-class amphibious warfare vessel of the Indian Navy. It was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers in Kolkata. Primarily designed for amphibious assault operations, Airavat’s missions also include humanitarian assistance & disaster relief (HADR) during natural disasters, including tsunamis, cyclones and earthquakes. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the utility of the recently launched SRIJAN portal?
Correct
Defence Minister recently launched a portal SRIJAN which is a one stop shop online portal that provides access to the vendors to take up items for indigenization.
The main objective of the portal is to partner the private sector in indigenization efforts of Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs), OFB and the Armed Forces. The portal will be a non-transactional online market place platform.
DPSUs/OFB/SHQs will display their items on this portal, which they have imported or going to import, each item having sizeable import value. They will also display those items which have been planned in the coming years, for indigenization.
The Indian industry will be able to show their interest in those items for which they can design, develop and manufacture as per their capability or through joint venture with OEMs.Incorrect
Defence Minister recently launched a portal SRIJAN which is a one stop shop online portal that provides access to the vendors to take up items for indigenization.
The main objective of the portal is to partner the private sector in indigenization efforts of Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs), OFB and the Armed Forces. The portal will be a non-transactional online market place platform.
DPSUs/OFB/SHQs will display their items on this portal, which they have imported or going to import, each item having sizeable import value. They will also display those items which have been planned in the coming years, for indigenization.
The Indian industry will be able to show their interest in those items for which they can design, develop and manufacture as per their capability or through joint venture with OEMs. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Industrial Security Annex (ISA)” is often seen in news is a bilateral arrangement between which of the following countries?
Correct
The Industrial Security Annex (ISA), signed between India and the U.S. at the second 2+2 dialogue in Washington, will open the door for U.S. defence companies to partner with the Indian private sector for several multi-billion dollar deals in the pipeline, especially the deal for 114 fighter jets.
• The ISA is a part of the General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA), which India signed with the U.S. long back.
• It became critical as India opened up the defense sector to the private sector and the Strategic Partnership policy, which has few big military platforms and is reserved for the Indian private sector. U.S. companies are in the race for multi-billion dollar deal for 114 fighter jets, among other deals.Incorrect
The Industrial Security Annex (ISA), signed between India and the U.S. at the second 2+2 dialogue in Washington, will open the door for U.S. defence companies to partner with the Indian private sector for several multi-billion dollar deals in the pipeline, especially the deal for 114 fighter jets.
• The ISA is a part of the General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA), which India signed with the U.S. long back.
• It became critical as India opened up the defense sector to the private sector and the Strategic Partnership policy, which has few big military platforms and is reserved for the Indian private sector. U.S. companies are in the race for multi-billion dollar deal for 114 fighter jets, among other deals. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Brahmos missile:
1. It is a hypersonic cruise missile.
2. The missile uses air-breathing ramjet propulsion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is incorrect. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile being
developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) of India and NPO Mashinostroeyenia (NPOM) of Russia.
BrahMos has a flight range of up to 290km and can reach a maximum speed of Mach 3.
Statement 2 is correct. BrahMos is powered by a two-stage propulsion system. Initial
acceleration is provided by a solid-propellant booster and supersonic cruise speed is
provided by a liquid-fuelled ramjet system.
# BrahMos surface-to-surface supersonic cruise missile featuring indigenous Booster and
Airframe Section was successfully flight tested recently.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is incorrect. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile being
developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) of India and NPO Mashinostroeyenia (NPOM) of Russia.
BrahMos has a flight range of up to 290km and can reach a maximum speed of Mach 3.
Statement 2 is correct. BrahMos is powered by a two-stage propulsion system. Initial
acceleration is provided by a solid-propellant booster and supersonic cruise speed is
provided by a liquid-fuelled ramjet system.
# BrahMos surface-to-surface supersonic cruise missile featuring indigenous Booster and
Airframe Section was successfully flight tested recently. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Supersonic Missile Assisted
Release of Torpedo (SMART):
1. It is targeted to achieve Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) operations within the Torpedo
range.
2. It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: The Supersonic Missile Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) has been
successfully flight tested recently from Wheeler Island off the coast of Odisha.
Statement 1 is incorrect. SMART is a missile assisted release of lightweight Anti-Submarine
Torpedo System for Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) operations far beyond Torpedo range.
This launch and demonstration is significant in establishing Anti-Submarine warfare
capabilities.
Statement 2 is correct. It has been developed by DRDO, a number of DRDO laboratories
including DRDL, RCI Hyderabad, ADRDE Agra, NSTL Visakhapatnam have developed the
technologies required for SMARTIncorrect
: The Supersonic Missile Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) has been
successfully flight tested recently from Wheeler Island off the coast of Odisha.
Statement 1 is incorrect. SMART is a missile assisted release of lightweight Anti-Submarine
Torpedo System for Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) operations far beyond Torpedo range.
This launch and demonstration is significant in establishing Anti-Submarine warfare
capabilities.
Statement 2 is correct. It has been developed by DRDO, a number of DRDO laboratories
including DRDL, RCI Hyderabad, ADRDE Agra, NSTL Visakhapatnam have developed the
technologies required for SMART - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RUDRAM missile:
1. It is an Anti-Radiation Missile indigenously developed in India.
2. It can detect, classify and engage targets over a wide band of frequencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is correct. The RUDRAM is first indigenous anti-radiation missile
of the country being developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO).
It is a new generation Anti-Radiation Missile and was successfully Flight tested recently
onto a radiation target located on Wheeler Island off the coast of Odisha.
Statement 2 is correct. It has INS-GPS navigation with Passive Homing Head for the final
attack. The RUDRAM hit the radiation target with pin-point accuracy.
The Passive Homing Head can detect, classify and engage targets over a wide band of
frequencies as programmed.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is correct. The RUDRAM is first indigenous anti-radiation missile
of the country being developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO).
It is a new generation Anti-Radiation Missile and was successfully Flight tested recently
onto a radiation target located on Wheeler Island off the coast of Odisha.
Statement 2 is correct. It has INS-GPS navigation with Passive Homing Head for the final
attack. The RUDRAM hit the radiation target with pin-point accuracy.
The Passive Homing Head can detect, classify and engage targets over a wide band of
frequencies as programmed. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the INS Kavaratti:
1. It is a nuclear powered Scorpene-class submarine of India.
2. It is an Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvette indigenously built in India.
Which of the statements is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. “INS Kavaratti” is a Project 28 (Kamorta class)
Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvette.
It is not nuclear powered rather the Kamorta class corvettes are powered by four Pielstick
12 PA6 STC marine diesel engines. The engines, license-built by Indian company
Kirloskar, enable the Kamorta-class vessels to be highly maneuverable with a top speed of
25 knots.
Statement 2 is correct. It has been indigenously designed by the Indian Navy’s in-house
organisation, Directorate of Naval Design (DND), and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders &
Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
Kavaratti has a state-of-the-art weapons and sensor suite capable of detecting and
prosecuting submarines.
# Kavaratti takes her name from erstwhile INS Kavaratti which was an Arnala class missile
corvette. The older Kavaratti distinguished herself by operating in war of Bangladesh’s
liberation in 1971.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. “INS Kavaratti” is a Project 28 (Kamorta class)
Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvette.
It is not nuclear powered rather the Kamorta class corvettes are powered by four Pielstick
12 PA6 STC marine diesel engines. The engines, license-built by Indian company
Kirloskar, enable the Kamorta-class vessels to be highly maneuverable with a top speed of
25 knots.
Statement 2 is correct. It has been indigenously designed by the Indian Navy’s in-house
organisation, Directorate of Naval Design (DND), and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders &
Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
Kavaratti has a state-of-the-art weapons and sensor suite capable of detecting and
prosecuting submarines.
# Kavaratti takes her name from erstwhile INS Kavaratti which was an Arnala class missile
corvette. The older Kavaratti distinguished herself by operating in war of Bangladesh’s
liberation in 1971. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are Anti-Tank missiles of India?
1. ASTRA
2. Nag Missile
3. SANT Missile
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Astra is an all-weather beyond-visual-range air-to-air
missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Option 2 is correct. The anti-tank guided missile or ATGM Nag has been developed by the
DRDO to engage heavily armored enemy tanks in day and night.
The final user trial of India’s third-generation anti-tank guided missile Nag was carried out
recently at the Pokhran range in Rajasthan.
The missile has fire-and-forget and top attack capabilities with passive homing guidance to
defeat all main battle tanks equipped with composite and reactive armour.
Option 3 is correct. The indigenous missile ‘stand-off anti-tank missile’ (SANT) being
developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is
expected to be mated to the Indian Air Force’s Russian-origin Mi-35 attack helicopters.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Astra is an all-weather beyond-visual-range air-to-air
missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Option 2 is correct. The anti-tank guided missile or ATGM Nag has been developed by the
DRDO to engage heavily armored enemy tanks in day and night.
The final user trial of India’s third-generation anti-tank guided missile Nag was carried out
recently at the Pokhran range in Rajasthan.
The missile has fire-and-forget and top attack capabilities with passive homing guidance to
defeat all main battle tanks equipped with composite and reactive armour.
Option 3 is correct. The indigenous missile ‘stand-off anti-tank missile’ (SANT) being
developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is
expected to be mated to the Indian Air Force’s Russian-origin Mi-35 attack helicopters. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following Indian naval project(s) is/are correctly matched?
1. Project 28 – Kamorta Class Anti-Submarine Corvettes
2. Project 75 – Kalvari Class of submarines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
During the developmental stage of a ship or a submarine, specific projects are generally assigned a numerical character as a unique identifier to the project.
In a series production of the warship construction project, all ships/submarines of the series have common design characteristics and capabilities.
The term ‘class’ in the Kolkata Class refers to a series of warships constructed under Project 15A which includes Indian naval ships INS Kolkata, INS Kochi and INS Chennai.
Similarly, all six submarines constructed under Project 75 are referred to as Kalvari Class of submarines.
Project 15 Destroyers – Delhi Class (Delhi, Mysore, and Mumbai)
Project 16 Frigates – Godavari Class (Godavari, Ganga and Gomti)
Project 16A Frigates – Brahmaputra Class (Brahmaputra, Betwa and Beas)
Project 17 Stealth Frigates – Shivalik Class (Shivalik, Sahyadri and Satpura)
Project 28 Anti-Submarine Corvettes – Kamorta Class (Kamorta, Kadmatt, Kiltan and
Kavaratti)
The Project 75I-class submarine is a follow-on of the Project 75 Kalvari-class submarine for the Indian NavyIncorrect
During the developmental stage of a ship or a submarine, specific projects are generally assigned a numerical character as a unique identifier to the project.
In a series production of the warship construction project, all ships/submarines of the series have common design characteristics and capabilities.
The term ‘class’ in the Kolkata Class refers to a series of warships constructed under Project 15A which includes Indian naval ships INS Kolkata, INS Kochi and INS Chennai.
Similarly, all six submarines constructed under Project 75 are referred to as Kalvari Class of submarines.
Project 15 Destroyers – Delhi Class (Delhi, Mysore, and Mumbai)
Project 16 Frigates – Godavari Class (Godavari, Ganga and Gomti)
Project 16A Frigates – Brahmaputra Class (Brahmaputra, Betwa and Beas)
Project 17 Stealth Frigates – Shivalik Class (Shivalik, Sahyadri and Satpura)
Project 28 Anti-Submarine Corvettes – Kamorta Class (Kamorta, Kadmatt, Kiltan and
Kavaratti)
The Project 75I-class submarine is a follow-on of the Project 75 Kalvari-class submarine for the Indian Navy - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. INS Vikrant – Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I)
2. Rafale – Twin-engine multirole fighter aircraft
3. Astra – Beyond visual range air-to-air missile
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
: India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I) INS Vikrant is under
construction at Kochi Shipyard and is soon expected to undergo sea trials. Since 2017,
after INS Viraat was decommissioned, India has been operating a single carrier — INS
Vikramaditya.
The Dassault Rafale is a twin-jet combat aircraft capable of carrying out a wide range of
short and long-range missions, including ground and sea attacks, designed and built by
Dassault Aviation.
Astra is an all-weather beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile developed by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation.Incorrect
: India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I) INS Vikrant is under
construction at Kochi Shipyard and is soon expected to undergo sea trials. Since 2017,
after INS Viraat was decommissioned, India has been operating a single carrier — INS
Vikramaditya.
The Dassault Rafale is a twin-jet combat aircraft capable of carrying out a wide range of
short and long-range missions, including ground and sea attacks, designed and built by
Dassault Aviation.
Astra is an all-weather beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile developed by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyDefence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently conducted the
flight test of ABHYAS, what is it?Correct
: The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently
successful flight test of ABHYAS – High-speed Expendable Aerial Target from the Interim
Test Range, Balasore in Odisha.
Abhyas is designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Establishment of DRDO.
The air vehicle is launched using twin underslung booster. It is powered by a small gas
turbine engine and has MEMS (Microelectromechanical Systems) based Inertial Navigation
System for navigation along with the Flight Control Computer for guidance and control.Incorrect
: The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently
successful flight test of ABHYAS – High-speed Expendable Aerial Target from the Interim
Test Range, Balasore in Odisha.
Abhyas is designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Establishment of DRDO.
The air vehicle is launched using twin underslung booster. It is powered by a small gas
turbine engine and has MEMS (Microelectromechanical Systems) based Inertial Navigation
System for navigation along with the Flight Control Computer for guidance and control. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Procedure
(DAP) 2020:
1. No offsets will be applicable in cases progressed through Inter Government Agreement
(IGA).
2. Leasing is introduced as a new category for acquisition in addition to the existing ‘Buy’
and ‘Make’ acquisition categories.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?Correct
The new Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) has been cleared by the
Defence ministry recently.
Statement 1 is correct. There may be occasions when procurements would have to be done
from friendly foreign countries which may be necessitated due to geo-strategic advantages
or imperatives of strategic partnerships or major military, technological, economic,
diplomatic or political benefits.
The DAP 2020 has done away with the offset clause on government to government
buys and states that No offsets will be applicable in cases progressed through IGA like
Foreign Military Sales (FMS).
Statement 2 is correct. Leasing is introduced as another category for acquisition in addition
to the existing ‘Buy’ and ‘Make’ acquisition categories as it provides for an innovative
technique for financing of equipment.
Leasing would be permitted in two sub categories i.e. Lease (Indian), where Lessor is an
Indian entity and is the owner of the asset, and Lease (Global) which refers to lease of
equipment from foreign or Indian Lessors. Lease (Indian) would be the preferred category.Incorrect
The new Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) has been cleared by the
Defence ministry recently.
Statement 1 is correct. There may be occasions when procurements would have to be done
from friendly foreign countries which may be necessitated due to geo-strategic advantages
or imperatives of strategic partnerships or major military, technological, economic,
diplomatic or political benefits.
The DAP 2020 has done away with the offset clause on government to government
buys and states that No offsets will be applicable in cases progressed through IGA like
Foreign Military Sales (FMS).
Statement 2 is correct. Leasing is introduced as another category for acquisition in addition
to the existing ‘Buy’ and ‘Make’ acquisition categories as it provides for an innovative
technique for financing of equipment.
Leasing would be permitted in two sub categories i.e. Lease (Indian), where Lessor is an
Indian entity and is the owner of the asset, and Lease (Global) which refers to lease of
equipment from foreign or Indian Lessors. Lease (Indian) would be the preferred category. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Defence India Startup Challenge
(DISC):
1. It has Problem Statements from Armed Forces and Ordnance Factory Boards for
resolution by innovators.
2. It has been launched by the Atal Innovation Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is correct. Defence India Start-up Challenge (DISC) are
launched with Problem Statements (PS) from Armed Forces and Ordnance Factory
Boards or Defence PSUs for resolution to prospective startups, innovators, MSMEs alike to
provide their innovative ideas on technologies which find their application in the defence
sector.
In order to develop a ‘right product and the product right’, Defence Innovation
Organisation (DIO) has adopted the Product Management Approach to steer the prototype
development to a market ready product.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It has been launched by the iDEX initiative of the Department
of Defence Production. The iDEX initiatives are executed by Defence Innovation
Organisation, a Section 8 company of DPSUs BEL and HAL.
The fourth round of Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC) has been launched by iDEX.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is correct. Defence India Start-up Challenge (DISC) are
launched with Problem Statements (PS) from Armed Forces and Ordnance Factory
Boards or Defence PSUs for resolution to prospective startups, innovators, MSMEs alike to
provide their innovative ideas on technologies which find their application in the defence
sector.
In order to develop a ‘right product and the product right’, Defence Innovation
Organisation (DIO) has adopted the Product Management Approach to steer the prototype
development to a market ready product.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It has been launched by the iDEX initiative of the Department
of Defence Production. The iDEX initiatives are executed by Defence Innovation
Organisation, a Section 8 company of DPSUs BEL and HAL.
The fourth round of Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC) has been launched by iDEX. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Project 17A Ship ‘Himgiri’:
1. It is being built by in collaboration with France.
2. Project 17A ships use the gas turbine propulsion for thrust generation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Project 17A program, a total of seven ships, four at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) and three ships at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd., GRSE are being built with enhanced stealth features, advanced indigenous weapon and sensor fit along with several other improvements.
‘Himgiri’, the first of the three Project 17A ships being built at M/s Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE), Kolkata was launched on 14 December 2020.
Statement 2 is correct. P17A ships are the first gas turbine propulsion and largest combat platforms ever built at GRSE.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Project 17A program, a total of seven ships, four at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) and three ships at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd., GRSE are being built with enhanced stealth features, advanced indigenous weapon and sensor fit along with several other improvements.
‘Himgiri’, the first of the three Project 17A ships being built at M/s Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE), Kolkata was launched on 14 December 2020.
Statement 2 is correct. P17A ships are the first gas turbine propulsion and largest combat platforms ever built at GRSE. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- S-400 Triumph – Russia
- THAAD – United States of America
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correctly matched. The S-400 Triumph is an air defence missile system developed by Almaz Central Design Bureau of Russia. The new system replaced the S-300P and S-200 air defence systems of the Russian Army. The S-400 was developed as an upgrade of the S-300 series of surface-to-air missile systems.
In October 2018, Rosoboronexport signed a contract with India to deliver S-400 missile system. China and Turkey are other buyers of the system from Russia.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Terminal High Altitude Area Defense is a transportable, ground-based missile defense system. It has been designed and manufactured by the US company Lockheed Martin. Terminal High Altitude Area Defense is a transportable, ground-based missile defense system.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correctly matched. The S-400 Triumph is an air defence missile system developed by Almaz Central Design Bureau of Russia. The new system replaced the S-300P and S-200 air defence systems of the Russian Army. The S-400 was developed as an upgrade of the S-300 series of surface-to-air missile systems.
In October 2018, Rosoboronexport signed a contract with India to deliver S-400 missile system. China and Turkey are other buyers of the system from Russia.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Terminal High Altitude Area Defense is a transportable, ground-based missile defense system. It has been designed and manufactured by the US company Lockheed Martin. Terminal High Altitude Area Defense is a transportable, ground-based missile defense system.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Aero India exhibition of aerospace and defence industries is organized every alternate year.
- The Tejas LCA is a single engine Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Aero India exhibition is organized every alternate year. It is one of the major exhibitions for aerospace and defence industries with a public air show. It enables industry professional to gain market insights, announce new developments and gain media coverage. Aero India offers a unique platform to international aviation sector to bolster business.
Aero India 2021 is the 13th edition of Aero India being organised at Bengaluru, Karnataka from 03-07 February 2021.
Statement 2 is correct. The Tejas LCA together with its variants, is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class. This single engine, Compound-Delta-Wing, Tailless Aircraft is designed and developed to meet diverse needs of the Indian Air Force (IAF).
# The logo for Aero India is inspired by the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Aero India exhibition is organized every alternate year. It is one of the major exhibitions for aerospace and defence industries with a public air show. It enables industry professional to gain market insights, announce new developments and gain media coverage. Aero India offers a unique platform to international aviation sector to bolster business.
Aero India 2021 is the 13th edition of Aero India being organised at Bengaluru, Karnataka from 03-07 February 2021.
Statement 2 is correct. The Tejas LCA together with its variants, is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class. This single engine, Compound-Delta-Wing, Tailless Aircraft is designed and developed to meet diverse needs of the Indian Air Force (IAF).
# The logo for Aero India is inspired by the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA).
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- In general, hypersonic flow is defined as the flow at Mach 5 or greater.
- The hypersonic wind tunnel is used to test and simulate flight characteristics in a hypersonic region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
In aerodynamics, a hypersonic speed is one that greatly exceeds the speed of sound, often stated as starting at speeds of Mach 5 and above.
A test facility designed or considered for hypersonic testing should simulate the typical flow features of this flow regime. To develop satellite launch rockets, space shuttles, etc., it is essential to test in the hypersonic range of Mach number 5 or more. The hypersonic wind tunnel is used to test flight characteristics in a hypersonic region.
# Defence minister recently inaugurated the advanced Hypersonic Wind Tunnel test facility in Hyderabad. With this India has become the third country to have such a huge facility in size and capability after America and Russia.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
In aerodynamics, a hypersonic speed is one that greatly exceeds the speed of sound, often stated as starting at speeds of Mach 5 and above.
A test facility designed or considered for hypersonic testing should simulate the typical flow features of this flow regime. To develop satellite launch rockets, space shuttles, etc., it is essential to test in the hypersonic range of Mach number 5 or more. The hypersonic wind tunnel is used to test flight characteristics in a hypersonic region.
# Defence minister recently inaugurated the advanced Hypersonic Wind Tunnel test facility in Hyderabad. With this India has become the third country to have such a huge facility in size and capability after America and Russia.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Barak 8 missile:
- It is a beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile.
- It has been jointly developed by the Israel Ministry of Defense (IMOD) and the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Barak-8 Surface-to-Air Missile Defence system or LRSAM provides a 360-degree defence against various airborne threats. Complemented by a state-of-the-art multi-mission radar, flexible control and command system, and two-way data link, Barak-8 can engage multiple targets at the same time during day and night in all weather conditions.
Statement 2 is correct. Barak-8, jointly developed by the Israel Ministry of Defense (IMOD) and the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization) in India, is an advanced groundbreaking air and missile defense system which provides ultimate protection against a variety of aerial platforms, in both land and naval scenarios.
# Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently tested Army version of MRSAM is a surface to Air Missile developed jointly by DRDO, India and IAI, Israel for use of the Indian Army.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Barak-8 Surface-to-Air Missile Defence system or LRSAM provides a 360-degree defence against various airborne threats. Complemented by a state-of-the-art multi-mission radar, flexible control and command system, and two-way data link, Barak-8 can engage multiple targets at the same time during day and night in all weather conditions.
Statement 2 is correct. Barak-8, jointly developed by the Israel Ministry of Defense (IMOD) and the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization) in India, is an advanced groundbreaking air and missile defense system which provides ultimate protection against a variety of aerial platforms, in both land and naval scenarios.
# Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently tested Army version of MRSAM is a surface to Air Missile developed jointly by DRDO, India and IAI, Israel for use of the Indian Army.
Defence 2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Prithvi-II missile:
- It is a surface-to-air tactical missile with a strike range of 1500 km.
- It is capable of carrying 500 to 1,000 kg of warheads, both conventional as well as nuclear.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
: Prithvi-II missile is a surface-to-surface tactical missile with a strike range of 350 km.
It is developed by DRDO under Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
It is capable of carrying 500 to 1,000 kg of warheads, both conventional as well as nuclear.
The state-of-the-art missile is powered by liquid propulsion twin engines.
It uses an advanced inertial guidance system with maneuvering orbit to hit its target.
It was inducted into armour of the defence forces in 2003
Incorrect
: Prithvi-II missile is a surface-to-surface tactical missile with a strike range of 350 km.
It is developed by DRDO under Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
It is capable of carrying 500 to 1,000 kg of warheads, both conventional as well as nuclear.
The state-of-the-art missile is powered by liquid propulsion twin engines.
It uses an advanced inertial guidance system with maneuvering orbit to hit its target.
It was inducted into armour of the defence forces in 2003
- Question 2 of 9
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Spike missile is newly acquired from Israel by Indian government is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Indian Army successfully tested two newly acquired Spike long-range (LR) anti-tank guided missiles at the Infantry School at Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.
The Army has recently procured a small batch of 12 launchers and 250 missiles from Israel using its new financial powers to make emergency procurements sanctioned by the Defence Ministry.
“Spike-LR is a fourth generation missile, which can engage a target with precision at ranges up to 4 km.
In addition to the fire-and-forget capability, the missile has the ability to fire, observe and update, providing substantial flexibility to the firer to pinpoint the impact point, as also the ability to switch to a different target mid-flight,” the manufacturer, Rafael Advanced Defense Systems, of Israel.
Incorrect
The Indian Army successfully tested two newly acquired Spike long-range (LR) anti-tank guided missiles at the Infantry School at Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.
The Army has recently procured a small batch of 12 launchers and 250 missiles from Israel using its new financial powers to make emergency procurements sanctioned by the Defence Ministry.
“Spike-LR is a fourth generation missile, which can engage a target with precision at ranges up to 4 km.
In addition to the fire-and-forget capability, the missile has the ability to fire, observe and update, providing substantial flexibility to the firer to pinpoint the impact point, as also the ability to switch to a different target mid-flight,” the manufacturer, Rafael Advanced Defense Systems, of Israel.
- Question 3 of 9
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Dhanush Regiment” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Indian Army, which began inducting the indigenously upgraded Dhanush artillery guns, will have the first regiment in place by March 2020 and will get all 114 guns by 2022.
Dhanush is the indigenously upgraded variant of the Swedish Bofors gun imported in the 1980s.
Dhanush is a 155 mm, 45-calibre towed artillery gun with a range of 36km and has demonstrated a range of 38 km with specialised ammunition.
It is an upgrade of the existing 155m, 39 calibre Bofors FH 77 gun.
Incorrect
The Indian Army, which began inducting the indigenously upgraded Dhanush artillery guns, will have the first regiment in place by March 2020 and will get all 114 guns by 2022.
Dhanush is the indigenously upgraded variant of the Swedish Bofors gun imported in the 1980s.
Dhanush is a 155 mm, 45-calibre towed artillery gun with a range of 36km and has demonstrated a range of 38 km with specialised ammunition.
It is an upgrade of the existing 155m, 39 calibre Bofors FH 77 gun.
- Question 4 of 9
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Losharik”, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
: Losharik is a highly advanced nuclear powered submarine of Russia.
Recently a fire accident was reported on the submarine within the Russian territorial waters.
It is a deep-diving special mission’s ship, operated by the Russian Navy.
It is capable of withstanding high pressures at great depths, enabling it to survey the ocean floor.
Incorrect
: Losharik is a highly advanced nuclear powered submarine of Russia.
Recently a fire accident was reported on the submarine within the Russian territorial waters.
It is a deep-diving special mission’s ship, operated by the Russian Navy.
It is capable of withstanding high pressures at great depths, enabling it to survey the ocean floor.
- Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe terms “Rani Rashmoni, Rani Abbakka, Rani Avanti Bai, Rani Durgavati and Rani Gaidinliu” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The terms “Rani Rashmoni, Rani Abbakka, Rani Avanti Bai, Rani Durgavati and Rani Gaidinliu” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Incorrect
The terms “Rani Rashmoni, Rani Abbakka, Rani Avanti Bai, Rani Durgavati and Rani Gaidinliu” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
- Question 6 of 9
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Project 15B” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
: Project 15B is a class of stealth guided missile destroyers.
Warships built under Project 15Bravo, with a length of 163 metres and 17.4 metres at the beam and a displacement of 7.300 tonnes, are propelled by four gas turbines to achieve speeds in excess of 30 knots.
Ships under this project can carry and operate two multiple role helicopters.
· Enhanced stealth features have been achieved through the shaping of hull and use of radar transparent deck fittings which make these ships difficult to
Incorrect
: Project 15B is a class of stealth guided missile destroyers.
Warships built under Project 15Bravo, with a length of 163 metres and 17.4 metres at the beam and a displacement of 7.300 tonnes, are propelled by four gas turbines to achieve speeds in excess of 30 knots.
Ships under this project can carry and operate two multiple role helicopters.
· Enhanced stealth features have been achieved through the shaping of hull and use of radar transparent deck fittings which make these ships difficult to
- Question 7 of 9
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the NIRBHAY Missile:
- It is a supersonic cruise missile.
- It has a range of 700 km to 1,000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
: NIRBHAY, the long-range, sub-sonic, cruise missile was successfully tested today with a sharper ‘terrain hugging capability’.
The NIRBHAY missile has a range of 700 km to 1,000 km.
After its launch in typical missile style, it can be controlled in aircraft mode.
Travelling at sub-sonic speeds of different Mach (speed of sound), the hit capacity is enhanced by control and by homing in on targets at different altitudes.
Incorrect
: NIRBHAY, the long-range, sub-sonic, cruise missile was successfully tested today with a sharper ‘terrain hugging capability’.
The NIRBHAY missile has a range of 700 km to 1,000 km.
After its launch in typical missile style, it can be controlled in aircraft mode.
Travelling at sub-sonic speeds of different Mach (speed of sound), the hit capacity is enhanced by control and by homing in on targets at different altitudes.
- Question 8 of 9
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Air Independent Propulsion
(AIP) system”?
- It is a technology which allows a nuclear submarine to operate without the need to
access atmospheric oxygen.
- India is self-sufficient in the AIP system and exports to other countries also.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
: Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Submarines are essentially of two types: conventional and
nuclear. Conventional submarines use a diesel-electric engine, and must surface daily
for oxygen for fuel combustion. If fitted with an Air Independent Propulsion (AIP)
system, the submarine needs to take in oxygen only once a week.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The state-of-the-art “air independent propulsion” (AIP) system
that the Defence R&D Organisation (DRDO) is indigenously developing will be ready to
drive the Indian Navy’s submarines from 2024 onwards. Consequently, this AIP will not
power the six new submarines that the navy is tendering in a Rs 45,000crore programme
called Project 75-I. Instead, those six boats (as the navy traditionally refers to submarines)
will have AIP systems that the foreign vendor must offer.
Incorrect
: Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Submarines are essentially of two types: conventional and
nuclear. Conventional submarines use a diesel-electric engine, and must surface daily
for oxygen for fuel combustion. If fitted with an Air Independent Propulsion (AIP)
system, the submarine needs to take in oxygen only once a week.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The state-of-the-art “air independent propulsion” (AIP) system
that the Defence R&D Organisation (DRDO) is indigenously developing will be ready to
drive the Indian Navy’s submarines from 2024 onwards. Consequently, this AIP will not
power the six new submarines that the navy is tendering in a Rs 45,000crore programme
called Project 75-I. Instead, those six boats (as the navy traditionally refers to submarines)
will have AIP systems that the foreign vendor must offer.
- Question 9 of 9
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following are examples of Ballistic missiles?
- Agni Missile
- Prithvi Missile
- Dhanush Missile
- BrahMos Missile
Correct
Incorrect
IPR, Government Policies and initiatives
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following technologies relate to solutions in Drinking water and Sanitation?
1. Janajal Water on Wheel
2. Grundfos AQpure
3. Johkasou technology
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
A multi-disciplinary technical committee in the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti has recommended five technologies, specifically three technologies for drinking water and two technologies for sanitation as innovative technologies out of the ten technologies considered by it and these technologies would now be listed in the innovation portal of the department
The technologies include Grundfos AQpure, a solar energy-based water treatment plant based on ultra-filtration, Janajal Water on Wheel, an Internet of Things (IoT) based electric vehicle to deliver safe water to households and Presto Online Chlorinator, a non-electric online chlorinator for disinfection of water for removal of bacterial contamination.
The other two are Johkasou technology, an inbuilt packaged black (sewage) and greywater (kitchen and bath water) treatment system having advanced anaerobic-aerobic configuration that can be installed underground, while FBTec is a site assembled decentralised sewage treatment system using fixed filter media.Incorrect
A multi-disciplinary technical committee in the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti has recommended five technologies, specifically three technologies for drinking water and two technologies for sanitation as innovative technologies out of the ten technologies considered by it and these technologies would now be listed in the innovation portal of the department
The technologies include Grundfos AQpure, a solar energy-based water treatment plant based on ultra-filtration, Janajal Water on Wheel, an Internet of Things (IoT) based electric vehicle to deliver safe water to households and Presto Online Chlorinator, a non-electric online chlorinator for disinfection of water for removal of bacterial contamination.
The other two are Johkasou technology, an inbuilt packaged black (sewage) and greywater (kitchen and bath water) treatment system having advanced anaerobic-aerobic configuration that can be installed underground, while FBTec is a site assembled decentralised sewage treatment system using fixed filter media. - Question 2 of 19
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Smart India Hackathon (SIH) 2020:
1.SIH 2020 is the first edition of the nationwide initiative to provide students a platform of product innovation.
2.SIH is being conducted in two formats; the SIH Software and SIH Hardware Editions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is a nationwide initiative that is being is conducted every year since 2017, to provide students a platform to solve some of the pressing problems we face in daily lives, and thus inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem solving.
Statement 2 is correct. There are two formats for the Hackathon – SIH Software and SIH Hardware Editions. Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the SIH Software Edition is being conducted in fully ONLINE mode.
Themes for SIH 2020 include Healthcare & Biomedical Devices, Agriculture & Rural Development, Renewable Energy, Food Processing, and Smart Vehicles among etc.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is a nationwide initiative that is being is conducted every year since 2017, to provide students a platform to solve some of the pressing problems we face in daily lives, and thus inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem solving.
Statement 2 is correct. There are two formats for the Hackathon – SIH Software and SIH Hardware Editions. Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the SIH Software Edition is being conducted in fully ONLINE mode.
Themes for SIH 2020 include Healthcare & Biomedical Devices, Agriculture & Rural Development, Renewable Energy, Food Processing, and Smart Vehicles among etc. - Question 3 of 19
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network (eVIN):
1.It aims to provide an overview of the vaccine cold chain logistics system across the country.
2.It is being implemented under National Health Mission (NHM) by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network (eVIN) is an innovative technological solution aimed at strengthening immunization supply chain systems across the country. This is being implemented under National Health Mission (NHM) by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.-It digitizes the entire vaccine stock management, their logistics and temperature tracking at all levels of vaccine storage – from national to the sub-district.
-This enables program managers to have real time view of the vaccine stock position and their storage temperature across all the cold chain points providing a detailed overview of the vaccine cold chain logistics system across the entire country.
-eVIN has reached 32 States and Union Territories (UTs) and will soon be rolled-out in the remaining States and UTs of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Ladakh and Sikkim.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network (eVIN) is an innovative technological solution aimed at strengthening immunization supply chain systems across the country. This is being implemented under National Health Mission (NHM) by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.-It digitizes the entire vaccine stock management, their logistics and temperature tracking at all levels of vaccine storage – from national to the sub-district.
-This enables program managers to have real time view of the vaccine stock position and their storage temperature across all the cold chain points providing a detailed overview of the vaccine cold chain logistics system across the entire country.
-eVIN has reached 32 States and Union Territories (UTs) and will soon be rolled-out in the remaining States and UTs of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Ladakh and Sikkim. - Question 4 of 19
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Technology Readiness Levels (TRL) norms:
1. It is a measurement system used to assess the maturity level of a particular technology.
2. It was originally developed by NASA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Technology Readiness Levels (TRL) is a type of measurement system used to assess the maturity level of a particular technology. Each technology project is evaluated against the parameters for each technology level and is then assigned a TRL rating based on the projects progress.
Originally introduced by NASA, the TRL scale is a metric with nine technology readiness levels for describing the maturity of a technology from ideation stage (TRL1) to highest degree of application/commercial readiness (TRL 9).Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Technology Readiness Levels (TRL) is a type of measurement system used to assess the maturity level of a particular technology. Each technology project is evaluated against the parameters for each technology level and is then assigned a TRL rating based on the projects progress.
Originally introduced by NASA, the TRL scale is a metric with nine technology readiness levels for describing the maturity of a technology from ideation stage (TRL1) to highest degree of application/commercial readiness (TRL 9). - Question 5 of 19
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the United Kingdom’s Innovation Challenge Fund in India:
1.It is to support scientists in academia and industry to tackle the COVID-19 pandemic and the threat to environment.
2.The grants are part of ‘Tech Clusters’ initiative of the UK government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The UK government has launched a £3 million Innovation Challenge Fund in India to support scientists in academia and industry to tackle the COVID-19 pandemic and the threat to our environment.The Fund invites tech innovators with connections to the AI-Data cluster in Karnataka and the Future Mobility cluster in Maharashtra to submit research and development proposals for tackling COVID-19 or which promote a greener planet. At least 12 grants up to £250,000 are expected to be awarded.
In April 2018, the Indian and British Prime Ministers announced the formal creation of the UK-India Tech Partnership.These grants are part of a wider initiative under the Tech Partnership known as ‘Tech Clusters’. Tech Clusters will support the development of Indian Tech Clusters by breaking down barriers to growth, including building international links.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The UK government has launched a £3 million Innovation Challenge Fund in India to support scientists in academia and industry to tackle the COVID-19 pandemic and the threat to our environment.The Fund invites tech innovators with connections to the AI-Data cluster in Karnataka and the Future Mobility cluster in Maharashtra to submit research and development proposals for tackling COVID-19 or which promote a greener planet. At least 12 grants up to £250,000 are expected to be awarded.
In April 2018, the Indian and British Prime Ministers announced the formal creation of the UK-India Tech Partnership.These grants are part of a wider initiative under the Tech Partnership known as ‘Tech Clusters’. Tech Clusters will support the development of Indian Tech Clusters by breaking down barriers to growth, including building international links.
- Question 6 of 19
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the programme “Vigyan Jyoti”:
1. It was launched by NITI Aayog.
2. It is to inculcate interest in Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Vigyan Jyoti Scheme is launched by the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
• It is an initiative that will create a level-playing field for the meritorious girls in high school to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
• The programme ‘Vigyan Jyoti’ aims to tap 100 girl students in 550 districts from 2020-2025, the officials said.Incorrect
Vigyan Jyoti Scheme is launched by the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
• It is an initiative that will create a level-playing field for the meritorious girls in high school to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
• The programme ‘Vigyan Jyoti’ aims to tap 100 girl students in 550 districts from 2020-2025, the officials said. - Question 7 of 19
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the India–Australia Circular Economy
Hackathon (I-ACE):
1. It is being organised by Atal Innovation Mission in collaboration with Australia’s
Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation.
2. It will focus on identification and development of innovative technology solutions by
students, startups and MSMEs of both nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
AIM (Atal Innovation Mission), in association with CSIRO, is organizing a two-day
hackathon on circular economy, ‘India–Australia Circular Economy Hackathon (I-ACE)’ in
collaboration with Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research
Organisation (CSIRO).
I-ACE will focus on identification and development of innovative technology solutions by
bright-minded students, startups and MSMEs of both nations. Shortlisted students and
startups/MSMEs will be called for the hackathon, where two winners (one student and one
startup/MSME) per theme from each country will be awardedIncorrect
Both statements are correct.
AIM (Atal Innovation Mission), in association with CSIRO, is organizing a two-day
hackathon on circular economy, ‘India–Australia Circular Economy Hackathon (I-ACE)’ in
collaboration with Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research
Organisation (CSIRO).
I-ACE will focus on identification and development of innovative technology solutions by
bright-minded students, startups and MSMEs of both nations. Shortlisted students and
startups/MSMEs will be called for the hackathon, where two winners (one student and one
startup/MSME) per theme from each country will be awarded - Question 8 of 19
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Science and Engineering Research
Board (SERB):
1. It is a Statutory body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
2. The SERB-POWER scheme has been specifically designed to promote Women Scientists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Science and Engineering Research Board
(SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is
to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering.
Statement 2 is correct. “SERB-POWER (Promoting Opportunities for Women in
Exploratory Research)”, designed exclusively for women scientists was launched recently.
SERB POWER Scheme will have two components namely (i) SERB-POWER Fellowship (ii)
SERB- POWER Research Grants. While a Search-cum-Selection Committee constituted for
the purpose will help in identifying the POWER Fellowship, the existing Programme
Advisory Committee (PAC) mechanism will be used to select the POWER Research Grants.
It is proposed to institute 25 POWER Fellowships annually. A total of 50 Power Grants each
will be sanctioned in Level I & Level II per annumIncorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Science and Engineering Research Board
(SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is
to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering.
Statement 2 is correct. “SERB-POWER (Promoting Opportunities for Women in
Exploratory Research)”, designed exclusively for women scientists was launched recently.
SERB POWER Scheme will have two components namely (i) SERB-POWER Fellowship (ii)
SERB- POWER Research Grants. While a Search-cum-Selection Committee constituted for
the purpose will help in identifying the POWER Fellowship, the existing Programme
Advisory Committee (PAC) mechanism will be used to select the POWER Research Grants.
It is proposed to institute 25 POWER Fellowships annually. A total of 50 Power Grants each
will be sanctioned in Level I & Level II per annum - Question 9 of 19
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the National Initiative for Developing
and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI):
1. It is an umbrella programme of Department of Science and Technology (DST) for
nurturing ideas and innovations.
2. Entrepreneurs-in-Residence (EIR) Programme under NIDHI provides subsistence grant to
entrepreneurs for pursuing a promising technology business idea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Initiative for Developing and
Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) is an umbrella programme developed by the Innovation & Entrepreneurship division, Department of Science & Technology for nurturing ideas and
innovations (knowledge-based and technology-driven) into successful startups.
NIDHI has following program components:
-Technology Business Incubator (TBI) – Converting Innovations to start-ups
-Accelerator – Fast tracking a start-up through focused intervention;
-Seed Support System (NIDHI-SSS) – Providing early stage investment;
-Centers of Excellence (NIDHI-CoE) – A World class facility to helpstartups go global;
– Promotion and Acceleration of Young and Aspiring technology entrepreneurs (NIDHIPRAYAS)
– Support from Idea to Prototype
-Entrepreneur-In-Residence (EIR)
Statement 2 is correct. Entrepreneurs-in-Residence (EIR) Programme under NIDHI
supports aspiring entrepreneur of considerable potential for pursuing a promising
technology business idea over a period up to 18 months with a subsistence grant up to Rs
30000 per month with a maximum cap for total support of Rs 3.6 lakh to each EIR over a
maximum of 18 months.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Initiative for Developing and
Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) is an umbrella programme developed by the Innovation & Entrepreneurship division, Department of Science & Technology for nurturing ideas and
innovations (knowledge-based and technology-driven) into successful startups.
NIDHI has following program components:
-Technology Business Incubator (TBI) – Converting Innovations to start-ups
-Accelerator – Fast tracking a start-up through focused intervention;
-Seed Support System (NIDHI-SSS) – Providing early stage investment;
-Centers of Excellence (NIDHI-CoE) – A World class facility to helpstartups go global;
– Promotion and Acceleration of Young and Aspiring technology entrepreneurs (NIDHIPRAYAS)
– Support from Idea to Prototype
-Entrepreneur-In-Residence (EIR)
Statement 2 is correct. Entrepreneurs-in-Residence (EIR) Programme under NIDHI
supports aspiring entrepreneur of considerable potential for pursuing a promising
technology business idea over a period up to 18 months with a subsistence grant up to Rs
30000 per month with a maximum cap for total support of Rs 3.6 lakh to each EIR over a
maximum of 18 months. - Question 10 of 19
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Aatmanirbhar Bharat ARISE-ANIC
Initiative:
1. It has been launched by the Atal Innovation Mission.
2. The programme will support applied research–based innovations by providing funding
support for speedy development of the product.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog, recently launched the Aatmanirbhar Bharat
ARISE-Atal New India Challenges, to spur applied research and innovation in Indian
MSMEs and startups.
The programme will be driven by Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), four
ministries—Ministry of Defence; Ministry of Food Processing Industries; Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare; and Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs—and associated
industriesto facilitate innovative solutions to sectoral problems.
The ARISE–ANIC programme will support deserving applied research–based innovations
by providing funding support of up to Rs 50 lakh for speedy development of the proposed
technology solution and/or productIncorrect
Both statements are correct.
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog, recently launched the Aatmanirbhar Bharat
ARISE-Atal New India Challenges, to spur applied research and innovation in Indian
MSMEs and startups.
The programme will be driven by Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), four
ministries—Ministry of Defence; Ministry of Food Processing Industries; Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare; and Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs—and associated
industriesto facilitate innovative solutions to sectoral problems.
The ARISE–ANIC programme will support deserving applied research–based innovations
by providing funding support of up to Rs 50 lakh for speedy development of the proposed
technology solution and/or product - Question 11 of 19
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following institution is organizing the India International Science Festival 2020?
Correct
The India International Science Festival 2020 is being organised by Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) in collaboration with Ministry of Earth Sciences, Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Vijnana Bharati (VIBHA).
The sixth edition of this festival will take place from December 22 -25, 2020 with the theme ‘Science for Self-Reliant India and Global Welfare’. It aims to celebrate the achievements of India’s scientific and technological advancements with students and innovators.Incorrect
The India International Science Festival 2020 is being organised by Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) in collaboration with Ministry of Earth Sciences, Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Vijnana Bharati (VIBHA).
The sixth edition of this festival will take place from December 22 -25, 2020 with the theme ‘Science for Self-Reliant India and Global Welfare’. It aims to celebrate the achievements of India’s scientific and technological advancements with students and innovators. - Question 12 of 19
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are Indian research station(s) at Antarctica?
1. Maitri
2. Bharati
3. Himadri
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
India presently has two research stations at Antarctica namely ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’. ‘Bharati’ was established in 2013 and Maitri station has been in operation since 1989. At both the stations, research and investigations are undertaken to understand the Polar processes and phenomenon. Observations and studies are carried out in atmospheric, biological, geological, ecological sciences etc.
At Arctic, meteorological, biological, glaciological and past climate studies are undertaken in the vicinity of the station ‘Himadri’.
# Several people at a Chilean research station in Antarctica have been found infected with the novel coronavirus.Incorrect
India presently has two research stations at Antarctica namely ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’. ‘Bharati’ was established in 2013 and Maitri station has been in operation since 1989. At both the stations, research and investigations are undertaken to understand the Polar processes and phenomenon. Observations and studies are carried out in atmospheric, biological, geological, ecological sciences etc.
At Arctic, meteorological, biological, glaciological and past climate studies are undertaken in the vicinity of the station ‘Himadri’.
# Several people at a Chilean research station in Antarctica have been found infected with the novel coronavirus. - Question 13 of 19
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy 2020 (STIP 2020):
1.This is only the second national science and technology policy of/for India that follows the STIP 2013.
2.Its formulation process is being facilitated jointly by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to Government of India and the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Government of India will launch STIP 2020, a holistic and pragmatic policy dedicated to Science, technology and most importantly innovation. The policy aims to reorient Science Technology & Innovation (STI) in terms of priorities, sectoral focus and strategies.
Statement 1 is incorrect. A preparatory framework has been developed for the formulation of STIP 2020. This is only the fifth national science, technology, and innovation policy of/for India that follows Science Policy Resolution 1958 (SPR 1958), Technology Policy Statement 1983 (TPS 1983), Science and Technology Policy 2003 (STP 2003) and Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy 2013 (STIP 2013).
Statement 2 is correct. STIP2020 formulation process is being facilitated jointly by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India (Office of PSA) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST).Incorrect
The Government of India will launch STIP 2020, a holistic and pragmatic policy dedicated to Science, technology and most importantly innovation. The policy aims to reorient Science Technology & Innovation (STI) in terms of priorities, sectoral focus and strategies.
Statement 1 is incorrect. A preparatory framework has been developed for the formulation of STIP 2020. This is only the fifth national science, technology, and innovation policy of/for India that follows Science Policy Resolution 1958 (SPR 1958), Technology Policy Statement 1983 (TPS 1983), Science and Technology Policy 2003 (STP 2003) and Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy 2013 (STIP 2013).
Statement 2 is correct. STIP2020 formulation process is being facilitated jointly by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India (Office of PSA) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST). - Question 14 of 19
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the utility of the e-Sampada application launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?
Correct
With the objectives of boosting transparency and accountability while ensuring ease of living for the citizens, the Directorate of Estates, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched a new Web Portal and Mobile App, e-Sampada.
The new application provides a single window for all these services including allotment for over one lakh government residential accommodations, office space allotment to government organisations.
It aims to boost transparency and accountability in providing various Estate Services like allotment, retention, regularisation, no dues certificate etc.
He further said that E-Sampada is developed to simplify processes and bring uniformity in the system across India. This will promote ease of living for Government of India officers / Departments as all services can be availed online on a single window with a live tracking of applications.Incorrect
With the objectives of boosting transparency and accountability while ensuring ease of living for the citizens, the Directorate of Estates, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched a new Web Portal and Mobile App, e-Sampada.
The new application provides a single window for all these services including allotment for over one lakh government residential accommodations, office space allotment to government organisations.
It aims to boost transparency and accountability in providing various Estate Services like allotment, retention, regularisation, no dues certificate etc.
He further said that E-Sampada is developed to simplify processes and bring uniformity in the system across India. This will promote ease of living for Government of India officers / Departments as all services can be availed online on a single window with a live tracking of applications. - Question 15 of 19
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the “Science Research and Engineering Board (SERB)”:
- It was created through an act of parliament.
- Its aim is to promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
One of the most notable developments in the S&T sector in the XI Plan has been the setting up of the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) through an Act of Parliament, viz. the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008.
Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board.
SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.
Incorrect
One of the most notable developments in the S&T sector in the XI Plan has been the setting up of the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) through an Act of Parliament, viz. the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008.
Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board.
SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.
- Question 16 of 19
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the “L2 Pro India”:
1. It is a website developed by NITI Aayog.
2. It will aid and enable youth, innovators, entrepreneurs in understanding IPRs for their ownership and protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Secretary Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), launched the website and mobile application [Learn to Protect, Secure and Maximize Your Innovation] on Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) today in New Delhi.
The website and app has been developed by Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM)-DPIIT in collaboration with Qualcomm and National Law University (NLU), Delhi.
The modules of this e-learning platform [L2Pro India IP e-learning Platform and the L2Pro India Mobile App] will aid and enable youth, innovators, entrepreneurs and small and medium industries (SMEs) in understanding IPRs for their ownership and protection, integrate IP into business models and obtain value for their R&D efforts.
The L2Pro has been successfully implemented in Germany, United Kingdom, Italy and France, benefiting immensely from close collaboration with respective IP organizations and public research institutions.
The learning app has been customized for India in order to ensure that innovation which is fundamental to startups are protected, managed and commercialised.
Incorrect
Secretary Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), launched the website and mobile application [Learn to Protect, Secure and Maximize Your Innovation] on Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) today in New Delhi.
The website and app has been developed by Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM)-DPIIT in collaboration with Qualcomm and National Law University (NLU), Delhi.
The modules of this e-learning platform [L2Pro India IP e-learning Platform and the L2Pro India Mobile App] will aid and enable youth, innovators, entrepreneurs and small and medium industries (SMEs) in understanding IPRs for their ownership and protection, integrate IP into business models and obtain value for their R&D efforts.
The L2Pro has been successfully implemented in Germany, United Kingdom, Italy and France, benefiting immensely from close collaboration with respective IP organizations and public research institutions.
The learning app has been customized for India in order to ensure that innovation which is fundamental to startups are protected, managed and commercialised.
- Question 17 of 19
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “EChO Network” is sometimes in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
EChO Network, a national program to provide a template for cross-disciplinary leadership in India with the specific focus of increasing research, knowledge, and awareness of Indian ecology and the environment.
India faces unprecedented threats to its human environmental and ecosystems, solving which requires a confluence of India’s strong technological expertise and knowledge of the natural world itself.
EChO Network would develop a national network to catalyse a new generation of Indians who can synthesize interdisciplinary concepts and tackle real-world problems in medicine, agriculture, ecology, and technology.
With no precedent for such a network anywhere in the world, EChO Network establishes a new platform to change how science is embedded in our modern society.
Through interactive sessions with citizens, industry, academia, and the government, the Network will identify gaps in knowledge regarding selected topics in human and environmental ecosystems.
The program will then train postdoctoral leaders in research and outreach on these topics, while also incorporating current public and private efforts into a national network.
It would then go on to establishing nation-wide awareness in these issues through public discourse and education for citizens, industry, and government with information exchange at all educational levels.
Over time EChO Network intends to create an international distributed institute comprising individuals housed within industry, government, private, and academic sectors, combining their expertise and resources collectively to tackle large scale problems.
Incorrect
EChO Network, a national program to provide a template for cross-disciplinary leadership in India with the specific focus of increasing research, knowledge, and awareness of Indian ecology and the environment.
India faces unprecedented threats to its human environmental and ecosystems, solving which requires a confluence of India’s strong technological expertise and knowledge of the natural world itself.
EChO Network would develop a national network to catalyse a new generation of Indians who can synthesize interdisciplinary concepts and tackle real-world problems in medicine, agriculture, ecology, and technology.
With no precedent for such a network anywhere in the world, EChO Network establishes a new platform to change how science is embedded in our modern society.
Through interactive sessions with citizens, industry, academia, and the government, the Network will identify gaps in knowledge regarding selected topics in human and environmental ecosystems.
The program will then train postdoctoral leaders in research and outreach on these topics, while also incorporating current public and private efforts into a national network.
It would then go on to establishing nation-wide awareness in these issues through public discourse and education for citizens, industry, and government with information exchange at all educational levels.
Over time EChO Network intends to create an international distributed institute comprising individuals housed within industry, government, private, and academic sectors, combining their expertise and resources collectively to tackle large scale problems.
- Question 18 of 19
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently a Bilateral Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) pilot program has commenced between the Indian Patent Office (IPO) and which of the following?
Correct
A Bilateral Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) pilot program has commenced between the Indian Patent Office (IPO) and the Japan Patent Office (JPO).
The Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) is a set of initiatives for providing accelerated patent prosecution procedures by sharing information between some patent offices.
Incorrect
A Bilateral Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) pilot program has commenced between the Indian Patent Office (IPO) and the Japan Patent Office (JPO).
The Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) is a set of initiatives for providing accelerated patent prosecution procedures by sharing information between some patent offices.
- Question 19 of 19
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Science Congress
Association (ISCA):
Correct
The Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA) owes its origin to the
foresight and initiative of two British Chemists, namely, Professor J. L. Simonsen and
Professor P.S. MacMahon.
- It occurred to them that scientific research in India might be stimulated if an annual
meeting of research workers somewhat on the lines of the British Association for the
Advancement of Science could be arranged.
- The first meeting of the Congress was held from January 15-17, 1914 at the
premises of the Asiatic Society, Calcutta, with the Honourable Justice Sir Asutosh
Mukherjee, the then Vice-Chancellor of the Calcutta University, as President.
- One hundred and five scientists from different parts of India and abroad attended
and the papers numbering 35 were divided into six sections-Botany, Chemistry,
Ethnography, Geology, Physics, Zoology under six Sectional Presidents.
- Indian Science Congress is organised by the Indian Science Congress Association
every year in the first week of January.
Incorrect
The Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA) owes its origin to the
foresight and initiative of two British Chemists, namely, Professor J. L. Simonsen and
Professor P.S. MacMahon.
- It occurred to them that scientific research in India might be stimulated if an annual
meeting of research workers somewhat on the lines of the British Association for the
Advancement of Science could be arranged.
- The first meeting of the Congress was held from January 15-17, 1914 at the
premises of the Asiatic Society, Calcutta, with the Honourable Justice Sir Asutosh
Mukherjee, the then Vice-Chancellor of the Calcutta University, as President.
- One hundred and five scientists from different parts of India and abroad attended
and the papers numbering 35 were divided into six sections-Botany, Chemistry,
Ethnography, Geology, Physics, Zoology under six Sectional Presidents.
- Indian Science Congress is organised by the Indian Science Congress Association
every year in the first week of January.
IT, Robotics and computer related
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1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements correctly defines Superconductivity?
Correct
Superconductivity is a phenomenon displayed by some materials when they are cooled below a certain temperature, known as the superconducting critical temperature.
Below a certain “critical” temperature, materials undergo transition into the superconducting state, characterized by two basic properties: firstly, they offer no resistance to the passage of electrical current.
When resistance falls to zero, a current can circulate inside the material without any dissipation of energy. Secondly, provided they are sufficiently weak, external magnetic fields will not penetrate the superconductor, but remain at its surface. This field expulsion phenomenon is known as the Meissner effect, after the physicist who first observed it in 1933.
# A group of researchers at University of Rochester, Intel corporation and University of Nevada in the U.S. have created a material that is superconducting at 15 degrees Celsius. But it needs ultrahigh pressure of about 2 million atmospheres to achieve this transition.Incorrect
Superconductivity is a phenomenon displayed by some materials when they are cooled below a certain temperature, known as the superconducting critical temperature.
Below a certain “critical” temperature, materials undergo transition into the superconducting state, characterized by two basic properties: firstly, they offer no resistance to the passage of electrical current.
When resistance falls to zero, a current can circulate inside the material without any dissipation of energy. Secondly, provided they are sufficiently weak, external magnetic fields will not penetrate the superconductor, but remain at its surface. This field expulsion phenomenon is known as the Meissner effect, after the physicist who first observed it in 1933.
# A group of researchers at University of Rochester, Intel corporation and University of Nevada in the U.S. have created a material that is superconducting at 15 degrees Celsius. But it needs ultrahigh pressure of about 2 million atmospheres to achieve this transition. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following fall in category of ‘Over-The-Top’ (OTT) platforms?
1. Newspapers being supplied daily to households
2. Netflix online streaming service
3. TV Cable news network
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
An over-the-top media service is a streaming media service offered directly to viewers via the Internet. OTT bypasses cable, broadcast, and satellite television platforms, the companies that traditionally act as a controller or distributor of such content.
A notification from the Cabinet Secretariat on November 9, said that films and audio-visual programs made available by online content providers and news and current affairs content on online platform will be under the purview of the Information and Broadcasting Ministry.Incorrect
An over-the-top media service is a streaming media service offered directly to viewers via the Internet. OTT bypasses cable, broadcast, and satellite television platforms, the companies that traditionally act as a controller or distributor of such content.
A notification from the Cabinet Secretariat on November 9, said that films and audio-visual programs made available by online content providers and news and current affairs content on online platform will be under the purview of the Information and Broadcasting Ministry. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsWhat does the Moore’s law relate to?
Correct
Moore’s Law refers to Moore’s perception that the number of transistors on a microchip doubles every two years, though the cost of computers is halved. Moore’s Law states that it can be expected that the speed and capability of computers will increase every couple of years, and we will pay less for them.
Moore’s law is an observation and projection of a historical trend. Rather than a law of physics, it is an empirical relationship linked to gains from experience in production.
Incorrect
Moore’s Law refers to Moore’s perception that the number of transistors on a microchip doubles every two years, though the cost of computers is halved. Moore’s Law states that it can be expected that the speed and capability of computers will increase every couple of years, and we will pay less for them.
Moore’s law is an observation and projection of a historical trend. Rather than a law of physics, it is an empirical relationship linked to gains from experience in production.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following has been declared as the fastest Supercomputer recently?
Correct
Japan’s Fugaku supercomputer has topped the list of fastest supercomputers with the publication of the 56th Top500 list.
Summit and Sierra (IBM/Mellanox/Nvidia, United States) remain at number two and three, respectively, and Sunway TaihuLight (China) holds the fourth position.
Nvidia’s in-house HPC-AI machine Selene, doubles in size of Fugaku, moved up to two spots to secure a fifth-place.
Two supercomputers from India — PARAM Siddhi-AI and Mihir have been ranked 63rd and 146th, respectively, and remain the only two supercomputers from India in the latest list of TOP500.Incorrect
Japan’s Fugaku supercomputer has topped the list of fastest supercomputers with the publication of the 56th Top500 list.
Summit and Sierra (IBM/Mellanox/Nvidia, United States) remain at number two and three, respectively, and Sunway TaihuLight (China) holds the fourth position.
Nvidia’s in-house HPC-AI machine Selene, doubles in size of Fugaku, moved up to two spots to secure a fifth-place.
Two supercomputers from India — PARAM Siddhi-AI and Mihir have been ranked 63rd and 146th, respectively, and remain the only two supercomputers from India in the latest list of TOP500. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following has launched the Bharat Air Fibre services?
Correct
The Bharat Air Fibre services are introduced by BSNL as part of digital India initiates by the Government of India. It aims for providing Wireless Connectivity in the range of 20 KMs from the BSNL Locations and thus customers at remote places also will be benefitted as BSNL comes with cheapest services with support of Telecom Infrastructure Partners.
BSNL Bharat AirFibre enables homes in rural areas with broadband services, which is different from the company’s Bharat Fiber FTTH (fiber to the home) service that users wired technology and is targeted at urban homes.Incorrect
The Bharat Air Fibre services are introduced by BSNL as part of digital India initiates by the Government of India. It aims for providing Wireless Connectivity in the range of 20 KMs from the BSNL Locations and thus customers at remote places also will be benefitted as BSNL comes with cheapest services with support of Telecom Infrastructure Partners.
BSNL Bharat AirFibre enables homes in rural areas with broadband services, which is different from the company’s Bharat Fiber FTTH (fiber to the home) service that users wired technology and is targeted at urban homes. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is/are correct regarding the Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
1.It enables multiple user devices to access data from centralized disk capacity.
2.NAS devices do not have any keyboard or display interface and are managed from the connected computers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Both statements are correct.
Network Attached Storage (NAS) is a dedicated file storage system which can be connected to many different devices at the same time and allows access to the same disk. Users on a local area network (LAN) access the shared storage via a standard Ethernet connection.
NAS device has its own file server capabilities to store and managed access to files but does not have any keyboard or display interface and are managed from the connected machine/computers.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Network Attached Storage (NAS) is a dedicated file storage system which can be connected to many different devices at the same time and allows access to the same disk. Users on a local area network (LAN) access the shared storage via a standard Ethernet connection.
NAS device has its own file server capabilities to store and managed access to files but does not have any keyboard or display interface and are managed from the connected machine/computers. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Optical Fiber Cable:
1. It allows data transmission using light pulses by application of total internal reflection.
2. It consists of a core surrounded by a cladding material with a higher index of refraction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. An optical fiber cable is a type of cable that has a number of optical fibers bundled together. All optical fibers use a core of hair-like transparent silicon covered with less refractive indexed cladding to avoid light leakage to the surroundings.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An optical fiber typically consists of a transparent core surrounded by a transparent cladding material with a lower index of refraction. Light is kept in the core by total internal reflection.
There are two major categories:
-Step index fiber optic cabling: core surrounded by the cladding, which has a single uniform index of refraction.
-Graded index fiber optic cabling: refractive index of the optical fiber decreases as the radial distance from the fiber axis increases.
Total internal reflection: the complete reflection of a light ray reaching an interface with a less dense medium when the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. An optical fiber cable is a type of cable that has a number of optical fibers bundled together. All optical fibers use a core of hair-like transparent silicon covered with less refractive indexed cladding to avoid light leakage to the surroundings.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An optical fiber typically consists of a transparent core surrounded by a transparent cladding material with a lower index of refraction. Light is kept in the core by total internal reflection.
There are two major categories:
-Step index fiber optic cabling: core surrounded by the cladding, which has a single uniform index of refraction.
-Graded index fiber optic cabling: refractive index of the optical fiber decreases as the radial distance from the fiber axis increases.
Total internal reflection: the complete reflection of a light ray reaching an interface with a less dense medium when the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge has been launched in India by Intel Corporation.
2. SHAKTI and VEGA are microprocessors indigenously developed in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ministry of Electronics & IT has launched the Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge- Innovate Solutions for Aatmanirbhar Bharat seeks to invite innovators, startups and students to use these microprocessors to develop various technology products.
The participants will get monetary support/ seed fund and an opportunity to translate their innovations around Swadeshi Processors, showcase them at a higher viewership platform and facilitate them to scale from ideation to marketplace.
Statement 2 is correct. IIT Madras and Center for Development of Advance Computing (CDAC) have developed two microprocessors named SHAKTI (32 bit) and VEGA (64 bit) respectively using Open Source Architecture under the aegis of Microprocessor Development Programme of Ministry of Electronics and IT.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ministry of Electronics & IT has launched the Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge- Innovate Solutions for Aatmanirbhar Bharat seeks to invite innovators, startups and students to use these microprocessors to develop various technology products.
The participants will get monetary support/ seed fund and an opportunity to translate their innovations around Swadeshi Processors, showcase them at a higher viewership platform and facilitate them to scale from ideation to marketplace.
Statement 2 is correct. IIT Madras and Center for Development of Advance Computing (CDAC) have developed two microprocessors named SHAKTI (32 bit) and VEGA (64 bit) respectively using Open Source Architecture under the aegis of Microprocessor Development Programme of Ministry of Electronics and IT. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Open API Service:
1.It is a publicly available application programming interface that provides developers with programmatic access to the application.
2.The Aarogya Setu Open API Service aims to enable organizations to check the status of the Aarogya Setu app of their employees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. An open API, also called public API, is an application programming interface made publicly available to software developers. An API is a software intermediary that makes it possible for application programs to interact with each other and share data.
Statement 2 is correct. The recently launched Aarogya Setu Open API Service will enable organizations to check the status of the Aarogya Setu app of their employees and integrate it into its various Work from Home features.
The new feature called ‘Open API Service’ will help people, businesses and the economy to return to normalcy, and aims to address the fear/risk of COVID-19 infection. The Open API (application programme interface) shall only provide the Aarogya Setu status and name of the Aarogya Setu User with their consent.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. An open API, also called public API, is an application programming interface made publicly available to software developers. An API is a software intermediary that makes it possible for application programs to interact with each other and share data.
Statement 2 is correct. The recently launched Aarogya Setu Open API Service will enable organizations to check the status of the Aarogya Setu app of their employees and integrate it into its various Work from Home features.
The new feature called ‘Open API Service’ will help people, businesses and the economy to return to normalcy, and aims to address the fear/risk of COVID-19 infection. The Open API (application programme interface) shall only provide the Aarogya Setu status and name of the Aarogya Setu User with their consent. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the recently launched initiative Agriota E-Marketplace:
1.It has been launched by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with FAO Regional Office for Asia and Pacific.
2.The platform uses blockchain technology to connect Indian farmers with food processing companies, traders and wholesalers in the UAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dubai Multi Commodities Centre (DMCC) free zone has launched an Agriota E-Marketplace to connect millions of rural Indian farmers to the UAE’s food industry, while eliminating middlemen.
The portal was jointly developed with CropData Technology, an Indian company that aids marginal and small farmers.Statement 2 is correct. The platform uses blockchain technology to connect farmers with different entities in the UAE including food processing companies, traders and wholesalers.
It will initially offer cereals, pulses, oil seeds, fruits, vegetables, spices and condimentsIncorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dubai Multi Commodities Centre (DMCC) free zone has launched an Agriota E-Marketplace to connect millions of rural Indian farmers to the UAE’s food industry, while eliminating middlemen.
The portal was jointly developed with CropData Technology, an Indian company that aids marginal and small farmers.Statement 2 is correct. The platform uses blockchain technology to connect farmers with different entities in the UAE including food processing companies, traders and wholesalers.
It will initially offer cereals, pulses, oil seeds, fruits, vegetables, spices and condiments - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsThe term “Bandicoot” is related to which of the following?
Correct
: Bandicoot is a robotic system for manhole and sewer line cleaning aimed
at the complete elimination of manual scavenging from the face of earth. The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) in 2019 procured a ‘Bandicoot’, which would
help end the practice of manual scavenging.Incorrect
: Bandicoot is a robotic system for manhole and sewer line cleaning aimed
at the complete elimination of manual scavenging from the face of earth. The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) in 2019 procured a ‘Bandicoot’, which would
help end the practice of manual scavenging. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsWhat is ‘Secure Application for Internet’ (SAI) that has been launched recently?
Correct
Indian Army has developed a simple messaging application named the
Secure Application for Internet (SAI). The application supports end to end secure voice, text
and video calling services for Android platform over the internet.
SAI scores over on security features with local in-house servers and coding which can be
tweaked as per requirements. It will be utilized pan Army to facilitate secure messaging
within the service.Incorrect
Indian Army has developed a simple messaging application named the
Secure Application for Internet (SAI). The application supports end to end secure voice, text
and video calling services for Android platform over the internet.
SAI scores over on security features with local in-house servers and coding which can be
tweaked as per requirements. It will be utilized pan Army to facilitate secure messaging
within the service. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsRAISE (Responsible AI for Social Empowerment) 2020 Summit is being organized
by which of the following institution?Correct
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and NITI
Aayog are organizing a Global Virtual Summit on Artificial Intelligence (AI), RAISE 2020-
‘Responsible AI for Social Empowerment 2020,’ from October 5-9, 2020.
The event will witness participation from global industry leaders, key opinion makers,
Government representatives and academia.Incorrect
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and NITI
Aayog are organizing a Global Virtual Summit on Artificial Intelligence (AI), RAISE 2020-
‘Responsible AI for Social Empowerment 2020,’ from October 5-9, 2020.
The event will witness participation from global industry leaders, key opinion makers,
Government representatives and academia. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Television Rating Points (TRP):
1. It represents the traffic of viewers a television channel or program receives.
2. Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) is a statutory body measuring TRPs in
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Television Rating Points (TRPs) represent how many
people, from diverse socio-economic categories, watched which channels for how much time
during a particular period of hours/days/week/months.
Television ratings in turn influence programmes produced for the viewers. Better ratings
would promote a programme while poor ratings will discourage a programme. It also has
commercial impact as program/channel with higher ratings is able to attract more and
profitable advertisements.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) India is a Joint
Industry Company founded by stakeholder bodies that represent Broadcasters,
Advertisers, and Advertising and Media Agencies.
The I&B Ministry notified the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies in India in
January 2014 and registered BARC in July 2015 under these guidelines, to carry out
television ratings in India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Television Rating Points (TRPs) represent how many
people, from diverse socio-economic categories, watched which channels for how much time
during a particular period of hours/days/week/months.
Television ratings in turn influence programmes produced for the viewers. Better ratings
would promote a programme while poor ratings will discourage a programme. It also has
commercial impact as program/channel with higher ratings is able to attract more and
profitable advertisements.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) India is a Joint
Industry Company founded by stakeholder bodies that represent Broadcasters,
Advertisers, and Advertising and Media Agencies.
The I&B Ministry notified the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies in India in
January 2014 and registered BARC in July 2015 under these guidelines, to carry out
television ratings in India. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsThe Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a branch of which of the following fields
of study?Correct
Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a branch of artificial intelligence that deals with the interaction between computers and humans using the natural language.
The ultimate objective of NLP is to read, decipher, understand, and make sense of the human languages in a manner that is valuable. Most NLP techniques rely on machine learning to derive meaning from human languages.Incorrect
Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a branch of artificial intelligence that deals with the interaction between computers and humans using the natural language.
The ultimate objective of NLP is to read, decipher, understand, and make sense of the human languages in a manner that is valuable. Most NLP techniques rely on machine learning to derive meaning from human languages. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsThe INAI is an India specific applied AI research centre initiative of which of the
following institution/company?Correct
Intel India is collaborating with the Government of Telangana, International
Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIIT-H) and Public Health Foundation of
India (PHFI) to launch INAI, an applied artificial intelligence research centre in Hyderabad.INAI initiative applies AI to population-scale problems in the Indian context, with a focus
on identifying and solving challenges in the healthcare and smart mobility segments
through strong ecosystem collaboration.
The U.S. accounts for 16% of the global AI talent, followed by China (9%) and India (8%). [The
Hindu]Incorrect
Intel India is collaborating with the Government of Telangana, International
Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIIT-H) and Public Health Foundation of
India (PHFI) to launch INAI, an applied artificial intelligence research centre in Hyderabad.INAI initiative applies AI to population-scale problems in the Indian context, with a focus
on identifying and solving challenges in the healthcare and smart mobility segments
through strong ecosystem collaboration.
The U.S. accounts for 16% of the global AI talent, followed by China (9%) and India (8%). [The
Hindu] - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Moushik’ microprocessor:
1. Its applications include smart cards like credit and debit cards.
2. Its design and fabrication have been done indigenously in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Indian Institute of Technology Madras researchers have booted up a microprocessor ‘Moushik’.
The design of the microprocessor, motherboard printed circuit board design, assembly and post-silicon boot-up were done at IIT Madras. The foundry-specific back-end design and fabrication were undertaken at Semi-Conductor Laboratory of Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO) in Chandigarh and manufacturing of this motherboard was done at
Bengaluru.The field application of Moushik includes smart cards, such as credit and debit cards; ID cards; travel cards for Metros and driving licences; electronic voting machines etc.
# The SHAKTI Processor Program, was started as an academic initiative back in 2014 by the
RISE group at IIT-Madras.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Indian Institute of Technology Madras researchers have booted up a microprocessor ‘Moushik’.
The design of the microprocessor, motherboard printed circuit board design, assembly and post-silicon boot-up were done at IIT Madras. The foundry-specific back-end design and fabrication were undertaken at Semi-Conductor Laboratory of Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO) in Chandigarh and manufacturing of this motherboard was done at
Bengaluru.The field application of Moushik includes smart cards, such as credit and debit cards; ID cards; travel cards for Metros and driving licences; electronic voting machines etc.
# The SHAKTI Processor Program, was started as an academic initiative back in 2014 by the
RISE group at IIT-Madras. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the recently launched Frontier
Technologies Cloud Innovation Center (CIC):
1. It has been developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
2. It will enable government stakeholders, start-ups, and local organizations in India to
access cloud-based technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog recently announced the establishment of a Frontier Technologies Cloud Innovation Center (CIC) with Amazon Web Services (AWS).
Statement 2 is correct. This CIC is part of the AWS CIC Global Program, which provides an opportunity for government agencies, non-profits, and educational institutions, to come together on pressing challenges, apply design thinking, test new ideas, and access the technology expertise of AWS.
The NITI Aayog Frontier Technologies Cloud Innovation Center will enable government stakeholders, start-ups, and local organizations in India to innovate and create new approaches to solving problems.
This CIC joins a global network of AWS public sector cloud innovation centers across
Australia, Bahrain, Canada, France, Germany, South Korea, and United States.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog recently announced the establishment of a Frontier Technologies Cloud Innovation Center (CIC) with Amazon Web Services (AWS).
Statement 2 is correct. This CIC is part of the AWS CIC Global Program, which provides an opportunity for government agencies, non-profits, and educational institutions, to come together on pressing challenges, apply design thinking, test new ideas, and access the technology expertise of AWS.
The NITI Aayog Frontier Technologies Cloud Innovation Center will enable government stakeholders, start-ups, and local organizations in India to innovate and create new approaches to solving problems.
This CIC joins a global network of AWS public sector cloud innovation centers across
Australia, Bahrain, Canada, France, Germany, South Korea, and United States. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsThe “Ai – Da” is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Billed as “one of the most exciting artists of our time”, Ai-Da differs from generations of past masters in one inescapable way: she is a robot.
• Ai-Da is the brainchild of Aidan Meller, who claims she is the world’s first ultra-realistic humanoid artist, able to draw creatively thanks to in-built artificial intelligence (AI) technology.
• The 46-year-old art dealer recently unveiled Ai-Da — dressed in a brown wig and period-style painter’s blouse — in Oxford, ahead of an exhibition of her first works opening next week in the English University City.Incorrect
Billed as “one of the most exciting artists of our time”, Ai-Da differs from generations of past masters in one inescapable way: she is a robot.
• Ai-Da is the brainchild of Aidan Meller, who claims she is the world’s first ultra-realistic humanoid artist, able to draw creatively thanks to in-built artificial intelligence (AI) technology.
• The 46-year-old art dealer recently unveiled Ai-Da — dressed in a brown wig and period-style painter’s blouse — in Oxford, ahead of an exhibition of her first works opening next week in the English University City. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Blockchain technology:
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Blockchain is a decentralized distributed ledger
technology. All network participants have access to the distributed ledger and its
immutable record of transactions.
With this shared ledger, transactions are recorded only once, eliminating the duplication of
effort that’s typical of traditional business networks.
Blockchain is decentralized, i.e. it does not store any of its information in a central
location, instead, the data is copied and spread across a network of computers.
Statement 2 is correct. No participant can change or tamper with a transaction after it’s
been recorded to the shared ledger. If a transaction record includes an error, a new
transaction must be added to reverse the error, and both transactions are then visible.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Blockchain is a decentralized distributed ledger
technology. All network participants have access to the distributed ledger and its
immutable record of transactions.
With this shared ledger, transactions are recorded only once, eliminating the duplication of
effort that’s typical of traditional business networks.
Blockchain is decentralized, i.e. it does not store any of its information in a central
location, instead, the data is copied and spread across a network of computers.
Statement 2 is correct. No participant can change or tamper with a transaction after it’s
been recorded to the shared ledger. If a transaction record includes an error, a new
transaction must be added to reverse the error, and both transactions are then visible. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following defines the Fourth Industrial Revolution most
appropriately?Correct
The First Industrial Revolution used water and steam power to mechanize
production.
The Second Industrial Revolution used electric power to create mass production.
The Third Industrial Revolution used electronics and information technology to automate
production.
Now a Fourth Industrial Revolution is building on the Third, the digital revolution that
has been occurring since the middle of the last century. It is characterized by a fusion of
technologies that is blurring the lines between the physical, digital, and biological spheres.Incorrect
The First Industrial Revolution used water and steam power to mechanize
production.
The Second Industrial Revolution used electric power to create mass production.
The Third Industrial Revolution used electronics and information technology to automate
production.
Now a Fourth Industrial Revolution is building on the Third, the digital revolution that
has been occurring since the middle of the last century. It is characterized by a fusion of
technologies that is blurring the lines between the physical, digital, and biological spheres. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the PM-WANI:
- It aims to provide public Wi-Fi service through Public Data Offices (PDOs) spread across the country.
- A nominal license fee is to be charged for providing Broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Union Cabinet has given its approval for the proposal of DoT for setting up of Public Wi-Fi Networks by Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) to provide public Wi-Fi service through Public Data Offices (PDOs) spread across length and breadth of the country to accelerate proliferation of Broadband Internet services through Public Wi-Fi network in the country.
This Public Wi-Fi Access Network Interface will be known as PM-WANI. PM-WANI eco-system will be operated by different players:
–Public Data Office (PDO): It will establish, maintain, and operate only WANI compliant Wi-Fi Access Points and deliver broadband services to subscribers.
–Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): It will be an aggregator of PDOs and perform the functions relating to Authorization and Accounting.
–App Provider: It will develop an App to register users and discover WANI compliant Wi-Fi hotspots in the nearby area and display the same within the App for accessing the internet service.
–Central Registry: It will maintain the details of App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs. To begin with, the Central Registry will be maintained by C-DoT.
Statement 2 is incorrect. There shall be no license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Union Cabinet has given its approval for the proposal of DoT for setting up of Public Wi-Fi Networks by Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) to provide public Wi-Fi service through Public Data Offices (PDOs) spread across length and breadth of the country to accelerate proliferation of Broadband Internet services through Public Wi-Fi network in the country.
This Public Wi-Fi Access Network Interface will be known as PM-WANI. PM-WANI eco-system will be operated by different players:
–Public Data Office (PDO): It will establish, maintain, and operate only WANI compliant Wi-Fi Access Points and deliver broadband services to subscribers.
–Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): It will be an aggregator of PDOs and perform the functions relating to Authorization and Accounting.
–App Provider: It will develop an App to register users and discover WANI compliant Wi-Fi hotspots in the nearby area and display the same within the App for accessing the internet service.
–Central Registry: It will maintain the details of App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs. To begin with, the Central Registry will be maintained by C-DoT.
Statement 2 is incorrect. There shall be no license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the PM-WANI initiative:
- Public Data Offices (PDO) will establish, maintain, and operate only WANI compliant Wi-Fi Access Points and deliver broadband services to subscribers.
- App Provider will develop an App to register users and discover WANI compliant Wi-Fi hotspots in the nearby area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Union Cabinet has recently given its approval for the proposal of DoT for setting up of Public Wi-Fi Networks by Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) to provide public Wi-Fi service through Public Data Offices (PDOs) spread across length and breadth of the country to accelerate proliferation of Broadband Internet services through Public Wi-Fi network in the country. There shall be no license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.
Salient Features:
–This Public Wi-Fi Access Network Interface will be known as PM-WANI.PM-WANI eco-system will be operated by different players as described herein under:
–Public Data Office (PDO): It will establish, maintain, and operate only WANI compliant Wi-Fi Access Points and deliver broadband services to subscribers.
–Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): It will be an aggregator of PDOs and perform the functions relating to Authorization and Accounting.
–App Provider: It will develop an App to register users and discover WANI compliant Wi-Fi hotspots in the nearby area and display the same within the App for accessing the internet service.
–Central Registry: It will maintain the details of App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs. To begin with, the Central Registry will be maintained by C-DoT.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Union Cabinet has recently given its approval for the proposal of DoT for setting up of Public Wi-Fi Networks by Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) to provide public Wi-Fi service through Public Data Offices (PDOs) spread across length and breadth of the country to accelerate proliferation of Broadband Internet services through Public Wi-Fi network in the country. There shall be no license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.
Salient Features:
–This Public Wi-Fi Access Network Interface will be known as PM-WANI.PM-WANI eco-system will be operated by different players as described herein under:
–Public Data Office (PDO): It will establish, maintain, and operate only WANI compliant Wi-Fi Access Points and deliver broadband services to subscribers.
–Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): It will be an aggregator of PDOs and perform the functions relating to Authorization and Accounting.
–App Provider: It will develop an App to register users and discover WANI compliant Wi-Fi hotspots in the nearby area and display the same within the App for accessing the internet service.
–Central Registry: It will maintain the details of App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs. To begin with, the Central Registry will be maintained by C-DoT.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are examples of the machine learning (ML)?
- Digital assistants playing music in response to voice commands
- Spam detectors stop unwanted emails from reaching mailboxes
- Self-driving cars
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Machine learning is a method of data analysis that automates analytical model building. It is a branch of artificial intelligence based on the idea that systems can learn from data, identify patterns and make decisions with minimal human intervention.
Examples of machine learning: Digital assistants search the web and play music in response to our voice commands. Websites recommend products and movies and songs based on what we bought, watched, or listened to before. Spam detectors stop unwanted emails from reaching our inboxes. Medical image analysis systems help doctors spot tumors they might have missed. And the first self-driving cars like Tesla are hitting the road.
Incorrect
Machine learning is a method of data analysis that automates analytical model building. It is a branch of artificial intelligence based on the idea that systems can learn from data, identify patterns and make decisions with minimal human intervention.
Examples of machine learning: Digital assistants search the web and play music in response to our voice commands. Websites recommend products and movies and songs based on what we bought, watched, or listened to before. Spam detectors stop unwanted emails from reaching our inboxes. Medical image analysis systems help doctors spot tumors they might have missed. And the first self-driving cars like Tesla are hitting the road.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘Quantum Supremacy’?
Correct
The original meaning of the term “quantum supremacy,” as proposed by John Preskill in 2012, is to describe the point where quantum computers can do things that classical computers can’t.
Google in 2019 said that its 54-qubit Sycamore processor was able to perform a calculation in 200 seconds that would have taken the world’s most powerful supercomputer 10,000 years. That would mean the calculation, which involved generated random numbers, is essentially impossible on a traditional, non-quantum computer.
Recently a Chinese team, based primarily at the University of Science and Technology of China in Hefei, reported their quantum computer, named Jiuzhang, is 10 billion times faster than Google’s.
Assuming both claims hold up, Jiuzhang would be the second quantum computer to achieve quantum supremacy anywhere in the world.
# Where classical computers perform calculations using bits, which can have one of two states (typically represented by a 1 or a 0), quantum bits, or qubits, can exist in many states simultaneously. This allows them to solve problems more quickly than classical computers.
Incorrect
The original meaning of the term “quantum supremacy,” as proposed by John Preskill in 2012, is to describe the point where quantum computers can do things that classical computers can’t.
Google in 2019 said that its 54-qubit Sycamore processor was able to perform a calculation in 200 seconds that would have taken the world’s most powerful supercomputer 10,000 years. That would mean the calculation, which involved generated random numbers, is essentially impossible on a traditional, non-quantum computer.
Recently a Chinese team, based primarily at the University of Science and Technology of China in Hefei, reported their quantum computer, named Jiuzhang, is 10 billion times faster than Google’s.
Assuming both claims hold up, Jiuzhang would be the second quantum computer to achieve quantum supremacy anywhere in the world.
# Where classical computers perform calculations using bits, which can have one of two states (typically represented by a 1 or a 0), quantum bits, or qubits, can exist in many states simultaneously. This allows them to solve problems more quickly than classical computers.
IT, Robotics and computer related 2
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- Question 1 of 14
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Narrow Band-Internet of Things (NB-IoT):
- It is a low power wide area network (LPWAN) technology.
- NB-IoT is compatible with existing cellular network infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
NarrowBand-Internet of Things (NB-IoT) is a specification developed by 3GPP. It is a standards-based low power wide area (LPWA) technology developed to enable a wide range of new IoT devices and services. NB-IoT significantly improves the power consumption of user devices, system capacity and spectrum efficiency, especially in deep coverage.
NB-IoT is an ‘industrial grade’ LPWA solution – it runs on licenced spectrum which guarantees quality of service and a future-proofed capability. It’s a cellular technology related to LTE, supports two-way communications and is designed specifically for LPWA applications
It has low device cost, and compatibility with existing cellular network infrastructure, with the same level of security as LTE.
# BSNL, in partnership with Skylo, to introduce worlds’ first, satellite-based narrowband-IoT network in India.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
NarrowBand-Internet of Things (NB-IoT) is a specification developed by 3GPP. It is a standards-based low power wide area (LPWA) technology developed to enable a wide range of new IoT devices and services. NB-IoT significantly improves the power consumption of user devices, system capacity and spectrum efficiency, especially in deep coverage.
NB-IoT is an ‘industrial grade’ LPWA solution – it runs on licenced spectrum which guarantees quality of service and a future-proofed capability. It’s a cellular technology related to LTE, supports two-way communications and is designed specifically for LPWA applications
It has low device cost, and compatibility with existing cellular network infrastructure, with the same level of security as LTE.
# BSNL, in partnership with Skylo, to introduce worlds’ first, satellite-based narrowband-IoT network in India.
- Question 2 of 14
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Quantum Key Distribution (QKD):
- It works by transmitting polarized light particles over a fiber optic cable.
- It is a highly secure means of communication because of its ability to detect any intrusion on the QKD transmission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) works by transmitting millions of polarized light particles (photons) over a fiber optic cable from one entity to another. Each photon has a random quantum state, and collectively all the photons create a bit stream of ones and zeros.
Statement 2 is correct. The security of QKD stems from the ability to detect any intrusion on the QKD transmission. Because of the unique and fragile properties of photons, any third party (or eavesdropper) who tries to read or copy the photons in any way will change the photons’ state.
The change will be detected by the endpoints, alerting them that the key has been tampered with and must be discarded. A new key is then transmitted.
# A milestone of this project was achieved recently when DRDO developed Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology underwent trials in Hyderabad between two DRDO labs, DRDL and RCI, to show secure communication.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) works by transmitting millions of polarized light particles (photons) over a fiber optic cable from one entity to another. Each photon has a random quantum state, and collectively all the photons create a bit stream of ones and zeros.
Statement 2 is correct. The security of QKD stems from the ability to detect any intrusion on the QKD transmission. Because of the unique and fragile properties of photons, any third party (or eavesdropper) who tries to read or copy the photons in any way will change the photons’ state.
The change will be detected by the endpoints, alerting them that the key has been tampered with and must be discarded. A new key is then transmitted.
# A milestone of this project was achieved recently when DRDO developed Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology underwent trials in Hyderabad between two DRDO labs, DRDL and RCI, to show secure communication.
- Question 3 of 14
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following frequency spectrum is/are used in cellular communication networks?
- 900MHz
- 1800MHz
- 2100MHz
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Commonly used bands for cellular communication are 800MHz, 900MHz, 1800MHz, 2100MHz, and 2300MHz. Beyond that are the unlicensed bands used for technology such as Wi-Fi and Bluetooth – Wi-Fi used to be 2.4GHz (2400MHz) and has started to shift to the 5GHz band.
The Union Cabinet has approved a proposal of the Department of Telecommunications to conduct spectrum auction through which spectrum will be assigned to the successful bidders for providing commercial mobile services.
The auction will be for spectrum in 700 MHz, 800 MHz, 900 MHz, 1800 MHz, 2100 MHz, 2300 MHz and 2500 MHz frequency bands.
Incorrect
Commonly used bands for cellular communication are 800MHz, 900MHz, 1800MHz, 2100MHz, and 2300MHz. Beyond that are the unlicensed bands used for technology such as Wi-Fi and Bluetooth – Wi-Fi used to be 2.4GHz (2400MHz) and has started to shift to the 5GHz band.
The Union Cabinet has approved a proposal of the Department of Telecommunications to conduct spectrum auction through which spectrum will be assigned to the successful bidders for providing commercial mobile services.
The auction will be for spectrum in 700 MHz, 800 MHz, 900 MHz, 1800 MHz, 2100 MHz, 2300 MHz and 2500 MHz frequency bands.
- Question 4 of 14
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding frequency spectrums:
- Unlicensed frequency bands have limited applications and are designated for certain specific types of use.
- The frequency band for FM radio is about 88 to 108 MHz.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
At the broadest level, spectrum is regulated in two ways, it is either managed through a spectrum licence or it is licence exempt (i.e. unlicensed).
The vast majority of radio spectrum is licensed and encompasses a range of technologies that operate with enough power to allow the services to cover a relatively wide area.
Licence holders include commercial organisations, such as TV and radio broadcasters or mobile operators, and non-commercial organisations, such as the emergency services and the military.
The frequency band for FM radio is about 88 to 108 MHz.
Unlicensed frequency bands have more limited applications and are designated for certain specific types of use. There is no need for a licence from the regulator as long as the devices used meet certain technical standards in order to minimise interference.
The most notable examples of ‘unlicensed’ technologies are Wi-Fi and Bluetooth, which both operate in the 2.4 GHz band, other examples are cordless telephones, baby monitors, car key fobs and garage door openers.
Incorrect
At the broadest level, spectrum is regulated in two ways, it is either managed through a spectrum licence or it is licence exempt (i.e. unlicensed).
The vast majority of radio spectrum is licensed and encompasses a range of technologies that operate with enough power to allow the services to cover a relatively wide area.
Licence holders include commercial organisations, such as TV and radio broadcasters or mobile operators, and non-commercial organisations, such as the emergency services and the military.
The frequency band for FM radio is about 88 to 108 MHz.
Unlicensed frequency bands have more limited applications and are designated for certain specific types of use. There is no need for a licence from the regulator as long as the devices used meet certain technical standards in order to minimise interference.
The most notable examples of ‘unlicensed’ technologies are Wi-Fi and Bluetooth, which both operate in the 2.4 GHz band, other examples are cordless telephones, baby monitors, car key fobs and garage door openers.
- Question 5 of 14
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Hololens – is a stand-alone mixed reality holographic headset” is often seen in news is developed by which of the following?
Correct
Microsoft HoloLens, known under development as Project Baraboo, is a stand-alone mixed reality holographic headset specifically designed to be used on the Windows 10 platform.
HoloLens allows users to experience 3D holographic images as though they are a part of their environment.
It can help doctors to see through the organs and tissues in the operating theatre.
Incorrect
Microsoft HoloLens, known under development as Project Baraboo, is a stand-alone mixed reality holographic headset specifically designed to be used on the Windows 10 platform.
HoloLens allows users to experience 3D holographic images as though they are a part of their environment.
It can help doctors to see through the organs and tissues in the operating theatre.
- Question 6 of 14
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Zero-day attacks” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Cyber security experts have found zero-day vulnerability in Windows, allowing attackers to gain higher privileges on the target machine and dodging protection mechanisms in the Google Chrome browser.
The newly discovered exploit was used in the malicious WizardOpium operation.
A zero day exploit is a cyber-attack that occurs on the same day a weakness is discovered in software.
At that point, it is exploited before a fix becomes available from its creator.
Zero-day vulnerabilities are basically bugs in software, which leaves the doors open for cyber criminals to break into the system.
Incorrect
Cyber security experts have found zero-day vulnerability in Windows, allowing attackers to gain higher privileges on the target machine and dodging protection mechanisms in the Google Chrome browser.
The newly discovered exploit was used in the malicious WizardOpium operation.
A zero day exploit is a cyber-attack that occurs on the same day a weakness is discovered in software.
At that point, it is exploited before a fix becomes available from its creator.
Zero-day vulnerabilities are basically bugs in software, which leaves the doors open for cyber criminals to break into the system.
- Question 7 of 14
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Operation Shadow Hammer” is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Maharashtra Cyber Department has issued advisory warning users of ASUS, a reputed computer manufacturer that came under attack.
- The Cyber police officers said the attack, named Operation Shadow Hammer, affected the ASUS Live Update Utility, which automatically downloads updates for its systems and applications.
Officials said the attack created back doors in the computers using a MAC address.
Incorrect
The Maharashtra Cyber Department has issued advisory warning users of ASUS, a reputed computer manufacturer that came under attack.
- The Cyber police officers said the attack, named Operation Shadow Hammer, affected the ASUS Live Update Utility, which automatically downloads updates for its systems and applications.
Officials said the attack created back doors in the computers using a MAC address.
- Question 8 of 14
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the “National Supercomputing Mission”:
1. Mission launched in 12th Plan period.
2. It was implemented jointly by Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Mission, launched in 2015, envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high performance computing facilities.
The mission would be implemented jointly by Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) through two organizations the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore.
The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities.
Incorrect
The Mission, launched in 2015, envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high performance computing facilities.
The mission would be implemented jointly by Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) through two organizations the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore.
The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities.
- Question 9 of 14
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Ramanujan Machine:
- It is developed by scientists from Technion — Israel Institute of Technology.
- It is a computer machine that performs high end data assessment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Scientists from Technion — Israel Institute of Technology has developed a concept they have named the Ramanujan Machine, after the Indian mathematician.
It is not really a machine but an algorithm, and performs a very unconventional function.
With most computer programs, humans input a problem and expect the algorithm to work out a solution.
With the Ramanujan Machine, it works the other way round. Feed in a constant, say the well-know pi, and the algorithm will come up with a equation involving an infinite series whose value, it will propose, is exactly pi. Over to humans now: let someone prove that this proposed equation is correct
Incorrect
Scientists from Technion — Israel Institute of Technology has developed a concept they have named the Ramanujan Machine, after the Indian mathematician.
It is not really a machine but an algorithm, and performs a very unconventional function.
With most computer programs, humans input a problem and expect the algorithm to work out a solution.
With the Ramanujan Machine, it works the other way round. Feed in a constant, say the well-know pi, and the algorithm will come up with a equation involving an infinite series whose value, it will propose, is exactly pi. Over to humans now: let someone prove that this proposed equation is correct
- Question 10 of 14
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Vyommitra” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Vyommitra.
- Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) unveiled its first ‘woman’
astronaut, named Vyom Mitra who will ride to space in the first test flight of
the human space mission, Gaganyaan.
- She is half-humanoid and her body stops at the torso and has no legs. She is
capable of switching panel operations, performing Environment Control and Life
Support Systems (ECLSS) functions, conversations with the astronauts, recognising
them and solving their queries.
Incorrect
Vyommitra.
- Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) unveiled its first ‘woman’
astronaut, named Vyom Mitra who will ride to space in the first test flight of
the human space mission, Gaganyaan.
- She is half-humanoid and her body stops at the torso and has no legs. She is
capable of switching panel operations, performing Environment Control and Life
Support Systems (ECLSS) functions, conversations with the astronauts, recognising
them and solving their queries.
- Question 11 of 14
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Quantum Computers”?
- Quantum computers use logical units called quantum bits that can be put into a
quantum state where they can simultaneously represent both 0 and 1.
- Quantum computers works at a temperature of -273 °C (-459 °F) with hardly any
atmospheric pressure and isolated from Earth’s magnetic field.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Quantum Computers work by harnessing the properties of quantum
mechanics.
Statement 1 is correct: As the reality of a quantum computer comes closer, it is useful for
us to understand both how one functions and how it’s different from a traditional
computer. The first thing to bear in mind is that they use different basic units of data: ‘bits’
and ‘qubits’.
- Every element of a classical computer is written in binary code (1s and 0s) and is
translated into electricity: high voltage is represented by 1, and low voltage by 0.
- In quantum computing, qubits are the basic unit and their value can be 1, 0, or
1 and 0 simultaneously, overlapping (superposition) and intertwining
(entanglement) according to the laws of physics.
- This means that qubits, as opposed to bits, can take on various values at one time
and can perform calculations that a conventional computer cannot.
Statement 2 is correct: The classical computer, if there is interference with the system;
the system can correct itself and continue running. For the time being, this is not the case
with quantum computers.
- “External disturbances force the system to define itself as 1 or 0, causing it to lose
its quantum coherence.
- To avoid this kind of external ‘noise,’ the system has to be completely isolated: the
atoms have to be very quiet, ensuring nothing makes them collide or interact with
the surroundings.
- Quantum computers have to be at a temperature of -273 °C (-459 °F) with
hardly any atmospheric pressure and isolated from Earth’s magnetic field.
Incorrect
Quantum Computers work by harnessing the properties of quantum
mechanics.
Statement 1 is correct: As the reality of a quantum computer comes closer, it is useful for
us to understand both how one functions and how it’s different from a traditional
computer. The first thing to bear in mind is that they use different basic units of data: ‘bits’
and ‘qubits’.
- Every element of a classical computer is written in binary code (1s and 0s) and is
translated into electricity: high voltage is represented by 1, and low voltage by 0.
- In quantum computing, qubits are the basic unit and their value can be 1, 0, or
1 and 0 simultaneously, overlapping (superposition) and intertwining
(entanglement) according to the laws of physics.
- This means that qubits, as opposed to bits, can take on various values at one time
and can perform calculations that a conventional computer cannot.
Statement 2 is correct: The classical computer, if there is interference with the system;
the system can correct itself and continue running. For the time being, this is not the case
with quantum computers.
- “External disturbances force the system to define itself as 1 or 0, causing it to lose
its quantum coherence.
- To avoid this kind of external ‘noise,’ the system has to be completely isolated: the
atoms have to be very quiet, ensuring nothing makes them collide or interact with
the surroundings.
- Quantum computers have to be at a temperature of -273 °C (-459 °F) with
hardly any atmospheric pressure and isolated from Earth’s magnetic field.
- Question 12 of 14
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “FrogPhone”?
- World’s first solar-powered remote survey device that can be installed at any frog pond
and which receives a 5G cellular network.
- With FrogPhone, researchers can call a frog habitat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
: FrogPhone.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Researchers have developed a device that will allow scientists to
monitor frogs in the wild. Described as the world’s first solar-powered remote survey
device that can be installed at any frog pond and which receives a 3G or 4G cellular
network, it has been named “FrogPhone”. It has been developed by a team from various
Australian institutions, including the University of New South Wales and the University of
Canberra. A field trial conducted between August 2017 and March 2018 in Canberra proved
successful.
Statement 2 is correct: With FrogPhone, researchers can simply “call” a frog habitat.
After a call is made to one of the FrogPhones already on a site, the device will take three
seconds to receive it. During these few seconds, the device’s temperature sensors will get
activated and environmental data such as air temperature, water temperature and battery
voltage will be sent to the caller’s phone via a text message.
Incorrect
: FrogPhone.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Researchers have developed a device that will allow scientists to
monitor frogs in the wild. Described as the world’s first solar-powered remote survey
device that can be installed at any frog pond and which receives a 3G or 4G cellular
network, it has been named “FrogPhone”. It has been developed by a team from various
Australian institutions, including the University of New South Wales and the University of
Canberra. A field trial conducted between August 2017 and March 2018 in Canberra proved
successful.
Statement 2 is correct: With FrogPhone, researchers can simply “call” a frog habitat.
After a call is made to one of the FrogPhones already on a site, the device will take three
seconds to receive it. During these few seconds, the device’s temperature sensors will get
activated and environmental data such as air temperature, water temperature and battery
voltage will be sent to the caller’s phone via a text message.
- Question 13 of 14
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Government Instant Messaging
System (GIMS):
- GIMS is the instant messaging platform for Government communication.
- GIMS is being packaged for employees of Central, State and Local government
departments and organizations for intra and inter organization communications.
- Like WhatsApp, GIMS employs end-to-end encryption for one-to-one messaging.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
GIMS is the instant messaging platform for Government communication.
- GIMS platform provides GIMS mobile client for instant messaging and GIMS Portal
for administration and monitoring of platform.
- Designed to suit the hierarchy and communication policies of the government.
- Adaptable to both the central and state government organizations for intra and
inter organization communication.
- It is being developed as a secure Indian alternative without the security concerns
attached with apps hosted abroad or those owned by foreign entities.
- Like WhatsApp, GIMS employs end-to-end encryption for one-to-one
messaging.
Incorrect
GIMS is the instant messaging platform for Government communication.
- GIMS platform provides GIMS mobile client for instant messaging and GIMS Portal
for administration and monitoring of platform.
- Designed to suit the hierarchy and communication policies of the government.
- Adaptable to both the central and state government organizations for intra and
inter organization communication.
- It is being developed as a secure Indian alternative without the security concerns
attached with apps hosted abroad or those owned by foreign entities.
- Like WhatsApp, GIMS employs end-to-end encryption for one-to-one
messaging.
- Question 14 of 14
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently which state police has adopted a unique bar-coding software – Trakea – to
ensure that thousands of forensic reports that form the backbone of the criminal
investigation system?
Correct
Haryana Police has adopted a unique barcoding software — Trakea — to
ensure that thousands of forensic reports that form the backbone of the criminal
investigation system and subsequent trials in the courts of law, are not tampered with.
- According to the police, Trakea ensures foolproof security of the samples
collected from the scene of crime, and the forensic analysis reports, and is
different from traditional methods that the state police force has been following for
decades.
- Haryana Police claims it is the country’s first police force to have introduced
this unique barcoding for forensic reports.
Incorrect
Haryana Police has adopted a unique barcoding software — Trakea — to
ensure that thousands of forensic reports that form the backbone of the criminal
investigation system and subsequent trials in the courts of law, are not tampered with.
- According to the police, Trakea ensures foolproof security of the samples
collected from the scene of crime, and the forensic analysis reports, and is
different from traditional methods that the state police force has been following for
decades.
- Haryana Police claims it is the country’s first police force to have introduced
this unique barcoding for forensic reports.
Space Technology
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Clavius Crater was in news recently, where is it located?
Correct
Clavius is one of the largest crater formations on the Moon and the second largest crater on the visible near side.
NASA’s Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA) has confirmed, for the first time, water on the sunlit surface of the Moon. This discovery indicates that water may be distributed across the lunar surface, and not limited to cold, shadowed places.
SOFIA has detected water molecules (H2O) in Clavius Crater, one of the largest craters visible from Earth, located in the Moon’s southern hemisphere.Incorrect
Clavius is one of the largest crater formations on the Moon and the second largest crater on the visible near side.
NASA’s Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA) has confirmed, for the first time, water on the sunlit surface of the Moon. This discovery indicates that water may be distributed across the lunar surface, and not limited to cold, shadowed places.
SOFIA has detected water molecules (H2O) in Clavius Crater, one of the largest craters visible from Earth, located in the Moon’s southern hemisphere. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the asteroid 16 Psyche:
1. It orbits in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
2. It is a metallic asteroid comprised mostly of metallic iron and nickel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
16 Psyche is a giant metal asteroid, about three times farther away from the sun than is the Earth. Its average diameter is about 140 miles (226 kilometers) — about one-sixteenth the diameter of Earth’s Moon. Psyche orbits the Sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Unlike most other asteroids that are rocky or icy bodies, scientists think the M-type (metallic) asteroid 16 Psyche is comprised mostly of metallic iron and nickel similar to Earth’s core. Scientists wonder whether Psyche could be an exposed core of an early planet that lost its rocky outer layers due to a number of violent collisions billions of years ago.
NASA’s Psyche mission is targeted to launch in August of 2022, the Psyche spacecraft would arrive at the asteroid in early 2026, following a Mars gravity assist in 2023.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
16 Psyche is a giant metal asteroid, about three times farther away from the sun than is the Earth. Its average diameter is about 140 miles (226 kilometers) — about one-sixteenth the diameter of Earth’s Moon. Psyche orbits the Sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Unlike most other asteroids that are rocky or icy bodies, scientists think the M-type (metallic) asteroid 16 Psyche is comprised mostly of metallic iron and nickel similar to Earth’s core. Scientists wonder whether Psyche could be an exposed core of an early planet that lost its rocky outer layers due to a number of violent collisions billions of years ago.
NASA’s Psyche mission is targeted to launch in August of 2022, the Psyche spacecraft would arrive at the asteroid in early 2026, following a Mars gravity assist in 2023. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Kessler syndrome?
Correct
The Kessler syndrome, also called the Kessler effect, collisional cascading or ablation cascade, is a scenario in which the density of objects in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is high enough that collisions between objects could cause a cascade where each collision generates space debris that increases the likelihood of further collisions.
# According to European Space Agency, the number of space debris objects in Earth’s orbit is 6.7 lakh (larger than 1 cm) and over 17 crore (larger than 1 mm).Incorrect
The Kessler syndrome, also called the Kessler effect, collisional cascading or ablation cascade, is a scenario in which the density of objects in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is high enough that collisions between objects could cause a cascade where each collision generates space debris that increases the likelihood of further collisions.
# According to European Space Agency, the number of space debris objects in Earth’s orbit is 6.7 lakh (larger than 1 cm) and over 17 crore (larger than 1 mm). - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs):
1.These are super intense, millisecond-long bursts of radio waves.
2.FRBs have been theoretically predicted but are yet to be recorded in the Milky Way galaxy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Fast radio bursts (FRBs) are super intense, millisecond-long bursts of radio waves produced by unidentified sources in the distant cosmos.
Statement 2 is incorrect. NASA has reported that on April 28, it observed a mix of X-ray and radio signals never observed before in the Milky Way. Significantly, the flare-up it observed included the first fast radio burst (FRB) seen within the galaxy.
It was detected by several satellites including NASA’s Wind mission and Canadian Hydrogen Intensity Mapping Experiment (CHIME), a radio telescope located in British Columbia.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Fast radio bursts (FRBs) are super intense, millisecond-long bursts of radio waves produced by unidentified sources in the distant cosmos.
Statement 2 is incorrect. NASA has reported that on April 28, it observed a mix of X-ray and radio signals never observed before in the Milky Way. Significantly, the flare-up it observed included the first fast radio burst (FRB) seen within the galaxy.
It was detected by several satellites including NASA’s Wind mission and Canadian Hydrogen Intensity Mapping Experiment (CHIME), a radio telescope located in British Columbia. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Anti-Satellite (ASAT) Missile:
1.India conducted a successful ASAT test with Mission Shakti.
2.India is the only Asian country to have demonstrated the anti-satellite weapon technology till date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. ‘Mission Shakti’ was India’s first ever Anti-Satellite (ASAT) Missile Test successfully conducted on 27th March 2019 from Dr AP J Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha, where a fast-moving Indian orbiting target satellite in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) was neutralized with pinpoint accuracy.
Statement 2 is incorrect. China conducted its first acknowledged test of an anti-satellite missile in 2007. Apart from India and China, USA and Russia possess the anti-satellite weapons technology.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. ‘Mission Shakti’ was India’s first ever Anti-Satellite (ASAT) Missile Test successfully conducted on 27th March 2019 from Dr AP J Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha, where a fast-moving Indian orbiting target satellite in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) was neutralized with pinpoint accuracy.
Statement 2 is incorrect. China conducted its first acknowledged test of an anti-satellite missile in 2007. Apart from India and China, USA and Russia possess the anti-satellite weapons technology. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Thirty Meter Telescope project:
1. It is being installed in Maunkea, Hawaii.
2. India is a partner in construction of this the next-generation observatory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Thirty Meter Telescope is a new class of extremely large telescopes that will allow us to see deeper into space and observe cosmic objects with unprecedented sensitivity. With its 30 m prime mirror diameter, TMT will be three times as wide, with nine times more area, than the largest currently existing visible-light telescope in the world.
The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project being installed at Maunakea in Hawaii is an international partnership between CalTech, Universities of California, Canada, Japan, China, and India; through the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Thirty Meter Telescope is a new class of extremely large telescopes that will allow us to see deeper into space and observe cosmic objects with unprecedented sensitivity. With its 30 m prime mirror diameter, TMT will be three times as wide, with nine times more area, than the largest currently existing visible-light telescope in the world.
The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project being installed at Maunakea in Hawaii is an international partnership between CalTech, Universities of California, Canada, Japan, China, and India; through the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the objective of the recently launched EOS-01 satellite?
Correct
India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its fifty first flight (PSLV-C49), successfully launched EOS-01 along with nine international customer satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota on November 07, 2020.
EOS-01 is an earth observation satellite, intended for applications in agriculture, forestry and disaster management support.
EOS-01 is nothing but another Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT) that will work together with RISAT-2B and RISAT-2BR1 launched last year. EOS-01 was initially named RISAT-2BR2.
With EOS-01, ISRO is moving to a new naming system for its earth observation satellites which till now have been named thematically, according to the purpose they are meant for.Incorrect
India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its fifty first flight (PSLV-C49), successfully launched EOS-01 along with nine international customer satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota on November 07, 2020.
EOS-01 is an earth observation satellite, intended for applications in agriculture, forestry and disaster management support.
EOS-01 is nothing but another Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT) that will work together with RISAT-2B and RISAT-2BR1 launched last year. EOS-01 was initially named RISAT-2BR2.
With EOS-01, ISRO is moving to a new naming system for its earth observation satellites which till now have been named thematically, according to the purpose they are meant for. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology‘Apophis’ has been in news recently, what is it?
Correct
Asteroid 99942 Apophis is a near-Earth asteroid more than 1000 feet (over 300 meters) in size that will harmlessly pass close to Earth on April 13, 2029.
Astronomers now have revealed that a large asteroid named ‘Apophis’ expected to pass extremely close or may hit the Earth in 2068 due to a phenomenon called Yarkovsky effect. Researchers at the University of Hawaii Institute for Astronomy (IfA) in the US, have announced the detection of Yarkovsky acceleration on the near-Earth asteroid Apophis.
The Yarkovsky effect describes a small but significant force that affects the orbital motion of small meteoroids and asteroids. It is caused by sunlight; when these bodies heat up in the Sun, they eventually re-radiate the energy away as heat, which in turn creates a tiny thrust.Incorrect
Asteroid 99942 Apophis is a near-Earth asteroid more than 1000 feet (over 300 meters) in size that will harmlessly pass close to Earth on April 13, 2029.
Astronomers now have revealed that a large asteroid named ‘Apophis’ expected to pass extremely close or may hit the Earth in 2068 due to a phenomenon called Yarkovsky effect. Researchers at the University of Hawaii Institute for Astronomy (IfA) in the US, have announced the detection of Yarkovsky acceleration on the near-Earth asteroid Apophis.
The Yarkovsky effect describes a small but significant force that affects the orbital motion of small meteoroids and asteroids. It is caused by sunlight; when these bodies heat up in the Sun, they eventually re-radiate the energy away as heat, which in turn creates a tiny thrust. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyCrew Dragon spacecraft belongs to which of the following space agency/corporation?
Correct
The Crew Dragon is a class of reusable spacecraft developed and manufactured by American aerospace manufacturer SpaceX.
The SpaceX Crew Dragon, including the Falcon 9 rocket and associated ground systems, is the first new, crew spacecraft to be NASA-certified for regular flights with astronauts since the space shuttle nearly 40 years ago.
SpaceX’s Crew Dragon spacecraft will lift off from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida carrying a crew of four people to the International Space Station (ISS) on a six-month-long mission on Nov 14.Incorrect
The Crew Dragon is a class of reusable spacecraft developed and manufactured by American aerospace manufacturer SpaceX.
The SpaceX Crew Dragon, including the Falcon 9 rocket and associated ground systems, is the first new, crew spacecraft to be NASA-certified for regular flights with astronauts since the space shuttle nearly 40 years ago.
SpaceX’s Crew Dragon spacecraft will lift off from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida carrying a crew of four people to the International Space Station (ISS) on a six-month-long mission on Nov 14. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS):
1.It aims to provide Standard Positioning Service (SPS) to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), an encrypted service only to the authorized users.
2.It has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area.
An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.
IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Statement 2 is correct. It has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
This will enable merchant vessels to use IRNSS for obtaining position information similar to GPS and GLONASS to assist in the navigation of ships in ocean waters within the area covered by 50°N latitude, 55°E longitude, 5°S latitude and 110°E longitude (approximately up to 1500 km from Indian boundary).
The Maritime Safety Committee (MSC) of IMO during its recent meeting (102nd session) held from 4 to 11 November 2020 has approved the recognition of the IRNSS as a component of the World-Wide Radio Navigation System.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area.
An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.
IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Statement 2 is correct. It has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
This will enable merchant vessels to use IRNSS for obtaining position information similar to GPS and GLONASS to assist in the navigation of ships in ocean waters within the area covered by 50°N latitude, 55°E longitude, 5°S latitude and 110°E longitude (approximately up to 1500 km from Indian boundary).
The Maritime Safety Committee (MSC) of IMO during its recent meeting (102nd session) held from 4 to 11 November 2020 has approved the recognition of the IRNSS as a component of the World-Wide Radio Navigation System. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Solar flares:
1. These are sudden explosions of energy from the solar surface.
2. The radiation it releases can interfere with radio communications on Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The surface of the Sun has electrically charged gases that generate areas of powerful magnetic forces. These areas are called magnetic fields. The Sun’s gases are constantly moving, which tangles, stretches and twists the magnetic fields. This motion creates a lot of activity on the Sun’s surface, called solar activity.
The magnetic field lines near sunspots often tangle, cross, and reorganize. This can cause a sudden explosion of energy called a solar flare. Solar flares release a lot of radiation into space. If a solar flare is very intense, the radiation it releases can interfere with our radio communications here on Earth.
# Recently, the solar physicists at Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) Nainital, along with their collaborators from the Instituto de Astrofísica de Canarias (IAC), Tenerife, Spain and the University of Oslo, Norway, used the imaging observations from NASA’s Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO), and Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SoHO), and KCor coronagraph in Mauna Loa Solar Observatory (US), to observe a very hot current sheet with temperature over 20 million Kelvin associated with the biggest solar flare of the decade observed on September 10, 2017.
# The research provides the first evidence of significant number of plasma blobs along with the current sheet in the wake of a solar flare that could help delve deeper into solar flares.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The surface of the Sun has electrically charged gases that generate areas of powerful magnetic forces. These areas are called magnetic fields. The Sun’s gases are constantly moving, which tangles, stretches and twists the magnetic fields. This motion creates a lot of activity on the Sun’s surface, called solar activity.
The magnetic field lines near sunspots often tangle, cross, and reorganize. This can cause a sudden explosion of energy called a solar flare. Solar flares release a lot of radiation into space. If a solar flare is very intense, the radiation it releases can interfere with our radio communications here on Earth.
# Recently, the solar physicists at Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) Nainital, along with their collaborators from the Instituto de Astrofísica de Canarias (IAC), Tenerife, Spain and the University of Oslo, Norway, used the imaging observations from NASA’s Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO), and Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SoHO), and KCor coronagraph in Mauna Loa Solar Observatory (US), to observe a very hot current sheet with temperature over 20 million Kelvin associated with the biggest solar flare of the decade observed on September 10, 2017.
# The research provides the first evidence of significant number of plasma blobs along with the current sheet in the wake of a solar flare that could help delve deeper into solar flares. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements correctly defines the Exoplanets?
Correct
All of the planets in our solar system orbit around the Sun. Planets that orbit around other stars are called exoplanets. Exoplanets are very hard to see directly with telescopes. They are hidden by the bright glare of the stars they orbit.
The prefix exo comes from the Greek and means outside; these worlds are far, far outside our own solar system.Incorrect
All of the planets in our solar system orbit around the Sun. Planets that orbit around other stars are called exoplanets. Exoplanets are very hard to see directly with telescopes. They are hidden by the bright glare of the stars they orbit.
The prefix exo comes from the Greek and means outside; these worlds are far, far outside our own solar system. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Yarkovsky effect?
Correct
The Yarkovsky effect describes a small but significant force that affects the orbital motion of meteoroids and asteroids smaller than 30-40 kilometers in diameter. It is caused by sunlight; when these bodies heat up in the Sun, they eventually re-radiate the energy away as heat, which in turn creates a tiny thrust.
Astronomers have revealed that a large asteroid named ‘Apophis’ expected to pass extremely close or may hit the Earth in 2068 due to a phenomenon called Yarkovsky effect.
Prior to the detection of Yarkovsky acceleration on Apophis, astronomers had concluded that a potential impact with Earth in 2068 was impossible. The detection of this effect acting on Apophis means that the 2068 impact scenario is still a possibility.Incorrect
The Yarkovsky effect describes a small but significant force that affects the orbital motion of meteoroids and asteroids smaller than 30-40 kilometers in diameter. It is caused by sunlight; when these bodies heat up in the Sun, they eventually re-radiate the energy away as heat, which in turn creates a tiny thrust.
Astronomers have revealed that a large asteroid named ‘Apophis’ expected to pass extremely close or may hit the Earth in 2068 due to a phenomenon called Yarkovsky effect.
Prior to the detection of Yarkovsky acceleration on Apophis, astronomers had concluded that a potential impact with Earth in 2068 was impossible. The detection of this effect acting on Apophis means that the 2068 impact scenario is still a possibility. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Chang’e-5 spacecraft:
1. It is targeted to land at the far-side of the moon.
2. The mission aims to bring back sample from the lunar surface to Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Chang’e-4 spacecraft made a soft touch down on the Moon’s far-side. The Chang’e-5 is going to target a nearside location called Mons Rümker, a high volcanic complex in a region known as Oceanus Procellarum.
Statement 2 is correct. It is a multi-step mission that involves an orbiter, a lander-ascender and finally a return component that uses a capsule to survive a fast and hot entry into Earth’s atmosphere at the end of the mission to bring back sample from Lunar surface.
# The last sample returned from the moon was delivered by the Soviet Union’s Luna 24 spacecraft in 1976.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Chang’e-4 spacecraft made a soft touch down on the Moon’s far-side. The Chang’e-5 is going to target a nearside location called Mons Rümker, a high volcanic complex in a region known as Oceanus Procellarum.
Statement 2 is correct. It is a multi-step mission that involves an orbiter, a lander-ascender and finally a return component that uses a capsule to survive a fast and hot entry into Earth’s atmosphere at the end of the mission to bring back sample from Lunar surface.
# The last sample returned from the moon was delivered by the Soviet Union’s Luna 24 spacecraft in 1976. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Shukrayaan mission:
1. It is a proposed space mission of ISRO to the planet closest to the Sun.
2. It is an orbiter and lander mission to study the topography of the planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Mercury is the planet closest to the Sun. Shukrayaan is a proposed mission to Venus (second closest planet).
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has short-listed 20 space-based experiment proposals, including from France, for its proposed Venus orbiter mission ‘Shukrayaan’ to study the planet for more than four years.
ISRO was earlier eyeing June, 2023 that has now been delayed due to pandemic, future launch opportunity is either in 2024 or 2026. The optimal launch window, when Venus is closest to the Earth comes about every 19 months.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Mercury is the planet closest to the Sun. Shukrayaan is a proposed mission to Venus (second closest planet).
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has short-listed 20 space-based experiment proposals, including from France, for its proposed Venus orbiter mission ‘Shukrayaan’ to study the planet for more than four years.
ISRO was earlier eyeing June, 2023 that has now been delayed due to pandemic, future launch opportunity is either in 2024 or 2026. The optimal launch window, when Venus is closest to the Earth comes about every 19 months. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Sentinel-6 satellite:
1. It is a joint endeavor of China and the United States of America.
2. It is aimed at monitoring the asteroids that have potential to impact Earth in near future.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
Sentinel-6 has been developed jointly by the European Space Agency (ESA), NASA, European Organisation for the Exploitation of Meteorological Satellites (Eumetsat), the USA’s National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and the EU, with contributions from France’s National Centre for Space Studies (CNES).
The Sentinel is a joint endeavour between Europe and the US, and will continue the measurements that have been made by a succession of spacecraft, called the Jason-Topex/Poseidon series, going back to 1992. It aims to collect the most accurate data yet on sea level and how it changes over time.
These earlier missions have shown unequivocally that sea levels globally are rising, at a rate in excess of 3mm per year over the 28-year period. And their most recent data even suggests there is acceleration under way, with levels recorded as going up at over 4mm per year.
# About one-third of the measured global sea-level rise on Earth is from the expansion of warming water, a key driver of which is climate change. The rest is largely from melting ice.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
Sentinel-6 has been developed jointly by the European Space Agency (ESA), NASA, European Organisation for the Exploitation of Meteorological Satellites (Eumetsat), the USA’s National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and the EU, with contributions from France’s National Centre for Space Studies (CNES).
The Sentinel is a joint endeavour between Europe and the US, and will continue the measurements that have been made by a succession of spacecraft, called the Jason-Topex/Poseidon series, going back to 1992. It aims to collect the most accurate data yet on sea level and how it changes over time.
These earlier missions have shown unequivocally that sea levels globally are rising, at a rate in excess of 3mm per year over the 28-year period. And their most recent data even suggests there is acceleration under way, with levels recorded as going up at over 4mm per year.
# About one-third of the measured global sea-level rise on Earth is from the expansion of warming water, a key driver of which is climate change. The rest is largely from melting ice. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhere is the Jezero Crater located?
Correct
Jezero Crater is the landing site for the Mars 2020 Perseverance Rover.
NASA chose Jezero crater as the landing site for the Perseverance rover because scientists believe the area was once flooded with water and was home to an ancient river delta.
More than 3.5 billion years ago, river channels spilled over the crater wall and created a lake. Scientists see evidence that water carried clay minerals from the surrounding area into the Crater Lake. Conceivably, microbial life could have lived in Jezero during one or more of these wet times. If so, signs of their remains might be found in lakebed or shoreline sediments
Incorrect
Jezero Crater is the landing site for the Mars 2020 Perseverance Rover.
NASA chose Jezero crater as the landing site for the Perseverance rover because scientists believe the area was once flooded with water and was home to an ancient river delta.
More than 3.5 billion years ago, river channels spilled over the crater wall and created a lake. Scientists see evidence that water carried clay minerals from the surrounding area into the Crater Lake. Conceivably, microbial life could have lived in Jezero during one or more of these wet times. If so, signs of their remains might be found in lakebed or shoreline sediments
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘Lyfe’ in the Universe in news recently?
Correct
A new research supported by NASA’s astrobiology programme has developed a novel and broader definition of life – called Lyfe- a definition that encapsulates life on Earth but also the possibility of “life not as we know it” elsewhere on the board.
The researchers developed the term lyfe and outlined ‘four pillars’ of the term’s definition. These four pillars (dissipation, autocatalysis, homeostasis, and learning) can be used to identify any system that could be defined as living. Based on these criteria, the authors discuss Life (e.g. life as we know it on Earth) as a single instance of the broader phenomenon dubbed Lyfe.
Perseverance rover of NASA has the primary goal of finding signs of past life on Mars.
Finding ‘life as we know it’ would be a rarest of rare case and would mean a life based on biology analogous to that found on Earth. Other possibility would be to find ‘life not as we know it’!
Lyfe offers a novel perspective on what we consider to be a ‘living state’ and could aid our understanding of what to look for in the search for life beyond Earth.
Incorrect
A new research supported by NASA’s astrobiology programme has developed a novel and broader definition of life – called Lyfe- a definition that encapsulates life on Earth but also the possibility of “life not as we know it” elsewhere on the board.
The researchers developed the term lyfe and outlined ‘four pillars’ of the term’s definition. These four pillars (dissipation, autocatalysis, homeostasis, and learning) can be used to identify any system that could be defined as living. Based on these criteria, the authors discuss Life (e.g. life as we know it on Earth) as a single instance of the broader phenomenon dubbed Lyfe.
Perseverance rover of NASA has the primary goal of finding signs of past life on Mars.
Finding ‘life as we know it’ would be a rarest of rare case and would mean a life based on biology analogous to that found on Earth. Other possibility would be to find ‘life not as we know it’!
Lyfe offers a novel perspective on what we consider to be a ‘living state’ and could aid our understanding of what to look for in the search for life beyond Earth.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Lidar (Light Detection and Ranging):
- It uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances.
- Lidar systems can measure natural as well as manmade environments with accuracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Lidar (Light Detection and Ranging) is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges to the Earth. These light pulses, combined with other data recorded by the airborne system, generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
From an airplane or helicopter, LiDAR systems send light to the ground. This pulse hits the ground and returns to the sensor. Then, it measures how long it takes for the light to return back to the sensor. By recording the return time, this is how LiDAR measures distance.
Digiantra Research and Technology (DRT), a space tech startup has developed India’s first In-orbit Space Debris Monitoring and tracking system based on the LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) technology.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Lidar (Light Detection and Ranging) is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges to the Earth. These light pulses, combined with other data recorded by the airborne system, generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
From an airplane or helicopter, LiDAR systems send light to the ground. This pulse hits the ground and returns to the sensor. Then, it measures how long it takes for the light to return back to the sensor. By recording the return time, this is how LiDAR measures distance.
Digiantra Research and Technology (DRT), a space tech startup has developed India’s first In-orbit Space Debris Monitoring and tracking system based on the LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) technology.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the BeiDou:
- It is the satellite navigation system of China.
- The area of coverage of the Beidou system is limited to the China’s territory only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. BeiDou is the Navigation Satellite System constellation developed and deployed by China. BeiDou offers its users all kinds of services. This includes accurate positioning upto 10m, navigation and timing, as well as short messaging communication.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Beidou system provides global coverage to its users. China in 2015 launched the third generation BeiDou system (BeiDou-3) for global coverage. It has recently declared completion and commissioning of BeiDou-3 Navigation Satellite System.
Other global navigation systems are GPS by USA, GLONASS by Russia and Galileo by European Union.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. BeiDou is the Navigation Satellite System constellation developed and deployed by China. BeiDou offers its users all kinds of services. This includes accurate positioning upto 10m, navigation and timing, as well as short messaging communication.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Beidou system provides global coverage to its users. China in 2015 launched the third generation BeiDou system (BeiDou-3) for global coverage. It has recently declared completion and commissioning of BeiDou-3 Navigation Satellite System.
Other global navigation systems are GPS by USA, GLONASS by Russia and Galileo by European Union.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Crew Dragon Endeavour:
- It is a spacecraft developed by the Roscosmos.
- It took its first crewed space flight in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Crew Dragon Endeavour is a spacecraft, manufactured and operated by SpaceX and used by NASA’s Commercial Crew Program.
Statement 2 is correct. It was launched successfully for the first time with crew on board in May 2020 by Falcon 9 rocket and has returned back to Earth with crew onboard on August 2nd 2020.
It is the spacecraft used in the first crewed orbital spaceflight from the United States since 2011 and the first crewed orbital spaceflight by a private company.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Crew Dragon Endeavour is a spacecraft, manufactured and operated by SpaceX and used by NASA’s Commercial Crew Program.
Statement 2 is correct. It was launched successfully for the first time with crew on board in May 2020 by Falcon 9 rocket and has returned back to Earth with crew onboard on August 2nd 2020.
It is the spacecraft used in the first crewed orbital spaceflight from the United States since 2011 and the first crewed orbital spaceflight by a private company.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Cryogenic Engines:
- Cryogenic engine uses Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen as propellants.
- It provides more thrust for every kilogram of propellant compared to solid and liquid propellant rocket stages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Cryogenic engines use Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen as propellants which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively.
A Cryogenic rocket stage is more efficient and provides more thrust for every kilogram of propellant it burns compared to solid and earth-storable liquid propellant rocket stages.
Specific impulse (a measure of the efficiency) achievable with cryogenic propellants (liquid Hydrogen and liquid Oxygen) is much higher compared to earth storable liquid and solid propellants, giving it a substantial payload advantage.
However, cryogenic stage is technically a very complex system compared to solid or earth-storable liquid propellant stages due to its use of propellants at extremely low temperatures and the associated thermal and structural problems.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Cryogenic engines use Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen as propellants which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively.
A Cryogenic rocket stage is more efficient and provides more thrust for every kilogram of propellant it burns compared to solid and earth-storable liquid propellant rocket stages.
Specific impulse (a measure of the efficiency) achievable with cryogenic propellants (liquid Hydrogen and liquid Oxygen) is much higher compared to earth storable liquid and solid propellants, giving it a substantial payload advantage.
However, cryogenic stage is technically a very complex system compared to solid or earth-storable liquid propellant stages due to its use of propellants at extremely low temperatures and the associated thermal and structural problems.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Raman’ rocket engine:
- It has been indigenously developed in India.
- ISRO has used the Raman Engine to power its Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Hyderabad-based startup Skyroot Aerospace recently declared that it has successfully tested an upper-stage rocket engine becoming the first Indian private company to build a homegrown rocket engine.
The engine Raman, named after Nobel laureate CV Raman has fewer parts and weighs lesser than a conventional rocket engine.
Statement 2 is incorrect. ISRO has not used the said engine. The Skyroot Aerospace aims to launch satellite by its vehicle Vikram-I into a lower earth orbit by end-2021.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Hyderabad-based startup Skyroot Aerospace recently declared that it has successfully tested an upper-stage rocket engine becoming the first Indian private company to build a homegrown rocket engine.
The engine Raman, named after Nobel laureate CV Raman has fewer parts and weighs lesser than a conventional rocket engine.
Statement 2 is incorrect. ISRO has not used the said engine. The Skyroot Aerospace aims to launch satellite by its vehicle Vikram-I into a lower earth orbit by end-2021.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Sunspots?
- They appear dark on the surface of the Sun because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface.
- Solar minimum refers to time when the Sun has the least sunspots.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun. They appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. The temperature of a sunspot is still very hot though—around 3,500 degrees Celsius!
Sunspots are relatively cool because they form at areas where magnetic fields are particularly strong. These magnetic fields are so strong that they keep some of the heat within the Sun from reaching the surface.
The Sun’s magnetic field goes through a cycle, called the solar cycle. Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field flips and the Sun’s north and south poles switch places.
-The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum: when the Sun has the least sunspots.
-The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum: when the Sun has the most sunspots.
-As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle begins.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun. They appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. The temperature of a sunspot is still very hot though—around 3,500 degrees Celsius!
Sunspots are relatively cool because they form at areas where magnetic fields are particularly strong. These magnetic fields are so strong that they keep some of the heat within the Sun from reaching the surface.
The Sun’s magnetic field goes through a cycle, called the solar cycle. Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field flips and the Sun’s north and south poles switch places.
-The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum: when the Sun has the least sunspots.
-The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum: when the Sun has the most sunspots.
-As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle begins.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the AstroSat:
- It is first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
- AstroSat is orbiting Earth in a Geo-Synchronous Orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
The payloads cover the energy bands of Ultraviolet (Near and Far), limited optical and X-ray regime.
One of the unique features of AstroSat mission is that it enables the simultaneous multi-wavelength observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite.
# AstroSat has detected extreme UV light from a galaxy called AUDFs01, 9.3 billion light-years away from Earth in a discovery by a global team led by scientists of the Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
Statement 2 is incorrect. AstroSat is a multi-wavelength astronomy mission on an IRS-class satellite in a 650-km, near-earth equatorial orbit. It was launched by the Indian launch vehicle PSLV from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota in 2015.
# Geosynchronous orbit is a high Earth orbit that allows satellites to match Earth’s rotation. Located at 22,236 miles (35,786 kilometers) above Earth’s equator, this position is a valuable spot for monitoring weather, communications and surveillance.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
The payloads cover the energy bands of Ultraviolet (Near and Far), limited optical and X-ray regime.
One of the unique features of AstroSat mission is that it enables the simultaneous multi-wavelength observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite.
# AstroSat has detected extreme UV light from a galaxy called AUDFs01, 9.3 billion light-years away from Earth in a discovery by a global team led by scientists of the Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
Statement 2 is incorrect. AstroSat is a multi-wavelength astronomy mission on an IRS-class satellite in a 650-km, near-earth equatorial orbit. It was launched by the Indian launch vehicle PSLV from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota in 2015.
# Geosynchronous orbit is a high Earth orbit that allows satellites to match Earth’s rotation. Located at 22,236 miles (35,786 kilometers) above Earth’s equator, this position is a valuable spot for monitoring weather, communications and surveillance.
Space Technology 2
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe)?
- IN-SPACe is to work as a single window nodal agency for usage of ISRO facilities by Non-Government-Private-Entities (NGPEs).
- It is to oversee the space activities of NGPEs including building of launch vehicles and satellites
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Both statements are correct.
IN-SPACe is to act as an autonomous body, under Department of Space, as a single window nodal agency for enabling and regulating space activities and usage of ISRO facilities by NGPEs.
It will permit and oversee the following activities of Non-Government-Private-Entities (NGPEs).
–Space activities including building of launch vehicles and satellites and providing space based services as per the definition of space activities.
Sharing of space infrastructure and premises under the control of ISRO with due considerations to on-going activities.
–Establishment of new space infrastructure and facilities, by NGPEs, in pursuance of space activities based on safety norms and other statutory guidelines and necessary clearances.
Initiation of launch campaign and launch, based on readiness of launch vehicle and spacecraft systems, ground and user segment.
Building, operation and control of spacecraft for registration as Indian Satellite by NGPEs and all the associated infrastructure for the same.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
IN-SPACe is to act as an autonomous body, under Department of Space, as a single window nodal agency for enabling and regulating space activities and usage of ISRO facilities by NGPEs.
It will permit and oversee the following activities of Non-Government-Private-Entities (NGPEs).
–Space activities including building of launch vehicles and satellites and providing space based services as per the definition of space activities.
Sharing of space infrastructure and premises under the control of ISRO with due considerations to on-going activities.
–Establishment of new space infrastructure and facilities, by NGPEs, in pursuance of space activities based on safety norms and other statutory guidelines and necessary clearances.
Initiation of launch campaign and launch, based on readiness of launch vehicle and spacecraft systems, ground and user segment.
Building, operation and control of spacecraft for registration as Indian Satellite by NGPEs and all the associated infrastructure for the same.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Australian Square Kilometre Array Pathfinder (ASKAP):
- It makes images of radio signals from the sky, allowing astronomers to view the Universe at wavelengths that our eyes cannot see.
- It uses many antennas acting together as one large telescope.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Australian Square Kilometre Array Pathfinder (ASKAP) is a new type of radio telescope designed and built by Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO).
The ASKAP telescope makes images of radio signals from the sky, allowing astronomers to view the Universe at wavelengths that our eyes cannot see.
It is a type of radio telescope known as an ‘interferometer’. This means it uses many antennas acting together as one large telescope. ASKAP is an array of 36 dish antennas each with a diameter of 12 metres and linked by fibre-optic cable, the antennas work together as one telescope.
ASKAP is located on the traditional lands of the Wajarri people in Western Australia.
# It has mapped over three million galaxies in a record 300 hours during its first all-sky survey. The initial results of this survey were published recently.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Australian Square Kilometre Array Pathfinder (ASKAP) is a new type of radio telescope designed and built by Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO).
The ASKAP telescope makes images of radio signals from the sky, allowing astronomers to view the Universe at wavelengths that our eyes cannot see.
It is a type of radio telescope known as an ‘interferometer’. This means it uses many antennas acting together as one large telescope. ASKAP is an array of 36 dish antennas each with a diameter of 12 metres and linked by fibre-optic cable, the antennas work together as one telescope.
ASKAP is located on the traditional lands of the Wajarri people in Western Australia.
# It has mapped over three million galaxies in a record 300 hours during its first all-sky survey. The initial results of this survey were published recently.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Geminids:
- These are annual meteor showers observed in month of December.
- These meteors originate from Ceres in the asteroid belt asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Geminids are widely recognized as the best annual meteor shower, occurring between Dec. 4 to Dec. 17.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The parent of the Geminids is 3200 Phaethon, which is arguably considered to be either an asteroid or an extinct comet. When the Earth passes through trails of dust, or meteoroids, left by 3200 Phaethon, that dust burns up in Earth’s atmosphere, creating the Geminid meteor shower.
All meteors associated with a shower have similar orbits, and they all appear to come from the same place in the sky, which is called the radiant. The Geminids appear to radiate from a point in the constellation Gemini, hence the name “Geminids.”
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Geminids are widely recognized as the best annual meteor shower, occurring between Dec. 4 to Dec. 17.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The parent of the Geminids is 3200 Phaethon, which is arguably considered to be either an asteroid or an extinct comet. When the Earth passes through trails of dust, or meteoroids, left by 3200 Phaethon, that dust burns up in Earth’s atmosphere, creating the Geminid meteor shower.
All meteors associated with a shower have similar orbits, and they all appear to come from the same place in the sky, which is called the radiant. The Geminids appear to radiate from a point in the constellation Gemini, hence the name “Geminids.”
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the CMS-01 satellite launched by ISRO recently:
- It is an Earth Observation Satellite aimed at environmental monitoring.
- It is to be placed in the Geostationary orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s communication satellite CMS-01 was successfully launched by PSLV-C50 on Wednesday December 17, 2020 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
The CMS-01 is envisaged to provide services in the Extended-C Band of the frequency spectrum whose coverage will include the Indian mainland, Andaman-Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. The satellite will be the first in a new series of communication satellites by India after the GSAT and INSAT series.
Statement 2 is correct. After injection, the solar panels of CMS-01 were automatically deployed and ISRO’s Master Control Facility at Hassan has assumed the control of the satellite. In the coming days, orbit raising manoeuvers will be executed to position the satellite in the Geostationary Orbit at its designated location.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s communication satellite CMS-01 was successfully launched by PSLV-C50 on Wednesday December 17, 2020 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
The CMS-01 is envisaged to provide services in the Extended-C Band of the frequency spectrum whose coverage will include the Indian mainland, Andaman-Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. The satellite will be the first in a new series of communication satellites by India after the GSAT and INSAT series.
Statement 2 is correct. After injection, the solar panels of CMS-01 were automatically deployed and ISRO’s Master Control Facility at Hassan has assumed the control of the satellite. In the coming days, orbit raising manoeuvers will be executed to position the satellite in the Geostationary Orbit at its designated location.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Project Loon:
- It aims to provide internet connectivity to remote parts of the world.
- It has been launched by the aerospace company SpaceX.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Project Loon, which comprises of helium-filled balloons that aim to deliver internet access to remote parts of the world. These high-altitude balloons are found in the stratosphere and create aerial wireless networks.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Project Loon belongs to Alphabet’s moonshot company X. (Alphabet is parent company of Google).
Last year, the subsidiary announced that its balloons reached 1 million hours of stratospheric flight. And in October, it was revealed that Loon set a new record for the longest stratospheric flight by staying in air for 312 days.
The balloons navigate up or down in the altitude to catch a favorable wind current that takes them to the desired direction. There is no manual control on when the helium balloons will ascend or descend. So, this decision is taken by the data mined by sophisticated algorithms.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Project Loon, which comprises of helium-filled balloons that aim to deliver internet access to remote parts of the world. These high-altitude balloons are found in the stratosphere and create aerial wireless networks.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Project Loon belongs to Alphabet’s moonshot company X. (Alphabet is parent company of Google).
Last year, the subsidiary announced that its balloons reached 1 million hours of stratospheric flight. And in October, it was revealed that Loon set a new record for the longest stratospheric flight by staying in air for 312 days.
The balloons navigate up or down in the altitude to catch a favorable wind current that takes them to the desired direction. There is no manual control on when the helium balloons will ascend or descend. So, this decision is taken by the data mined by sophisticated algorithms.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the DRDO Airborne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C) system:
- It is a system for detecting & tracking of hostile aircrafts or Unmanned Aerial Vehicles.
- The Netra AEW&C system operated by Indian Air Force uses Embraer aircraft as jet platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The DRDO Airborne Early Warning & Control System (AEW&C), is a force multiplier system of systems for detecting & tracking of enemy/hostile aircrafts/ UAVs etc. It also enables operators onboard and on ground to identify, assess the threat and take actions to guide our interceptors to those for neutralizing those threats.
Statement 2 is correct. The jet platform selected for the DRDO AEW&C Netra system is the Embraer EMB-145.
The Ministry of Defence recently approved a proposal in which Defence R&D Organisation (DRDO) will integrate airborne early warning radars and sensor on six Airbus A320 commercial airliners from national carrier Air India’s current fleet. The six aircraft are to be sent to France, where they will be refurbished and modified to Indian Air Force/DRDO specifications.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The DRDO Airborne Early Warning & Control System (AEW&C), is a force multiplier system of systems for detecting & tracking of enemy/hostile aircrafts/ UAVs etc. It also enables operators onboard and on ground to identify, assess the threat and take actions to guide our interceptors to those for neutralizing those threats.
Statement 2 is correct. The jet platform selected for the DRDO AEW&C Netra system is the Embraer EMB-145.
The Ministry of Defence recently approved a proposal in which Defence R&D Organisation (DRDO) will integrate airborne early warning radars and sensor on six Airbus A320 commercial airliners from national carrier Air India’s current fleet. The six aircraft are to be sent to France, where they will be refurbished and modified to Indian Air Force/DRDO specifications.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Saturn takes more than twice as much as years Jupiter takes to complete one revolution around Sun.
- Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In 1623, the solar system’s two giant planets, Jupiter and Saturn, traveled together across the sky. Jupiter caught up to and passed Saturn, in an astronomical event known as a “Great Conjunction.”
It’s been nearly 400 years since the planets passed this close to each other in the sky, and nearly 800 years since the alignment of Saturn and Jupiter occurred at night, as it happening in 2020, allowing nearly everyone around the world to witness this “great conjunction.”
Statement 1 is correct. Jupiter takes roughly 12 years to complete one lap around the Sun and Saturn takes 30 years.
Statement 2 is correct. Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system at nearly 11 times the size of Earth and 317 times its mass.
Despite its size, Jupiter has the shortest day of any other planet; it only takes about 10 hours for a complete rotation.
Incorrect
In 1623, the solar system’s two giant planets, Jupiter and Saturn, traveled together across the sky. Jupiter caught up to and passed Saturn, in an astronomical event known as a “Great Conjunction.”
It’s been nearly 400 years since the planets passed this close to each other in the sky, and nearly 800 years since the alignment of Saturn and Jupiter occurred at night, as it happening in 2020, allowing nearly everyone around the world to witness this “great conjunction.”
Statement 1 is correct. Jupiter takes roughly 12 years to complete one lap around the Sun and Saturn takes 30 years.
Statement 2 is correct. Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system at nearly 11 times the size of Earth and 317 times its mass.
Despite its size, Jupiter has the shortest day of any other planet; it only takes about 10 hours for a complete rotation.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Saggitarus *A” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The center of our Milky Way Galaxy is anchored by a black hole that is nearly 5 million times the mass of our Sun.
Surrounding it is a chaotic city of stars, gas, and dust that we call Sagittarius A.
We stacked false-color X-ray, infrared, and radio images into this single picture to show you the different structures hidden inside the core of our Galaxy.
X-rays (purple) radiate from the super-hot gas trapped in the black hole’s grasp.
The surrounding dust is heated by friction as it chaotically orbits around the black hole and then glows in infrared light (gold).
And the enormous pools and three-armed rivers of gas shine in radio light (oranges and reds) to trace the complexity of magnetic fields in this violent neighborhood.
NOTE: A language professor has given a Hawaiian name — Powehi — to the black hole depicted in an image produced in a landmark experiment.
Though the Event Horizon Telescope set out to image both M87 and Sagittarius A* the black hole at the centre of the Milky way, they have succeeded only in imaging the former, despite its being much further away.
Incorrect
The center of our Milky Way Galaxy is anchored by a black hole that is nearly 5 million times the mass of our Sun.
Surrounding it is a chaotic city of stars, gas, and dust that we call Sagittarius A.
We stacked false-color X-ray, infrared, and radio images into this single picture to show you the different structures hidden inside the core of our Galaxy.
X-rays (purple) radiate from the super-hot gas trapped in the black hole’s grasp.
The surrounding dust is heated by friction as it chaotically orbits around the black hole and then glows in infrared light (gold).
And the enormous pools and three-armed rivers of gas shine in radio light (oranges and reds) to trace the complexity of magnetic fields in this violent neighborhood.
NOTE: A language professor has given a Hawaiian name — Powehi — to the black hole depicted in an image produced in a landmark experiment.
Though the Event Horizon Telescope set out to image both M87 and Sagittarius A* the black hole at the centre of the Milky way, they have succeeded only in imaging the former, despite its being much further away.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyBesides earth, which of the following celestial body has places with standing bodies of liquid on the surface?
Correct
Titan and Earth are the solar system’s two places with standing bodies of liquid on the surface. Titan boasts lakes, rivers and seas of hydrocarbons: compounds of hydrogen and carbon like those that are the main components of petroleum and natural gas.
“Titan is the most Earth-like body in the solar system. It has lakes, canyons, rivers, dune fields of organic sand particles about the same size as silica sand grains on Earth”.
Incorrect
Titan and Earth are the solar system’s two places with standing bodies of liquid on the surface. Titan boasts lakes, rivers and seas of hydrocarbons: compounds of hydrogen and carbon like those that are the main components of petroleum and natural gas.
“Titan is the most Earth-like body in the solar system. It has lakes, canyons, rivers, dune fields of organic sand particles about the same size as silica sand grains on Earth”.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe word “Helium hydride ion (HeH+)” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Scientists have detected the most ancient type of molecule in our universe in space for the first time ever
- Helium hydride ion (HeH+) was the first molecule that formed when, almost 14 billion years ago, falling temperatures in the young universe allowed recombination of the light elements produced in the Big Bang.
At that time, ionised hydrogen and neutral helium atoms reacted to form HeH+, said researchers from The Max Planck Institute for Radio Astronomy (MPIfR) in Germany.
Despite its importance in the history of the early Universe, HeH+ has so far escaped detection in astrophysical nebulae — cloud of gas and dust in outer space.
Operating the GREAT far-infrared spectrometer onboard the flying observatory SOFIA, an international team reported unambiguous detection of the molecule towards the planetary nebula NGC 7027.
Incorrect
Scientists have detected the most ancient type of molecule in our universe in space for the first time ever
- Helium hydride ion (HeH+) was the first molecule that formed when, almost 14 billion years ago, falling temperatures in the young universe allowed recombination of the light elements produced in the Big Bang.
At that time, ionised hydrogen and neutral helium atoms reacted to form HeH+, said researchers from The Max Planck Institute for Radio Astronomy (MPIfR) in Germany.
Despite its importance in the history of the early Universe, HeH+ has so far escaped detection in astrophysical nebulae — cloud of gas and dust in outer space.
Operating the GREAT far-infrared spectrometer onboard the flying observatory SOFIA, an international team reported unambiguous detection of the molecule towards the planetary nebula NGC 7027.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Gravitational Lensing” concept is often seen in news is suggested by which of the following scientist?
Correct
Black holes are not radiant and will not be visible through any telescope.
However, as first suggested by Albert Einstein, if by chance, a tiny primordial black hole eclipses a distant star, light rays of the star will bend around the black hole due to gravitational effect, resulting in the star appearing to be brighter than it originally is for a short while. Called `gravitational lensing’, this rare phenomena can occur only when the star, the black hole and the observer on the Earth are aligned in a straight line.
When the black hole is in alignment with a distant star, due to gravitational attraction, light rays are bent inwards like a lens, making the star appear brighter.
Incorrect
Black holes are not radiant and will not be visible through any telescope.
However, as first suggested by Albert Einstein, if by chance, a tiny primordial black hole eclipses a distant star, light rays of the star will bend around the black hole due to gravitational effect, resulting in the star appearing to be brighter than it originally is for a short while. Called `gravitational lensing’, this rare phenomena can occur only when the star, the black hole and the observer on the Earth are aligned in a straight line.
When the black hole is in alignment with a distant star, due to gravitational attraction, light rays are bent inwards like a lens, making the star appear brighter.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “LOx methane” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is developing methane-powered rocket engines.
The space agency is developing two ‘LOx methane’ engines (liquid oxygen oxidiser and methane fuel) engines.
One of the two projects is trying to convert the existing cryogenic engine, which uses liquid hydrogen for fuel, into a LOx methane engine.
The other is a smaller engine of 3 tonnes thrust, which will feature an electric motor.
These are being developed at ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre at Trivandrum.
Incorrect
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is developing methane-powered rocket engines.
The space agency is developing two ‘LOx methane’ engines (liquid oxygen oxidiser and methane fuel) engines.
One of the two projects is trying to convert the existing cryogenic engine, which uses liquid hydrogen for fuel, into a LOx methane engine.
The other is a smaller engine of 3 tonnes thrust, which will feature an electric motor.
These are being developed at ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre at Trivandrum.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):
- It emerged as the reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India.
- It has failed only once in her total launch missions till December 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India.
It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as the reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India with 39 consecutively successful missions by June 2017.
During 1994-2017period, the vehicle has launched 48 Indian satellites and 209 satellites for customers from abroad.
Besides, the vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013 – that later traveled to Moon and Mars respectively.
It has failed twice in her missions.
PSLV-D1 was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota on Sep 20, 1993. IRS-1E Satellite could not be placed in orbit. It is her maiden mission.
The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty-first flight (PSLV-C39), was suppose to launch IRNSS-1H, the eighth satellite of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) into a Sub-Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (Sub-GTO).
Launch of PSLV-C39/IRNSS-1H, Scheduled on Aug 31, 2017 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, SHAR, Sriharikota was unsuccessful.
Incorrect
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India.
It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as the reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India with 39 consecutively successful missions by June 2017.
During 1994-2017period, the vehicle has launched 48 Indian satellites and 209 satellites for customers from abroad.
Besides, the vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013 – that later traveled to Moon and Mars respectively.
It has failed twice in her missions.
PSLV-D1 was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota on Sep 20, 1993. IRS-1E Satellite could not be placed in orbit. It is her maiden mission.
The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty-first flight (PSLV-C39), was suppose to launch IRNSS-1H, the eighth satellite of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) into a Sub-Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (Sub-GTO).
Launch of PSLV-C39/IRNSS-1H, Scheduled on Aug 31, 2017 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, SHAR, Sriharikota was unsuccessful.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle:
- It has the capability to deliver payload 500kg at a height of 500km.
- It has all solid motor stages only.
- It can accommodate multiple satellites like GSLV and PSLV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) at Thumba has completed the design for the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), the ‘baby rocket’ billed as the quickest way to space for small-size satellites.
- On the launchpad, the SSLV will stand 34 metres tall, 10 metres shorter than the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and around 15 metres shorter than the Mk-II version of the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch vehicle (GSLV).
It is also a ‘thinner’ launch vehicle, possessing a diameter of just two metres.
With a lift-off mass of 120 tonnes, the SSLV can place a 500 kg payload at a height of 500 km in the Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
The SSLV has three solid motor stages, and like the PSLV and GSLV, can accommodate multiple satellites, albeit smaller ones.
Unlike the PSLV and GSLV, the SSLV can be assembled both vertically and horizontally.
Incorrect
ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) at Thumba has completed the design for the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), the ‘baby rocket’ billed as the quickest way to space for small-size satellites.
- On the launchpad, the SSLV will stand 34 metres tall, 10 metres shorter than the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and around 15 metres shorter than the Mk-II version of the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch vehicle (GSLV).
It is also a ‘thinner’ launch vehicle, possessing a diameter of just two metres.
With a lift-off mass of 120 tonnes, the SSLV can place a 500 kg payload at a height of 500 km in the Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
The SSLV has three solid motor stages, and like the PSLV and GSLV, can accommodate multiple satellites, albeit smaller ones.
Unlike the PSLV and GSLV, the SSLV can be assembled both vertically and horizontally.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC), the hub of ISRO’s future manned missions, is located at?
Correct
The Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC), the hub of ISRO’s future manned missions, was inaugurated at ISRO headquarters in Bengaluru.
HSFC shall be responsible for the implementation of Gaganyaan project — which involves mission planning, development of engineering systems for crew survival in space, crew selection and training and also pursue activities for sustained human space flight missions.
HSFC will take the support of ISRO centres to implement the first developmental [crewed] flight.
Incorrect
The Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC), the hub of ISRO’s future manned missions, was inaugurated at ISRO headquarters in Bengaluru.
HSFC shall be responsible for the implementation of Gaganyaan project — which involves mission planning, development of engineering systems for crew survival in space, crew selection and training and also pursue activities for sustained human space flight missions.
HSFC will take the support of ISRO centres to implement the first developmental [crewed] flight.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “ICON Satellite”, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
NASA has recently launched Ionospheric Connection Explorer (ICON) spacecraft from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station.
It is designed to probe Earth’s upper atmosphere (Ionosphere), a massive layer that overlaps with the boundary of space.
Its measurements will help scientists better understand the link between space weather and terrestrial weather, and how the two interact in the ionosphere.
It is the region where strange and unique phenomena, such as the auroras and geomagnetic storms are created.
Incorrect
NASA has recently launched Ionospheric Connection Explorer (ICON) spacecraft from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station.
It is designed to probe Earth’s upper atmosphere (Ionosphere), a massive layer that overlaps with the boundary of space.
Its measurements will help scientists better understand the link between space weather and terrestrial weather, and how the two interact in the ionosphere.
It is the region where strange and unique phenomena, such as the auroras and geomagnetic storms are created.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the GISAT-1:
- It is India’s first earth imaging satellite in a geostationary orbit.
- It is going to be launched by PSLV – XL.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
GISAT-1 or Geo Imaging Satellite-1 is India’s first earth imaging satellite in a geostationary orbit.
A satellite in geostationary orbit (about 36,000 km above earth) has an orbital period equal to earth’s rotational period.
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F10) will launch GISAT-1. This will be the fourteenth flight of the GSLV.
After the launch, GISAT-1 will reach the final geostationary orbit of around 36,000 km using its onboard propulsion system.
The earth observing satellite that weighs around 2,275 kg has a lifespan of 7 years. It carries a multi- and hyper-spectral imager along with the 700 mm Ritchey-Chretien telescope for earth observation and data collection. Also it has a high resolution camera.
Objectives of GISAT-1
Facilitates near real time observation of the Indian sub-continent, under cloud free condition, at frequent intervals.
Helps quick monitoring of natural disasters.
Keep a constant watch on borders.
Monitor any changes in the geographical condition of the country.
Helps to obtain spectral signatures of agriculture, forestry, mineralogy, disaster warning, cloud properties, snow, glaciers and oceanography.
Incorrect
GISAT-1 or Geo Imaging Satellite-1 is India’s first earth imaging satellite in a geostationary orbit.
A satellite in geostationary orbit (about 36,000 km above earth) has an orbital period equal to earth’s rotational period.
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F10) will launch GISAT-1. This will be the fourteenth flight of the GSLV.
After the launch, GISAT-1 will reach the final geostationary orbit of around 36,000 km using its onboard propulsion system.
The earth observing satellite that weighs around 2,275 kg has a lifespan of 7 years. It carries a multi- and hyper-spectral imager along with the 700 mm Ritchey-Chretien telescope for earth observation and data collection. Also it has a high resolution camera.
Objectives of GISAT-1
Facilitates near real time observation of the Indian sub-continent, under cloud free condition, at frequent intervals.
Helps quick monitoring of natural disasters.
Keep a constant watch on borders.
Monitor any changes in the geographical condition of the country.
Helps to obtain spectral signatures of agriculture, forestry, mineralogy, disaster warning, cloud properties, snow, glaciers and oceanography.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe terms “Antu, Kueyen, Melipal and Yepun” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Very Large Telescope array (VLT) .
- The Very Large Telescope array (VLT) is the flagship facility for European groundbased
astronomy at the beginning of the third Millennium.
- It is the world’s most advanced optical instrument, consisting of four Unit
Telescopes with main mirrors of 8.2m diameter and four movable 1.8m diameter
Auxiliary Telescopes.
- The telescopes can work together, to form a giant ‘interferometer’, the ESO Very
Large Telescope Interferometer, allowing astronomers to see details up to 25 times
finer than with the individual telescopes. The large telescopes
are named Antu, Kueyen, Melipal and Yepun.
Incorrect
Very Large Telescope array (VLT) .
- The Very Large Telescope array (VLT) is the flagship facility for European groundbased
astronomy at the beginning of the third Millennium.
- It is the world’s most advanced optical instrument, consisting of four Unit
Telescopes with main mirrors of 8.2m diameter and four movable 1.8m diameter
Auxiliary Telescopes.
- The telescopes can work together, to form a giant ‘interferometer’, the ESO Very
Large Telescope Interferometer, allowing astronomers to see details up to 25 times
finer than with the individual telescopes. The large telescopes
are named Antu, Kueyen, Melipal and Yepun.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Aditya L1 mission”?
- It is first scientific expedition of ISRO to study Sun.
- Aditya L1 satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of
the sun-earth system.
- It will be launched using the Geo-synchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark-III.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Aditya – L1 First Indian mission to study the Sun.
The Aditya-1 mission was conceived as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload, the
Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to launch in a 800 km low
earth orbit.
Statement 2 is correct: Satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian
point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the
Sun without any occultation/ eclipses. Therefore, the Aditya-1 mission has now been
revised to “Aditya-L1 mission” and will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1, which is
1.5 million km from the Earth. The satellite carries additional six payloads with enhanced
science scope and objectives.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The project is approved and the satellite will be launched
during 2019 – 2020 timeframe by PSLV-XL from Sriharikota. Aditya-1 was meant to
observe only the solar corona. The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km
above the disc (photosphere) is termed as the corona. It has a temperature of more than a
million degree Kelvin which is much higher than the solar disc temperature of around
6000K. How the corona gets heated to such high temperatures is still an unanswered
question in solar physics.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Aditya – L1 First Indian mission to study the Sun.
The Aditya-1 mission was conceived as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload, the
Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to launch in a 800 km low
earth orbit.
Statement 2 is correct: Satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian
point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the
Sun without any occultation/ eclipses. Therefore, the Aditya-1 mission has now been
revised to “Aditya-L1 mission” and will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1, which is
1.5 million km from the Earth. The satellite carries additional six payloads with enhanced
science scope and objectives.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The project is approved and the satellite will be launched
during 2019 – 2020 timeframe by PSLV-XL from Sriharikota. Aditya-1 was meant to
observe only the solar corona. The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km
above the disc (photosphere) is termed as the corona. It has a temperature of more than a
million degree Kelvin which is much higher than the solar disc temperature of around
6000K. How the corona gets heated to such high temperatures is still an unanswered
question in solar physics.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology“The indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) forms the third stage of
GSLV Mk II”. Cryogenic engine fuel is a mix of which of the following?
Correct
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV Mk II) is the largest
launch vehicle developed by India, which is currently in operation.
- This fourth generation launch vehicle is a three stage vehicle with four liquid strapons.
- The indigenously developed cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), which is flight proven,
forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II.
- Cryogenic engine makes use of Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2)
as propellants which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively.
- LOX and LH2 are stored in their respective tanks. From there they are pumped in to
turbo pump by individual booster pumps to ensure a high flow rate of propellants
inside the combustion/thrust chamber.
- The major components of a cryogenic rocket engine are combustion/thrust
chamber, igniter, fuel injector, fuel cryo pumps, oxidizer cryo pumps, gas turbine,
cryo valves, regulators, the fuel tanks and a rocket engine nozzle.
Incorrect
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV Mk II) is the largest
launch vehicle developed by India, which is currently in operation.
- This fourth generation launch vehicle is a three stage vehicle with four liquid strapons.
- The indigenously developed cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), which is flight proven,
forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II.
- Cryogenic engine makes use of Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2)
as propellants which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively.
- LOX and LH2 are stored in their respective tanks. From there they are pumped in to
turbo pump by individual booster pumps to ensure a high flow rate of propellants
inside the combustion/thrust chamber.
- The major components of a cryogenic rocket engine are combustion/thrust
chamber, igniter, fuel injector, fuel cryo pumps, oxidizer cryo pumps, gas turbine,
cryo valves, regulators, the fuel tanks and a rocket engine nozzle.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Vikas engine is/are the workhorse for which of the following Launch Vehicles?
- Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV)
- Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
- Geo-synchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Vikas Engine is the workhorse liquid rocket engine powering the second
stage of India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), second stage and the four strap on
stages of Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and the twin engine core liquid stage
(L110) of GSLV Mk-III.
Incorrect
Vikas Engine is the workhorse liquid rocket engine powering the second
stage of India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), second stage and the four strap on
stages of Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and the twin engine core liquid stage
(L110) of GSLV Mk-III.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe DART mission is going to launch by NASA in July 2021 is related to which of
the following?
Correct
The Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission is directed by NASA
to the Applied Physics Laboratory (APL) with support from several NASA centers: the Jet
Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), Goddard Space Flight Center (GSFC), Johnson Space Center
(JSC), Glenn Research Center (GRC), and Langley Research Center (LRC).
- DART is a planetary defense-driven test of technologies for preventing an
impact of Earth by a hazardous asteroid.
- DART will be the first demonstration of the kinetic impactor technique to change the
motion of an asteroid in space.
- The DART mission is in Phase C, led by APL and managed under NASA’s Solar
System Exploration Program.
Incorrect
The Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission is directed by NASA
to the Applied Physics Laboratory (APL) with support from several NASA centers: the Jet
Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), Goddard Space Flight Center (GSFC), Johnson Space Center
(JSC), Glenn Research Center (GRC), and Langley Research Center (LRC).
- DART is a planetary defense-driven test of technologies for preventing an
impact of Earth by a hazardous asteroid.
- DART will be the first demonstration of the kinetic impactor technique to change the
motion of an asteroid in space.
- The DART mission is in Phase C, led by APL and managed under NASA’s Solar
System Exploration Program.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are mission/missions related to Mars Planet?
- Magellan
- Phoenix
- Maven
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Mars Missions by NASA:
- Mariner
- Mars Resonance Orbiter
- Phoenix
- MAVEN
- In-Sights Lander
- Curiosity Rover
NOTE: Magellan mission is related to Planet Venus.
Incorrect
Mars Missions by NASA:
- Mariner
- Mars Resonance Orbiter
- Phoenix
- MAVEN
- In-Sights Lander
- Curiosity Rover
NOTE: Magellan mission is related to Planet Venus.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Black Hole:
1. A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get
out.
2. The super-massive black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy is called Sagittarius
A.
3. The Sun is not a big enough star to make a black hole.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light
cannot get out. The gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.
This can happen when a star is dying.
•The largest black holes are called “supermassive.” These black holes have masses
that are more than 1 million suns together. Scientists have found proof that every
large galaxy contains a supermassive black hole at its center
•The supermassive black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy is called
Sagittarius A. It has a mass equal to about 4 million suns and would fit inside a very
large ball that could hold a few million Earths.
•Even if a black hole the same mass as the sun were to take the place of the sun,
Earth still would not fall in.
•The black hole would have the same gravity as the sun. Earth and the other planets
would orbit the black hole as they orbit the sun now.
•The sun will never turn into a black hole. The
a black hole.Incorrect
A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light
cannot get out. The gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.
This can happen when a star is dying.
•The largest black holes are called “supermassive.” These black holes have masses
that are more than 1 million suns together. Scientists have found proof that every
large galaxy contains a supermassive black hole at its center
•The supermassive black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy is called
Sagittarius A. It has a mass equal to about 4 million suns and would fit inside a very
large ball that could hold a few million Earths.
•Even if a black hole the same mass as the sun were to take the place of the sun,
Earth still would not fall in.
•The black hole would have the same gravity as the sun. Earth and the other planets
would orbit the black hole as they orbit the sun now.
•The sun will never turn into a black hole. The
a black hole. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Supermoon:
1. It is used to refer to a full moon 90 percent or closer to Apogee.
2. It has no precise astronomical definition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Full moons can occur at any point along the Moon’s elliptical path, but when
a full moon occurs at or near the perigee, it looks slightly larger and brighter than a typical
full moon. That’s what the term “supermoon” refers to.
•Because supermoon is not an official astronomical term, there is no definition
about just how close to perigee the full moon has to be in order to be called “super.”
•Generally, supermoon is used to refer to a full moon 90 percent or closer to
perigee.
•A more accurate and scientific term is “perigee syzygy.” Syzygy is the alignment of
three celestial bodies, in this case the Sun, Moon and Earth.Incorrect
Full moons can occur at any point along the Moon’s elliptical path, but when
a full moon occurs at or near the perigee, it looks slightly larger and brighter than a typical
full moon. That’s what the term “supermoon” refers to.
•Because supermoon is not an official astronomical term, there is no definition
about just how close to perigee the full moon has to be in order to be called “super.”
•Generally, supermoon is used to refer to a full moon 90 percent or closer to
perigee.
•A more accurate and scientific term is “perigee syzygy.” Syzygy is the alignment of
three celestial bodies, in this case the Sun, Moon and Earth.
Space Technology 3
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is “Sagittarius A*” that has been in news recently?
Correct
Sagittarius A* is a bright and very compact astronomical radio source at the
Galactic Center of the Milky Way. Based on mass and increasingly precise radius limits, astronomers have concluded that Sagittarius A* is the Milky Way’s central supermassive black hole.
Nobel Prize 2020 (Physics) winners Reinhard Genzel and Andrea Ghez each lead group of astronomers that, since the early 1990s, has focused on a region called Sagittarius A* at the centre of our galaxy. Their pioneering work has produced the most convincing evidence yet of a supermassive black hole at the centre of the Milky Way.
Incorrect
Sagittarius A* is a bright and very compact astronomical radio source at the
Galactic Center of the Milky Way. Based on mass and increasingly precise radius limits, astronomers have concluded that Sagittarius A* is the Milky Way’s central supermassive black hole.
Nobel Prize 2020 (Physics) winners Reinhard Genzel and Andrea Ghez each lead group of astronomers that, since the early 1990s, has focused on a region called Sagittarius A* at the centre of our galaxy. Their pioneering work has produced the most convincing evidence yet of a supermassive black hole at the centre of the Milky Way.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- ‘Opposition’ refers to an event when Sun, Earth and an outer planet are lined up, with
the Earth in the middle.
- Mars has made its closest approach of twenty first century to Earth in October 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. ‘Opposition’ is the event when the Sun, Earth and an
outer planet are lined up, with the Earth in the middle. Mars opposition event is when Mars
is directly on the opposite side of Earth from the Sun. During this opposition, Mars and
Earth are closest to each other in their orbits.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Mars Close Approach was Oct. 6, 2020; that is the point in Mars’
orbit when it comes closest to Earth, this time at about 38.6 million miles (62.07 million
kilometers) from our planet, the opposition will happen on October 13.
Close Approach is when Mars and Earth come nearest to each other in their orbits around
the sun. Close is a relative term. The minimum distance from Earth to Mars is about 33.9
million miles (54.6 million kilometers). However, that doesn’t happen very often.
In 2003, Mars made its closest approach to Earth in nearly 60,000 years! It won’t be that
close again until the year 2287.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. ‘Opposition’ is the event when the Sun, Earth and an
outer planet are lined up, with the Earth in the middle. Mars opposition event is when Mars
is directly on the opposite side of Earth from the Sun. During this opposition, Mars and
Earth are closest to each other in their orbits.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Mars Close Approach was Oct. 6, 2020; that is the point in Mars’
orbit when it comes closest to Earth, this time at about 38.6 million miles (62.07 million
kilometers) from our planet, the opposition will happen on October 13.
Close Approach is when Mars and Earth come nearest to each other in their orbits around
the sun. Close is a relative term. The minimum distance from Earth to Mars is about 33.9
million miles (54.6 million kilometers). However, that doesn’t happen very often.
In 2003, Mars made its closest approach to Earth in nearly 60,000 years! It won’t be that
close again until the year 2287.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the New Shepherd rocket system:
- It is a reusable suborbital rocket system developed by NASA.
- It is designed to take research payloads as well as astronauts into the space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Consider the following statements regarding the New Shepherd rocket system:
- It is a reusable suborbital rocket system developed by NASA.
- It is designed to take research payloads as well as astronauts into the space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Incorrect
Consider the following statements regarding the New Shepherd rocket system:
- It is a reusable suborbital rocket system developed by NASA.
- It is designed to take research payloads as well as astronauts into the space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the Kármán line?
Correct
A common definition of space is known as the Kármán Line, an imaginary boundary 100 kilometers (62 miles) above mean sea level. This 100-kilometer “Kármán Line” was recommended to the Fédération Aéronautique Internationale, the internationally recognized body for recording aeronautic achievements.
In theory, once this 100 km line is crossed, the atmosphere becomes too thin to provide enough lift for conventional aircraft to maintain flight. At this altitude, a conventional plane would need to reach orbital velocity or risk falling back to Earth.
Many organizations use the Kármán Line as a way of determining when space flight has been achieved.
Incorrect
A common definition of space is known as the Kármán Line, an imaginary boundary 100 kilometers (62 miles) above mean sea level. This 100-kilometer “Kármán Line” was recommended to the Fédération Aéronautique Internationale, the internationally recognized body for recording aeronautic achievements.
In theory, once this 100 km line is crossed, the atmosphere becomes too thin to provide enough lift for conventional aircraft to maintain flight. At this altitude, a conventional plane would need to reach orbital velocity or risk falling back to Earth.
Many organizations use the Kármán Line as a way of determining when space flight has been achieved.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Osiris-Rex spacecraft:
- It has travelled to a near-Earth asteroid Bennu.
- The mission aims to bring asteroid sample back to earth for study.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
This well-preserved, ancient asteroid, known as Bennu, is currently more than 200 million
miles (321 million kilometers) from Earth.
The Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource Identification Security – Regolith
Explorer (OSIRIS-Rex) spacecraft travelled to a near-Earth asteroid, called Bennu and
aims bring at least a 2.1-ounce sample back to Earth. It recently performed a Touch-And-
Go (TAG) sequence to collect the required sample from the asteroid.
If it turns out that the spacecraft did not collect enough sample at Nightingale site, it will
attempt another TAG maneuver on Jan. 12, 2021. If that occurs, it will touch down at the
backup site called “Osprey,” which is another relatively boulder-free area inside a crater
near Bennu’s equator.
The spacecraft is not scheduled to depart Bennu for Earth until April 2021. A landing on
Earth for any rock cache in this timeline would be late 2023.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
This well-preserved, ancient asteroid, known as Bennu, is currently more than 200 million
miles (321 million kilometers) from Earth.
The Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource Identification Security – Regolith
Explorer (OSIRIS-Rex) spacecraft travelled to a near-Earth asteroid, called Bennu and
aims bring at least a 2.1-ounce sample back to Earth. It recently performed a Touch-And-
Go (TAG) sequence to collect the required sample from the asteroid.
If it turns out that the spacecraft did not collect enough sample at Nightingale site, it will
attempt another TAG maneuver on Jan. 12, 2021. If that occurs, it will touch down at the
backup site called “Osprey,” which is another relatively boulder-free area inside a crater
near Bennu’s equator.
The spacecraft is not scheduled to depart Bennu for Earth until April 2021. A landing on
Earth for any rock cache in this timeline would be late 2023.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Quadrantids” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Quadrantids, which peak during early-January each year, are considered to be one of the best annual meteor showers.
Most meteor showers have a two day peak, which makes catching sight of these other meteors much more possible.
The Quadrantids peak, on the other hand, is much shorter—only a few hours. (The reason the peak is so short is due to the shower’s thin stream of particles and the fact that the Earth crosses the stream at a perpendicular angle.)
During its peak, 60 to as many as 200 Quadrantid meteors can be seen per hour under perfect conditions.
Quadrantids are also known for their bright fireball meteors. Fireballs are larger explosions of light and color that can persist longer than an average meteor streak.
This is due to the fact that fireballs originate from larger particles of material. Fireballs are also brighter, with magnitudes brighter than -3.
Incorrect
The Quadrantids, which peak during early-January each year, are considered to be one of the best annual meteor showers.
Most meteor showers have a two day peak, which makes catching sight of these other meteors much more possible.
The Quadrantids peak, on the other hand, is much shorter—only a few hours. (The reason the peak is so short is due to the shower’s thin stream of particles and the fact that the Earth crosses the stream at a perpendicular angle.)
During its peak, 60 to as many as 200 Quadrantid meteors can be seen per hour under perfect conditions.
Quadrantids are also known for their bright fireball meteors. Fireballs are larger explosions of light and color that can persist longer than an average meteor streak.
This is due to the fact that fireballs originate from larger particles of material. Fireballs are also brighter, with magnitudes brighter than -3.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Mission Shakti” is recently launched by Government is related to which of the following?
Correct
Mission Shakti which was launched recently was done in a low orbit of less than 300 kilometres and at a particular angle to ensure that minimal debris was disbursed above into space to avoid damage to other satellites or the International Space Station (ISS).
Incorrect
Mission Shakti which was launched recently was done in a low orbit of less than 300 kilometres and at a particular angle to ensure that minimal debris was disbursed above into space to avoid damage to other satellites or the International Space Station (ISS).
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the “air-breathing propulsion system”:
- It utilizes the atmospheric oxygen during their flight and reduces the total propellant required to place a satellite in orbit.
- Ramjet, Scramjet and Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ) are the examples of air-breathing engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Launch vehicles use combustion of propellants consisting of oxidiser and fuel for deriving the energy.
Air breathing propulsion systems use atmospheric oxygen, which is available up to about 50 km of earth’s surface to burn the fuel stored on-board thereby making the system much lighter, more efficient and cost effective
Air breathing propulsion is a solution for a powered long return cruise flight necessary for reusable launch vehicles.
The collection and use of air involves challenges as the launch vehicle speeds through atmosphere at supersonic speeds.
This calls for the development of ramjet or scramjet (supersonic combustion ramjet) technologies.
The Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ), the ramjet-scramjet combination, is currently under development, which will operate during the crucial Mach 3 to Mach 9 ascend flight of the launch vehicle.
Incorrect
Launch vehicles use combustion of propellants consisting of oxidiser and fuel for deriving the energy.
Air breathing propulsion systems use atmospheric oxygen, which is available up to about 50 km of earth’s surface to burn the fuel stored on-board thereby making the system much lighter, more efficient and cost effective
Air breathing propulsion is a solution for a powered long return cruise flight necessary for reusable launch vehicles.
The collection and use of air involves challenges as the launch vehicle speeds through atmosphere at supersonic speeds.
This calls for the development of ramjet or scramjet (supersonic combustion ramjet) technologies.
The Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ), the ramjet-scramjet combination, is currently under development, which will operate during the crucial Mach 3 to Mach 9 ascend flight of the launch vehicle.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Quasi-Zenith is a regional terrestrial positioning network system launched by which of the following country?
Correct
QZSS is a Japanese satellite positioning system composed mainly of satellites in quasi-zenith orbits (QZO).
QZSS (Michibiki) has been in operation since November 2018 to develop a satellite positioning service that can be used stably in all locations at all times.
This system is compatible with GPS satellites and can be utilized with them in an integrated fashion.
In this way, the satellite positioning service environment was advanced dramatically.
QZSS can be used even in the Asia-Oceania regions with longitudes close to Japan, so its usage will be expanded to other countries in these regions as well.
Incorrect
QZSS is a Japanese satellite positioning system composed mainly of satellites in quasi-zenith orbits (QZO).
QZSS (Michibiki) has been in operation since November 2018 to develop a satellite positioning service that can be used stably in all locations at all times.
This system is compatible with GPS satellites and can be utilized with them in an integrated fashion.
In this way, the satellite positioning service environment was advanced dramatically.
QZSS can be used even in the Asia-Oceania regions with longitudes close to Japan, so its usage will be expanded to other countries in these regions as well.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Project NETRA” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
The space agency says our SSA (space situational awareness) will first be for low-earth orbits or LEO which have remote-sensing spacecraft.
Under NETRA, or Network for space object Tracking and Analysis, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control centre.
They can, among others, spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
Incorrect
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
The space agency says our SSA (space situational awareness) will first be for low-earth orbits or LEO which have remote-sensing spacecraft.
Under NETRA, or Network for space object Tracking and Analysis, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control centre.
They can, among others, spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Terminator Tape” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
To tackle the problem of space debris, a company called Tethers Unlimited has demonstrated an easy solution to get rid of satellites once they are of no use.
The solution involves a 230-feet long strip of conductive tape, which is delightfully called the Terminator Tape.
The Terminator Tape is a small module about the size of a notebook.
Weighing less than two pounds, it is designed to attach to the exterior of a satellite which deploys the 230-feet long conductive tape through an electric signal from either the satellite or an independent timer unit when the satellite completes its mission and is ready to get disposed.
Incorrect
To tackle the problem of space debris, a company called Tethers Unlimited has demonstrated an easy solution to get rid of satellites once they are of no use.
The solution involves a 230-feet long strip of conductive tape, which is delightfully called the Terminator Tape.
The Terminator Tape is a small module about the size of a notebook.
Weighing less than two pounds, it is designed to attach to the exterior of a satellite which deploys the 230-feet long conductive tape through an electric signal from either the satellite or an independent timer unit when the satellite completes its mission and is ready to get disposed.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are the payloads in the AstroSat Mission?
- Terrain Mapping Camera
- Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT)
- Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying
celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
Option 1 is incorrect. Terrain Mapping Camera (TMC) was used onboard the Chandrayaan
1 mission and TMC 2 was onboard the Orbiter payloads of Chandrayaan 2.
Option 2 and 3 are correct. Five payloads of ASTROSAT are chosen to facilitate a deeper
insight into the various astrophysical processes occurring in the various types of
astronomical objects constituting our universe.
–The Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT), capable of observing the sky in the Visible,
Near Ultraviolet and Far Ultraviolet regions of the electromagnetic spectrum
–Large Area X-ray Proportional Counter (LAXPC), is designed for study the variations in
the emission of X-rays from sources like X-ray binaries, Active Galactic Nuclei and other
cosmic sources.
–Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT) is designed for studying how the X-ray spectrum of 0.3-8 keV
range coming from distant celestial bodies varies with time.
–Cadmium Zinc Telluride Imager (CZTI), functioning in the X-ray region, extends the
capability of the satellite to sense X-rays of high energy in 10-100 keV range.
–Scanning Sky Monitor (SSM), is intended to scan the sky for long term monitoring of
bright X-ray sources in binary stars, and for the detection and location of sources that
become bright in X-rays for a short duration of time.
# A galaxy called AUDFs01 located in the Extreme Deep field, was discovered through
AstroSat recently by a team of Astronomers from the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy
and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
Incorrect
AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying
celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
Option 1 is incorrect. Terrain Mapping Camera (TMC) was used onboard the Chandrayaan
1 mission and TMC 2 was onboard the Orbiter payloads of Chandrayaan 2.
Option 2 and 3 are correct. Five payloads of ASTROSAT are chosen to facilitate a deeper
insight into the various astrophysical processes occurring in the various types of
astronomical objects constituting our universe.
–The Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT), capable of observing the sky in the Visible,
Near Ultraviolet and Far Ultraviolet regions of the electromagnetic spectrum
–Large Area X-ray Proportional Counter (LAXPC), is designed for study the variations in
the emission of X-rays from sources like X-ray binaries, Active Galactic Nuclei and other
cosmic sources.
–Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT) is designed for studying how the X-ray spectrum of 0.3-8 keV
range coming from distant celestial bodies varies with time.
–Cadmium Zinc Telluride Imager (CZTI), functioning in the X-ray region, extends the
capability of the satellite to sense X-rays of high energy in 10-100 keV range.
–Scanning Sky Monitor (SSM), is intended to scan the sky for long term monitoring of
bright X-ray sources in binary stars, and for the detection and location of sources that
become bright in X-rays for a short duration of time.
# A galaxy called AUDFs01 located in the Extreme Deep field, was discovered through
AstroSat recently by a team of Astronomers from the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy
and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- The Gravitational waves, that are theorised to be disturbances in the curvature of
spacetime, have never been detected in human history.
- A black hole is a region of space where matter has collapsed in on itself and the
gravitational pull is so strong that nothing except light can escape.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. A gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly
fast) ripple in space. Gravitational waves travel at the speed of light (186,000 miles per
second). These waves squeeze and stretch anything in their path as they pass by. A
gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly fast) ripple in space.
In 2015, scientists detected gravitational waves for the very first time. They used a
very sensitive instrument called LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave
Observatory). These first gravitational waves happened when two black holes crashed into
one another. The collision happened 1.3 billion years ago.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A black hole is a region of space where matter has collapsed in
on itself and the gravitational pull is so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape.
Black holes emerge from the explosive demise of certain large stars, but some are truly
gargantuan and are billions of times the mass of our Sun.
Black holes are detected from the way they influence their surroundings, they produce
observable gravitational waves as they spiral in to each other.
# Scientists from LIGO and Virgo have detected the largest collision between two black holes
to date, which appears to have created an “intermediate-mass” black hole.
# LIGO-VIRGO collaboration operates three super-sensitive gravitational wave-detection
systems in America and Europe.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. A gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly
fast) ripple in space. Gravitational waves travel at the speed of light (186,000 miles per
second). These waves squeeze and stretch anything in their path as they pass by. A
gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly fast) ripple in space.
In 2015, scientists detected gravitational waves for the very first time. They used a
very sensitive instrument called LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave
Observatory). These first gravitational waves happened when two black holes crashed into
one another. The collision happened 1.3 billion years ago.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A black hole is a region of space where matter has collapsed in
on itself and the gravitational pull is so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape.
Black holes emerge from the explosive demise of certain large stars, but some are truly
gargantuan and are billions of times the mass of our Sun.
Black holes are detected from the way they influence their surroundings, they produce
observable gravitational waves as they spiral in to each other.
# Scientists from LIGO and Virgo have detected the largest collision between two black holes
to date, which appears to have created an “intermediate-mass” black hole.
# LIGO-VIRGO collaboration operates three super-sensitive gravitational wave-detection
systems in America and Europe.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Hypersonic Technology
Demonstrator Vehicle of DRDO:
- The vehicle uses the air-breathing scramjet engine technology.
- India is the first Asian country that has developed technologies to field fast-manoeuvring
hypersonic missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) has successfully demonstrated the hypersonic air-breathing scramjet technology
with the flight test of Hypersonic Technology Demonstration Vehicle (HSTDV) from Dr
APJ Abdul Kalam Launch Complex at Wheeler Island, off the coast of Odisha recently.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only the United States, Russia and China have developed
technologies to field fast-manoeuvring hypersonic missiles that fly at lower altitudes and
are extremely hard to track and intercept.
It is estimated to take around four years for India to develop hypersonic cruise missiles
powered by air-breathing scramjet engines.
The dual-use hypersonic technology has non-military applications too – it can be used for
launching satellites and developing commercial planes
# Hypersonic: more than five times faster than the speed of sound (>Mach 5).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) has successfully demonstrated the hypersonic air-breathing scramjet technology
with the flight test of Hypersonic Technology Demonstration Vehicle (HSTDV) from Dr
APJ Abdul Kalam Launch Complex at Wheeler Island, off the coast of Odisha recently.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only the United States, Russia and China have developed
technologies to field fast-manoeuvring hypersonic missiles that fly at lower altitudes and
are extremely hard to track and intercept.
It is estimated to take around four years for India to develop hypersonic cruise missiles
powered by air-breathing scramjet engines.
The dual-use hypersonic technology has non-military applications too – it can be used for
launching satellites and developing commercial planes
# Hypersonic: more than five times faster than the speed of sound (>Mach 5).
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Scramjet engines:
- It operates by combustion of fuel in a stream of air compressed by the forward speed of
the aircraft itself.
- The airflow through the engine remains supersonic, or greater than the speed of sound.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
A ramjet operates by combustion of fuel in a stream of air compressed by the forward
speed of the aircraft itself, as opposed to a normal jet engine, in which the compressor
section (the fan blades) compresses the air. The air flow through a ramjet engine is
subsonic, or less than the speed of sound. Ramjet-propelled vehicles operate from about
Mach 3 to Mach 6.
A scramjet (supersonic-combustion ramjet) is a ramjet engine in which the airflow
through the engine remains supersonic, or greater than the speed of sound. Scramjet
powered vehicles are envisioned to operate at speeds up to at least Mach 15.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
A ramjet operates by combustion of fuel in a stream of air compressed by the forward
speed of the aircraft itself, as opposed to a normal jet engine, in which the compressor
section (the fan blades) compresses the air. The air flow through a ramjet engine is
subsonic, or less than the speed of sound. Ramjet-propelled vehicles operate from about
Mach 3 to Mach 6.
A scramjet (supersonic-combustion ramjet) is a ramjet engine in which the airflow
through the engine remains supersonic, or greater than the speed of sound. Scramjet
powered vehicles are envisioned to operate at speeds up to at least Mach 15.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Cygnus spacecraft:
- It has been developed by the SpaceX.
- The SS Kalpana Chawla is a Cygnus spacecraft named after the first woman of Indian
descent to fly in space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cygnus spacecraft is an expendable American
cargo spacecraft developed by Orbital Sciences Corporation and now manufactured and
launched by Northrop Grumman Innovation Systems as part of NASA’s Commercial
Resupply Services (CRS) program.
Statement 2 is correct. Each spacecraft by Northrop Grumman is named after an important
figure in the aerospace industry. Northrop Grumman has named the NG-14 Cygnus
spacecraft after the first woman of Indian descent to fly in space, Kalpana Chawla. For the
NG-14 mission, the SS Kalpana Chawla spacecraft will deliver approximately 3,629 kg of
cargo to the space station.
# In November 1996, K. Chawla was assigned as a mission specialist on STS-87 aboard the
Space Shuttle Columbia, becoming the first woman of Indian descent to fly in space.
# Kalpana Chawla’s second spaceflight experience was in 2001 for the crew of STS-107. The
flight was dedicated to science and research, with approximately 80 experiments completed.
# The STS-107 mission ended abruptly on February 1, 2003 when Space Shuttle Columbia
and her crew perished during entry, 16 minutes prior to the scheduled landing.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cygnus spacecraft is an expendable American
cargo spacecraft developed by Orbital Sciences Corporation and now manufactured and
launched by Northrop Grumman Innovation Systems as part of NASA’s Commercial
Resupply Services (CRS) program.
Statement 2 is correct. Each spacecraft by Northrop Grumman is named after an important
figure in the aerospace industry. Northrop Grumman has named the NG-14 Cygnus
spacecraft after the first woman of Indian descent to fly in space, Kalpana Chawla. For the
NG-14 mission, the SS Kalpana Chawla spacecraft will deliver approximately 3,629 kg of
cargo to the space station.
# In November 1996, K. Chawla was assigned as a mission specialist on STS-87 aboard the
Space Shuttle Columbia, becoming the first woman of Indian descent to fly in space.
# Kalpana Chawla’s second spaceflight experience was in 2001 for the crew of STS-107. The
flight was dedicated to science and research, with approximately 80 experiments completed.
# The STS-107 mission ended abruptly on February 1, 2003 when Space Shuttle Columbia
and her crew perished during entry, 16 minutes prior to the scheduled landing.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Solar Cycle 25:
- It has concluded in 2019 and the Solar Cycle 26 has begun.
- The beginning of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, when the Sun has the most
sunspots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The solar cycle is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through
approximately every 11 years. This means that the Sun’s north and south poles switch
places. Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north and south poles to flip
back again.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Recently, scientists from NASA and the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), USA announced their predictions about the new
solar cycle, called Solar Cycle 25, which they believe has begun.
The Solar Cycle 25 Prediction Panel, an international group of experts co-sponsored by
NASA and NOAA, announced that solar minimum occurred in December 2019, marking the
start of a new solar cycle. Because our Sun is so variable, it can take months after the fact
to declare this event. Scientists use sunspots to track solar cycle progress.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the
Sun has the least sunspots. Over time, solar activity and the number of sunspots increase.
The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most
sunspots. As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle
begins.
Incorrect
The solar cycle is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through
approximately every 11 years. This means that the Sun’s north and south poles switch
places. Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north and south poles to flip
back again.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Recently, scientists from NASA and the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), USA announced their predictions about the new
solar cycle, called Solar Cycle 25, which they believe has begun.
The Solar Cycle 25 Prediction Panel, an international group of experts co-sponsored by
NASA and NOAA, announced that solar minimum occurred in December 2019, marking the
start of a new solar cycle. Because our Sun is so variable, it can take months after the fact
to declare this event. Scientists use sunspots to track solar cycle progress.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the
Sun has the least sunspots. Over time, solar activity and the number of sunspots increase.
The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most
sunspots. As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle
begins.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding planet Venus:
- It is the hottest planet in our solar system.
- The United States of America is the only nation to land spacecraft on the surface of
Venus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Venus has a thick, toxic atmosphere filled with carbon
dioxide and it’s perpetually shrouded in thick, yellowish clouds of mostly sulfuric acid that
trap heat, causing a runaway greenhouse effect.
It’s the hottest planet in our solar system, even though Mercury is closer to the Sun.
Venus has crushing air pressure at its surface – more than 90 times that of Earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The former Soviet Union is the only nation to land on the
surface of Venus to date, though the spacecraft did not survive long in the harsh
environment.
The Soviet Union’s Venera 13 in 1982 survived the intense heat and crushing pressure of
Venus’ surface for around two hours and transmitted color images from the surface of
Venus.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Venus has a thick, toxic atmosphere filled with carbon
dioxide and it’s perpetually shrouded in thick, yellowish clouds of mostly sulfuric acid that
trap heat, causing a runaway greenhouse effect.
It’s the hottest planet in our solar system, even though Mercury is closer to the Sun.
Venus has crushing air pressure at its surface – more than 90 times that of Earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The former Soviet Union is the only nation to land on the
surface of Venus to date, though the spacecraft did not survive long in the harsh
environment.
The Soviet Union’s Venera 13 in 1982 survived the intense heat and crushing pressure of
Venus’ surface for around two hours and transmitted color images from the surface of
Venus.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Artemis Program:
- It is a lunar exploration program of NASA.
- It aims to land the first woman and the next man on the surface of the Moon in 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under NASA’s Artemis program, NASA’s new rocket,
the Space Launch System (SLS), will send astronauts aboard the Orion spacecraft nearly
a quarter million miles from Earth to lunar orbit. Astronauts will dock Orion at the
Gateway and transfer to a human landing system for expeditions to the surface of the Moon. They will return to the orbital outpost to board Orion again before returning safely to
Earth.
Statement 2 is correct. Phase 1 of the program plans to land the first woman and the next
man on the surface of the Moon in 2024.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under NASA’s Artemis program, NASA’s new rocket,
the Space Launch System (SLS), will send astronauts aboard the Orion spacecraft nearly
a quarter million miles from Earth to lunar orbit. Astronauts will dock Orion at the
Gateway and transfer to a human landing system for expeditions to the surface of the Moon. They will return to the orbital outpost to board Orion again before returning safely to
Earth.
Statement 2 is correct. Phase 1 of the program plans to land the first woman and the next
man on the surface of the Moon in 2024.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the OSIRIS-REx mission:
- It is planned to travel to Europa, a satellite of Jupiter.
- The mission aims to bring rocks and dust sample back to Earth for study.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource
Identification Security – Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS-REx) spacecraft travelled to and is
currently orbiting a near-Earth asteroid, called Bennu (formerly 1999 RQ36).
Statement 2 is correct. The OSIRIS-REx aims to bring at least a 2.1-ounce sample back to
Earth for study. The mission will help scientists investigate how planets formed and how
life began, as well as improve our understanding of asteroids that could impact Earth.
The mission launched Sept. 8, 2016, from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station. On Oct. 20,
the mission will perform the first attempt of its Touch-And-Go (TAG) sample collection
event.
The spacecraft is scheduled to depart Bennu in 2021 and it will deliver the collected sample
to Earth in 2023
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource
Identification Security – Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS-REx) spacecraft travelled to and is
currently orbiting a near-Earth asteroid, called Bennu (formerly 1999 RQ36).
Statement 2 is correct. The OSIRIS-REx aims to bring at least a 2.1-ounce sample back to
Earth for study. The mission will help scientists investigate how planets formed and how
life began, as well as improve our understanding of asteroids that could impact Earth.
The mission launched Sept. 8, 2016, from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station. On Oct. 20,
the mission will perform the first attempt of its Touch-And-Go (TAG) sample collection
event.
The spacecraft is scheduled to depart Bennu in 2021 and it will deliver the collected sample
to Earth in 2023
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Himalayan Chandra Telescope:
- It is located at Hanle, Ladakh.
- It is remotely operated using a dedicated satellite communication link.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Himalayan Chandra Telescope is housed within
the Indian Astronomical Observatory at in Hanle near Leh in Ladakh.
Statement 2 is correct. The telescope remotely operated using a dedicated satellite
communication link from the Centre for Research & Education in Science & Technology
(CREST), Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA).
# IIA is an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
# The telescope has completed two decades in operation.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Himalayan Chandra Telescope is housed within
the Indian Astronomical Observatory at in Hanle near Leh in Ladakh.
Statement 2 is correct. The telescope remotely operated using a dedicated satellite
communication link from the Centre for Research & Education in Science & Technology
(CREST), Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA).
# IIA is an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
# The telescope has completed two decades in operation.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Magellanic Clouds:
- It is comprised of two binary star systems.
- The Magellanic Clouds orbit the Milky Way galaxy.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Magellanic Clouds are comprised of two
irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud
(SMC).
Statement 2 is correct. Magellanic Clouds orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million
years and each other once every 900 million years.
They are only visible from the southern hemisphere and became known in Europe after the
expeditions led by the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Magellanic Clouds are comprised of two
irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud
(SMC).
Statement 2 is correct. Magellanic Clouds orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million
years and each other once every 900 million years.
They are only visible from the southern hemisphere and became known in Europe after the
expeditions led by the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT):
- It is set up at Pune by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics.
- It has been awarded the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) milestone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. National Centre for Radio Astrophysics-TIFR has set up a unique facility for radio astronomical research using the metre wavelengths range of the radio spectrum, known as the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT), it is located at a site about 80 km north of Pune.
GMRT is a very versatile instrument for investigating a variety of radio astrophysical problems ranging from nearby Solar system to the edge of observable Universe.
Statement 2 is correct. Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) has become the third Indian scientific facility to be awarded the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) milestone for its novel engineering, advanced technology and scientific contributions made in the field of radio astronomy.
The previous two Indian contributions, recognised by the world’s largest technical professional organisation recognised in 2012, are for the pioneering work done by Sir JC Bose to demonstrate the generation and reception of radio waves in 1895, and for the Nobel Prize winning discovery of the scattering of light named “Raman effect” by Sir CV Raman in 1928.
The IEEE Milestones programme honours significant technical achievements and excellence for the benefit of humanity found in unique products, services, seminal papers and patents, which have global or regional impact, in all areas associated with IEEE.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. National Centre for Radio Astrophysics-TIFR has set up a unique facility for radio astronomical research using the metre wavelengths range of the radio spectrum, known as the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT), it is located at a site about 80 km north of Pune.
GMRT is a very versatile instrument for investigating a variety of radio astrophysical problems ranging from nearby Solar system to the edge of observable Universe.
Statement 2 is correct. Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) has become the third Indian scientific facility to be awarded the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) milestone for its novel engineering, advanced technology and scientific contributions made in the field of radio astronomy.
The previous two Indian contributions, recognised by the world’s largest technical professional organisation recognised in 2012, are for the pioneering work done by Sir JC Bose to demonstrate the generation and reception of radio waves in 1895, and for the Nobel Prize winning discovery of the scattering of light named “Raman effect” by Sir CV Raman in 1928.
The IEEE Milestones programme honours significant technical achievements and excellence for the benefit of humanity found in unique products, services, seminal papers and patents, which have global or regional impact, in all areas associated with IEEE.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhere is Arecibo Observatory located?
Correct
The Arecibo Observatory, also known as the National Astronomy and Ionosphere Center (NAIC), is an observatory in Arecibo, Puerto Rico owned by the US National Science Foundation (NSF).
The telescope was built in the early 1960s, with the intention of studying the ionised upper part of Earth’s atmosphere, the ionosphere.
Recently the telescope’s 900-ton instrument platform collapsed onto a reflector dish some 450ft (137m) below.
It came just weeks after officials announced that the telescope would be dismantled amid safety fears, following damage to its support system.
The Arecibo Observatory telescope was one of the largest in the world.
Incorrect
The Arecibo Observatory, also known as the National Astronomy and Ionosphere Center (NAIC), is an observatory in Arecibo, Puerto Rico owned by the US National Science Foundation (NSF).
The telescope was built in the early 1960s, with the intention of studying the ionised upper part of Earth’s atmosphere, the ionosphere.
Recently the telescope’s 900-ton instrument platform collapsed onto a reflector dish some 450ft (137m) below.
It came just weeks after officials announced that the telescope would be dismantled amid safety fears, following damage to its support system.
The Arecibo Observatory telescope was one of the largest in the world.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is the objective of Beresheet 2 Mission?
Correct
SpaceIL, the nonprofit Israeli initiative whose spacecraft crashed as it tried to land on the moon last year, announced recently that it is launching another lunar mission with its Israeli government partners. The Beresheet 2 project will aim to send three spacecraft — an orbiter and two landers — to the moon.
The first Beresheet, or “Genesis,” spacecraft, built by SpaceIL and state-owned Israel Aerospace Industries had crashed on moon surface in 2019.
Incorrect
SpaceIL, the nonprofit Israeli initiative whose spacecraft crashed as it tried to land on the moon last year, announced recently that it is launching another lunar mission with its Israeli government partners. The Beresheet 2 project will aim to send three spacecraft — an orbiter and two landers — to the moon.
The first Beresheet, or “Genesis,” spacecraft, built by SpaceIL and state-owned Israel Aerospace Industries had crashed on moon surface in 2019.
Space Technology 4
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- Question 1 of 11
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Hubble Ultra Deep Field (HUDF)?
Correct
The Hubble Ultra Deep Field is an image of a small area of space in the constellation Fornax, created using Hubble Space Telescope data from 2003 and 2004.
By collecting faint light over many hours of observation, it revealed thousands of galaxies, both nearby and very distant, making it the deepest image of the universe ever taken at that time.
The eXtreme Deep Field, or XDF, was assembled by combining 10 years of NASA Hubble Space Telescope photographs taken of a patch of sky at the center of the original Hubble Ultra Deep Field. The XDF is a small fraction of the angular diameter of the full Moon.
Incorrect
The Hubble Ultra Deep Field is an image of a small area of space in the constellation Fornax, created using Hubble Space Telescope data from 2003 and 2004.
By collecting faint light over many hours of observation, it revealed thousands of galaxies, both nearby and very distant, making it the deepest image of the universe ever taken at that time.
The eXtreme Deep Field, or XDF, was assembled by combining 10 years of NASA Hubble Space Telescope photographs taken of a patch of sky at the center of the original Hubble Ultra Deep Field. The XDF is a small fraction of the angular diameter of the full Moon.
- Question 2 of 11
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Starlink satellite constellation is a project of which of the following space agency/corporation?
Correct
Starlink is the satellite constellation network that the private spaceflight company SpaceX is developing to provide low-cost internet to remote locations.
SpaceX has launched 655 Starlink satellites till now. SpaceX plans to have as many as 12,000 satellites in the low Earth orbit (LEO) Starlink project.
Current satellite internet works using large spacecraft that orbit 22,236 miles (35,786 km) above a particular spot on the Earth. But at that distance, there are generally significant time delays in sending and receiving data. By being closer to Earth (LEO) and networking together, Starlink’s satellites are meant to carry large amounts of information rapidly to any point on Earth.
Incorrect
Starlink is the satellite constellation network that the private spaceflight company SpaceX is developing to provide low-cost internet to remote locations.
SpaceX has launched 655 Starlink satellites till now. SpaceX plans to have as many as 12,000 satellites in the low Earth orbit (LEO) Starlink project.
Current satellite internet works using large spacecraft that orbit 22,236 miles (35,786 km) above a particular spot on the Earth. But at that distance, there are generally significant time delays in sending and receiving data. By being closer to Earth (LEO) and networking together, Starlink’s satellites are meant to carry large amounts of information rapidly to any point on Earth.
- Question 3 of 11
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Kessler syndrome?
Correct
Spent rockets, satellites and other space trash have accumulated in orbit increasing the likelihood of collision with other debris. NASA space debris expert Don Kessler observed that, once past a certain critical mass, the total amount of space debris will keep on increasing: collisions give rise to more debris and lead to more collisions, in a chain reaction.
The collisions create more debris creating a runaway chain reaction of collisions and more debris known as the Kessler Syndrome.
This cascade of collisions first came to NASAs attention in the 1970’s when derelict Delta rockets left in orbit began to explode creating shrapnel clouds.
# Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in extra third genetic material from chromosome 21.
# Stockholm syndrome refers to feelings of trust or affection felt in many cases of kidnapping or hostage-taking by a victim towards a captor.
Incorrect
Spent rockets, satellites and other space trash have accumulated in orbit increasing the likelihood of collision with other debris. NASA space debris expert Don Kessler observed that, once past a certain critical mass, the total amount of space debris will keep on increasing: collisions give rise to more debris and lead to more collisions, in a chain reaction.
The collisions create more debris creating a runaway chain reaction of collisions and more debris known as the Kessler Syndrome.
This cascade of collisions first came to NASAs attention in the 1970’s when derelict Delta rockets left in orbit began to explode creating shrapnel clouds.
# Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in extra third genetic material from chromosome 21.
# Stockholm syndrome refers to feelings of trust or affection felt in many cases of kidnapping or hostage-taking by a victim towards a captor.
- Question 4 of 11
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Outer Space Treaty 1967:
- It binds States-parties not to place in orbit around the Earth or other celestial bodies any weapons of mass destruction.
- India has signed and ratified the Outer Space Treaty.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Outer Space Treaty 1967 provisions:
States-parties commit not to:
-Place in orbit around the Earth or other celestial bodies any nuclear weapons or objects carrying WMD.
-Establish military bases, test “any type of weapons,” or conduct military exercises on the moon and other celestial bodies.
Other treaty provisions:
-Space should be accessible to all countries and can be freely and scientifically investigated.
-Space and celestial bodies are exempt from national claims of ownership.
-Countries are to avoid contaminating and harming space or celestial bodies.
-Countries exploring space are responsible and liable for any damage their activities may cause.
-Space exploration is to be guided by “principles of cooperation and mutual assistance,” such as obliging astronauts to provide aid to one another if needed.
Statement 2 is correct. India signed the Outer Space Treaty on March 3, 1967 and it was deposited on January 18, 1982.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Outer Space Treaty 1967 provisions:
States-parties commit not to:
-Place in orbit around the Earth or other celestial bodies any nuclear weapons or objects carrying WMD.
-Establish military bases, test “any type of weapons,” or conduct military exercises on the moon and other celestial bodies.
Other treaty provisions:
-Space should be accessible to all countries and can be freely and scientifically investigated.
-Space and celestial bodies are exempt from national claims of ownership.
-Countries are to avoid contaminating and harming space or celestial bodies.
-Countries exploring space are responsible and liable for any damage their activities may cause.
-Space exploration is to be guided by “principles of cooperation and mutual assistance,” such as obliging astronauts to provide aid to one another if needed.
Statement 2 is correct. India signed the Outer Space Treaty on March 3, 1967 and it was deposited on January 18, 1982.
- Question 5 of 11
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the NASA’s SOFIA Mission:
- It a lander-rover project on the surface of Moon.
- It has confirmed the presence of water on the surface of the Moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. SOFIA, the Stratospheric Observatory for
Infrared Astronomy, is a Boeing 747SP aircraft modified to carry a 2.7-meter (106-inch)
reflecting telescope (with an effective diameter of 2.5 meters or 100 inches).
Flying into the stratosphere at 38,000-45,000 feet puts SOFIA above 99 percent of Earth’s
infrared-blocking atmosphere, allowing astronomers to study the solar system and beyond
in ways that are not possible with ground-based telescopes.
SOFIA is designed to observe the infrared universe. Many objects in space emit almost
all their energy at infrared wavelengths and are often invisible when observed with visible
light.
Statement 2 is correct. NASA’s Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA)
has confirmed, for the first time, water on the sunlit surface of the Moon. This discovery
indicates that water may be distributed across the lunar surface, and not limited to cold,
shadowed places.
SOFIA has detected water molecules (H2O) in Clavius Crater, one of the largest craters
visible from Earth, located in the Moon’s southern hemisphere.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. SOFIA, the Stratospheric Observatory for
Infrared Astronomy, is a Boeing 747SP aircraft modified to carry a 2.7-meter (106-inch)
reflecting telescope (with an effective diameter of 2.5 meters or 100 inches).
Flying into the stratosphere at 38,000-45,000 feet puts SOFIA above 99 percent of Earth’s
infrared-blocking atmosphere, allowing astronomers to study the solar system and beyond
in ways that are not possible with ground-based telescopes.
SOFIA is designed to observe the infrared universe. Many objects in space emit almost
all their energy at infrared wavelengths and are often invisible when observed with visible
light.
Statement 2 is correct. NASA’s Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA)
has confirmed, for the first time, water on the sunlit surface of the Moon. This discovery
indicates that water may be distributed across the lunar surface, and not limited to cold,
shadowed places.
SOFIA has detected water molecules (H2O) in Clavius Crater, one of the largest craters
visible from Earth, located in the Moon’s southern hemisphere.
- Question 6 of 11
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are Earth Observation Satellites of ISRO?
- HySIS
- RISAT-2BR1
- CARTOSAT-3
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above are Earth Observation Satellites.
Starting with IRS-1A in 1988, ISRO has launched many operational remote sensing
satellites. Today, India has one of the largest constellations of remote sensing satellites in
operation.
The data from these satellites are used for several applications covering agriculture, water
resources, urban planning, rural development, mineral prospecting, environment, forestry,
ocean resources and disaster management.
HySIS is an Earth observation satellite which will provide hyperspectral imaging services to
India for a range of applications in agriculture, forestry and in the assessment of geography
such as coastal zones and inland waterways.
RISAT-2BR1 is a radar imaging earth observation satellite. The satellite will provide
services in the field of Agriculture, Forestry and Disaster Management.
Cartosat-3 satellite is a third-generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution
imaging capability. It addresses the increased user’s demands for large scale urban
planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover
etc.
# ISRO will launch its latest earth observation satellite EOS-01 and nine international
customer spacecraft onboard its PSLV-C49 rocket from the spaceport of Sriharikota in Andhra
Pradesh on November 7.
Incorrect
All of the above are Earth Observation Satellites.
Starting with IRS-1A in 1988, ISRO has launched many operational remote sensing
satellites. Today, India has one of the largest constellations of remote sensing satellites in
operation.
The data from these satellites are used for several applications covering agriculture, water
resources, urban planning, rural development, mineral prospecting, environment, forestry,
ocean resources and disaster management.
HySIS is an Earth observation satellite which will provide hyperspectral imaging services to
India for a range of applications in agriculture, forestry and in the assessment of geography
such as coastal zones and inland waterways.
RISAT-2BR1 is a radar imaging earth observation satellite. The satellite will provide
services in the field of Agriculture, Forestry and Disaster Management.
Cartosat-3 satellite is a third-generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution
imaging capability. It addresses the increased user’s demands for large scale urban
planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover
etc.
# ISRO will launch its latest earth observation satellite EOS-01 and nine international
customer spacecraft onboard its PSLV-C49 rocket from the spaceport of Sriharikota in Andhra
Pradesh on November 7.
- Question 7 of 11
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the NewSpace India Limited (NSIL):
- The ISRO chairperson is the ex-officio chairman of the NSIL.
- NSIL will be the nodal agency for carrying out PSLV production through Indian Industry
under consortium route.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In order to commercially exploit the products and services emanating from
Indian Space Programme, the “NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)” was incorporated in March
2019, as a wholly-owned Government of India under the administrative control of
Department of Space (DOS).
Statement 1 is incorrect. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) is a Central Public Sector
Enterprise of Government of India and commercial arm of ISRO.
ISRO chairperson is not NSIL head, the current NSIL’s Chairman and Managing Director,
- Narayanan, was earlier a Deputy Director at ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre at
Thiruvananthapuram.
Statement 2 is correct. NSIL will be the nodal agency for carrying out PSLV production
through Indian Industry under consortium route. The Industry consortium will be
responsible for producing, assembling and integrating the launch vehicle.
NSIL will be responsible for providing launch services to global satellite customers, onboard
SSLV, PSLV, GSLV and GSLV-MkIII launchers.
Incorrect
In order to commercially exploit the products and services emanating from
Indian Space Programme, the “NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)” was incorporated in March
2019, as a wholly-owned Government of India under the administrative control of
Department of Space (DOS).
Statement 1 is incorrect. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) is a Central Public Sector
Enterprise of Government of India and commercial arm of ISRO.
ISRO chairperson is not NSIL head, the current NSIL’s Chairman and Managing Director,
- Narayanan, was earlier a Deputy Director at ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre at
Thiruvananthapuram.
Statement 2 is correct. NSIL will be the nodal agency for carrying out PSLV production
through Indian Industry under consortium route. The Industry consortium will be
responsible for producing, assembling and integrating the launch vehicle.
NSIL will be responsible for providing launch services to global satellite customers, onboard
SSLV, PSLV, GSLV and GSLV-MkIII launchers.
- Question 8 of 11
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- The UltraViolet Imaging Telescope onboard AstroSat can simultaneously observe in the
visible, the near-ultraviolet and the far-ultraviolet spectrum.
- AstroSat has detected extreme-UV light from AUDFs01 galaxy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
AstroSat was launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in
2015 and iscapable of carrying out simultaneous observations over a range of wavelengths
from the far ultraviolet to the hard X-ray band.
Statement 1 is correct. The Ultra-Violet Imaging Telescope (UVIT) is a remarkable 3-in-1
imaging telescope. Weighing all of 230 kg, the UVIT can simultaneously observe in the
visible, the near-ultraviolet (NUV) and the far-ultraviolet (FUV).
UVIT comprises of two separate telescopes. One of them works in the visible (320-550 nm)
and the NUV (200-300 nm). The second works only in the FUV (130-180 nm).
Statement 2 is correct. India’s first multi-wavelength satellite, AstroSat, has detected
extreme-UV (EUV) light from a galaxy, called AUDFs01, 9.3 billion light-years away from
Earth. At the time, our universe was forming stars at its peak rate.
The EUV photons emitted by galaxies like AUDFs01 could play a crucial role in reionizing
the early universe soon after the Cosmic Dark Age and emitting the first light.
Incorrect
AstroSat was launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in
2015 and iscapable of carrying out simultaneous observations over a range of wavelengths
from the far ultraviolet to the hard X-ray band.
Statement 1 is correct. The Ultra-Violet Imaging Telescope (UVIT) is a remarkable 3-in-1
imaging telescope. Weighing all of 230 kg, the UVIT can simultaneously observe in the
visible, the near-ultraviolet (NUV) and the far-ultraviolet (FUV).
UVIT comprises of two separate telescopes. One of them works in the visible (320-550 nm)
and the NUV (200-300 nm). The second works only in the FUV (130-180 nm).
Statement 2 is correct. India’s first multi-wavelength satellite, AstroSat, has detected
extreme-UV (EUV) light from a galaxy, called AUDFs01, 9.3 billion light-years away from
Earth. At the time, our universe was forming stars at its peak rate.
The EUV photons emitted by galaxies like AUDFs01 could play a crucial role in reionizing
the early universe soon after the Cosmic Dark Age and emitting the first light.
- Question 9 of 11
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Nobel Prize in Physics 2020 has been awarded for which of the following
discovery/research?
- The discovery that black hole formation is a robust prediction of the general theory of
relativity
- The discovery of a supermassive compact object at the centre of our galaxy
- The discovery of an exoplanet orbiting a solar-type star
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 and 2 are correct. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences has
decided to award the Nobel Prize in Physics 2020 with
–one half to Roger Penrose “for the discovery that black hole formation is a robust
prediction of the general theory of relativity”;
–other half jointly to Michel Mayor and Andrea Ghez “for the discovery of a supermassive
compact object at the centre of our galaxy”.
Option 3 is incorrect. Part of Nobel Prize in Physics 2019 was awarded to James Peebles
“for theoretical discoveries in physical cosmology” and Michel Mayor “for the discovery of an
exoplanet orbiting a solar-type star”.
Incorrect
Option 1 and 2 are correct. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences has
decided to award the Nobel Prize in Physics 2020 with
–one half to Roger Penrose “for the discovery that black hole formation is a robust
prediction of the general theory of relativity”;
–other half jointly to Michel Mayor and Andrea Ghez “for the discovery of a supermassive
compact object at the centre of our galaxy”.
Option 3 is incorrect. Part of Nobel Prize in Physics 2019 was awarded to James Peebles
“for theoretical discoveries in physical cosmology” and Michel Mayor “for the discovery of an
exoplanet orbiting a solar-type star”.
- Question 10 of 11
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Black Holes:
- The ‘event horizon’ is the boundary defining the region of space around a black hole from
which not even light can escape.
- Black holes can form when the center of a massive star collapses-in upon itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A black hole is an astronomical object with a
gravitational pull so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape it. A black hole’s
“surface,” called its event horizon, defines the boundary within which the velocity needed
to escape exceeds the speed of light, which is the speed limit of the cosmos. Matter and
radiation fall in, but they can’t get out.
Statement 2 is correct. The smallest ones are known as primordial black holes. These are
thought to have formed in the early universe, soon after the big bang.
The most common type of medium-sized black holes is called stellar black holes. These
black holes form when the center of a very massive star collapses in upon itself. This
collapse also causes a supernova, or an exploding star, that blasts part of the star into
space.
The largest black holes are called supermassive. Scientists think supermassive black holes
formed at the same time as the galaxy they are in. The size of the supermassive black hole
is related to the size and mass of the galaxy it is in.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A black hole is an astronomical object with a
gravitational pull so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape it. A black hole’s
“surface,” called its event horizon, defines the boundary within which the velocity needed
to escape exceeds the speed of light, which is the speed limit of the cosmos. Matter and
radiation fall in, but they can’t get out.
Statement 2 is correct. The smallest ones are known as primordial black holes. These are
thought to have formed in the early universe, soon after the big bang.
The most common type of medium-sized black holes is called stellar black holes. These
black holes form when the center of a very massive star collapses in upon itself. This
collapse also causes a supernova, or an exploding star, that blasts part of the star into
space.
The largest black holes are called supermassive. Scientists think supermassive black holes
formed at the same time as the galaxy they are in. The size of the supermassive black hole
is related to the size and mass of the galaxy it is in.
- Question 11 of 11
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements correctly defines Quasars?
Correct
Quasars are extremely remote celestial objects, emitting exceptionally large
amounts of energy.
Quasars are believed to produce their energy from supermassive black holes in the center
of the galaxies in which the quasars are located. Because quasars are so bright, they drown
out the light from all the other stars in the same galaxy.
Incorrect
Quasars are extremely remote celestial objects, emitting exceptionally large
amounts of energy.
Quasars are believed to produce their energy from supermassive black holes in the center
of the galaxies in which the quasars are located. Because quasars are so bright, they drown
out the light from all the other stars in the same galaxy.
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is mostly associated with which profession?
Correct
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is a progressive brain condition that’s thought to be caused by repeated blows to the head and repeated episodes of concussion.
It’s particularly associated with contact sports, such as boxing or American football. CTE was previously known as “punch drunk” syndrome and dementia pugilistica. But these terms are no longer used because it’s now known that the condition is not limited to ex-boxers.
The symptoms of CTE vary between individuals, but tend to be similar to those of other types of degenerative brain conditions, particularly Alzheimer’s disease.Incorrect
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is a progressive brain condition that’s thought to be caused by repeated blows to the head and repeated episodes of concussion.
It’s particularly associated with contact sports, such as boxing or American football. CTE was previously known as “punch drunk” syndrome and dementia pugilistica. But these terms are no longer used because it’s now known that the condition is not limited to ex-boxers.
The symptoms of CTE vary between individuals, but tend to be similar to those of other types of degenerative brain conditions, particularly Alzheimer’s disease. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Visceral Leishmaniasis:
1.It is caused by protozoan parasites.
2.It is never a fatal disease and may remain undetected in asymptomatic person throughout lifespan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The leishmaniases are a group of diseases caused by protozoan parasites from more than 20 Leishmania species. These parasites are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, a tiny – 2–3 mm long – insect vector.
The most common forms are cutaneous leishmaniasis, which causes skin sores, and visceral leishmaniasis, which affects several internal organs (usually spleen, liver, and bone marrow).
Some people have a silent infection, without any symptoms or signs. People who develop clinical evidence of infection usually have fever, weight loss, enlargement (swelling) of the spleen and liver, and abnormal blood tests.
Statement 2 is incorrect. If not treated, severe (advanced) cases of visceral leishmaniasis typically are fatal.
# To recognize the significant contributions towards defining the survival tactics of Leishmania donovani, Society of Biological Chemists (India) has chosen Dr Susanta Kar, Senior Scientist, CSIR-CDRI for this year’s Prof.A N Bhaduri Memorial Lecture Award.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The leishmaniases are a group of diseases caused by protozoan parasites from more than 20 Leishmania species. These parasites are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, a tiny – 2–3 mm long – insect vector.
The most common forms are cutaneous leishmaniasis, which causes skin sores, and visceral leishmaniasis, which affects several internal organs (usually spleen, liver, and bone marrow).
Some people have a silent infection, without any symptoms or signs. People who develop clinical evidence of infection usually have fever, weight loss, enlargement (swelling) of the spleen and liver, and abnormal blood tests.
Statement 2 is incorrect. If not treated, severe (advanced) cases of visceral leishmaniasis typically are fatal.
# To recognize the significant contributions towards defining the survival tactics of Leishmania donovani, Society of Biological Chemists (India) has chosen Dr Susanta Kar, Senior Scientist, CSIR-CDRI for this year’s Prof.A N Bhaduri Memorial Lecture Award. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Cancer:
1. The cancer cells are less specialized in their functions than normal cells.
2. The Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) 2013 does not include any cancer treatment drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Cancer is the name given to a collection of related diseases. In all types of cancer, some of the body’s cells begin to divide without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues.
Cancer cells differ from normal cells in many ways that allow them to grow out of control and become invasive. One important difference is that cancer cells are less specialized than normal cells. That is, whereas normal cells mature into very distinct cell types with specific functions, cancer cells do not. This is one reason that, unlike normal cells, cancer cells continue to divide without stopping.
In addition, cancer cells are able to ignore signals that normally tell cells to stop dividing or that begin a process known as programmed cell death, or apoptosis, which the body uses to get rid of unneeded cells.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates the prices of all Drugs as per the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) 2013.
It fixes the Ceiling Price of scheduled formulations as per the list of medicines specified in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) which are included in the First Schedule of Drug Pricing Control Order (DPCO), 2013.
First Schedule of DPCO, 2013 also includes select drugs used for the treatment of cancer. However, there has been a long standing felt need to further regulate the Non Scheduled segment also where high markups have led to arbitrary pricing practices.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Cancer is the name given to a collection of related diseases. In all types of cancer, some of the body’s cells begin to divide without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues.
Cancer cells differ from normal cells in many ways that allow them to grow out of control and become invasive. One important difference is that cancer cells are less specialized than normal cells. That is, whereas normal cells mature into very distinct cell types with specific functions, cancer cells do not. This is one reason that, unlike normal cells, cancer cells continue to divide without stopping.
In addition, cancer cells are able to ignore signals that normally tell cells to stop dividing or that begin a process known as programmed cell death, or apoptosis, which the body uses to get rid of unneeded cells.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates the prices of all Drugs as per the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) 2013.
It fixes the Ceiling Price of scheduled formulations as per the list of medicines specified in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) which are included in the First Schedule of Drug Pricing Control Order (DPCO), 2013.
First Schedule of DPCO, 2013 also includes select drugs used for the treatment of cancer. However, there has been a long standing felt need to further regulate the Non Scheduled segment also where high markups have led to arbitrary pricing practices. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements correctly defines Tarballs?
Correct
: Tarballs are small light-absorbing, carbonaceous particles formed due to burning of biomass or fossil fuels that deposit on snow and ice. Tarballs are formed from brown carbon, emitted during the burning of fossil fuels.
They also form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.Incorrect
: Tarballs are small light-absorbing, carbonaceous particles formed due to burning of biomass or fossil fuels that deposit on snow and ice. Tarballs are formed from brown carbon, emitted during the burning of fossil fuels.
They also form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are application(s) of the Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)?
1. Air-conditioning (AC)
2. Building insulation
3. Fire extinguishing systems
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
HFCs or hydrofluorocarbons, are super greenhouse gases, manufactured for use in refrigeration, air conditioning, foam blowing, aerosols, fire protection and solvents.
HFCs unlike most other greenhouse gases are not waste products but are intentionally produced. HFCs were developed as alternatives to ozone depleting substances that are being phased-out under the Montreal Protocol. Unfortunately, HFCs have a global warming potential 1000 to 3000 times that of CO2.
The Kigali Amendment to phase down HFCs under the Montreal Protocol entered into force in 2019. Under the amendment, countries commit to cut the production and consumption of HFCs by more than 80% over the next 30 years to avoid more than 70 billion metric tons of carbon dioxide equivalent emissions by 2050 — and up to 0.5° C warming by the end of the century.Incorrect
HFCs or hydrofluorocarbons, are super greenhouse gases, manufactured for use in refrigeration, air conditioning, foam blowing, aerosols, fire protection and solvents.
HFCs unlike most other greenhouse gases are not waste products but are intentionally produced. HFCs were developed as alternatives to ozone depleting substances that are being phased-out under the Montreal Protocol. Unfortunately, HFCs have a global warming potential 1000 to 3000 times that of CO2.
The Kigali Amendment to phase down HFCs under the Montreal Protocol entered into force in 2019. Under the amendment, countries commit to cut the production and consumption of HFCs by more than 80% over the next 30 years to avoid more than 70 billion metric tons of carbon dioxide equivalent emissions by 2050 — and up to 0.5° C warming by the end of the century. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Cytokine storm:
1. It refers to an accelerated immune response.
2. It can become life threatening and lead to multiple organ failure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Cytokine storm is a severe immune reaction in which the body releases too many cytokines into the blood too quickly. Cytokines play an important role in normal immune responses, but having a large amount of them released in the body all at once can be harmful.
A cytokine storm can occur as a result of an infection, autoimmune condition, or other disease. It may also occur after treatment with some types of immunotherapy. Signs and symptoms include high fever, inflammation (redness and swelling), and severe fatigue and nausea. Sometimes, a cytokine storm may be severe or life threatening and lead to multiple organ failure.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Cytokine storm is a severe immune reaction in which the body releases too many cytokines into the blood too quickly. Cytokines play an important role in normal immune responses, but having a large amount of them released in the body all at once can be harmful.
A cytokine storm can occur as a result of an infection, autoimmune condition, or other disease. It may also occur after treatment with some types of immunotherapy. Signs and symptoms include high fever, inflammation (redness and swelling), and severe fatigue and nausea. Sometimes, a cytokine storm may be severe or life threatening and lead to multiple organ failure. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Immune System:
1.Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, plus dead or dying cells.
2.B-lymphocytes are defensive white blood cells that produce antibodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Blood contains red blood cells, for carrying oxygen to tissues and organs, and white or immune cells, for fighting infection. These white cells consist primarily of macrophages, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
–Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, plus dead or dying cells. The macrophages leave behind parts of the invading germs called antigens. The body identifies antigens as dangerous and stimulates antibodies to attack them.
–B-lymphocytes are defensive white blood cells. They produce antibodies that attack the antigens left behind by the macrophages.
–T-lymphocytes are another type of defensive white blood cell. They attack cells in the body that have already been infected.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Blood contains red blood cells, for carrying oxygen to tissues and organs, and white or immune cells, for fighting infection. These white cells consist primarily of macrophages, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
–Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, plus dead or dying cells. The macrophages leave behind parts of the invading germs called antigens. The body identifies antigens as dangerous and stimulates antibodies to attack them.
–B-lymphocytes are defensive white blood cells. They produce antibodies that attack the antigens left behind by the macrophages.
–T-lymphocytes are another type of defensive white blood cell. They attack cells in the body that have already been infected. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the T-cell immunity:
1. It is a major component of the adaptive immune system.
2. T cells form in bone marrow and mature in thymus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The immune response to viral infection comprises innate and adaptive defenses. The innate response functions continuously in a normal host without exposure to any virus. Most viral infections are controlled by the innate immune system.
The adaptive defense consists of antibodies and lymphocytes, often called the humoral response and the cell mediated response. The cells of the adaptive immune system are lymphocytes – B cells and T cells.
Statement 2 is correct. T cells originate from haematopoietic stem cells which are produced in the bone marrow. Some of these multipotent cells will becomes progenitor cells that leave the bone marrow and travel to the thymus via the blood. In the thymus these cells mature: T cells are named after their thymus-dependent development.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The immune response to viral infection comprises innate and adaptive defenses. The innate response functions continuously in a normal host without exposure to any virus. Most viral infections are controlled by the innate immune system.
The adaptive defense consists of antibodies and lymphocytes, often called the humoral response and the cell mediated response. The cells of the adaptive immune system are lymphocytes – B cells and T cells.
Statement 2 is correct. T cells originate from haematopoietic stem cells which are produced in the bone marrow. Some of these multipotent cells will becomes progenitor cells that leave the bone marrow and travel to the thymus via the blood. In the thymus these cells mature: T cells are named after their thymus-dependent development. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Chapare hemorrhagic fever (CHHF):
1. It is a viral fever.
2. It usually spread to people through direct contact with infected rodents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct??Correct
Both statements are correct.
Chapare hemorrhagic fever (CHHF) is a viral hemorrhagic fever caused by infection with Chapare virus. The Chapare virus is in the arenavirus family. Arenaviruses are usually spread to people through direct contact with infected rodents or indirectly through the urine or feces (droppings) of an infected rodent.
There have been two documented outbreaks of CHHF to date. The first occurred in 2003 in Chapare Province, Bolivia, which resulted in one fatal case. The second outbreak occurred in 2019 in Caranavi Province, Bolivia and resulted in five confirmed cases— three of which were fatal.
It has recently been reported that it can spread through human-to-human transmission.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Chapare hemorrhagic fever (CHHF) is a viral hemorrhagic fever caused by infection with Chapare virus. The Chapare virus is in the arenavirus family. Arenaviruses are usually spread to people through direct contact with infected rodents or indirectly through the urine or feces (droppings) of an infected rodent.
There have been two documented outbreaks of CHHF to date. The first occurred in 2003 in Chapare Province, Bolivia, which resulted in one fatal case. The second outbreak occurred in 2019 in Caranavi Province, Bolivia and resulted in five confirmed cases— three of which were fatal.
It has recently been reported that it can spread through human-to-human transmission. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Guillain-Barre syndrome:
1. It is a rare disorder in which body’s immune system attacks its own nerves.
2. It is mostly associated with respiratory or gastrointestinal infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Guillain-Barre syndrome is a rare disorder in which body’s immune system attacks the nerves. It mainly affects the feet, hands and limbs, causing problems such as numbness, weakness and pain.
Statement 2 is correct. Guillain-Barré syndrome is thought to be caused by a problem with the immune system, the body’s natural defence against illness and infection.
The exact cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome is unknown. But two-thirds of patients report symptoms of an infection in the six weeks preceding. These include respiratory or a gastrointestinal infection or Zika virus.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Guillain-Barre syndrome is a rare disorder in which body’s immune system attacks the nerves. It mainly affects the feet, hands and limbs, causing problems such as numbness, weakness and pain.
Statement 2 is correct. Guillain-Barré syndrome is thought to be caused by a problem with the immune system, the body’s natural defence against illness and infection.
The exact cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome is unknown. But two-thirds of patients report symptoms of an infection in the six weeks preceding. These include respiratory or a gastrointestinal infection or Zika virus. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Placebo effect:
1.Placebo contains multiple active medicinal ingredients.
2.Drug companies prove that their new drugs work better than a placebo before the drugs are approved by regulators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. A placebo is a medical treatment or procedure designed to deceive the participant of a clinical experiment. It does not contain any active ingredients but often still produces a physical effect on the individual.
The placebo effect refers to the impact of a placebo on an individual. Even inactive treatment has repeatedly demonstrated a measurable, positive health response. The power of the placebo effect is considered to be a psychological phenomenon.
Statement 2 is correct. Placebos are essential to the design of reliable clinical trials. Drug companies must show that their new drugs work better than a placebo before the drugs are approved.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. A placebo is a medical treatment or procedure designed to deceive the participant of a clinical experiment. It does not contain any active ingredients but often still produces a physical effect on the individual.
The placebo effect refers to the impact of a placebo on an individual. Even inactive treatment has repeatedly demonstrated a measurable, positive health response. The power of the placebo effect is considered to be a psychological phenomenon.
Statement 2 is correct. Placebos are essential to the design of reliable clinical trials. Drug companies must show that their new drugs work better than a placebo before the drugs are approved. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the GRIHA ratings:
1.It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle.
2.GRIHA Council was founded by The Energy and Resources Institute with support from Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. GRIHA is a rating tool that helps people assesses the performance of their building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’.
Statement 2 is correct. GRIHA Council is mandated to promote development of buildings and habitats in India through GRIHA. GRIHA Council an independent platform for the interaction on scientific and administrative issues related to sustainable habitats in the Indian subcontinent.
It was founded by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute, New Delhi) with support from MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India) along with a handful of experts in the sustainability of built environment from across the country.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. GRIHA is a rating tool that helps people assesses the performance of their building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’.
Statement 2 is correct. GRIHA Council is mandated to promote development of buildings and habitats in India through GRIHA. GRIHA Council an independent platform for the interaction on scientific and administrative issues related to sustainable habitats in the Indian subcontinent.
It was founded by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute, New Delhi) with support from MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India) along with a handful of experts in the sustainability of built environment from across the country. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement correctly defines the Aplastic anemia?
Correct
Aplastic anemia is a condition that occurs when body stops producing enough new blood cells. The condition leaves person fatigued and more prone to infections and uncontrolled bleeding.
A rare and serious condition, aplastic anemia can develop at any age. It can occur suddenly, or it can come on slowly and worsen over time. It can be mild or severe.
Treatment for aplastic anemia might include medications, blood transfusions or a stem cell transplant, also known as a bone marrow transplant.Incorrect
Aplastic anemia is a condition that occurs when body stops producing enough new blood cells. The condition leaves person fatigued and more prone to infections and uncontrolled bleeding.
A rare and serious condition, aplastic anemia can develop at any age. It can occur suddenly, or it can come on slowly and worsen over time. It can be mild or severe.
Treatment for aplastic anemia might include medications, blood transfusions or a stem cell transplant, also known as a bone marrow transplant. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement most appropriately defines the One Health approach?
Correct
One Health is a collaborative, multisectoral, and transdisciplinary approach—working at the local, regional, national, and global levels—with the goal of achieving optimal health outcomes recognizing the interconnection between people, animals, plants, and their shared environment.
It has gained importance as many of the same microbes infect animals and humans, as they share the eco-systems, they live in. Efforts by just one sector cannot prevent or eliminate the problem.Incorrect
One Health is a collaborative, multisectoral, and transdisciplinary approach—working at the local, regional, national, and global levels—with the goal of achieving optimal health outcomes recognizing the interconnection between people, animals, plants, and their shared environment.
It has gained importance as many of the same microbes infect animals and humans, as they share the eco-systems, they live in. Efforts by just one sector cannot prevent or eliminate the problem. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Coronavirus:
1. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) is caused by a type of coronavirus.
2. Several coronaviruses can transmit from animals to humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Coronaviruses are a large family of viruses that are known to cause illness ranging from the common cold to more severe diseases such as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS).
# Coronaviruses are named for the crown-like spikes on their surface.
Statement 2 is correct. Detailed investigations found that SARS-CoV was transmitted from civet cats to humans in China in 2002 and MERS-CoV from dromedary camels to humans in Saudi Arabia in 2012. Several known coronaviruses are circulating in animals that have not yet infected humans. The SARS-CoV-2 is being claimed to have transmitted from bats to humans.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Coronaviruses are a large family of viruses that are known to cause illness ranging from the common cold to more severe diseases such as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS).
# Coronaviruses are named for the crown-like spikes on their surface.
Statement 2 is correct. Detailed investigations found that SARS-CoV was transmitted from civet cats to humans in China in 2002 and MERS-CoV from dromedary camels to humans in Saudi Arabia in 2012. Several known coronaviruses are circulating in animals that have not yet infected humans. The SARS-CoV-2 is being claimed to have transmitted from bats to humans. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Desalination plants:
1. It can turn salt water into drinkable water.
2. There are no desalination plants in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A desalination plant turns salt water into water that is fit to drink. The most commonly used technology used for the process is reverse osmosis where an external pressure is applied to push solvents from an area of high-solute concentration to an area of low-solute concentration through a membrane.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, Tamil Nadu has been the pioneer in using this technology, setting up two up in Chennai. The other states that have proposed these plants are Gujarat, which has announced to set up a 100 MLD RO plant at the Jodiya coast in Jamnagar district.
# Desalination has largely been limited to affluent countries in the Middle East and has recently started making inroads in parts of the United States and AustraliaIncorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A desalination plant turns salt water into water that is fit to drink. The most commonly used technology used for the process is reverse osmosis where an external pressure is applied to push solvents from an area of high-solute concentration to an area of low-solute concentration through a membrane.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, Tamil Nadu has been the pioneer in using this technology, setting up two up in Chennai. The other states that have proposed these plants are Gujarat, which has announced to set up a 100 MLD RO plant at the Jodiya coast in Jamnagar district.
# Desalination has largely been limited to affluent countries in the Middle East and has recently started making inroads in parts of the United States and Australia - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is the reason behind the ‘Blue Tide’ recently seen on Mumbai coast?
Correct
Maharashtra coasts have witnessed a fluorescent bluish glow when the waves hit the shoreline in recent days.
The ‘Blue tide’ appears when luminescent marine life makes the sea appear a deep shade of blue. This phenomenon occurs when microscopic marine plants known as dinoflagellates, produce light through chemical reactions in proteins. Waves disturb these unicellular microorganisms and make them release blue light.
# Bioluminescence is the production and emission of light by a living organism. Bioluminescent creatures are found throughout marine habitats, from the ocean surface to the deep seafloor.Incorrect
Maharashtra coasts have witnessed a fluorescent bluish glow when the waves hit the shoreline in recent days.
The ‘Blue tide’ appears when luminescent marine life makes the sea appear a deep shade of blue. This phenomenon occurs when microscopic marine plants known as dinoflagellates, produce light through chemical reactions in proteins. Waves disturb these unicellular microorganisms and make them release blue light.
# Bioluminescence is the production and emission of light by a living organism. Bioluminescent creatures are found throughout marine habitats, from the ocean surface to the deep seafloor. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOS):
1. Its objective is to diagnose any malignant tumors in the brain.
2. It is a non-invasive technique.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOS) also known as brain fingerprinting is a neuro psychological method of interrogation in which a suspect participation in a crime is detected by electing electro physiological impulses, it is also a tool which measures the changes in electrical activity of the brain associated with the presence of knowledge provoked by probe when the suspect does not have to offer an answer or response.
Statement 2 is correct. It works on EEG (Electro encephalograph machine). BEOS is a non-invasive technique with a great degree of sensitivity and a neuro-psychological method of interrogation which is referred to as brain fingerprinting or brain finger mapping. BEOS is used to identify individuals with experience of participating in a crime.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOS) also known as brain fingerprinting is a neuro psychological method of interrogation in which a suspect participation in a crime is detected by electing electro physiological impulses, it is also a tool which measures the changes in electrical activity of the brain associated with the presence of knowledge provoked by probe when the suspect does not have to offer an answer or response.
Statement 2 is correct. It works on EEG (Electro encephalograph machine). BEOS is a non-invasive technique with a great degree of sensitivity and a neuro-psychological method of interrogation which is referred to as brain fingerprinting or brain finger mapping. BEOS is used to identify individuals with experience of participating in a crime. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe ‘Sea Sparkle’ has been in news recently, what is it?
Correct
Particularly during a warm summery night, where the water is in motion, such as the surf, the sea can radiate light. The bluish light is caused by sea sparkle (Noctiluca Scintillans), a round one-celled organism. In turbulent water, a chemical reaction in sea sparkle causes it to emit light. It is meant to scare off enemies.
The bloom of Noctiluca Scintillans that the Karnataka coast has been witnessing since about a month has displaced microscopic algae called diatoms, which form the basis of the marine food chain. This has deprived food for the planktivorous fish as per scientists from the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), Mangaluru.Incorrect
Particularly during a warm summery night, where the water is in motion, such as the surf, the sea can radiate light. The bluish light is caused by sea sparkle (Noctiluca Scintillans), a round one-celled organism. In turbulent water, a chemical reaction in sea sparkle causes it to emit light. It is meant to scare off enemies.
The bloom of Noctiluca Scintillans that the Karnataka coast has been witnessing since about a month has displaced microscopic algae called diatoms, which form the basis of the marine food chain. This has deprived food for the planktivorous fish as per scientists from the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), Mangaluru. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly defines the idea of ‘Time Capsule’ in news recently?
Correct
A Time Capsule is a container of any size or shape, which accommodates and preserves documents, photos and other artefacts typical of the current era or history and is buried underground, for future generations to unearth and study.
International Time Capsule Society (ITCS) estimates the number of time capsules in the world to around 10,000-15,000 times capsules worldwide.
A time capsule was placed underground outside the Red Fort in 1972 by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, it was dug out by the subsequent Janta Party government.Incorrect
A Time Capsule is a container of any size or shape, which accommodates and preserves documents, photos and other artefacts typical of the current era or history and is buried underground, for future generations to unearth and study.
International Time Capsule Society (ITCS) estimates the number of time capsules in the world to around 10,000-15,000 times capsules worldwide.
A time capsule was placed underground outside the Red Fort in 1972 by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, it was dug out by the subsequent Janta Party government. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe ‘Little Boy’ and ‘Fat Man’ are code names for which of the following missions?
Correct
Little Boy and Fat Man are the only two nuclear weapons ever used in warfare.
Little Boy was dropped on the Japanese city of Hiroshima on August 6, 1945, it was the first nuclear weapon used in a war. ‘Fat Man’ was dropped on the Japanese city of Nagasaki on August 9, 1945.
Operation Gibraltar, 1965 was the codename given to the strategy of Pakistan to infiltrate Jammu and Kashmir, and instigate the locals in starting a rebellion against India.Incorrect
Little Boy and Fat Man are the only two nuclear weapons ever used in warfare.
Little Boy was dropped on the Japanese city of Hiroshima on August 6, 1945, it was the first nuclear weapon used in a war. ‘Fat Man’ was dropped on the Japanese city of Nagasaki on August 9, 1945.
Operation Gibraltar, 1965 was the codename given to the strategy of Pakistan to infiltrate Jammu and Kashmir, and instigate the locals in starting a rebellion against India. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding Ice Stupas in news recently:
1. It is a glacier grafting technique that creates artificial glaciers.
2. These are used for preserving winter water to offset the scarcity in summer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Ice Stupa is a form of glacier grafting technique that creates artificial glaciers.
It is used for storing excess winter water in the form of conical shaped ice heaps. When water is scarce in the summer, the Ice Stupa melts.
These stupas store large reserves of water as ice through the winter and carry the potential to provide for irrigation and drinking water in summers.
Ice Stupa was invented by engineer, innovator and education reformist Sonam Wangchuk, who is the founder-director of the NGO Students’ Educational and Cultural Movement of Ladakh (SECMOL).Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Ice Stupa is a form of glacier grafting technique that creates artificial glaciers.
It is used for storing excess winter water in the form of conical shaped ice heaps. When water is scarce in the summer, the Ice Stupa melts.
These stupas store large reserves of water as ice through the winter and carry the potential to provide for irrigation and drinking water in summers.
Ice Stupa was invented by engineer, innovator and education reformist Sonam Wangchuk, who is the founder-director of the NGO Students’ Educational and Cultural Movement of Ladakh (SECMOL). - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Information Fusion Centre for Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR)” is often seen in news is located in which of the country?
Correct
The Information Fusion Centre for the Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR), an initiative of the Indian Navy and supported by the Government of India launched in December 2018, has started functioning.
The IFC-IOR has been established at Gurugram along with the Information Management and Analysis Centre, jointly administered by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.Incorrect
The Information Fusion Centre for the Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR), an initiative of the Indian Navy and supported by the Government of India launched in December 2018, has started functioning.
The IFC-IOR has been established at Gurugram along with the Information Management and Analysis Centre, jointly administered by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Khadi Oaxaca?
Correct
Khadi Oaxaca is a farm-to-garment collective which comprises around 400
families, which live and work on traditional farms and homesteads in the Oaxaca region of
southern Mexico.
# It was mentioned by the Prime Minister in Mann ki Baat address on Sunday (October 25).Incorrect
Khadi Oaxaca is a farm-to-garment collective which comprises around 400
families, which live and work on traditional farms and homesteads in the Oaxaca region of
southern Mexico.
# It was mentioned by the Prime Minister in Mann ki Baat address on Sunday (October 25). - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Ensemble forecasting:
1. It is a forecasting methodology using a single set of conditions.
2. It can be used for optimization of weather forecasting.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In Ensemble Forecasting, instead of running just a single forecast, the computer model is run a number of times from slightly different starting conditions. The complete set of forecasts is referred to as the ensemble, and individual forecasts within it as ensemble members.
Statement 2 is correct. Various countries have migrated to ensemble weather forecasting for optimal results. A forecast is an estimate of the future state of the atmosphere. It is created by estimating the current state of the atmosphere using observations, and then calculating how this state will evolve in time using a numerical weather prediction computer model.
The ensemble forecasts give the forecaster a much better idea of what weather events may occur at a particular time. By comparing these different forecasts, the forecaster can decide how likely a particular weather event will be.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In Ensemble Forecasting, instead of running just a single forecast, the computer model is run a number of times from slightly different starting conditions. The complete set of forecasts is referred to as the ensemble, and individual forecasts within it as ensemble members.
Statement 2 is correct. Various countries have migrated to ensemble weather forecasting for optimal results. A forecast is an estimate of the future state of the atmosphere. It is created by estimating the current state of the atmosphere using observations, and then calculating how this state will evolve in time using a numerical weather prediction computer model.
The ensemble forecasts give the forecaster a much better idea of what weather events may occur at a particular time. By comparing these different forecasts, the forecaster can decide how likely a particular weather event will be.
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWho among the following has been awarded with Nobel Prize in Literature 2020?
Correct
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2020 has been awarded to American poet and
essayist Louise Glück “for her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes
individual existence universal”.
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2019: Peter Handke “for an influential work that with
linguistic ingenuity has explored the periphery and the specificity of human experience”.
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2018: Olga Tokarczuk “for a narrative imagination that with
encyclopedic passion represents the crossing of boundaries as a form of life”.
Bob Dylan was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2016.Incorrect
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2020 has been awarded to American poet and
essayist Louise Glück “for her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes
individual existence universal”.
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2019: Peter Handke “for an influential work that with
linguistic ingenuity has explored the periphery and the specificity of human experience”.
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2018: Olga Tokarczuk “for a narrative imagination that with
encyclopedic passion represents the crossing of boundaries as a form of life”.
Bob Dylan was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2016. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWho among the following has been awarded with the Nobel Peace Prize 2020?
Correct
The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 has been awarded to World Food Programme
(WFP) “for its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace
in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of
hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.”
The Nobel Peace Prize 2019: Abiy Ahmed Ali “for his efforts to achieve peace and
international cooperation, and in particular for his decisive initiative to resolve the border
conflict with neighboring Eritrea”.
The Nobel Peace Prize 2018: Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad “for their efforts to end the
use of sexual violence as a weapon of war and armed conflict”.
The Nobel Peace Prize 2017: International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN)
“for its work to draw attention to the catastrophic humanitarian consequences of any use of
nuclear weapons and for its ground-breaking efforts to achieve a treaty-based prohibition of
such weapons”.Incorrect
The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 has been awarded to World Food Programme
(WFP) “for its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace
in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of
hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.”
The Nobel Peace Prize 2019: Abiy Ahmed Ali “for his efforts to achieve peace and
international cooperation, and in particular for his decisive initiative to resolve the border
conflict with neighboring Eritrea”.
The Nobel Peace Prize 2018: Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad “for their efforts to end the
use of sexual violence as a weapon of war and armed conflict”.
The Nobel Peace Prize 2017: International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN)
“for its work to draw attention to the catastrophic humanitarian consequences of any use of
nuclear weapons and for its ground-breaking efforts to achieve a treaty-based prohibition of
such weapons”. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWho among the following has been awarded the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in
Economic Sciences 2020?Correct
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred
Nobel 2020 (generally regarded as the Nobel award for Economics) has been awarded
jointly to Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson “for improvements to auction theory and
inventions of new auction formats.”
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize 2019: Abhijit Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer “for
their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty”
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize 2018: William D. Nordhaus “for integrating climate change into
long-run macroeconomic analysis” and Paul M. Romer “for integrating technological
innovations into long-run macroeconomic analysis”
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize 2017: Richard H. Thaler “for his contributions to behavioural
economics”Incorrect
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred
Nobel 2020 (generally regarded as the Nobel award for Economics) has been awarded
jointly to Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson “for improvements to auction theory and
inventions of new auction formats.”
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize 2019: Abhijit Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer “for
their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty”
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize 2018: William D. Nordhaus “for integrating climate change into
long-run macroeconomic analysis” and Paul M. Romer “for integrating technological
innovations into long-run macroeconomic analysis”
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize 2017: Richard H. Thaler “for his contributions to behavioural
economics” - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently Pubpeer website, which monitors image manipulation and duplication, has disclosed 130 research papers for plagiarism by which of the following institute?
Correct
The credibility of the Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (IITR), Lucknow, has come under a cloud after at least 130 papers published by the institute over the years have been listed on a website that monitors image manipulation and duplication.
• The authors and teams of these papers – published between 2004 and 2018 – vary.
• However, Yogeshwer Shukla, the IITR’s chief scientist of food, drug and chemical toxicology, is the common name in 49 of the articles that have been flagged by Pubpeer, the monitoring website.Incorrect
The credibility of the Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (IITR), Lucknow, has come under a cloud after at least 130 papers published by the institute over the years have been listed on a website that monitors image manipulation and duplication.
• The authors and teams of these papers – published between 2004 and 2018 – vary.
• However, Yogeshwer Shukla, the IITR’s chief scientist of food, drug and chemical toxicology, is the common name in 49 of the articles that have been flagged by Pubpeer, the monitoring website. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Washi paper” is sometimes seen in news is famous in which of the following country?
Correct
Once an indispensable part of daily life in Japan, ultra-thin washi paper was used for everything from writing and painting to lampshades, umbrellas, and sliding doors, but demand has plunged as lifestyles have become more westernized.
Despite its 1,300-year history and UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage status, washi paper is struggling to attract consumers and the market value has dropped by more than 50% in the past two decades.
The world’s thinnest paper has helped save historical documents at major museums and libraries — including the Louvre in Paris, the British Museum and Washington’s Library of Congress — from decay.
The traditional hand-made paper is manufactured from plants called kozo, or mulberry, which has fibres that are much longer than materials used for paper in the west such as wood and cotton
Incorrect
Once an indispensable part of daily life in Japan, ultra-thin washi paper was used for everything from writing and painting to lampshades, umbrellas, and sliding doors, but demand has plunged as lifestyles have become more westernized.
Despite its 1,300-year history and UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage status, washi paper is struggling to attract consumers and the market value has dropped by more than 50% in the past two decades.
The world’s thinnest paper has helped save historical documents at major museums and libraries — including the Louvre in Paris, the British Museum and Washington’s Library of Congress — from decay.
The traditional hand-made paper is manufactured from plants called kozo, or mulberry, which has fibres that are much longer than materials used for paper in the west such as wood and cotton
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Methane Hydrates can be found in which of the following location(s)?
- Beneath permafrost
- Shallow sediments along continental margins
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Methane hydrates consist of molecules of natural gas (the chief constituent
of natural gas; methane) enclosed within a solid lattice of water molecules. When brought to
the earth’s surface, one cubic meter of gas hydrate releases 164 cubic meters of natural
gas.
Gas hydrate deposits are found wherever methane occurs in the presence of water under
elevated pressures and at relatively low temperatures, such as beneath permafrost or in
shallow sediments along deepwater continental margins.
# In a recent study conducted by researchers at the Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), an
autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, have found that the
methane hydrate deposits are located in the Krishna-Godavari (KG) basin are of biogenic
origin.
Incorrect
Methane hydrates consist of molecules of natural gas (the chief constituent
of natural gas; methane) enclosed within a solid lattice of water molecules. When brought to
the earth’s surface, one cubic meter of gas hydrate releases 164 cubic meters of natural
gas.
Gas hydrate deposits are found wherever methane occurs in the presence of water under
elevated pressures and at relatively low temperatures, such as beneath permafrost or in
shallow sediments along deepwater continental margins.
# In a recent study conducted by researchers at the Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), an
autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, have found that the
methane hydrate deposits are located in the Krishna-Godavari (KG) basin are of biogenic
origin.
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are type(s) of Intellectual Property?
- Industrial Designs
- Music
- Geographical Indications
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
: Intellectual property (IP) refers to creations of the mind, such as inventions; literary and artistic works; designs; and symbols, names and images used in commerce.
Types of intellectual property:
Copyright is a legal term used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary and artistic works. Works covered by copyright range from books, music, paintings, sculpture and films, to computer programs, databases, advertisements, maps and technical drawings.
Patent is an exclusive right granted for an invention. Generally speaking, a patent provides the patent owner with the right to decide how – or whether – the invention can be used by others.
Trademark is a sign capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises.
Industrial design constitutes the ornamental or aesthetic aspect of an article. A design may consist of three-dimensional features, such as the shape or surface of an article, or of two-dimensional features, such as patterns, lines or color.
Geographical indications and appellations of origin are signs used on goods that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities, a reputation or characteristics that are essentially attributable to that place of origin. Most commonly, a geographical indication includes the name of the place of origin of the goods.
Trade secrets are IP rights on confidential information which may be sold or licensed.
Incorrect
: Intellectual property (IP) refers to creations of the mind, such as inventions; literary and artistic works; designs; and symbols, names and images used in commerce.
Types of intellectual property:
Copyright is a legal term used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary and artistic works. Works covered by copyright range from books, music, paintings, sculpture and films, to computer programs, databases, advertisements, maps and technical drawings.
Patent is an exclusive right granted for an invention. Generally speaking, a patent provides the patent owner with the right to decide how – or whether – the invention can be used by others.
Trademark is a sign capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises.
Industrial design constitutes the ornamental or aesthetic aspect of an article. A design may consist of three-dimensional features, such as the shape or surface of an article, or of two-dimensional features, such as patterns, lines or color.
Geographical indications and appellations of origin are signs used on goods that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities, a reputation or characteristics that are essentially attributable to that place of origin. Most commonly, a geographical indication includes the name of the place of origin of the goods.
Trade secrets are IP rights on confidential information which may be sold or licensed.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Cancer Genome Atlas:
- It is a catalogue of genetic mutations responsible for cancer developed using genome sequencing.
- Indian Cancer Genomics Atlas (ICGA) has been developed by the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Cancer Genome Atlas is a catalogue of genetic mutations responsible for cancer, developed using genome sequencing and bioinformatics.
The Cancer Genome Atlas (TCGA) was a joint effort of the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and the National Human Genome Research Institute (NHGRI), which are both part of the National Institutes of Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. The project then molecularly characterized over 20,000 primary cancer and matched noral samples from 33 cancer types.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The establishment of an ‘Indian Cancer Genomics Atlas (ICGA)’ has been initiated by a consortium of key stakeholders in India led by CSIR, Government of India in which several government agencies, cancer hospitals, academic institutions and private sector partners.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Cancer Genome Atlas is a catalogue of genetic mutations responsible for cancer, developed using genome sequencing and bioinformatics.
The Cancer Genome Atlas (TCGA) was a joint effort of the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and the National Human Genome Research Institute (NHGRI), which are both part of the National Institutes of Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. The project then molecularly characterized over 20,000 primary cancer and matched noral samples from 33 cancer types.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The establishment of an ‘Indian Cancer Genomics Atlas (ICGA)’ has been initiated by a consortium of key stakeholders in India led by CSIR, Government of India in which several government agencies, cancer hospitals, academic institutions and private sector partners.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Torrefaction?
Correct
Torrefaction is a thermal process to convert biomass into a coal-like material, which has better fuel characteristics than the original biomass. Torrefied biomass is more brittle, making grinding easier and less energy intensive. Compared to fresh biomass, storage of the torrefied material can be substantially simplified since biological degradation and water uptake is minimized.
Torrefaction involves the heating of biomass in the absence of oxygen to a temperature of typically 200 to 400°C. The structure of the biomass changes in such a way, that the material becomes brittle, and more hydrophobic. Although the weight loss is about 30%, the energy loss is only 10%. Main product is the solid, torrefied biomass.
The increasing air pollution due to the burning of stubble and agro-residue by local farmers has become a major concern for the country. Torrefaction offers a potential solution for it.
Incorrect
Torrefaction is a thermal process to convert biomass into a coal-like material, which has better fuel characteristics than the original biomass. Torrefied biomass is more brittle, making grinding easier and less energy intensive. Compared to fresh biomass, storage of the torrefied material can be substantially simplified since biological degradation and water uptake is minimized.
Torrefaction involves the heating of biomass in the absence of oxygen to a temperature of typically 200 to 400°C. The structure of the biomass changes in such a way, that the material becomes brittle, and more hydrophobic. Although the weight loss is about 30%, the energy loss is only 10%. Main product is the solid, torrefied biomass.
The increasing air pollution due to the burning of stubble and agro-residue by local farmers has become a major concern for the country. Torrefaction offers a potential solution for it.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement is correct regarding the ‘Havana Syndrome’?
Correct
In late 2016, US diplomats and other employees stationed in Havana reported feeling ill after hearing strange sounds and experiencing odd physical sensations in their hotel rooms or homes. The symptoms included nausea, severe headaches, fatigue, dizziness, sleep problems, and hearing loss, which have since come to be known as “Havana Syndrome”.
This mystery illness suffered by US diplomats in Cuba was most likely caused by directed microwave radiation, a US government report by the National Academies of Sciences has found.
Incorrect
In late 2016, US diplomats and other employees stationed in Havana reported feeling ill after hearing strange sounds and experiencing odd physical sensations in their hotel rooms or homes. The symptoms included nausea, severe headaches, fatigue, dizziness, sleep problems, and hearing loss, which have since come to be known as “Havana Syndrome”.
This mystery illness suffered by US diplomats in Cuba was most likely caused by directed microwave radiation, a US government report by the National Academies of Sciences has found.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following provisions is/are NOT covered under TRIPS-PLUS?
- Agriculture
- Manufacturing
- Data Exclusivity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
TRIPs Plus are higher level of protection norms demanded by the developed countries that are not prescribed by the WTO’s TRIPs regime.
- Although they are named as ‘TRIPS-Plus,’ they are not formally related to TRIPs.
Rather, the term is used to indicate that these requirements go beyond the minimum standards imposed by TRIPs.
Many developing countries who are members of FTAs are under pressure to enact these tougher conditions in their patent laws.
An example for advanced norms under TRIPs Plus is the protection demanded by developed countries for data exclusivity.
Incorrect
TRIPs Plus are higher level of protection norms demanded by the developed countries that are not prescribed by the WTO’s TRIPs regime.
- Although they are named as ‘TRIPS-Plus,’ they are not formally related to TRIPs.
Rather, the term is used to indicate that these requirements go beyond the minimum standards imposed by TRIPs.
Many developing countries who are members of FTAs are under pressure to enact these tougher conditions in their patent laws.
An example for advanced norms under TRIPs Plus is the protection demanded by developed countries for data exclusivity.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Shahi Litchi” which earned the Geographical Indication tag recently is famous in which of the following state?
Correct
The Shahi Litchi, a speciality of the north Bihar district of Muzaffarpur which earned the Geographical Indication tag a couple of years ago, stands apart from other varieties by virtue of its unique fragrance, extra-juicy pulp and smaller-than-usual seed.
Incorrect
The Shahi Litchi, a speciality of the north Bihar district of Muzaffarpur which earned the Geographical Indication tag a couple of years ago, stands apart from other varieties by virtue of its unique fragrance, extra-juicy pulp and smaller-than-usual seed.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe word “Yeti” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
In 1951, a British explorer named Eric Shipton looking for an alternative route up Mt. Everest found a footprint that appeared to be hominoid.
He took a picture, and the mystery of the Yeti—a Sherpa word for “wild man”—cast a spell over the world.
Daniel Taylor, author of Yeti: The Ecology of a Mystery has been searching for signs of this “Abominable Snowman” in the high Himalayas since he was a child.
While there are only claims of sightings of Yeti and giant footprints on snow, results from two studies based on samples collected from the Himalayas do not provide any evidence in support of Yeti. Both studies have indicated that samples belonged to bears.
An August 2014 paper in the journal Proceedings of the Royal Society B studied two hair samples — one from Ladakh and the other from Bhutan. These had close genetic affinity to polar bears or a previously unrecognised bear species.
A November 2017 study published in the Proceedings of the Royal Society B analysed 24 mitochondrial DNA samples of hair, tissue, bone, and faeces of Himalayan brown bears and purported Yeti collected from the Tibetan Plateau-Himalaya region.
Eight of the nine purported Yeti samples matched regional bear populations, including the Himalayan brown bear (Ursus arctos isabellinus).
The results “strongly suggest that the biological basis of the Yeti legend is local brown and black bears”, the researchers concluded
Incorrect
In 1951, a British explorer named Eric Shipton looking for an alternative route up Mt. Everest found a footprint that appeared to be hominoid.
He took a picture, and the mystery of the Yeti—a Sherpa word for “wild man”—cast a spell over the world.
Daniel Taylor, author of Yeti: The Ecology of a Mystery has been searching for signs of this “Abominable Snowman” in the high Himalayas since he was a child.
While there are only claims of sightings of Yeti and giant footprints on snow, results from two studies based on samples collected from the Himalayas do not provide any evidence in support of Yeti. Both studies have indicated that samples belonged to bears.
An August 2014 paper in the journal Proceedings of the Royal Society B studied two hair samples — one from Ladakh and the other from Bhutan. These had close genetic affinity to polar bears or a previously unrecognised bear species.
A November 2017 study published in the Proceedings of the Royal Society B analysed 24 mitochondrial DNA samples of hair, tissue, bone, and faeces of Himalayan brown bears and purported Yeti collected from the Tibetan Plateau-Himalaya region.
Eight of the nine purported Yeti samples matched regional bear populations, including the Himalayan brown bear (Ursus arctos isabellinus).
The results “strongly suggest that the biological basis of the Yeti legend is local brown and black bears”, the researchers concluded
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe word “hobbits” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The discovery of Homo luzonensis, a small-bodied hominin on April 2019, from the island of Luzon in the Philippines was based on studies carried out on seven teeth and six small bones that were recovered
- The hominin lived at least 50,000-67,000 years ago in the island.
The discovery of Denisovans, an extinct species of human, in 2008 was based on fragmentary remains.
Genetic studies carried on a small finger sample suggested that they survived for thousands of years and died out just 40,000 years ago.
Similarly, in the case of ‘hobbits’ (Homo floresiensis), which was discovered in 2004 in Flores, Indonesia and found to have survived till as recently as 12,000 years ago, the confirmation of its hominin nature came from studying a variety of bones.
Fairly complete cranium and mandible, right leg, less complete bones of the left leg, hands and feet, and fragments of vertebral column, ribs, sacrum (triangular bone at the base of the spine) among others were recovered and studied.
Incorrect
The discovery of Homo luzonensis, a small-bodied hominin on April 2019, from the island of Luzon in the Philippines was based on studies carried out on seven teeth and six small bones that were recovered
- The hominin lived at least 50,000-67,000 years ago in the island.
The discovery of Denisovans, an extinct species of human, in 2008 was based on fragmentary remains.
Genetic studies carried on a small finger sample suggested that they survived for thousands of years and died out just 40,000 years ago.
Similarly, in the case of ‘hobbits’ (Homo floresiensis), which was discovered in 2004 in Flores, Indonesia and found to have survived till as recently as 12,000 years ago, the confirmation of its hominin nature came from studying a variety of bones.
Fairly complete cranium and mandible, right leg, less complete bones of the left leg, hands and feet, and fragments of vertebral column, ribs, sacrum (triangular bone at the base of the spine) among others were recovered and studied.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the deep sea mining:
- Allocation of deep sea mining areas is vested with International Seabed Authority.
- India was the first country to receive the status of a Pioneer Investor in 1987 for nodule exploration in Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The International Seabed Authority (ISA), an autonomous international organisation established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, allots the ‘area’ for deep-sea mining.
India was the first country to receive the status of a Pioneer Investor in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration.
In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50% was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km.
Incorrect
The International Seabed Authority (ISA), an autonomous international organisation established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, allots the ‘area’ for deep-sea mining.
India was the first country to receive the status of a Pioneer Investor in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration.
In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50% was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Founder effect” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Genetic drift can have major effects when a population is sharply reduced in size by a natural disaster (bottleneck effect) or when a small group splits off from the main population to found a colony (founder effect).
The founder effect is another extreme example of drift, one that occurs when a small group of individuals breaks off from a larger population to establish a colony.
The new colony is isolated from the original population, and the founding individuals may not represent the full genetic diversity of the original population.
That is, alleles in the founding population may be present at different frequencies than in the original population, and some alleles may be missing altogether.
The founder effect is similar in concept to the bottleneck effect, but it occurs via a different mechanism (colonization rather than catastrophe).
Genetic studies done on the people of the Lakshwadeep archipelago by a team, led by K. Thangaraj at CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), for the first time have shown that a majority of human ancestry in Lakshadweep is largely derived from South Asia with minor influences from East and West Eurasia.
And, there was no evidence of early human migration through the Lakshadweep islands.
“We found a strong founder effect for both paternal and maternal lineages — a sign that the island population had limited genetic mixing”, said by scientists.
Incorrect
Genetic drift can have major effects when a population is sharply reduced in size by a natural disaster (bottleneck effect) or when a small group splits off from the main population to found a colony (founder effect).
The founder effect is another extreme example of drift, one that occurs when a small group of individuals breaks off from a larger population to establish a colony.
The new colony is isolated from the original population, and the founding individuals may not represent the full genetic diversity of the original population.
That is, alleles in the founding population may be present at different frequencies than in the original population, and some alleles may be missing altogether.
The founder effect is similar in concept to the bottleneck effect, but it occurs via a different mechanism (colonization rather than catastrophe).
Genetic studies done on the people of the Lakshwadeep archipelago by a team, led by K. Thangaraj at CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), for the first time have shown that a majority of human ancestry in Lakshadweep is largely derived from South Asia with minor influences from East and West Eurasia.
And, there was no evidence of early human migration through the Lakshadweep islands.
“We found a strong founder effect for both paternal and maternal lineages — a sign that the island population had limited genetic mixing”, said by scientists.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Earth’s oldest known mineral is found in which of the following Continent?
Correct
A meteorite that crashed into rural southeastern Australia in a fireball in 1969 contained the oldest material ever found on Earth, stardust that predated the formation of our solar system by billions of years, scientists said on January 13 – 2020.
The oldest of 40 tiny dust grains trapped inside the meteorite fragments retrieved around the town of Murchison in Victoria state dated from about 7 billion years ago, about 2.5 billion years before the sun, Earth and rest of our solar system formed, the researchers said.
Scientists previously had found a pre-solar grain in the Murchison meteorite that was about 5.5 billion years old, until now the oldest-known solid material on Earth.
The oldest-known minerals that formed on Earth are found in rock from Australia’s Jack Hills that formed 4.4 billion years ago, 100 million years after the planet formed.
Incorrect
A meteorite that crashed into rural southeastern Australia in a fireball in 1969 contained the oldest material ever found on Earth, stardust that predated the formation of our solar system by billions of years, scientists said on January 13 – 2020.
The oldest of 40 tiny dust grains trapped inside the meteorite fragments retrieved around the town of Murchison in Victoria state dated from about 7 billion years ago, about 2.5 billion years before the sun, Earth and rest of our solar system formed, the researchers said.
Scientists previously had found a pre-solar grain in the Murchison meteorite that was about 5.5 billion years old, until now the oldest-known solid material on Earth.
The oldest-known minerals that formed on Earth are found in rock from Australia’s Jack Hills that formed 4.4 billion years ago, 100 million years after the planet formed.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the gas hydrates:
- Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets trapped in well-defined cages
of water molecules forming crystalline solids.
- Gas hydrates are formed naturally under the sea bed and glaciers under high pressure,
low temperature conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Gas hydrates.
- Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets trapped in welldefined
cages of water molecules forming crystalline solids.
- In terrestrial conditions, gas hydrates are formed naturally under the sea bed
and glaciers under high pressure, low temperature conditions. Methane hydrate is
a potential source of natural gas.
- Researchers at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras have experimentally
shown that methane and carbon dioxide (CO2) can exist as gas hydrates at
temperatures and pressures seen in interstellar atmosphere.
- The methane and CO2 hydrates were produced in the lab at very low pressures (ten
thousand billionth of atmospheric pressure) and temperature (as low as -263 degree
- C) to simulate the conditions of deep space.
Incorrect
Gas hydrates.
- Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets trapped in welldefined
cages of water molecules forming crystalline solids.
- In terrestrial conditions, gas hydrates are formed naturally under the sea bed
and glaciers under high pressure, low temperature conditions. Methane hydrate is
a potential source of natural gas.
- Researchers at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras have experimentally
shown that methane and carbon dioxide (CO2) can exist as gas hydrates at
temperatures and pressures seen in interstellar atmosphere.
- The methane and CO2 hydrates were produced in the lab at very low pressures (ten
thousand billionth of atmospheric pressure) and temperature (as low as -263 degree
- C) to simulate the conditions of deep space.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Gluten:
- It is a general name for the proteins found in fruits and vegetables.
- Gluten is used as an additive to improve texture and promote moisture retention in a
variety of processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Gluten
- Gluten is a family of storage proteins — formally known as prolamins — that are
naturally found in certain cereal grains, such as wheat, barley, and rye.
- Gluten offers a variety of functional culinary benefits and is responsible for the soft,
chewy texture that is characteristic of many gluten-containing, grain-based foods.
- Because of these unique physical properties, gluten is also frequently used as an
additive to improve texture and promote moisture retention in a variety of processed
foods.
Gluten may be found in a variety of whole and processed foods, including:
- Grains: whole wheat, wheat bran, barley, rye, triticale, spelt, kamut, couscous,
farro, semolina, bulgur, farina, einkorn, durum, wheat germ, cracked wheat, matzo,
mir (a cross between wheat and rye)
- Processed grain-based products: crackers, bread, breadcrumbs, pasta, seitan,
wheat-containing soba noodles, some veggie burgers, cookies, pastries
- Other foods and beverages: barley malt, malt vinegar, soy sauce, certain salad
dressings, sauces or gravies thickened with flour, bouillon and some broths, certain
spice blends, flavored chips, beer, certain kinds of wine
Incorrect
Gluten
- Gluten is a family of storage proteins — formally known as prolamins — that are
naturally found in certain cereal grains, such as wheat, barley, and rye.
- Gluten offers a variety of functional culinary benefits and is responsible for the soft,
chewy texture that is characteristic of many gluten-containing, grain-based foods.
- Because of these unique physical properties, gluten is also frequently used as an
additive to improve texture and promote moisture retention in a variety of processed
foods.
Gluten may be found in a variety of whole and processed foods, including:
- Grains: whole wheat, wheat bran, barley, rye, triticale, spelt, kamut, couscous,
farro, semolina, bulgur, farina, einkorn, durum, wheat germ, cracked wheat, matzo,
mir (a cross between wheat and rye)
- Processed grain-based products: crackers, bread, breadcrumbs, pasta, seitan,
wheat-containing soba noodles, some veggie burgers, cookies, pastries
- Other foods and beverages: barley malt, malt vinegar, soy sauce, certain salad
dressings, sauces or gravies thickened with flour, bouillon and some broths, certain
spice blends, flavored chips, beer, certain kinds of wine
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Aerosols:
- They are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere.
- Cold climate with dry periods decreases the concentration of Aerosols in the Atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Aerosols are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere. When these
particles are sufficiently large, we notice their presence as they scatter and absorb sunlight.
- Their scattering of sunlight can reduce visibility (haze) and redden sunrises and
sunsets. Aerosols interact both directly and indirectly with the Earth’s radiation
budget and climate.
- As a direct effect, the aerosols scatter sunlight directly back into space.
- As an indirect effect, aerosols in the lower atmosphere can modify the size of cloud
particles, changing how the clouds reflect and absorb sunlight, thereby affecting the
Earth’s energy budget
- Aerosols come from both natural and human sources—and sometimes both at once.
Dust, for example, is scoured from deserts, the dried-out edges of rivers, dry
lakebeds, and more.
- Its concentrations in the atmosphere rise and fall with climate; in cold, dry,
periods in the planet‘s history like the last ice age, more dust filled the
atmosphere than during warmer stretches of Earth‘s history.
Incorrect
Aerosols are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere. When these
particles are sufficiently large, we notice their presence as they scatter and absorb sunlight.
- Their scattering of sunlight can reduce visibility (haze) and redden sunrises and
sunsets. Aerosols interact both directly and indirectly with the Earth’s radiation
budget and climate.
- As a direct effect, the aerosols scatter sunlight directly back into space.
- As an indirect effect, aerosols in the lower atmosphere can modify the size of cloud
particles, changing how the clouds reflect and absorb sunlight, thereby affecting the
Earth’s energy budget
- Aerosols come from both natural and human sources—and sometimes both at once.
Dust, for example, is scoured from deserts, the dried-out edges of rivers, dry
lakebeds, and more.
- Its concentrations in the atmosphere rise and fall with climate; in cold, dry,
periods in the planet‘s history like the last ice age, more dust filled the
atmosphere than during warmer stretches of Earth‘s history.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyHydro-dynamic trapping, Solubility trapping and Mineral trapping is related to
which of the following?
Correct
In recent years, fundamental research has focused increasingly on the short
and long term effects of CO2 injection into reservoirs to assess the feasibility of CO2
storage on a commercial scale.
- Sequestration processes involve different trapping mechanisms according to the
hydrodynamic, physical and chemical conditions in the formation.
- It is common to divide these mechanisms into four different categories:
hydrodynamic trapping, residual trapping, solubility trapping, and mineral
trapping.
Incorrect
In recent years, fundamental research has focused increasingly on the short
and long term effects of CO2 injection into reservoirs to assess the feasibility of CO2
storage on a commercial scale.
- Sequestration processes involve different trapping mechanisms according to the
hydrodynamic, physical and chemical conditions in the formation.
- It is common to divide these mechanisms into four different categories:
hydrodynamic trapping, residual trapping, solubility trapping, and mineral
trapping.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the composite materials:
- A composite material is a combination of two materials with different physical and
chemical properties.
- They are used in the development of Agni missile and Light Combat Aircraft (Tejas).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A composite material is a combination of two materials with different
physical and chemical properties.
- When they are combined they create a material which is specialised to do a certain
job, for instance to become stronger, lighter or resistant to electricity.
- They can also improve strength and stiffness.
- The reason for their use over traditional materials is because they improve the
properties of their base materials and are applicable in many situations.
- Use of composite materials in indigenously developed aircraft (Tejas), missiles
(Agni) and in defense and civilian sectors is poised for big growth, where Indian
companies are set to get into manufacturing mode.
Incorrect
A composite material is a combination of two materials with different
physical and chemical properties.
- When they are combined they create a material which is specialised to do a certain
job, for instance to become stronger, lighter or resistant to electricity.
- They can also improve strength and stiffness.
- The reason for their use over traditional materials is because they improve the
properties of their base materials and are applicable in many situations.
- Use of composite materials in indigenously developed aircraft (Tejas), missiles
(Agni) and in defense and civilian sectors is poised for big growth, where Indian
companies are set to get into manufacturing mode.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “RV Polarstern”, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The German icebreaker RV Polarstern, a hulking ship will set out for the Arctic packed with supplies and scientific equipment for a year-long mission to explore the planet’s frigid far north.
- The icebreaker will be the base for scientists from 17 nations studying the impact of climate change on the Arctic and how it could affect the rest of the world.
Spearheaded by the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany, MOSAiC (multidisciplinary drifting observatory for the Study of Arctic Climate expedition), the largest ever Arctic expedition in history, will be the first to conduct a study of this scale at the North Pole for an entire year.
Incorrect
The German icebreaker RV Polarstern, a hulking ship will set out for the Arctic packed with supplies and scientific equipment for a year-long mission to explore the planet’s frigid far north.
- The icebreaker will be the base for scientists from 17 nations studying the impact of climate change on the Arctic and how it could affect the rest of the world.
Spearheaded by the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany, MOSAiC (multidisciplinary drifting observatory for the Study of Arctic Climate expedition), the largest ever Arctic expedition in history, will be the first to conduct a study of this scale at the North Pole for an entire year.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe terms “Dakshin Gangotri, Maitri, Bharati, Himadri and Himansh” sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
India began exploring the Antarctic with its first expedition in 1981 and since then has launched 37 expeditions.
The country’s first Antarctic base ‘Dakshin Gangotri’ was established in 1983-84 in the ice shelf of East Antarctica.
At present, India has two permanent research bases – ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’.
In addition, India has a research station called ‘Himadri’ in the Arctic and Himansh in the Himalaya.
These high latitudes and cold desert regions are considered ideal for astronomical research as well.
Incorrect
India began exploring the Antarctic with its first expedition in 1981 and since then has launched 37 expeditions.
The country’s first Antarctic base ‘Dakshin Gangotri’ was established in 1983-84 in the ice shelf of East Antarctica.
At present, India has two permanent research bases – ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’.
In addition, India has a research station called ‘Himadri’ in the Arctic and Himansh in the Himalaya.
These high latitudes and cold desert regions are considered ideal for astronomical research as well.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “CAFE norms” often seen in news are related to which of the following?
- a) Cyber rules
Correct
CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency/Economy) norms aim at lowering fuel consumption (or improving fuel efficiency) of vehicles.
CAFE is the average fuel efficiency of all vehicles produced by a manufacturer in a given period, taking into consideration the sales volume of each model.
The government expects that a strict CAFE target will provide incentives to auto makers to produce and sell more EVs, to improve their average fuel efficiency.
Incorrect
CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency/Economy) norms aim at lowering fuel consumption (or improving fuel efficiency) of vehicles.
CAFE is the average fuel efficiency of all vehicles produced by a manufacturer in a given period, taking into consideration the sales volume of each model.
The government expects that a strict CAFE target will provide incentives to auto makers to produce and sell more EVs, to improve their average fuel efficiency.
Miscellaneous 3
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements Doppler Radars:
1. The Doppler Effect causes the received frequency of a source to differ from the sent
frequency if the distance between the source and the receiver is changing.
2. The frequency of the received wave forms increases with increasing distance between
source and receiver.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. When wave energy like sound or radio waves travels
from two objects, the wavelength can seem to be changed if one or both of them are moving.
This is called the Doppler effect.
The Doppler effect causes the received frequency of a source (how it is perceived when it
gets to its destination) to differ from the sent frequency if there is motion that is
increasing or decreasing the distance between the source and the receiver.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When the distance between the source and receiver of
electromagnetic waves remains constant, the frequency waves is the same in both places.
When the distance between the source and receiver of electromagnetic waves is increasing,
the frequency of the received wave forms is lower than the frequency of the source wave
form. When the distance is decreasing, the frequency of the received wave form will be
higher than the source wave form.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. When wave energy like sound or radio waves travels
from two objects, the wavelength can seem to be changed if one or both of them are moving.
This is called the Doppler effect.
The Doppler effect causes the received frequency of a source (how it is perceived when it
gets to its destination) to differ from the sent frequency if there is motion that is
increasing or decreasing the distance between the source and the receiver.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When the distance between the source and receiver of
electromagnetic waves remains constant, the frequency waves is the same in both places.
When the distance between the source and receiver of electromagnetic waves is increasing,
the frequency of the received wave forms is lower than the frequency of the source wave
form. When the distance is decreasing, the frequency of the received wave form will be
higher than the source wave form.
Other Technological developments
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor:
1.It is a large-scale scientific experiment intended to prove the viability of fusion as an energy source.
2.India is one of the participating countries in the project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is a large-scale scientific experiment that intends to prove the viability of fusion as an energy source.
ITER is currently under construction in the south of France. Seven partners—China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States—have pooled their financial and scientific resources to build this fusion reactor.ITER will not produce electricity, but it will resolve critical scientific and technical issues in order to take fusion to the point where industrial applications can be designed. By producing 500 MW of fusion power from 50 MW of power injected in the systems that heat the plasma—a “gain factor” of 10—ITER will open the way to the next step: a demonstration fusion power plant.
A fusion reactor would produce virtually no CO2 or atmospheric pollutants, and its radioactive waste products would mostly be very short-lived compared to those produced by conventional nuclear fission reactors.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is a large-scale scientific experiment that intends to prove the viability of fusion as an energy source.
ITER is currently under construction in the south of France. Seven partners—China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States—have pooled their financial and scientific resources to build this fusion reactor.ITER will not produce electricity, but it will resolve critical scientific and technical issues in order to take fusion to the point where industrial applications can be designed. By producing 500 MW of fusion power from 50 MW of power injected in the systems that heat the plasma—a “gain factor” of 10—ITER will open the way to the next step: a demonstration fusion power plant.
A fusion reactor would produce virtually no CO2 or atmospheric pollutants, and its radioactive waste products would mostly be very short-lived compared to those produced by conventional nuclear fission reactors. - Question 2 of 16
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhere is Barakah Nuclear Power Plant located?
Correct
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has recently announced that it has started operations in the first of four reactors at the Barakah nuclear power station – the first nuclear power plant in the Arab world.
Nuclear fission has begun in one of four reactors at the Barakah plant, which uses South Korean technology. The plant was due to open in 2017 but start-up was delayed for safety requirements.Incorrect
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has recently announced that it has started operations in the first of four reactors at the Barakah nuclear power station – the first nuclear power plant in the Arab world.
Nuclear fission has begun in one of four reactors at the Barakah plant, which uses South Korean technology. The plant was due to open in 2017 but start-up was delayed for safety requirements. - Question 3 of 16
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding BEEG (Bio-compost Enriched Eco-friendly Globule) balls:
1. These are seed balls developed by Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
2. There is no need for digging pits for planting saplings using BEEG balls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. IIT Kanpur has developed seed balls named BEEG (Bio -compost Enriched Eco-friendly Globule) which will help people and farmers in plantation with safety in pandemic. It has been developed in collaboration with Agnys Waste Management Private Limited (start-up at IIT Kanpur).
Statement 2 is correct. Seed Balls are comprised of variety of seeds, compost, and clay. There is no need for digging pits for planting saplings. These seed balls germinate on coming in contact with water.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. IIT Kanpur has developed seed balls named BEEG (Bio -compost Enriched Eco-friendly Globule) which will help people and farmers in plantation with safety in pandemic. It has been developed in collaboration with Agnys Waste Management Private Limited (start-up at IIT Kanpur).
Statement 2 is correct. Seed Balls are comprised of variety of seeds, compost, and clay. There is no need for digging pits for planting saplings. These seed balls germinate on coming in contact with water. - Question 4 of 16
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the SalivaDirect Diagnostic test for COVID-19:
1. It is an antibody-based test for SARS-COV-2 virus.
2. It has been developed by researchers at the Yale School of Public Health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) have granted an Emergency Use Authorization for SalivaDirect, a saliva-based test for COVID-19.
Statement 1 is incorrect. It has been developed by researchers at the Yale School of Public Health in collaboration with the National Basketball Association (NBA).
Statement 2 is correct. It is an RT-PCR based test. Collecting and testing saliva samples involves three steps: collecting saliva without preservative buffers, proteinase K treatment and heat inactivation, and duplex RT-qPCR virus detection.Incorrect
U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) have granted an Emergency Use Authorization for SalivaDirect, a saliva-based test for COVID-19.
Statement 1 is incorrect. It has been developed by researchers at the Yale School of Public Health in collaboration with the National Basketball Association (NBA).
Statement 2 is correct. It is an RT-PCR based test. Collecting and testing saliva samples involves three steps: collecting saliva without preservative buffers, proteinase K treatment and heat inactivation, and duplex RT-qPCR virus detection. - Question 5 of 16
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the LIDAR (Light Detection and
Ranging):
1. It uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure variable distances.
2. LIDAR can be used to generate three-dimensional information about the shape of the
Earth and its surface characteristics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
LIDAR, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth. These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system — generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
When an airborne laser is pointed at a targeted area on the ground, the beam of light is reflected by the surface it encounters. A sensor records this reflected light to measure a range.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
LIDAR, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth. These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system — generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
When an airborne laser is pointed at a targeted area on the ground, the beam of light is reflected by the surface it encounters. A sensor records this reflected light to measure a range.
- Question 6 of 16
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Positron emission tomography
(PET):
1. It is done to evaluate tissue and organ functioning in the body.
2. It is completely radiation free and does not use any radioactive materials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan is an
imaging test that helps reveal how the tissues and organs in the body are functioning.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Positron emission tomography (PET) uses small amounts of
radioactive materials called radiotracers or radiopharmaceuticals, a special camera and a
computer to evaluate organ and tissue functions. By identifying changes at the cellular
level, PET may detect the early onset of disease before other imaging tests can.
# Scientists in the Netherlands have discovered a potential new organ in the human throat,
they have identified a set of salivary glands deep in the upper part of the throat and have
named them “tubarial salivary glands”.
The new organ was discovered while scientists were studying prostate cancer cells using
PSMA PET-CT technology — a combination of CT scans and positron emission tomography
(PET) — which is good in detecting salivary gland tissues.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan is an
imaging test that helps reveal how the tissues and organs in the body are functioning.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Positron emission tomography (PET) uses small amounts of
radioactive materials called radiotracers or radiopharmaceuticals, a special camera and a
computer to evaluate organ and tissue functions. By identifying changes at the cellular
level, PET may detect the early onset of disease before other imaging tests can.
# Scientists in the Netherlands have discovered a potential new organ in the human throat,
they have identified a set of salivary glands deep in the upper part of the throat and have
named them “tubarial salivary glands”.
The new organ was discovered while scientists were studying prostate cancer cells using
PSMA PET-CT technology — a combination of CT scans and positron emission tomography
(PET) — which is good in detecting salivary gland tissues. - Question 7 of 16
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Skai” sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Massachusetts startup Alaka’i has designed a flying car – Skai – that the company touts as the “first air mobility vehicle powered by hydrogen fuel cells”.
• The hydrogen fuel cells give the five-passenger Skai a maximum range of 400 miles (640 km) with a flight time of up to four hours.
• Like a drone, the Skai takes off and lands vertically. It’s one of many similar electric flying crafts in production, including prototypes from Boeing and Airbus that made successful test flights this year, according to Vertical Flight Society, an industry group.
• Most are powered by batteries, which can add a lot of weight. The Skai instead uses very light hydrogen fuel cells to run its rotors, giving it a range of 644 km and the capacity to carry 454 kilograms in people or freight, the company says
\Incorrect
Massachusetts startup Alaka’i has designed a flying car – Skai – that the company touts as the “first air mobility vehicle powered by hydrogen fuel cells”.
• The hydrogen fuel cells give the five-passenger Skai a maximum range of 400 miles (640 km) with a flight time of up to four hours.
• Like a drone, the Skai takes off and lands vertically. It’s one of many similar electric flying crafts in production, including prototypes from Boeing and Airbus that made successful test flights this year, according to Vertical Flight Society, an industry group.
• Most are powered by batteries, which can add a lot of weight. The Skai instead uses very light hydrogen fuel cells to run its rotors, giving it a range of 644 km and the capacity to carry 454 kilograms in people or freight, the company says
\ - Question 8 of 16
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the electronic tattoo:
1. It is made of a piezoelectric polymer called polyvinylidene fluoride, capable of generating its own electric charge in response to mechanical stress.
2. It is a wearable device that can be placed on the skin to measure a variety of body responses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
A novel electronic tattoo made from stretchy, lightweight material could make heart health monitoring easier and more accurate than existing electrocardiograph machines.
• This is the latest advance in the team’s electronic tattoo technology, a graphene-based wearable device that can be placed on the skin to measure a variety of body responses, from electrical to biomechanical signals.
• The latest e-tattoo developed by researchers at the University of Texas at Austin in the U.S. is so light and stretchable that it can be placed over the heart for extended periods with little or no discomfort.
• It also measures cardiac health in two ways, taking electrocardiograph and seismo-cardiograph readings simultaneously.
• The electrocardiogram (ECG) method records the rates of electrical activity produced each time the heart beats.
• Seismocardiography (SCG) is a measurement technique using chest vibrations associated with heartbeats.
• Powered remotely by a smartphone, the e-tattoo is the first ultrathin and stretchable technology to measure both ECG and SCG.
• e-tattoo is made of a piezoelectric polymer called polyvinylidene fluoride, capable of generating its own electric charge in response to mechanical stress.
• The device also includes 3D digital image correlation technology that is used to map chest vibrations in order to identify the best location on the chest to place the e-tattoo.Incorrect
A novel electronic tattoo made from stretchy, lightweight material could make heart health monitoring easier and more accurate than existing electrocardiograph machines.
• This is the latest advance in the team’s electronic tattoo technology, a graphene-based wearable device that can be placed on the skin to measure a variety of body responses, from electrical to biomechanical signals.
• The latest e-tattoo developed by researchers at the University of Texas at Austin in the U.S. is so light and stretchable that it can be placed over the heart for extended periods with little or no discomfort.
• It also measures cardiac health in two ways, taking electrocardiograph and seismo-cardiograph readings simultaneously.
• The electrocardiogram (ECG) method records the rates of electrical activity produced each time the heart beats.
• Seismocardiography (SCG) is a measurement technique using chest vibrations associated with heartbeats.
• Powered remotely by a smartphone, the e-tattoo is the first ultrathin and stretchable technology to measure both ECG and SCG.
• e-tattoo is made of a piezoelectric polymer called polyvinylidene fluoride, capable of generating its own electric charge in response to mechanical stress.
• The device also includes 3D digital image correlation technology that is used to map chest vibrations in order to identify the best location on the chest to place the e-tattoo. - Question 9 of 16
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyRecently, which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) has developed a unified script for nine Indian languages, named the Bharati Script?
Correct
Taking a cue from European languages, several of which have the same (Roman letter–based) script, Srinivasa Chakravathy’s team at IIT Madras has, over the last decade, developed a unified script for nine Indian languages, named the Bharati script.
• The team has now gone a step further since developing the script: it has developed a method for reading documents in Bharati script using a multi-lingual optical character recognition (OCR) scheme.
• The team has also created a finger-spelling method that can be used to generate a sign language for hearing-impaired persons.
• In collaboration with TCS Mumbai, the researchers have found a way for persons with hearing disability to generate signatures using this finger-spelling technique.•The scripts that have been integrated include Devnagari, Bengali, Gurmukhi, Gujarati, Oriya, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Tamil. English and Urdu have not been integrated so far.
• In general, optical character recognition schemes involve first separating (or segmenting) the document into text and non-text.
• The text is then segmented into paragraphs, sentences words and letters.
• Each letter has to be recognised as a character in some recognisable format such as ASCII or Unicode.
• The letter has various components such as the basic consonant, consonant modifiers, vowels etcIncorrect
Taking a cue from European languages, several of which have the same (Roman letter–based) script, Srinivasa Chakravathy’s team at IIT Madras has, over the last decade, developed a unified script for nine Indian languages, named the Bharati script.
• The team has now gone a step further since developing the script: it has developed a method for reading documents in Bharati script using a multi-lingual optical character recognition (OCR) scheme.
• The team has also created a finger-spelling method that can be used to generate a sign language for hearing-impaired persons.
• In collaboration with TCS Mumbai, the researchers have found a way for persons with hearing disability to generate signatures using this finger-spelling technique.•The scripts that have been integrated include Devnagari, Bengali, Gurmukhi, Gujarati, Oriya, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Tamil. English and Urdu have not been integrated so far.
• In general, optical character recognition schemes involve first separating (or segmenting) the document into text and non-text.
• The text is then segmented into paragraphs, sentences words and letters.
• Each letter has to be recognised as a character in some recognisable format such as ASCII or Unicode.
• The letter has various components such as the basic consonant, consonant modifiers, vowels etc - Question 10 of 16
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe word “Roc” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The world’s largest aircraft took off over the Mojave Desert in California, the first flight for the carbon-composite plane built by Stratolaunch Systems Corp, started by late Microsoft co-founder Paul Allen, as the company enters the lucrative private space market.
The white airplane called Roc, which has a wingspan the length of an American football field and is powered by six engines on a twin fuselage, took to the air shortly before 7 a.m. Pacific time (1400 GMT) and stayed aloft for more than two hours before landing safely back at the Mojave Air and Space Port as a crowd of hundreds of people cheered.
Incorrect
The world’s largest aircraft took off over the Mojave Desert in California, the first flight for the carbon-composite plane built by Stratolaunch Systems Corp, started by late Microsoft co-founder Paul Allen, as the company enters the lucrative private space market.
The white airplane called Roc, which has a wingspan the length of an American football field and is powered by six engines on a twin fuselage, took to the air shortly before 7 a.m. Pacific time (1400 GMT) and stayed aloft for more than two hours before landing safely back at the Mojave Air and Space Port as a crowd of hundreds of people cheered.
- Question 11 of 16
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Head on Generation (HOG)” technology is sometimes in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The South Central Railway (SCR) announced the introduction of a new technology – Head On Generation (HOG) system – in Telangana Express where power from the engine would be supplied to the entire train for lighting and air-conditioning.
The trains like these have two power cars known as End On Generators (EOG) on either end to provide electricity to all the coaches.
These power cars produce electricity by the diesel generators with each using 40 litres of fuel per hour for a non-AC coach and 65-70 litres of diesel per hour per coach in case of an AC coach.
The new HOG technology obviates the need for using diesel as power is tapped from the overhead electric traction lines through a pantograph to the train engine and the same is distributed to the trailing coaches.
Earlier, the power supply from the overhead electric traction was being used to only run the engine and haul the coaches.
“The new system does not require any diesel and hence, will reduce air and noise pollution, besides providing uninterrupted illumination in all the coaches.
On an average, it will reduce carbon emission by 700 metric tonnes per year per train”.
Incorrect
The South Central Railway (SCR) announced the introduction of a new technology – Head On Generation (HOG) system – in Telangana Express where power from the engine would be supplied to the entire train for lighting and air-conditioning.
The trains like these have two power cars known as End On Generators (EOG) on either end to provide electricity to all the coaches.
These power cars produce electricity by the diesel generators with each using 40 litres of fuel per hour for a non-AC coach and 65-70 litres of diesel per hour per coach in case of an AC coach.
The new HOG technology obviates the need for using diesel as power is tapped from the overhead electric traction lines through a pantograph to the train engine and the same is distributed to the trailing coaches.
Earlier, the power supply from the overhead electric traction was being used to only run the engine and haul the coaches.
“The new system does not require any diesel and hence, will reduce air and noise pollution, besides providing uninterrupted illumination in all the coaches.
On an average, it will reduce carbon emission by 700 metric tonnes per year per train”.
- Question 12 of 16
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the microdot technology:
- It involves spraying of thousands of nano dots carrying registration information on vehicles.
- The microdots are adhesive and they become permanent fixtures which cannot be removed without damaging the asset.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The microbot technology involves spraying of thousands of nano dots carrying registration information on vehicles.
These nano-size metal particles carry information like the registration number and chassis number of the vehicle.
The dots are sprayed at many different spots on the vehicle, so that even if the vehicle is stolen and sold for parts, it can be traced.
The microdots are adhesive and will become permanent fixtures/affixation which cannot be removed without damaging the asset, which is the vehicle itself.
Incorrect
The microbot technology involves spraying of thousands of nano dots carrying registration information on vehicles.
These nano-size metal particles carry information like the registration number and chassis number of the vehicle.
The dots are sprayed at many different spots on the vehicle, so that even if the vehicle is stolen and sold for parts, it can be traced.
The microdots are adhesive and will become permanent fixtures/affixation which cannot be removed without damaging the asset, which is the vehicle itself.
- Question 13 of 16
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe “Curd Maestro refrigerator”, which is the world’s first that prepares curd – is developed by which of the following?
Correct
Introducing its 2020 refrigerator line-up, Samsung unveiled its Curd Maestro refrigerator, which is the world’s first that prepares curd.
Samsung says Curd Maestro enables curd preparation in five to six hours — five hours for soft curd, six hours for thick curd.
One needs to boil and cool the milk and mix the curd culture manually while Curd Maestro does the most crucial part of the job — fermentation.
It will not only ferment the curd but will store it too.
According to the company, National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) has tested and recommended the process of curd making in Samsung’s Curd Maestro.
Samsung says Curd Maestro makes curd with the same consistency each time and eliminates all the hassle of curd-making in different weather conditions.
Incorrect
Introducing its 2020 refrigerator line-up, Samsung unveiled its Curd Maestro refrigerator, which is the world’s first that prepares curd.
Samsung says Curd Maestro enables curd preparation in five to six hours — five hours for soft curd, six hours for thick curd.
One needs to boil and cool the milk and mix the curd culture manually while Curd Maestro does the most crucial part of the job — fermentation.
It will not only ferment the curd but will store it too.
According to the company, National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) has tested and recommended the process of curd making in Samsung’s Curd Maestro.
Samsung says Curd Maestro makes curd with the same consistency each time and eliminates all the hassle of curd-making in different weather conditions.
- Question 14 of 16
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Neutrino:
- The neutrino is a tiny elementary particle which is part of the atom.
- Neutrino has a very tiny mass and with electrical charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Proton, neutron, and electron are tiny particles that make up atoms.
- The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom.
Such particles are also found to exist in nature.
- Neutrino has a very tiny mass and no charge. It interacts very weakly with other
matter particles.
- So weakly that every second trillions of neutrinos fall on us and pass through our
bodies unnoticed.
- Neutrinos come from the sun (solar neutrinos) and other stars, cosmic rays that
come from beyond the solar system, and from the Big Bang from which our Universe
originated.
- They can also be produced in the lab.
Incorrect
Proton, neutron, and electron are tiny particles that make up atoms.
- The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom.
Such particles are also found to exist in nature.
- Neutrino has a very tiny mass and no charge. It interacts very weakly with other
matter particles.
- So weakly that every second trillions of neutrinos fall on us and pass through our
bodies unnoticed.
- Neutrinos come from the sun (solar neutrinos) and other stars, cosmic rays that
come from beyond the solar system, and from the Big Bang from which our Universe
originated.
- They can also be produced in the lab.
- Question 15 of 16
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the winter-grade diesel:
- It has been developed by the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL).
- It does not meet the Bharat Standard – VI norms.
- It addresses the problem of loss of fuel during extreme winter conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Indian Oil (IOCL) has come up with an innovative solution to this problem by introducing a special winter-grade diesel with a low pour-point of -33 degree Celsius, which does not lose its fluidity function even in extreme winter conditions.
This winter-grade diesel also meets BIS specification of BS-VI grade and was successfully produced and certified for the first time by the Panipat Refinery.
Incorrect
Indian Oil (IOCL) has come up with an innovative solution to this problem by introducing a special winter-grade diesel with a low pour-point of -33 degree Celsius, which does not lose its fluidity function even in extreme winter conditions.
This winter-grade diesel also meets BIS specification of BS-VI grade and was successfully produced and certified for the first time by the Panipat Refinery.
- Question 16 of 16
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term “Muktoshri” is related to which of the following?
Correct
West Bengal government’s rice research centre has come up with a new
variety of rice called Muktoshri that can be grown in arsenic prone areas. It was
developed jointly by the Rice Research Station at Chinsurah, coming under West Bengal’s
Agriculture Department and the National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.
Incorrect
West Bengal government’s rice research centre has come up with a new
variety of rice called Muktoshri that can be grown in arsenic prone areas. It was
developed jointly by the Rice Research Station at Chinsurah, coming under West Bengal’s
Agriculture Department and the National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.