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GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/INITIATIVES
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/INITIATIVES I
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiatives“SAMADHAN doctrine” is sometime seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
SAMADHAN doctrine is the one-stop solution for the LWE problem. It encompasses the entire strategy of government from short-term policy to long-term policy formulated at different levels. SAMADHAN stands for-
- S- Smart Leadership,
- A- Aggressive Strategy,
- M- Motivation and Training,
- A- Actionable Intelligence,
- D- Dashboard Based KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) and KRAs (Key Result Areas),
- H- Harnessing Technology,
- A- Action plan for each Theatre,
- N- No access to Financing.
Read more about Left wing extremism in India
Incorrect
SAMADHAN doctrine is the one-stop solution for the LWE problem. It encompasses the entire strategy of government from short-term policy to long-term policy formulated at different levels. SAMADHAN stands for-
- S- Smart Leadership,
- A- Aggressive Strategy,
- M- Motivation and Training,
- A- Actionable Intelligence,
- D- Dashboard Based KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) and KRAs (Key Result Areas),
- H- Harnessing Technology,
- A- Action plan for each Theatre,
- N- No access to Financing.
Read more about Left wing extremism in India
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesAIM-PRIME program, recently seen in news, it is related to
Correct
AIM-PRIME Program aims at promoting science-based, deep technology. For that, it will provide training and guidance over a period of 12 months.
NITI Aayog launches “AIM-PRIME” to support science based startups -ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
AIM-PRIME Program aims at promoting science-based, deep technology. For that, it will provide training and guidance over a period of 12 months.
NITI Aayog launches “AIM-PRIME” to support science based startups -ForumIAS Blog
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding National Knowledge Network (NKN)
- It aims to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high-speed data communication network.
- National Informatics Centre (NIC) is the implementing agency of NKN.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
- National Knowledge Network (NKN) was established in 2010. Its objective is to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high-speed data communication network. It will be helpful to facilitate knowledge sharing and collaborative research.
- Implementation: National Informatics Centre (NIC), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, is the implementing agency.
Incorrect
- National Knowledge Network (NKN) was established in 2010. Its objective is to interconnect all institutions of higher learning and research with a high-speed data communication network. It will be helpful to facilitate knowledge sharing and collaborative research.
- Implementation: National Informatics Centre (NIC), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, is the implementing agency.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G).
- The scheme aims to provide the pucca house with basic amenities.
- Gram Panchayats verifies the eligible beneficiaries based on Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Launched by: Ministry of Rural Development in 2016 launched it.
- Aim: The aim is to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families by the end of March 2022. People who are homeless or living in kutcha or dilapidated houses are eligible for benefits
- Beneficiaries: Beneficiaries are identified as per the housing deprivation parameters and exclusion criteria prescribed under Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011. Gram Sabha verifies the eligible beneficiaries. (Statement 2 is Incorrect)
- Target: The scheme had a target of construction of 2.95 crore pucca houses for eligible rural households by March 2022.
- However, the number of beneficiaries has been reduced from 2.95 crores to 2.14 crore after 81 lakhs were found ineligible as per Socio-Economic Caste Census(SECC)-2011.
- Monitoring: The programme implementation is being monitored not only electronically but also through community participation (Social Audit), Member of Parliament (DISHA Committee), Central and State Government officials, National Level Monitors, etc.
Read more:
Incorrect
- Launched by: Ministry of Rural Development in 2016 launched it.
- Aim: The aim is to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families by the end of March 2022. People who are homeless or living in kutcha or dilapidated houses are eligible for benefits
- Beneficiaries: Beneficiaries are identified as per the housing deprivation parameters and exclusion criteria prescribed under Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011. Gram Sabha verifies the eligible beneficiaries. (Statement 2 is Incorrect)
- Target: The scheme had a target of construction of 2.95 crore pucca houses for eligible rural households by March 2022.
- However, the number of beneficiaries has been reduced from 2.95 crores to 2.14 crore after 81 lakhs were found ineligible as per Socio-Economic Caste Census(SECC)-2011.
- Monitoring: The programme implementation is being monitored not only electronically but also through community participation (Social Audit), Member of Parliament (DISHA Committee), Central and State Government officials, National Level Monitors, etc.
Read more:
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWith reference to the National Policy on Electronics 2019 consider the following statements.
- This is the first National policy focused on Electronics sector in India.
- The policy aims to produce one billion mobile handsets in India by 2025.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
National Policy on Electronics 2019 envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing. The policy aims to address the shortcomings of 2012 National policy on electronics. The policy aims to produce of one billion mobile handsets in India by 2025
Key objectives of National Electronic Policy 2019
- Enable flow of investment and technology leading to higher value addition in the domestically manufactured electronic products,
- Increased electronics hardware manufacturing in the country and their export.
- Generating substantial employment opportunities. Provide support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower in the ESDM sector.
- Develop core competencies in all the sub-sectors of Electronics, including inter-alia Electronic components and Semiconductors, Telecommunication equipment, Medical electronics, Defence Electronics, Automotive electronics, Industrial Electronics, Strategic Electronics, etc., and Fabless Chip Design.
- Facilitate cost effective loans for setting up and expansion of electronics manufacturing units.
- Promote path-breaking research, grass root level innovations and early-stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas to solve real-life problems.
- Enhance understanding of cyber security issues/ concerns, risks and mitigation measures thereof pertaining to electronic products.
- Promote research, innovation and support to industry for green processes and sustainable e-Waste management, including safe disposal of e-Waste in an environment friendly manner, development of e-Waste recycling industry and adoption of best practices in e-Waste management.
- Proactive role of states in promotion of electronics manufacturing by providing conducive environment to promote investments.
Read more: National Policy on Electronics
Incorrect
National Policy on Electronics 2019 envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing. The policy aims to address the shortcomings of 2012 National policy on electronics. The policy aims to produce of one billion mobile handsets in India by 2025
Key objectives of National Electronic Policy 2019
- Enable flow of investment and technology leading to higher value addition in the domestically manufactured electronic products,
- Increased electronics hardware manufacturing in the country and their export.
- Generating substantial employment opportunities. Provide support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower in the ESDM sector.
- Develop core competencies in all the sub-sectors of Electronics, including inter-alia Electronic components and Semiconductors, Telecommunication equipment, Medical electronics, Defence Electronics, Automotive electronics, Industrial Electronics, Strategic Electronics, etc., and Fabless Chip Design.
- Facilitate cost effective loans for setting up and expansion of electronics manufacturing units.
- Promote path-breaking research, grass root level innovations and early-stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas to solve real-life problems.
- Enhance understanding of cyber security issues/ concerns, risks and mitigation measures thereof pertaining to electronic products.
- Promote research, innovation and support to industry for green processes and sustainable e-Waste management, including safe disposal of e-Waste in an environment friendly manner, development of e-Waste recycling industry and adoption of best practices in e-Waste management.
- Proactive role of states in promotion of electronics manufacturing by providing conducive environment to promote investments.
Read more: National Policy on Electronics
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following pairs with reference to the Production Linked Incentive Scheme and the concerned Ministry/Departments.
PLI Scheme sector : Concerned Ministry/Department
- Telecom & Networking Products: Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
- White Goods (ACs & LED) : Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- Automobiles & Auto Components: Department of Heavy Industries
- High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Sl. No Notified PLI Scheme Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Electronic/Technology Products Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology 2 Pharmaceutical drugs Department of Pharmaceuticals 3 Telecom & Networking Products Department of Telecom 4 Food Products Ministry of Food Processing Industries. 5 White Goods (ACs & LED) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. 6 High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sl. No Other PLI Schemes Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Automobiles & Auto Components Department of Heavy Industries 2 Advance Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery NITI Aayog and Department of Heavy Industries. 3 Textile Products (MMF segment and technical textiles) Ministry of Textiles 4 Speciality Steel Ministry of Steel Read more : PLI Scheme(Today’s 7 PM)
Incorrect
Sl. No Notified PLI Scheme Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Electronic/Technology Products Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology 2 Pharmaceutical drugs Department of Pharmaceuticals 3 Telecom & Networking Products Department of Telecom 4 Food Products Ministry of Food Processing Industries. 5 White Goods (ACs & LED) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. 6 High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sl. No Other PLI Schemes Concerned Ministry/Department 1 Automobiles & Auto Components Department of Heavy Industries 2 Advance Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery NITI Aayog and Department of Heavy Industries. 3 Textile Products (MMF segment and technical textiles) Ministry of Textiles 4 Speciality Steel Ministry of Steel Read more : PLI Scheme(Today’s 7 PM)
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesAnamaya initiative for tribal was launched recently by the government. It is associated with which one of the following areas?
Correct
Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare and Union Minister of Tribal Affairs launched the Anamaya Initiative — a Tribal Health Collaborative.
About Anamaya Initiative:
- Anamaya is a multi-stakeholder initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Piramal Foundation and Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) are supporting it.
- Objectives:
- Anamaya Initiative aims to converge efforts of various Government organizations to improve the health and nutrition status of the tribal communities of India.
- It also aims to build a sustainable health ecosystem that will address the key health challenges of the tribal population.
Read More: Anamaya Initiative
Incorrect
Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare and Union Minister of Tribal Affairs launched the Anamaya Initiative — a Tribal Health Collaborative.
About Anamaya Initiative:
- Anamaya is a multi-stakeholder initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Piramal Foundation and Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) are supporting it.
- Objectives:
- Anamaya Initiative aims to converge efforts of various Government organizations to improve the health and nutrition status of the tribal communities of India.
- It also aims to build a sustainable health ecosystem that will address the key health challenges of the tribal population.
Read More: Anamaya Initiative
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesJoint Logistics Node (JLN) has sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
Chief of Defence Staff operationalises the third Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai.
About Joint Logistics Node(JLN):
- The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
- This is the third Node to be set up. The two other logistics hub were operationalised in Guwahati and Port Blair in January 2021.
- Purpose: The JLN will provide integrated logistics cover to all three armed forces. Especially for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares, and also engineering support.
- Advantages: The JLN will also provide advantages like saving manpower, economic utilization of resources apart from financial savings.
Read more: Joint Logistics Node
Incorrect
Chief of Defence Staff operationalises the third Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai.
About Joint Logistics Node(JLN):
- The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
- This is the third Node to be set up. The two other logistics hub were operationalised in Guwahati and Port Blair in January 2021.
- Purpose: The JLN will provide integrated logistics cover to all three armed forces. Especially for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares, and also engineering support.
- Advantages: The JLN will also provide advantages like saving manpower, economic utilization of resources apart from financial savings.
Read more: Joint Logistics Node
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
- The scheme aims to provide skilled work for at least 100 days in a financial year.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment within 15 days of work application
- If Gram Panchayat failed to provide job, then worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
MGNREG Scheme:
- MGNREGS is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world.
- Launched in: The scheme was initially launched in the 200 most backward rural districts of the country in 2006-07. The scheme was later extended to the entire country from 2008-09 onward.
- Under the scheme, every rural household whose adult member volunteers to do unskilled manual work is entitled to get at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.
- Implementation: Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Government of India in association with state governments monitors the implementation of the scheme.
Key Features of the scheme:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment within 15 days of work application failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
Read More: MGREGS
Incorrect
MGNREG Scheme:
- MGNREGS is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world.
- Launched in: The scheme was initially launched in the 200 most backward rural districts of the country in 2006-07. The scheme was later extended to the entire country from 2008-09 onward.
- Under the scheme, every rural household whose adult member volunteers to do unskilled manual work is entitled to get at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.
- Implementation: Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Government of India in association with state governments monitors the implementation of the scheme.
Key Features of the scheme:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment within 15 days of work application failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
Read More: MGREGS
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the recently announced Lilavati Awards 2020:
- It is an initiative of the All-India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
- It aims torecogniseefforts by all government institutions to treat women with ‘equality and fairness’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Lilavati Award is an initiative of the technical education regulator, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and it aims to recognise efforts by AICTE-approved institutions to treat women with ‘equality and fairness’.
Based on the theme ‘Women Empowerment’, AICTE finalized the winners from a total of 456 entries who competed across 6 sub themes, which include, Women’s Health, Self-Defense, Sanitation and Hygiene, Literacy, Women Entrepreneurship, and Legal Awareness.
Incorrect
The Lilavati Award is an initiative of the technical education regulator, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and it aims to recognise efforts by AICTE-approved institutions to treat women with ‘equality and fairness’.
Based on the theme ‘Women Empowerment’, AICTE finalized the winners from a total of 456 entries who competed across 6 sub themes, which include, Women’s Health, Self-Defense, Sanitation and Hygiene, Literacy, Women Entrepreneurship, and Legal Awareness.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat is the mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
- Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
- Serving as a link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has the unique distinction of being the only grant-giving agency in the country which has been vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination, determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education.
The UGC`s mandate includes:
–Promoting and coordinating university education.
–Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
–Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
–Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges.
–Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
–Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university education.
Incorrect
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has the unique distinction of being the only grant-giving agency in the country which has been vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination, determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education.
The UGC`s mandate includes:
–Promoting and coordinating university education.
–Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
–Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
–Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges.
–Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
–Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university education.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the DIKSHA Platform:
- Itaimstoaid teachers to learn and train themselves.
- States, government bodies and even privateorganisations, can integrate DIKSHA into their respective initiatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
DIKSHA is a unique initiative which leverages existing highly scalable and flexible digital infrastructures, while keeping teachers at the center. It is built considering the whole teacher’s life cycle – from the time student teachers enroll in Teacher Education Institutes (TEIs) to after they retire as teachers.
It can be accessed after scanning the QR code provided in their NCERT books. Students having access to DIKSHA app will be able to understand concepts in easy and interactive manner.
There are features through which lessons can be revised Parents having access to DIKSHA app in their mobiles can follow classroom activities and clear doubts outside school hours. It is a comprehensive platform for hassle free interaction of all the stakeholders involved.
States, government bodies and even private organisations, can integrate DIKSHA into their respective teacher initiatives based on their goals, needs and capabilities.
Incorrect
DIKSHA is a unique initiative which leverages existing highly scalable and flexible digital infrastructures, while keeping teachers at the center. It is built considering the whole teacher’s life cycle – from the time student teachers enroll in Teacher Education Institutes (TEIs) to after they retire as teachers.
It can be accessed after scanning the QR code provided in their NCERT books. Students having access to DIKSHA app will be able to understand concepts in easy and interactive manner.
There are features through which lessons can be revised Parents having access to DIKSHA app in their mobiles can follow classroom activities and clear doubts outside school hours. It is a comprehensive platform for hassle free interaction of all the stakeholders involved.
States, government bodies and even private organisations, can integrate DIKSHA into their respective teacher initiatives based on their goals, needs and capabilities.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA):
- It is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act.
- It is empowered to regulate exports of marine products and take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) was set up by an act of Parliament during 1972.
MPEDA is given the mandate to promote the marine products industry with special reference to exports from the country. It is envisaged that this organization would take all actions to develop and augment the resources required for promoting the exports of “all varieties of fishery products known commercially as shrimp, prawn, lobster, crab, fish, shell-fish, other aquatic animals or plants or part thereof.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act empowers MPEDA to regulate exports of marine products and take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) was set up by an act of Parliament during 1972.
MPEDA is given the mandate to promote the marine products industry with special reference to exports from the country. It is envisaged that this organization would take all actions to develop and augment the resources required for promoting the exports of “all varieties of fishery products known commercially as shrimp, prawn, lobster, crab, fish, shell-fish, other aquatic animals or plants or part thereof.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act empowers MPEDA to regulate exports of marine products and take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat was the mandate of the Justice BN Srikrishna committee?
Correct
In 2017, the Government of India appointed a 10-member Committee of Experts headed by Justice B.N. Srikrishna, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India “to identify key data protection issues in India and recommend methods of addressing them”.
The terms of reference of the Committee were to “to study various issues relating to data protection in India”, and “to make specific suggestions for consideration of the Central Government on principles to be considered for data protection in India and suggest a draft data protection bill”.
The Committee submitted its report, along with a Draft Personal Data Protection Bill to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in July 2018.
Incorrect
In 2017, the Government of India appointed a 10-member Committee of Experts headed by Justice B.N. Srikrishna, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India “to identify key data protection issues in India and recommend methods of addressing them”.
The terms of reference of the Committee were to “to study various issues relating to data protection in India”, and “to make specific suggestions for consideration of the Central Government on principles to be considered for data protection in India and suggest a draft data protection bill”.
The Committee submitted its report, along with a Draft Personal Data Protection Bill to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in July 2018.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat was the mandate of the M.P. Bezbaruah Committee?
Correct
In order to deal with the concerns of persons hailing from the northeastern states and residing in different parts of the country, particularly in the metropolitan cities, the Union Government (MHA) constituted the Bezbaruah Committee on 05 February, 2014. The Committee submitted its report on 11 July, 2014.
It 4 recommended amendments to the IPC by creating new offences under Section 153C and 509A to deal with comments, gestures and acts intended to insult a member of a particular racial group. “It also suggested to make such offences as ‘gender-neutral’, ‘cognizable’ and ‘non-bailable’ with imprisonment extendable up to three years or five years with fine, respectively.
Incorrect
In order to deal with the concerns of persons hailing from the northeastern states and residing in different parts of the country, particularly in the metropolitan cities, the Union Government (MHA) constituted the Bezbaruah Committee on 05 February, 2014. The Committee submitted its report on 11 July, 2014.
It 4 recommended amendments to the IPC by creating new offences under Section 153C and 509A to deal with comments, gestures and acts intended to insult a member of a particular racial group. “It also suggested to make such offences as ‘gender-neutral’, ‘cognizable’ and ‘non-bailable’ with imprisonment extendable up to three years or five years with fine, respectively.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority:
- It implements and enforces the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO).
- It monitors the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and takes remedial steps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority was set up as an attached office of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals (now Department of Pharmaceuticals since July, 2008) on 1997. It has been entrusted inter-alia, with the following functions:
–To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995/2013 in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
–To undertake and/or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/formulations.
–To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps.
–To collect/maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, profitability of companies etc. for bulk drugs and formulations.
Incorrect
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority was set up as an attached office of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals (now Department of Pharmaceuticals since July, 2008) on 1997. It has been entrusted inter-alia, with the following functions:
–To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995/2013 in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
–To undertake and/or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/formulations.
–To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps.
–To collect/maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, profitability of companies etc. for bulk drugs and formulations.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the recently released Regulatory Pathways for foreign produced COVID-19 Vaccines:
- Vaccine shall be used as per the guidelines prescribed under National Covid-19 VaccinationProgramme.
- First 100 beneficiaries of such vaccines shall be assessed for 7 days for safety outcomes before it is rolled out for further Vaccination program.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Union Government on 13th April 2021 had approved a significant streamlining and fast tracking of regulatory system for COVID-19 vaccines approved for restricted use by US FDA, EMA, UK MHRA, PMDA Japan or which are listed in WHO Emergency Use Listing (EUL). DCGI will issue permission for Restricted Use in Emergency situation with, inter-alia, the following conditions:
–Vaccine shall be used as per the guidelines prescribed under National Covid-19 Vaccination Programme.
–First 100 beneficiaries of such vaccines shall be assessed for 7 days for safety outcomes before it is rolled out for further Vaccination program.
–Applicant shall initiate conduct of post approval bridging clinical trials within 30 days of such approval.
Incorrect
The Union Government on 13th April 2021 had approved a significant streamlining and fast tracking of regulatory system for COVID-19 vaccines approved for restricted use by US FDA, EMA, UK MHRA, PMDA Japan or which are listed in WHO Emergency Use Listing (EUL). DCGI will issue permission for Restricted Use in Emergency situation with, inter-alia, the following conditions:
–Vaccine shall be used as per the guidelines prescribed under National Covid-19 Vaccination Programme.
–First 100 beneficiaries of such vaccines shall be assessed for 7 days for safety outcomes before it is rolled out for further Vaccination program.
–Applicant shall initiate conduct of post approval bridging clinical trials within 30 days of such approval.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI):
- It is a statutory authority.
- It manages and operates the .IN country code domain for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) is a not-for-profit organization (section 8 of the Companies Act 2013).
Statement 2 is correct. It is working since 2003 for spreading the internet infrastructure to the citizens of India through the following activities:
— Internet Exchanges through which the internet data is exchanged amongst ISP’s, Data Centers and CDNs.
— .IN Registry, managing and operation of .IN country code domain and .भारत IDN domain for India.
— IRINN, managing and operating Internet protocol (IPv4/IPv6).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) is a not-for-profit organization (section 8 of the Companies Act 2013).
Statement 2 is correct. It is working since 2003 for spreading the internet infrastructure to the citizens of India through the following activities:
— Internet Exchanges through which the internet data is exchanged amongst ISP’s, Data Centers and CDNs.
— .IN Registry, managing and operation of .IN country code domain and .भारत IDN domain for India.
— IRINN, managing and operating Internet protocol (IPv4/IPv6).
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWho among the following chairs the National Startup Advisory Council?
Correct
The Central Government had notified the structure of the National Startup Advisory Council to advise the Government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities.
It is chaired by Minster for Commerce & Industry. The Council consists of the non-official members, to be nominated by Central Government, from various categories.
# Minister of Commerce & Industry Shri PiyushGoyal recently chaired the first meeting of National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC).
Incorrect
The Central Government had notified the structure of the National Startup Advisory Council to advise the Government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities.
It is chaired by Minster for Commerce & Industry. The Council consists of the non-official members, to be nominated by Central Government, from various categories.
# Minister of Commerce & Industry Shri PiyushGoyal recently chaired the first meeting of National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC).
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Eat Smart Cities Challenge:
- It aims to motivate Smart Cities to develop a plan that supports a healthy, safe and sustainable food environment.
- It has been initiated by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Eat Smart Cities Challenge aims to motivate Smart Cities to develop a plan that supports a healthy, safe and sustainable food environment supported by institutional, physical, social, and economic infrastructure along with the application of ‘smart’ solutions to combat food related issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Shri Hardeep S Puri, MoS (I/C), Housing and Urban Affairs launched the EatSmart Cities Challenge and Transport 4 All Challengeat an online event recently.
The ‘Eat Right India’ movement initiated by FSSAI under the aegis of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, has gone a long way in creating awareness amongst the people about eating safe, healthy and sustainably. The launch event of EatSmart Cities Challenge today was organized in association with Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Eat Smart Cities Challenge aims to motivate Smart Cities to develop a plan that supports a healthy, safe and sustainable food environment supported by institutional, physical, social, and economic infrastructure along with the application of ‘smart’ solutions to combat food related issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Shri Hardeep S Puri, MoS (I/C), Housing and Urban Affairs launched the EatSmart Cities Challenge and Transport 4 All Challengeat an online event recently.
The ‘Eat Right India’ movement initiated by FSSAI under the aegis of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, has gone a long way in creating awareness amongst the people about eating safe, healthy and sustainably. The launch event of EatSmart Cities Challenge today was organized in association with Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhich of the following is/are online educational platforms(s)?
- Swayam
- SwayamPrabha
- NPTEL
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an Indian Massive open online course platform. It a platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses, taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country and are available, free of cost to any learner.
Option 2 is incorrect. The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
Option 3 is correct. The National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) was initiated by seven Indian Institutes of Technology (Bombay, Delhi, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Madras, Guwahati and Roorkee) along with the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore in 2003. It is one of the largest online repositories in the world of courses in engineering, basic sciences and selected humanities and social sciences subjects.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an Indian Massive open online course platform. It a platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses, taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country and are available, free of cost to any learner.
Option 2 is incorrect. The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
Option 3 is correct. The National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) was initiated by seven Indian Institutes of Technology (Bombay, Delhi, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Madras, Guwahati and Roorkee) along with the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore in 2003. It is one of the largest online repositories in the world of courses in engineering, basic sciences and selected humanities and social sciences subjects.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesThe Women and Men in India Report, 2020 has been released by which of the following institution?
Correct
National Statistical Office produces the Women and Men in India Report annually. This is the 22nd issue in its series. The report consolidates the crucial socio-economic indicators that portray gender situations in the country.
–India’s projected population in 2021 is 136.13 Crore with a 48.65% female population.
–The projected average annual exponential growth rate of the population declined from 1.63 in 2011 to 1.27 in 2016. It is likely to further decline to 1.07 in 2021.
–The projected sex ratio is likely to increase from 943 in 2011 to 948 in 2021.
–A notable increase in the sex ratio recorded in Delhi (5.7%), Chandigarh (5.3%), and Arunachal Pradesh (5.0%). Contrary to this, Daman & Diu recorded a decline of 13% in the sex ratio.
Incorrect
National Statistical Office produces the Women and Men in India Report annually. This is the 22nd issue in its series. The report consolidates the crucial socio-economic indicators that portray gender situations in the country.
–India’s projected population in 2021 is 136.13 Crore with a 48.65% female population.
–The projected average annual exponential growth rate of the population declined from 1.63 in 2011 to 1.27 in 2016. It is likely to further decline to 1.07 in 2021.
–The projected sex ratio is likely to increase from 943 in 2011 to 948 in 2021.
–A notable increase in the sex ratio recorded in Delhi (5.7%), Chandigarh (5.3%), and Arunachal Pradesh (5.0%). Contrary to this, Daman & Diu recorded a decline of 13% in the sex ratio.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Mission `AahaarKranti’:
- It is aimed to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet
- It has been launched by the World Health Organization in India.
Which of the statements given above is/ae correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Mission `AahaarKranti’ is aimed to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet and to understand the importance of accessible to all local fruits and vegetables.
It is designed to address the peculiar problem being faced by India and the world called `hunger and diseases in abundance’. Studies estimate that India produces as much as two times the amount of calories that it consumes. However, many in the country are still malnourished. The root cause of this strange phenomenon is a lack of nutritional awareness in all sections of our society.
Statement 2 is incorrect.VijnanaBharati (Vibha) and Global Indian Scientists’ and Technocrats’ Forum (GIST) have come together to launch the mission with the motto of UttamAahaarUttamVichaar or `Good Diet-Good Cognition’.
# The United Nations has also declared 2021 as the International Year of Fruits and Vegetables.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Mission `AahaarKranti’ is aimed to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet and to understand the importance of accessible to all local fruits and vegetables.
It is designed to address the peculiar problem being faced by India and the world called `hunger and diseases in abundance’. Studies estimate that India produces as much as two times the amount of calories that it consumes. However, many in the country are still malnourished. The root cause of this strange phenomenon is a lack of nutritional awareness in all sections of our society.
Statement 2 is incorrect.VijnanaBharati (Vibha) and Global Indian Scientists’ and Technocrats’ Forum (GIST) have come together to launch the mission with the motto of UttamAahaarUttamVichaar or `Good Diet-Good Cognition’.
# The United Nations has also declared 2021 as the International Year of Fruits and Vegetables.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesThe MANAS Application was launched recently for what purpose?
Correct
Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India recently launched the “MANAS” App. MANAS stands for Mental Health and Normalcy Augmentation System. It is a comprehensive, scalable and national digital wellbeing platform developed to promote the mental well-being of Indian citizens.
–The platform integrates the health and wellness efforts of various government ministries.
–The application can be used for a person’s overall wellbeing and is supported by teleconsultation, especially for mental health-related problems.
–There will also be health tracking and all data records will be maintained. It will help users during future consultations.
Incorrect
Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India recently launched the “MANAS” App. MANAS stands for Mental Health and Normalcy Augmentation System. It is a comprehensive, scalable and national digital wellbeing platform developed to promote the mental well-being of Indian citizens.
–The platform integrates the health and wellness efforts of various government ministries.
–The application can be used for a person’s overall wellbeing and is supported by teleconsultation, especially for mental health-related problems.
–There will also be health tracking and all data records will be maintained. It will help users during future consultations.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding National Assessment and Accreditation Council:
- It has been established by All India Council for Technical Education.
- It has made it mandatory forHigher Educational Institutions (HEIs) to undergo accreditation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an autonomous institution established by the University Grants Commission (UGC), under Section 12-ccc of the UGC Act of 1956, for assessing and accrediting higher education institutions (HEIs) of the country. It is registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act of 1960, Karnataka Societies Registration Rules of 1961 and is headquartered at Bangalore.
Statement 2 is correct. The University Grants Commission (UGC) through a gazette notification dated 19th January 2013, has made it mandatory for Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) to undergo accreditation.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an autonomous institution established by the University Grants Commission (UGC), under Section 12-ccc of the UGC Act of 1956, for assessing and accrediting higher education institutions (HEIs) of the country. It is registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act of 1960, Karnataka Societies Registration Rules of 1961 and is headquartered at Bangalore.
Statement 2 is correct. The University Grants Commission (UGC) through a gazette notification dated 19th January 2013, has made it mandatory for Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) to undergo accreditation.
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/INITIATIVES II
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- Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesThe tri-services Joint Logistics Node (JLN) have been operationalised in which of the following locations?
- Mumbai
- Guwahati
- Dehradun
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
To enable our Armed Forces to conduct successful operations, it is essential that they be provided with sound logistics support during all stages of the war. Keeping these in mind, Chief of Defence Staff operationalised and dedicated to the Services 3rd Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai through video conferencing from New Delhi on April 01, 2021.
These JLNs will provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares and also engineering support in an effort to synergise their operational efforts.
Government Sanction Letter for establishment of JLNs in Mumbai, Guwahati and Port Blair was signed on October 12, 2020. The JLNs in Guwahati and Tri-Services, Andaman and Nicobar Command, Port Blair were operationalised on January 01, 2021.
Incorrect
To enable our Armed Forces to conduct successful operations, it is essential that they be provided with sound logistics support during all stages of the war. Keeping these in mind, Chief of Defence Staff operationalised and dedicated to the Services 3rd Joint Logistics Node (JLN) in Mumbai through video conferencing from New Delhi on April 01, 2021.
These JLNs will provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares and also engineering support in an effort to synergise their operational efforts.
Government Sanction Letter for establishment of JLNs in Mumbai, Guwahati and Port Blair was signed on October 12, 2020. The JLNs in Guwahati and Tri-Services, Andaman and Nicobar Command, Port Blair were operationalised on January 01, 2021.
- Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhat is the utility of the recently launched “MyNEP2020” Platform?
- Seeking suggestions/inputs for development of National Professional Standards for Teachers
- Seeking suggestions/inputs for development of National Mission for Mentoring Program membership
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Union Education Minister recently launched the “MyNEP2020” Platform of NCTE Web Portal. The platform seeks to invite suggestions/inputs/membership from the stakeholders for preparing draft for development of National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) and National Mission for Mentoring Program membership (NMM).
The “MyNEP2020” platform will be operational from 1st April 2021 to 15th May 2021. This exercise of digital consultation envisages the participation of teachers, education professionals, academicians, & other stakeholders in preparing the documents on teacher policy for sustainable and positive change in the Teacher’s Education Sector.
Incorrect
Union Education Minister recently launched the “MyNEP2020” Platform of NCTE Web Portal. The platform seeks to invite suggestions/inputs/membership from the stakeholders for preparing draft for development of National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) and National Mission for Mentoring Program membership (NMM).
The “MyNEP2020” platform will be operational from 1st April 2021 to 15th May 2021. This exercise of digital consultation envisages the participation of teachers, education professionals, academicians, & other stakeholders in preparing the documents on teacher policy for sustainable and positive change in the Teacher’s Education Sector.
- Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions, 2020:
- It empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
- It has explicitly excluded mines from the definition of a factory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSH&WC) Code, 2020 has been enacted after amalgamating of thirteen different labour legislations and to simplify the laws regulating the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions in establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The code empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill introduced in 2019 excluded mines from the definition of a factory. The bill passed in parliament in 2020 removed this provision.
# The Central Government has constituted Expert Committees comprising of industry and subject experts from both public and private sector across the country to review the existing rules and regulations on safety, health and working conditions standards, pertaining to factories, docks and construction work.
Incorrect
The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSH&WC) Code, 2020 has been enacted after amalgamating of thirteen different labour legislations and to simplify the laws regulating the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions in establishments.
Statement 1 is correct. The code empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill introduced in 2019 excluded mines from the definition of a factory. The bill passed in parliament in 2020 removed this provision.
# The Central Government has constituted Expert Committees comprising of industry and subject experts from both public and private sector across the country to review the existing rules and regulations on safety, health and working conditions standards, pertaining to factories, docks and construction work.
- Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the ’AIM-PRIME’ initiative:
- It aims to promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
- Atal Innovation Mission has partnered with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) to launch this nationwide program.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In a major push towards deep technology and driving the country to become a digitally transformed nation, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog has launched AIM-PRIME (Program for Researchers on Innovations, Market-Readiness & Entrepreneurship), an initiative to promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
In this regard, AIM has joined hands with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) to launch this nationwide program which will be implemented by Venture Center – a non-profit technology business incubator.
The first cohort of the program is open to technology developers (early-stage deep tech start-ups, and scientists/ engineers/ clinicians) with strong science-based deep tech business ideas. The program is also open to CEOs and Senior incubation managers of AIM Funded Atal Incubation Centers that are supporting deep tech entrepreneurs.
Incorrect
In a major push towards deep technology and driving the country to become a digitally transformed nation, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog has launched AIM-PRIME (Program for Researchers on Innovations, Market-Readiness & Entrepreneurship), an initiative to promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
In this regard, AIM has joined hands with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) to launch this nationwide program which will be implemented by Venture Center – a non-profit technology business incubator.
The first cohort of the program is open to technology developers (early-stage deep tech start-ups, and scientists/ engineers/ clinicians) with strong science-based deep tech business ideas. The program is also open to CEOs and Senior incubation managers of AIM Funded Atal Incubation Centers that are supporting deep tech entrepreneurs.
- Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements with reference to the recently released “New Covid-19 vaccine policy”
- This policy aims to provide vaccination coverage to everyone aged 18 and older
- The central government will procure 100% of vaccines used in the vaccination drive.
- This is the fourth phase of India’s Covid-19 vaccination policy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Government of India has announced the fourth phase of its New Covid-19 vaccine policy. This phase expands its vaccination coverage to everyone aged 18 and older from May 1.
- Under the new rules, the Centre will automatically receive only 50% of vaccines produced by manufacturers.
- The remaining 50% can be acquired by the states directly or by private hospitals and industrial establishments at a price.
Read More: India’s “New Covid-19 vaccine policy”
Incorrect
The Government of India has announced the fourth phase of its New Covid-19 vaccine policy. This phase expands its vaccination coverage to everyone aged 18 and older from May 1.
- Under the new rules, the Centre will automatically receive only 50% of vaccines produced by manufacturers.
- The remaining 50% can be acquired by the states directly or by private hospitals and industrial establishments at a price.
Read More: India’s “New Covid-19 vaccine policy”
- Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
- It provides guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per year to each rural household.
- It is a demand driven scheme.
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
What is MGNREGA?
- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is an employment guarantee act.
- It was introduced in 2005 through the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
- In 2010, NREGA renamed as MGNREGA.
Objectives:
- To provide guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per year to each rural household
- Creation of durable rural assets
- Social inclusion of women, SCs and STs
- Strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions
Key Features:
- Demand driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment with 15 days of work application, failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
- Payment of wages within 15 days of competition of work, failing which worker is entitled to delay compensation of 0.05%/ day of wages earned
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women.
- Wages to be paid according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State
- Social Audit to be done by Gram Sabha
Incorrect
What is MGNREGA?
- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is an employment guarantee act.
- It was introduced in 2005 through the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
- In 2010, NREGA renamed as MGNREGA.
Objectives:
- To provide guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per year to each rural household
- Creation of durable rural assets
- Social inclusion of women, SCs and STs
- Strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions
Key Features:
- Demand driven scheme: Worker to be hired when he demands and not when the Government wants it.
- Gram Panchayat is mandated to provide employment with 15 days of work application, failing which worker is entitled to unemployment allowance
- Payment of wages within 15 days of competition of work, failing which worker is entitled to delay compensation of 0.05%/ day of wages earned
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women.
- Wages to be paid according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State
- Social Audit to be done by Gram Sabha
- Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhich of the following institution has recently released the report titled ‘Investment Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector’?
Correct
NITI Aayog recently released a report on ‘Investment Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector’ outlining the range of investment opportunities in various segments of India’s healthcare sector, including hospitals, medical devices and equipment, health insurance, telemedicine, home healthcare and medical value travel.
— India’s healthcare industry has been growing at a Compound Annual Growth Rate of around 22% since 2016. At this rate, it is expected to reach USD 372 billion in 2022.
— The expansion of private players to tier-2 and tier-3 locations, beyond metropolitan cities, offers an attractive investment opportunity.
— India can boost domestic pharmaceuticals manufacturing, supported by recent Government schemes with performance-linked incentives.
— In the medical devices and equipment segment, expansion of diagnostic and pathology centres as well as miniaturized diagnostics have high potential for growth.
— The medical value travel, especially wellness tourism, has bright prospects, given India’s inherent strengths in alternative systems of medicine.
Incorrect
NITI Aayog recently released a report on ‘Investment Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector’ outlining the range of investment opportunities in various segments of India’s healthcare sector, including hospitals, medical devices and equipment, health insurance, telemedicine, home healthcare and medical value travel.
— India’s healthcare industry has been growing at a Compound Annual Growth Rate of around 22% since 2016. At this rate, it is expected to reach USD 372 billion in 2022.
— The expansion of private players to tier-2 and tier-3 locations, beyond metropolitan cities, offers an attractive investment opportunity.
— India can boost domestic pharmaceuticals manufacturing, supported by recent Government schemes with performance-linked incentives.
— In the medical devices and equipment segment, expansion of diagnostic and pathology centres as well as miniaturized diagnostics have high potential for growth.
— The medical value travel, especially wellness tourism, has bright prospects, given India’s inherent strengths in alternative systems of medicine.
- Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the PM Yoga Awards:
- The awards recognize contribution both at the National as well asInternationallevels.
- The first ever PM Yoga Awards ceremony will be held in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The PM Yoga Awards would be given in two categories – National and International. The awards would be given to entities with impeccable track record and outstanding contribution in the promoion and development of Yoga.
Statement 2 is incorrect. PM Yoga Awards were announced first in 2016. Due to pandemic of Covid-19, the applications for the award were not invited in 2020. However, this year like previous years, the Ministry of AYUSH (MoA) will be felicitating the achievers and unsung heroes and institutions of the domain of Yoga, from different parts of the country and across the world with the Prime Minister’s Yoga Awards (PMYA). The award will be hosted on the My Gov platform.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The PM Yoga Awards would be given in two categories – National and International. The awards would be given to entities with impeccable track record and outstanding contribution in the promoion and development of Yoga.
Statement 2 is incorrect. PM Yoga Awards were announced first in 2016. Due to pandemic of Covid-19, the applications for the award were not invited in 2020. However, this year like previous years, the Ministry of AYUSH (MoA) will be felicitating the achievers and unsung heroes and institutions of the domain of Yoga, from different parts of the country and across the world with the Prime Minister’s Yoga Awards (PMYA). The award will be hosted on the My Gov platform.
- Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesJoint Logistics Node (JLN), recently seen in news, it is related to which of the following?
Correct
The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
Incorrect
The JLN has been established with an aim of integrating the military’s logistics. Further, it aims to set up and improving the military’s war-fighting ability.
- Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Draft National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021
- It will replace the existing National Policy for rare diseases, 2017.
- There is no uniform definition of rare diseases around the world.
- Policy provides universal coverage to all persons suffering from rare diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Policy for rare diseases, 2017 was not implemented. It was major concern that no policy is available for rare diseases in India.
Statement 2 is correct. Definition of rare diseases is not uniform across nations. every country has its own definition for rare diseases.
The US defines rare diseases as a disease or condition that affects fewer than 200,000 patients in the country.
Likewise, the EU defines rare diseases as life-threatening or chronically debilitating (weakening) condition. It should affect no more than 5 in 10,000 people.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Policy is selective in providing financial assistance. It categorizes rare diseases into 3 categories.
Read more - Health Ministry Releases “National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021”-ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Policy for rare diseases, 2017 was not implemented. It was major concern that no policy is available for rare diseases in India.
Statement 2 is correct. Definition of rare diseases is not uniform across nations. every country has its own definition for rare diseases.
The US defines rare diseases as a disease or condition that affects fewer than 200,000 patients in the country.
Likewise, the EU defines rare diseases as life-threatening or chronically debilitating (weakening) condition. It should affect no more than 5 in 10,000 people.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Policy is selective in providing financial assistance. It categorizes rare diseases into 3 categories.
Read more - Health Ministry Releases “National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021”-ForumIAS Blog
- Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding the Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs):
- It is a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U).
- It aims to provide access to dignified affordable rental housing close to workplace to urban migrants/ poor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs), a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/ poor in Industrial Sector as well as in non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace.
The ARHC scheme will be implemented through two models:
-Utilizing existing Government funded vacant houses to convert into ARHCs through Public Private Partnership or by Public Agencies
-Construction, Operation and Maintenance of ARHCs by Public/ Private Entities on their own vacant land
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs), a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/ poor in Industrial Sector as well as in non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace.
The ARHC scheme will be implemented through two models:
-Utilizing existing Government funded vacant houses to convert into ARHCs through Public Private Partnership or by Public Agencies
-Construction, Operation and Maintenance of ARHCs by Public/ Private Entities on their own vacant land
- Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- JalyuktShibar – Maharashtra
- SujalamSufalam Abhiyan – West Bengal
- Mission Kakatiya – Telangana
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
As per the Central Water Commission (CWC) report entitled “Reassessment of Water Availability in India using Space Inputs”, the average annual water resources potential in the country is assessed as 1999.20 BCM.
Water being a State subject, initiatives on water management including conservation and water harvesting in the Country is primarily States’ responsibility.
A number of States have done notable work in the field of water conservation/harvesting. Of these, mention can be made of ‘Mukhyamantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan’ in Rajasthan, ‘Jalyukt Shibar’ in Maharashtra, ‘Sujalam Sufalam Abhiyan’ in Gujarat, ‘Mission Kakatiya’ in Telangana, Neeru Chettu’ in Andhra Pradesh, Jal Jeevan Hariyali in Bihar, ‘Jal Hi Jeevan’ in Haryana among others.
Incorrect
As per the Central Water Commission (CWC) report entitled “Reassessment of Water Availability in India using Space Inputs”, the average annual water resources potential in the country is assessed as 1999.20 BCM.
Water being a State subject, initiatives on water management including conservation and water harvesting in the Country is primarily States’ responsibility.
A number of States have done notable work in the field of water conservation/harvesting. Of these, mention can be made of ‘Mukhyamantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan’ in Rajasthan, ‘Jalyukt Shibar’ in Maharashtra, ‘Sujalam Sufalam Abhiyan’ in Gujarat, ‘Mission Kakatiya’ in Telangana, Neeru Chettu’ in Andhra Pradesh, Jal Jeevan Hariyali in Bihar, ‘Jal Hi Jeevan’ in Haryana among others.
- Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements.
- Control of the interstate spread of infectious diseases falls under the Union list.
- The CoWIN app allows Indian citizens to apply for a Covid-19 vaccine and provides a QR based Certificate after vaccination.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Control of the interstate spread of infectious diseases falls under the Entry 29 of the Concurrent List under Schedule VII of the Constitution
CoWIN App and platform: This is a digitalised platform launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It aims to help agencies to keep a track of the Covid-19 vaccination programme in real-time. Further, the app also allows Indian citizens to apply for a Covid-19 vaccine shot. Further, the app also provides a QR based Certificate once the person is vaccinated.
Read more: CoWIN App and CoWIN platform
Incorrect
Control of the interstate spread of infectious diseases falls under the Entry 29 of the Concurrent List under Schedule VII of the Constitution
CoWIN App and platform: This is a digitalised platform launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It aims to help agencies to keep a track of the Covid-19 vaccination programme in real-time. Further, the app also allows Indian citizens to apply for a Covid-19 vaccine shot. Further, the app also provides a QR based Certificate once the person is vaccinated.
Read more: CoWIN App and CoWIN platform
- Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements with regarding the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
- The worker will get an unemployment benefit if the Gram panchayat failed to provide employment within 15 days of application.
- The worker will get delay compensation if the worker did not receive his wages within 15 days of completion of work
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Key features of MGNREGS:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker will get the work whenever he demands and not when the Government has work available.
- Gram Panchayat has the mandate to provide employment within 15 days of a work application. If it fails, the worker will get an unemployment allowance.
- Payment of wages within 15 days of completion of work. In case of failure, the worker will get a delay compensation of 0.05% per day of wages earned.
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women
- Wage payment should be according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State.
- Gram Sabhas conduct social audits to enable the community to monitor the implementation of the scheme.
- Both the Center and the States share the funding of the scheme.
Incorrect
Key features of MGNREGS:
- Demand-driven scheme: Worker will get the work whenever he demands and not when the Government has work available.
- Gram Panchayat has the mandate to provide employment within 15 days of a work application. If it fails, the worker will get an unemployment allowance.
- Payment of wages within 15 days of completion of work. In case of failure, the worker will get a delay compensation of 0.05% per day of wages earned.
- Minimum one-third of the workers should be women
- Wage payment should be according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State.
- Gram Sabhas conduct social audits to enable the community to monitor the implementation of the scheme.
- Both the Center and the States share the funding of the scheme.
- Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Goverenment Scheme & initiativesConsider the following statements regarding Ladakh Ignited Minds Project:
- It is aimed at training disadvantaged Ladakhi youth to study in niche educational institutions of the country
- Project is being implemented under Atal Innovation Mission
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Project, launched by the Indian Army, aims to provide better training and educational facilities to disadvantaged Ladakhi students. Also, the projects aim to give them the opportunity to study in the best educational institutes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The fire and Fury Corps of the Indian Army will implement the project. They will also have a partnership with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and National Integrity and Educational Development Organization (NIEDO), an NGO.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Project, launched by the Indian Army, aims to provide better training and educational facilities to disadvantaged Ladakhi students. Also, the projects aim to give them the opportunity to study in the best educational institutes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The fire and Fury Corps of the Indian Army will implement the project. They will also have a partnership with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and National Integrity and Educational Development Organization (NIEDO), an NGO.
GEOGRAPHY AND AGRICULTURE
GEOGRAPHY AND AGRICULTURE I
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- Question 1 of 28
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements with regarding the Earth day
- Earth day is celebrated after signing the Rio declaration on environment and development.
- The theme of Earth day 2021 is “Restore Our Earth”
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- World Earth Day is celebrated every year on 22nd April. It was celebrated for the first time in the year 1970. (Rio Declaration is signed on 1992)
- World Earth day 2021 theme: ‘Restore Our Earth’. The theme focuses on natural processes, emerging green technologies and innovative thinking to restore the world’s ecosystems.
Read More : World Earth day
Incorrect
- World Earth Day is celebrated every year on 22nd April. It was celebrated for the first time in the year 1970. (Rio Declaration is signed on 1992)
- World Earth day 2021 theme: ‘Restore Our Earth’. The theme focuses on natural processes, emerging green technologies and innovative thinking to restore the world’s ecosystems.
Read More : World Earth day
- Question 2 of 28
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding Madhu Kranti Portal
- It is an initiative of National Bee Board (NBB) under the National Beekeeping & Honey Mission (NBHM).
- It is a portal to sell quality honey to the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Madhukranti portal is an initiative of National Bee Board. It is operated under the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission.
The main objectives of the Madhukranti portal are as follows:
- The portal has been developed to achieve the traceability source of honey and bee hive products on the digital platform.
- Also, the platform will help in checking the quality and source of adulteration of honey.
Incorrect
The Madhukranti portal is an initiative of National Bee Board. It is operated under the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission.
The main objectives of the Madhukranti portal are as follows:
- The portal has been developed to achieve the traceability source of honey and bee hive products on the digital platform.
- Also, the platform will help in checking the quality and source of adulteration of honey.
- Question 3 of 28
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding:
- The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) is an institution of national importance as declared by an Act of Parliament.
- India is the world’s largest milk producer country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The National Dairy Development Board — initially registered as a society under the Societies Act 1860 — was merged with the erstwhile Indian Dairy Corporation, a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by an Act of India’s Parliament – the NDDB Act 1987. The new body corporate was declared an institution of national importance by the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. India is the world’s largest milk producer, with 22 percent of global production, followed by the United States of America, China, Pakistan and Brazil.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The National Dairy Development Board — initially registered as a society under the Societies Act 1860 — was merged with the erstwhile Indian Dairy Corporation, a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by an Act of India’s Parliament – the NDDB Act 1987. The new body corporate was declared an institution of national importance by the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. India is the world’s largest milk producer, with 22 percent of global production, followed by the United States of America, China, Pakistan and Brazil.
- Question 4 of 28
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following states has Coal Bed Methane Resources in India
- Jharkhand
- Himachal Pradesh
- Tamil Nadu
- Karnataka
- Assam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
According to the Petroleum and Natural Resources data the following states have the Coal Bed Methane resources.
Sl. No STATE Estimated CBM Resources (BCM) 1 JHARKHAND 722.08 2 RAJASTHAN 359.62 3 GUJARAT 351.13 4 ORISSA 243.52 5 CHATTISGARH 240.69 6 MADHYA PRADESH 218.04 7 WEST BENGAL 218.04 8 TAMILNADU 104.77 9 ANDHRA PRADESH 99.11 10 MAHARASHTRA 33.98 11 NORTH EAST 8.50 Total CBM Resources 2599.48 Incorrect
According to the Petroleum and Natural Resources data the following states have the Coal Bed Methane resources.
Sl. No STATE Estimated CBM Resources (BCM) 1 JHARKHAND 722.08 2 RAJASTHAN 359.62 3 GUJARAT 351.13 4 ORISSA 243.52 5 CHATTISGARH 240.69 6 MADHYA PRADESH 218.04 7 WEST BENGAL 218.04 8 TAMILNADU 104.77 9 ANDHRA PRADESH 99.11 10 MAHARASHTRA 33.98 11 NORTH EAST 8.50 Total CBM Resources 2599.48 - Question 5 of 28
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding Oxygen:
- Themost abundant element in the Earth’s crust is oxygen.
- One of the major commercial use of oxygen gas is in the steel industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the universe after hydrogen and helium (by mass) and it’s the most abundant element (by mass) in the Earth’s crust, making up almost half of the crust’s mass. Oxygen is a gas at room temperature that glows a lovely pale blue colour when exposed to an electrical current.
The greatest commercial use of oxygen gas is in the steel industry. Large quantities are also used in the manufacture of a wide range of chemicals including nitric acid and hydrogen peroxide. It is also used to make epoxyethane (ethylene oxide), used as antifreeze and to make polyester, and chloroethene, the precursor to PVC.
Oxygen gas is used for oxy-acetylene welding and cutting of metals. A growing use is in the treatment of sewage and of effluent from industry
Incorrect
Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the universe after hydrogen and helium (by mass) and it’s the most abundant element (by mass) in the Earth’s crust, making up almost half of the crust’s mass. Oxygen is a gas at room temperature that glows a lovely pale blue colour when exposed to an electrical current.
The greatest commercial use of oxygen gas is in the steel industry. Large quantities are also used in the manufacture of a wide range of chemicals including nitric acid and hydrogen peroxide. It is also used to make epoxyethane (ethylene oxide), used as antifreeze and to make polyester, and chloroethene, the precursor to PVC.
Oxygen gas is used for oxy-acetylene welding and cutting of metals. A growing use is in the treatment of sewage and of effluent from industry
- Question 6 of 28
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following regarding Coal as a potential energy source
- India does not planned any coal based power plant after announcing its climate change targets
- Largest Coal reserves of India are found in the state of Orissa
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
According to the 2017 data, almost 94 GW of coal-based power plants are planned (announced, pre-permitted or permitted) or already under construction in India. Jharkhand has the largest coal reserves in India. This is followed by Orissa and Chattisgarh. Together these three states has 68% of total coal reserves of India
Incorrect
According to the 2017 data, almost 94 GW of coal-based power plants are planned (announced, pre-permitted or permitted) or already under construction in India. Jharkhand has the largest coal reserves in India. This is followed by Orissa and Chattisgarh. Together these three states has 68% of total coal reserves of India
- Question 7 of 28
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyMACS 1407, recently seen in news, it is a
Correct
Scientists from MACS- Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) Pune in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research(ICAR) have developed a variety of Soybean called MACS 1407
Incorrect
Scientists from MACS- Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) Pune in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research(ICAR) have developed a variety of Soybean called MACS 1407
- Question 8 of 28
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyThe Great Bitter Lake is located in which of the following Country?
Correct
The Great Bitter Lake in Egypt is one of several lakes located along the Suez Canal, which connects the eastern Mediterranean and Red Seas. As the canal is built only to allow ships to travel in a single lane, the Great Bitter Lake is a location where ships can change their position in line (like the passing lane on the highway) before proceeding to either Port Said to the north, or the port of Suez to the south. The lake also provides an intermediate harbor for ships traversing the Canal.
Incorrect
The Great Bitter Lake in Egypt is one of several lakes located along the Suez Canal, which connects the eastern Mediterranean and Red Seas. As the canal is built only to allow ships to travel in a single lane, the Great Bitter Lake is a location where ships can change their position in line (like the passing lane on the highway) before proceeding to either Port Said to the north, or the port of Suez to the south. The lake also provides an intermediate harbor for ships traversing the Canal.
- Question 9 of 28
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- Agriculture uses majority of the fresh water resources in India.
- Canal irrigation share in agriculture in India is more than that of groundwater irrigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Agriculture irrigation accounts for nearly 78% followed by domestic use 6%, industries 5% of water resources use in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only about half of India’s gross cropped area (198 million hectares) is irrigated. Groundwater contributes about 64 per cent, canals 23 per cent, tanks 2 per cent and other sources 11 per cent to irrigation.
# As per the UN’s report on Sustainable Development Goal-6 (SDG-6) on “Clean water and sanitation for all by 2030”, India achieved only 56.6 per cent of the target by 2019.
# As per the Niti Aayog’s Composite Water Management Index (2019), 75 per cent households in India do not have access to drinking water on their premises and India ranks 120th amongst 122 countries in the water quality index.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Agriculture irrigation accounts for nearly 78% followed by domestic use 6%, industries 5% of water resources use in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only about half of India’s gross cropped area (198 million hectares) is irrigated. Groundwater contributes about 64 per cent, canals 23 per cent, tanks 2 per cent and other sources 11 per cent to irrigation.
# As per the UN’s report on Sustainable Development Goal-6 (SDG-6) on “Clean water and sanitation for all by 2030”, India achieved only 56.6 per cent of the target by 2019.
# As per the Niti Aayog’s Composite Water Management Index (2019), 75 per cent households in India do not have access to drinking water on their premises and India ranks 120th amongst 122 countries in the water quality index.
- Question 10 of 28
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following state does not border either Bangladesh or Myanmar?
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Assam
- Tripura
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Four northeastern states of Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Assam share a 1,880-km border with Bangladesh, while Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh share a 1,640-km unfenced border with Myanmar.
Incorrect
Four northeastern states of Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Assam share a 1,880-km border with Bangladesh, while Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh share a 1,640-km unfenced border with Myanmar.
- Question 11 of 28
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich one among the following is the Southernmost point?
Correct
Generally, it is believed that Cape of Good Hope is the Southernmost point on African continent. However, Cape Agulhas is the southernmost point among all of the given points.
Incorrect
Generally, it is believed that Cape of Good Hope is the Southernmost point on African continent. However, Cape Agulhas is the southernmost point among all of the given points.
- Question 12 of 28
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Suez Canal:
- It connects the Mediterranean and Red Seas.
- It divides Egypt from the Sinai Peninsula.
- It has never been closed since it was built.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. The Suez Canal crosses the Suez isthmus in Egypt. It is about 193km (120 miles) long and incorporates three natural lakes. The Isthmus of Suez is the only land bridge between the African and Asian continents which used to form a single continental mass.
The canal connects the Mediterranean and Red Seas and divides Egypt from the Sinai Peninsula.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It was opened for navigation in 1869. Egypt nationalized the canal in July 1956. The Canal was closed few times; the last time was the most serious one when Egypt closed down the Suez Canal which trapped fifteen international ships in the canal for more or less eight years. The Canal was then reopened for navigation in June 1975.
# Egypt’s Suez Canal has been blocked by a large container ship. But it has been removed recently
Incorrect
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. The Suez Canal crosses the Suez isthmus in Egypt. It is about 193km (120 miles) long and incorporates three natural lakes. The Isthmus of Suez is the only land bridge between the African and Asian continents which used to form a single continental mass.
The canal connects the Mediterranean and Red Seas and divides Egypt from the Sinai Peninsula.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It was opened for navigation in 1869. Egypt nationalized the canal in July 1956. The Canal was closed few times; the last time was the most serious one when Egypt closed down the Suez Canal which trapped fifteen international ships in the canal for more or less eight years. The Canal was then reopened for navigation in June 1975.
# Egypt’s Suez Canal has been blocked by a large container ship. But it has been removed recently
- Question 13 of 28
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following state of India does not share border with Nepal?
- Jharkhand
- West Bengal
- Bihar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
With an area of 147,181 sq. km and a population of 29 million, Nepal shares a border of about 1850 km with five Indian States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. An estimated 6 million Nepalese live and work in India. As close neighbours, India and Nepal share a unique relationship of friendship and cooperation characterized by open borders and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture.
Incorrect
With an area of 147,181 sq. km and a population of 29 million, Nepal shares a border of about 1850 km with five Indian States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. An estimated 6 million Nepalese live and work in India. As close neighbours, India and Nepal share a unique relationship of friendship and cooperation characterized by open borders and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture.
- Question 14 of 28
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyA new Mango variety named ‘Sadabahar’ is in news recently, which one of the following statements is incorrect about it?
Correct
Sadabahar is a dwarf variety of mango. It can be grown regularly round the year.
The dwarf is used to describe varieties or species of plants and animals which are much smaller than the usual size for their kind.
It is resistant to most major diseases and common mango disorders.
It is deep orange with sweet taste, and the pulp has very less fiber content which differentiates it from other varieties.
Incorrect
Sadabahar is a dwarf variety of mango. It can be grown regularly round the year.
The dwarf is used to describe varieties or species of plants and animals which are much smaller than the usual size for their kind.
It is resistant to most major diseases and common mango disorders.
It is deep orange with sweet taste, and the pulp has very less fiber content which differentiates it from other varieties.
- Question 15 of 28
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following state/Union Territory shares the longest border with China?
Correct
India shares 3488 Km of border with China that runs along the States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh and UT of Ladakh.
STATE/UT LENGTH (km) Ladakh 1597 Himachal Pradesh 200 Uttarakhand 345 Sikkim 220 Arunachal Pradesh 1126 3488 Incorrect
India shares 3488 Km of border with China that runs along the States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh and UT of Ladakh.
STATE/UT LENGTH (km) Ladakh 1597 Himachal Pradesh 200 Uttarakhand 345 Sikkim 220 Arunachal Pradesh 1126 3488 - Question 16 of 28
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Chenab River:
- It is formed after the two streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge with each other.
- It meets with Sutlej River in Punjab, India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The river Chenab (or Chandra Bhaga) is formed after the two streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge with each other. The Chandra and the Bhaga originate from the south-west and north-west faces of Barelacha pass respectively in the Himalayan canton of Lahul and Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Chenab does not meet Sutlej in India. It meets with Jhelum and Ravi in Pakistan.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The river Chenab (or Chandra Bhaga) is formed after the two streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge with each other. The Chandra and the Bhaga originate from the south-west and north-west faces of Barelacha pass respectively in the Himalayan canton of Lahul and Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Chenab does not meet Sutlej in India. It meets with Jhelum and Ravi in Pakistan.
- Question 17 of 28
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Bogibeel Bridge:
- It is a rail/road bridge.
- It is built across the River Brahmaputra in the state of Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Bogibeel rail / road bridge is built across the River Brahmaputra in the Dibrugarh district, in the state of Assam in north-east India. The 4.94km bridge is one of the longest river bridges in the country. It will connect Dibrugarh in the south to Lakhimpur in the north. The River Brahmaputra runs to the north of Dibrugarh and spans 10km.
The rail-road bridge was undertaken by the Northeast Frontier Railway, which is a part of Indian Railways. It was inaugurated in 2018.
Incorrect
The Bogibeel rail / road bridge is built across the River Brahmaputra in the Dibrugarh district, in the state of Assam in north-east India. The 4.94km bridge is one of the longest river bridges in the country. It will connect Dibrugarh in the south to Lakhimpur in the north. The River Brahmaputra runs to the north of Dibrugarh and spans 10km.
The rail-road bridge was undertaken by the Northeast Frontier Railway, which is a part of Indian Railways. It was inaugurated in 2018.
- Question 18 of 28
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhere is the Thwaites Glacier located?
Correct
The Thwaites Glacier, sometimes referred to as the Doomsday Glacier, is an unusually broad and vast Antarctic glacier flowing into the Pine Island Bay.
Researchers at Sweden’s University of Gothenburg releases a new finding related to the melting of the Thwaites Glacier. They found that the melting was worse than previously thought.
Incorrect
The Thwaites Glacier, sometimes referred to as the Doomsday Glacier, is an unusually broad and vast Antarctic glacier flowing into the Pine Island Bay.
Researchers at Sweden’s University of Gothenburg releases a new finding related to the melting of the Thwaites Glacier. They found that the melting was worse than previously thought.
- Question 19 of 28
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhat is the long period average of monsoon rainfall in India as per IMD?
Correct
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a ‘normal’ monsoon for this year. In the agency’s parlance, normal implies that the country will get 96% to 104% of the 88 cm that it gets from June-September.
This quantity, called the Long Period Average (LPA), is a mean of monsoon rainfall from 1961-2010.
Incorrect
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a ‘normal’ monsoon for this year. In the agency’s parlance, normal implies that the country will get 96% to 104% of the 88 cm that it gets from June-September.
This quantity, called the Long Period Average (LPA), is a mean of monsoon rainfall from 1961-2010.
- Question 20 of 28
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyHot Springs and Gogra post have been in news recently, where are they located?
Correct
Both of these are close to the Chang Chenmo river in the Galwan sub-sector of the LAC in eastern Ladakh. While Hot Springs is just north of the Chang Chenmo river, Gogra Post is east of the point where the river takes a hairpin bend coming southeast from Galwan Valley and turning southwest.
The area lies close to Kongka Pass, one of the main passes, which, according to China marks the boundary between India and China. India’s claim of the international boundary lies significantly east, as it includes the entire Aksai Chin area as well.
Incorrect
Both of these are close to the Chang Chenmo river in the Galwan sub-sector of the LAC in eastern Ladakh. While Hot Springs is just north of the Chang Chenmo river, Gogra Post is east of the point where the river takes a hairpin bend coming southeast from Galwan Valley and turning southwest.
The area lies close to Kongka Pass, one of the main passes, which, according to China marks the boundary between India and China. India’s claim of the international boundary lies significantly east, as it includes the entire Aksai Chin area as well.
- Question 21 of 28
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Barakah - Saudi Arabia
- Fukushima - Japan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The 5,600MW Barakah nuclear power plant (NPP) in the Emirate of Abu Dhabi is the first nuclear power project in the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It is located in the Al Dhafra of the Emirate of Abu Dhabi on the Arabian Gulf.
The Fukushima Dai-Ichi Nuclear Power Station is an out of commission nuclear plant located in the towns of Futaba and Ohkuma, 250km north of Tokyo city in Japan. Units 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the nuclear complexes were damaged in a series of events after the 11 March 2011 earthquake (Tohoku-Chihou-Taiheiyou-Oki Earthquake) and tsunami that struck the nation.
Incorrect
The 5,600MW Barakah nuclear power plant (NPP) in the Emirate of Abu Dhabi is the first nuclear power project in the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It is located in the Al Dhafra of the Emirate of Abu Dhabi on the Arabian Gulf.
The Fukushima Dai-Ichi Nuclear Power Station is an out of commission nuclear plant located in the towns of Futaba and Ohkuma, 250km north of Tokyo city in Japan. Units 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the nuclear complexes were damaged in a series of events after the 11 March 2011 earthquake (Tohoku-Chihou-Taiheiyou-Oki Earthquake) and tsunami that struck the nation.
- Question 22 of 28
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following State does not border Odisha?
- Bihar
- Telangana
- Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Odisha borders the states of West Bengal and Jharkhand to the north, Chhattisgarh to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the south. It also has a coastline of 485 kilometres along the Bay of Bengal.
# Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) has accorded administrative approval for sanction of Rs 50.30 crore for developing all-weather ROPAX (Roll-on/Roll-off Passenger) Jetty and allied infrastructure connecting Kaninali in Bhadrak district &Talachua in Kendrapara district, Odisha under the Sagarmala initiative.
Incorrect
Odisha borders the states of West Bengal and Jharkhand to the north, Chhattisgarh to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the south. It also has a coastline of 485 kilometres along the Bay of Bengal.
# Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) has accorded administrative approval for sanction of Rs 50.30 crore for developing all-weather ROPAX (Roll-on/Roll-off Passenger) Jetty and allied infrastructure connecting Kaninali in Bhadrak district &Talachua in Kendrapara district, Odisha under the Sagarmala initiative.
- Question 23 of 28
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding the Ken-Betwa linking project:
1. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have signed a tripartite agreement with the Centre for implementation of the project.
2. It aims to transfer surplus water from the Betwa basin to the deficit Ken basin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India’s first river interlinking project, connecting the Ken and Betwa rivers in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, is finally set to be implemented. After resolving their differences over sharing of water, the chief ministers of UP and MP on March 22 signed a tripartite agreement with the Centre.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The project aims to transfer “surplus” water from the Ken basin in M.P. to the “deficit” Betwa basin in U.P.
The Ken-Betwa project is part of the national river linking project which proposes to connect 14 Himalayan and 16 peninsular rivers with 30 canals and 3,000 reservoirs in order to irrigate 87 million hectares of land. It has the status of a national project, as the Centre will contribute 90% of the cost.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India’s first river interlinking project, connecting the Ken and Betwa rivers in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, is finally set to be implemented. After resolving their differences over sharing of water, the chief ministers of UP and MP on March 22 signed a tripartite agreement with the Centre.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The project aims to transfer “surplus” water from the Ken basin in M.P. to the “deficit” Betwa basin in U.P.
The Ken-Betwa project is part of the national river linking project which proposes to connect 14 Himalayan and 16 peninsular rivers with 30 canals and 3,000 reservoirs in order to irrigate 87 million hectares of land. It has the status of a national project, as the Centre will contribute 90% of the cost.
- Question 24 of 28
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements regarding Kopili fault zone
- Zone falls into the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
- It is located beneath Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh.
- It is the result of Indian Plate subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.
Answer using the codes given below
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. This zone is a seismically active area, so it falls into the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kopili fault zone is a 300-km northwest-southeast trending fault. It is extending from the western part of Manipur to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Statement 3 is correct. The zone is associated with collisional tectonics because of the Indian Plate subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.Subduction is a geological process in which one crustal plate is forced below the edge of another.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. This zone is a seismically active area, so it falls into the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kopili fault zone is a 300-km northwest-southeast trending fault. It is extending from the western part of Manipur to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Statement 3 is correct. The zone is associated with collisional tectonics because of the Indian Plate subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.Subduction is a geological process in which one crustal plate is forced below the edge of another.
- Question 25 of 28
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyOn which of the following rivers, World’s highest railway bridge is being built?
Correct
The Railways on Monday said it had completed the arch closure of the 1315m Chenab bridge, the world’s highest railway bridge. The Chenab bridge is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla rail link project (USBRL) and completion of the steel arch is an important construction milestone.
Incorrect
The Railways on Monday said it had completed the arch closure of the 1315m Chenab bridge, the world’s highest railway bridge. The Chenab bridge is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla rail link project (USBRL) and completion of the steel arch is an important construction milestone.
- Question 26 of 28
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following statements
- India’s largest freshwater lake is in Himachal Pradesh.
- India’s Largest brackish water lake is in Odisha.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake. Wular Lake is the largest lake in India. In fact, it is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia. It is situated in Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 2 is correct. Chilika is one of India’s largest brackish water coastal lakes. Located south of the mouth of the Mahanadi River in unspoilt Orissa, this lake was once a bay of the ocean until it was silted up by monsoon tides.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake. Wular Lake is the largest lake in India. In fact, it is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia. It is situated in Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 2 is correct. Chilika is one of India’s largest brackish water coastal lakes. Located south of the mouth of the Mahanadi River in unspoilt Orissa, this lake was once a bay of the ocean until it was silted up by monsoon tides.
- Question 27 of 28
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyIn which one of the following states, government has not notified tracts for Opium cultivation?
Correct
The NDPS Act empowers the Central Government to permit and regulate cultivation of opium poppy for medical and scientific purposes. The Government of India notifies the tracts where opium cultivation can be licensed as well as the General Conditions for issuance of license every year. These notifications are commonly referred to as Opium Policies. Opium cultivation is permitted in the notified tracts in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Incorrect
The NDPS Act empowers the Central Government to permit and regulate cultivation of opium poppy for medical and scientific purposes. The Government of India notifies the tracts where opium cultivation can be licensed as well as the General Conditions for issuance of license every year. These notifications are commonly referred to as Opium Policies. Opium cultivation is permitted in the notified tracts in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
- Question 28 of 28
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyWhich of the following are the functions of Spices Board India?
- Export promotion of all spices and assisting exporters of Spices.
- Regulation of quality of spices for exports through its quality evaluation.
- Assist farmers in Post-harvest improvement of all spices
- Research, Development and Regulation of domestic marketing of Cardamom (Small & Large).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Spices Board is one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Purpose: It is an autonomous body responsible for the export promotion of the 52 scheduled spices and development of Cardamom (Small & Large).
Functions: The main functions of the Spices Board are,
- Research, Development and Regulation of domestic marketing of Small & Large Cardamom;
- Post-harvest improvement of all spices;
- Export promotion of all spices. Further, it will assist the exporters in technology up-gradation, quality management, brand promotion, research & product development;
- Development of spices in the North East;
- Regulation of quality of spices for exports through its quality evaluation services; etc.
Incorrect
Spices Board is one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Purpose: It is an autonomous body responsible for the export promotion of the 52 scheduled spices and development of Cardamom (Small & Large).
Functions: The main functions of the Spices Board are,
- Research, Development and Regulation of domestic marketing of Small & Large Cardamom;
- Post-harvest improvement of all spices;
- Export promotion of all spices. Further, it will assist the exporters in technology up-gradation, quality management, brand promotion, research & product development;
- Development of spices in the North East;
- Regulation of quality of spices for exports through its quality evaluation services; etc.
ENVIRONMENT
ENVIRONMENT
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- Question 1 of 22
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statement regarding GloLitter Partnerships Project
- It was launched by was the International Maritime Organization(IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization(FAO)
- It aims to tackle marine plastic pollution.
- India is one of the participating countries in the project.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
Around 30 Countries from across the oceans have joined the GloLitter Partnerships Project to tackle marine plastic litter.
- GloLitter Partnerships Project was launched by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations(FAO). The Government of Norway provided initial funding for the project.
- Aim: The project aims to help the maritime transport and fishing sectors to adapt to a low-plastic future. To achieve this goal, this initiative will assist developing countries to apply best practices for prevention, reduction, and control of marine plastic litter from those sectors.
- Participating Countries: 30 Countries will be participating in the project. India is one of the participating countries.
Read more: GloLitter Partnerships Project
Incorrect
Around 30 Countries from across the oceans have joined the GloLitter Partnerships Project to tackle marine plastic litter.
- GloLitter Partnerships Project was launched by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations(FAO). The Government of Norway provided initial funding for the project.
- Aim: The project aims to help the maritime transport and fishing sectors to adapt to a low-plastic future. To achieve this goal, this initiative will assist developing countries to apply best practices for prevention, reduction, and control of marine plastic litter from those sectors.
- Participating Countries: 30 Countries will be participating in the project. India is one of the participating countries.
Read more: GloLitter Partnerships Project
- Question 2 of 22
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements regarding forest fires
- Ground fires are more damaging compared to surface fires.
- On hill slopes, if the fire starts middle of the hill, it spreads fast upwards and less likely to spread downwards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Ground Fires are more damaging than surface fires, as they can destroy vegetation completely. Ground fires burn underneath the surface by smoldering combustion and are more often ignited by surface fires.
Statement 2 is correct. On hill slopes, if the fire starts downhill, it spreads up fast as heated air adjacent to a slope tends to flow up the slope spreading flames along with it. If the fire starts uphill, there is less likelihood of it spreading downwards.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Ground Fires are more damaging than surface fires, as they can destroy vegetation completely. Ground fires burn underneath the surface by smoldering combustion and are more often ignited by surface fires.
Statement 2 is correct. On hill slopes, if the fire starts downhill, it spreads up fast as heated air adjacent to a slope tends to flow up the slope spreading flames along with it. If the fire starts uphill, there is less likelihood of it spreading downwards.
- Question 3 of 22
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe Pterosaurs have been in news recently, what are they?
Correct
Pterosaurs are reptiles that are close cousins of dinosaurs, the first animals after insects to evolve powered flight. Pterosaurs disappeared 66 million years ago in the asteroid collision that also doomed the dinosaurs. While starting relatively small, pterosaurs eventually achieved huge dimensions, with wingspans reaching 35 feet (10.7 meters).
Azhdarchid pterosaurs, the giant reptiles that flew in the skies nearly 65 million years ago, had necks longer than that of a giraffe (on average a giraffe’s neck is about 6 feet long). Now, researchers have reported a new finding about their long necks — that the thin neck vertebrae were supported by an intricate internal structure that is unlike anything seen before.
# The results of their study were published in the journal iScience recently.
Incorrect
Pterosaurs are reptiles that are close cousins of dinosaurs, the first animals after insects to evolve powered flight. Pterosaurs disappeared 66 million years ago in the asteroid collision that also doomed the dinosaurs. While starting relatively small, pterosaurs eventually achieved huge dimensions, with wingspans reaching 35 feet (10.7 meters).
Azhdarchid pterosaurs, the giant reptiles that flew in the skies nearly 65 million years ago, had necks longer than that of a giraffe (on average a giraffe’s neck is about 6 feet long). Now, researchers have reported a new finding about their long necks — that the thin neck vertebrae were supported by an intricate internal structure that is unlike anything seen before.
# The results of their study were published in the journal iScience recently.
- Question 4 of 22
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe ‘Monkeydactyl’ have been discovered recently, what is it?
Correct
Paleontologists have discovered the first-known fossil of a flying dinosaur with opposable thumbs. Nicknamed “Monkeydactyl”, the 160-million-year-old pterosaur likely used its dexterity to climb trees and hunt for insects and other prey. A team of international researchers unearthed the Jurassic remains in Liaoning, northeastern China.
The monkeydactyl is the earliest known animal with the ability to touch the inside of its thumbs to the inside of its index fingers, according to the paleontologists behind the discovery.
Incorrect
Paleontologists have discovered the first-known fossil of a flying dinosaur with opposable thumbs. Nicknamed “Monkeydactyl”, the 160-million-year-old pterosaur likely used its dexterity to climb trees and hunt for insects and other prey. A team of international researchers unearthed the Jurassic remains in Liaoning, northeastern China.
The monkeydactyl is the earliest known animal with the ability to touch the inside of its thumbs to the inside of its index fingers, according to the paleontologists behind the discovery.
- Question 5 of 22
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements:
- Genetic modification (GM) technology allows the transfer of genes for specific traits between species.
- GM Mustard is the only GM crop approved in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) can be defined as organisms (i.e. plants, animals or microorganisms) in which the genetic material (DNA) has been altered in a way that does not occur naturally by mating and/or natural recombination. Genetic modification (GM) technology allows the transfer of genes for specific traits between species.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bt Cotton is the only GM crop introduced in India in 2002. Bt brinjal was recommended for commercialisation in October 2009, after it completed regulatory evaluation in seven years, and is still under moratorium.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) can be defined as organisms (i.e. plants, animals or microorganisms) in which the genetic material (DNA) has been altered in a way that does not occur naturally by mating and/or natural recombination. Genetic modification (GM) technology allows the transfer of genes for specific traits between species.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bt Cotton is the only GM crop introduced in India in 2002. Bt brinjal was recommended for commercialisation in October 2009, after it completed regulatory evaluation in seven years, and is still under moratorium.
- Question 6 of 22
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of following are the reasons for Urban Fires?
- Faulty Electrical equipment
- Using older equipment
- Overloading of machines
- Lack of awareness
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Correct
- Faulty Electrics: These are the biggest cause of workplace fires. Loose wires, overloaded plugs and machinery, old equipment etc. can all result in a fire accident.
- Flammable and Combustible Materials: Urban premises that hold any number of materials that are flammable or combustible represent a dangerous hazard.
- Human Error: When staff are not trained properly, they are at risk of making catastrophic mistakes. Accidents such as placing liquid near electrical equipment, burning food in the kitchen or spilling flammable liquids have occurred due to human error.
- Lack of awareness among people: In many accidents, it was observed that firefighting equipment was installed. But there is no knowledge training for the persons to handle the equipment.
Incorrect
- Faulty Electrics: These are the biggest cause of workplace fires. Loose wires, overloaded plugs and machinery, old equipment etc. can all result in a fire accident.
- Flammable and Combustible Materials: Urban premises that hold any number of materials that are flammable or combustible represent a dangerous hazard.
- Human Error: When staff are not trained properly, they are at risk of making catastrophic mistakes. Accidents such as placing liquid near electrical equipment, burning food in the kitchen or spilling flammable liquids have occurred due to human error.
- Lack of awareness among people: In many accidents, it was observed that firefighting equipment was installed. But there is no knowledge training for the persons to handle the equipment.
- Question 7 of 22
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe ‘Nacaduba sinhala ramaswamii Sadasivan’ has been in news recently, it is a species of:
Correct
The butterfly species Nacaduba sinhala ramaswamii Sadasivan discovered in the Agasthyamalais in the Western Ghats a decade ago has now found place in the Journal of Threatened Taxa.
Nacaduba is a genus of gossamer-winged butterflies. It contains many of the species commonly called “lineblues”. Line Blues are small butterflies belonging to the subfamily Lycaenidae and their distribution ranges from India and Sri Lanka to the whole of southeastern Asia, Australia and Samoa.
Incorrect
The butterfly species Nacaduba sinhala ramaswamii Sadasivan discovered in the Agasthyamalais in the Western Ghats a decade ago has now found place in the Journal of Threatened Taxa.
Nacaduba is a genus of gossamer-winged butterflies. It contains many of the species commonly called “lineblues”. Line Blues are small butterflies belonging to the subfamily Lycaenidae and their distribution ranges from India and Sri Lanka to the whole of southeastern Asia, Australia and Samoa.
- Question 8 of 22
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following National Park(s) is/are located in Rajasthan?
- Bandhavgarh National Park
- Ranthambore National Park
- Keoladeo National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Keoladeo National Park is in Bharatpur, Rakasthan is a former duck-hunting reserve of the Maharajas is one of the major wintering areas for large numbers of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China and Siberia.
The Ranthambore National Park is in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan is also a former royal hunting ground and home to tigers, leopards and marsh crocodiles.
Bandhavgarh National Park is spread at Vidhya hills in Madhya Pradesh.
Rajasthan Diwas is observed on March 30th every year to commemorate the formation of the state. It was formed on March 30th, 1949 when Rajputana was merged into the Dominion of India. Jaipur being the largest city was declared as the capital of the state.
Incorrect
The Keoladeo National Park is in Bharatpur, Rakasthan is a former duck-hunting reserve of the Maharajas is one of the major wintering areas for large numbers of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China and Siberia.
The Ranthambore National Park is in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan is also a former royal hunting ground and home to tigers, leopards and marsh crocodiles.
Bandhavgarh National Park is spread at Vidhya hills in Madhya Pradesh.
Rajasthan Diwas is observed on March 30th every year to commemorate the formation of the state. It was formed on March 30th, 1949 when Rajputana was merged into the Dominion of India. Jaipur being the largest city was declared as the capital of the state.
- Question 9 of 22
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following State?
Correct
Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary covers an area of around 70.13 sq km and lies on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River. It forms an integral part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori eco-system and is a notified buffer of the Kazairanga Tiger reserve.
The sanctuary is home to the great Indian-one horned rhinoceros, elephants, royal Bengal tigers, Asiatic water buffaloes and more than 225 species of birds.
Incorrect
Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary covers an area of around 70.13 sq km and lies on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River. It forms an integral part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori eco-system and is a notified buffer of the Kazairanga Tiger reserve.
The sanctuary is home to the great Indian-one horned rhinoceros, elephants, royal Bengal tigers, Asiatic water buffaloes and more than 225 species of birds.
- Question 10 of 22
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements:
- Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as Critically Endangered in IUCN Red List.
- The Indian Rhino Vision 2020 aimed to move rhinos from densely populated parks to less densely populated parks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
Statement 2 is correct. The goal of Indian Rhino Vision 2020 was to increase the rhino population in Assam to 3,000 by establishing populations in new areas. Rhinos are now found in four Protected Areas in Assam: Pabitora Wildlife Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.
Wild-to-wild translocations were an essential part of IRV2020 – moving rhinos from densely populated parks like Kaziranga NP, to ones in need of more rhinos, like Manas NP. IRV2020 was established in 2005.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
Statement 2 is correct. The goal of Indian Rhino Vision 2020 was to increase the rhino population in Assam to 3,000 by establishing populations in new areas. Rhinos are now found in four Protected Areas in Assam: Pabitora Wildlife Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.
Wild-to-wild translocations were an essential part of IRV2020 – moving rhinos from densely populated parks like Kaziranga NP, to ones in need of more rhinos, like Manas NP. IRV2020 was established in 2005.
- Question 11 of 22
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentThe Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following State?
Correct
The KatarniyaGhat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai of Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh. The KatarniyaGhat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and Nepal.
The sanctuary has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands. It is home to a number of endangered species including gharial, tiger, rhino, Gangetic dolphin, Swamp deer, Hispid hare, Bengal florican, the White-backed and Long-billed vultures.
Incorrect
The KatarniyaGhat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai of Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh. The KatarniyaGhat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and Nepal.
The sanctuary has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands. It is home to a number of endangered species including gharial, tiger, rhino, Gangetic dolphin, Swamp deer, Hispid hare, Bengal florican, the White-backed and Long-billed vultures.
- Question 12 of 22
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following statements regarding ‘Net-zero emissions target’ is/are correct?
- India has adopted a net Zero target.
- Net-Zero target involves zero emission of Greenhouse gases.
- There is no fix year to achieve the net zero emission target.
Answer using the 3 codes given below
Correct
1st statement is incorrect. India has not yet adopted the net- zero emission target.
2nd statement is incorrect. It involves balancing of emission by equivalent absorption. Whereas zero emission targets at no emission at all.
3rd statement is correct. There is no fix year to achieve the net-zero emissions target. Some countries aim to achieve it by 2050, others aim to achieve it by 2045.
Read more - What is Net Zero Target? |ForumIAS Blog
Incorrect
1st statement is incorrect. India has not yet adopted the net- zero emission target.
2nd statement is incorrect. It involves balancing of emission by equivalent absorption. Whereas zero emission targets at no emission at all.
3rd statement is correct. There is no fix year to achieve the net-zero emissions target. Some countries aim to achieve it by 2050, others aim to achieve it by 2045.
Read more - What is Net Zero Target? |ForumIAS Blog
- Question 13 of 22
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentPong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary was in news recently, it is also a
Correct
Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983.
- In 1994, Government of India declared Pong Dam Lake as a “Wetland of National Importance”. In 2002, it became a Ramsar Site in November 2002 by government notification.
- Vegetation: The sanctuary area is covered with tropical and subtropical forests. Thus, it shelters a great number of Indian Wildlife animals.
Read More - “Pong Dam wildlife sanctuary”-27 Migratory Birds Found Dead (forumias.com)
Incorrect
Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983.
- In 1994, Government of India declared Pong Dam Lake as a “Wetland of National Importance”. In 2002, it became a Ramsar Site in November 2002 by government notification.
- Vegetation: The sanctuary area is covered with tropical and subtropical forests. Thus, it shelters a great number of Indian Wildlife animals.
Read More - “Pong Dam wildlife sanctuary”-27 Migratory Birds Found Dead (forumias.com)
- Question 14 of 22
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich one of the following releases India State of Forest Report?
Correct
Forest Survey of India (FSI) is a premier national organization under the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is responsible for the assessment and monitoring of the forest resources of the country regularly.
FSI was established on June 1,1981. The Forest Survey of India succeeded the ”Pre Investment Survey of Forest Resources” (PISFR). PISER is a project initiated in 1965 by the Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.
FSI is headquartered at Dehradun in Uttarakhand.
It releases a biennial report called the State of Forest Report (SFR). The first ISFR released in 1987. So far, 16 biennial assessment of Forests has been done.
The last report was released in 2019. The 2019 report for the first time created a national forest inventory.
Incorrect
Forest Survey of India (FSI) is a premier national organization under the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is responsible for the assessment and monitoring of the forest resources of the country regularly.
FSI was established on June 1,1981. The Forest Survey of India succeeded the ”Pre Investment Survey of Forest Resources” (PISFR). PISER is a project initiated in 1965 by the Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.
FSI is headquartered at Dehradun in Uttarakhand.
It releases a biennial report called the State of Forest Report (SFR). The first ISFR released in 1987. So far, 16 biennial assessment of Forests has been done.
The last report was released in 2019. The 2019 report for the first time created a national forest inventory.
- Question 15 of 22
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following are the possible reasons for forest fires?
- Tourists
- Lack of soil moisture
- Slash and Burn Cultivation
- Volcanic eruption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Forest fires occurs due to both man-made and natural causes
Man-Made causes include,
- Manmade fires are high particularly in places where people visit forests. People leave burning bidis, cigarette stubs or other inflammable materials inside the forest.
- Slash and Burn Cultivation: This is one of the major reasons for the fire in India’s Northeastern region.
- In some places, people deliberately cause a fire. For example, the recent fire in Simlipal National Park in Odisha is due to deliberation. Villagers set dry leaves to fire in order to collect mahua flowers. (The local people use these flowers in preparation for a local drink).
- Other reasons include, campfires, fireworks, mining works, etc can also cause forest fires.
Natural causes include,
- Volcanic eruption: Hot magma in the earth’s crust is usually expelled out as lava during a volcanic eruption. The hot lava then flows into nearby fields or lands to start wildfires.
- Heat waves: Increased temperatures due to global warming are making the forests more vulnerable.
- Climate Change: Massive fires in the Amazon forests in Brazil and in Australia are primarily due to Climate Change.
- Lack of soil moisture: It is also seen as a key factor. For example, the recent Uttarakhand forest fires are due to this.
- Lightning strikes, Increased heat waves can also cause forest fires.
Incorrect
Forest fires occurs due to both man-made and natural causes
Man-Made causes include,
- Manmade fires are high particularly in places where people visit forests. People leave burning bidis, cigarette stubs or other inflammable materials inside the forest.
- Slash and Burn Cultivation: This is one of the major reasons for the fire in India’s Northeastern region.
- In some places, people deliberately cause a fire. For example, the recent fire in Simlipal National Park in Odisha is due to deliberation. Villagers set dry leaves to fire in order to collect mahua flowers. (The local people use these flowers in preparation for a local drink).
- Other reasons include, campfires, fireworks, mining works, etc can also cause forest fires.
Natural causes include,
- Volcanic eruption: Hot magma in the earth’s crust is usually expelled out as lava during a volcanic eruption. The hot lava then flows into nearby fields or lands to start wildfires.
- Heat waves: Increased temperatures due to global warming are making the forests more vulnerable.
- Climate Change: Massive fires in the Amazon forests in Brazil and in Australia are primarily due to Climate Change.
- Lack of soil moisture: It is also seen as a key factor. For example, the recent Uttarakhand forest fires are due to this.
- Lightning strikes, Increased heat waves can also cause forest fires.
- Question 16 of 22
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements regarding Mahendragiri Hill
- Mahendratanaya River originates from this hill.
- This hill was declared a biosphere reserve.
Answer using the codes given below
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Mahendragiri hill has many water streams and the origin of the Mahendratanaya River.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Odisha government has moved a proposal to declare is as a biosphere reserve. Also, Similipal Biosphere Reserve was Odisha’s first such reserve and was notified in 1996.
Read more -
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Mahendragiri hill has many water streams and the origin of the Mahendratanaya River.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Odisha government has moved a proposal to declare is as a biosphere reserve. Also, Similipal Biosphere Reserve was Odisha’s first such reserve and was notified in 1996.
Read more -
- Question 17 of 22
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentBlue Nature Alliance was seen in the news recently. Which of the following correctly describes it?
Correct
Blue Nature Alliance has been launched with a goal to restore 7 million square miles of ocean in five years.
- Blue Nature Alliance is a global partnership. It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility (GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation.
- Aim: To safeguard global ocean biodiversity, build resilience to climate change, promote human well-being and enhance ecosystem connectivity.
- Target Oceans: The Alliance has started by targeting seven ocean locations. This includes Antarctica, Fiji, Canada, Seychelles, Palau, the Western Indian Ocean and Tristan da Cunha, an island in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Read more: Blue Nature Alliance
Incorrect
Blue Nature Alliance has been launched with a goal to restore 7 million square miles of ocean in five years.
- Blue Nature Alliance is a global partnership. It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility (GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation.
- Aim: To safeguard global ocean biodiversity, build resilience to climate change, promote human well-being and enhance ecosystem connectivity.
- Target Oceans: The Alliance has started by targeting seven ocean locations. This includes Antarctica, Fiji, Canada, Seychelles, Palau, the Western Indian Ocean and Tristan da Cunha, an island in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Read more: Blue Nature Alliance
- Question 18 of 22
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentNet-zero emissions is a no longer an option but an undeniable necessity. Consider the statements below:
- Net-zero emissions would be achieved when all of the Carbon-Dioxide emissions are taken out from the atmosphere
- The concept of net-zero emissions is similar to climate neutrality.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: We will achieve net-zero emissions when any remaining human-caused GHG emissions (not just CO2) are balanced out by removing GHGs from the atmosphere in a process known as carbon removal.
- Statement 2 is correct: Climate Neutrality refers to the mitigation of all greenhouse gases (GHG), not just carbon dioxide. Note that carbon neutrality and climate neutrality are both different things. Climate neutrality is more inclusive while carbon neutrality only talks of carbon dioxide.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: We will achieve net-zero emissions when any remaining human-caused GHG emissions (not just CO2) are balanced out by removing GHGs from the atmosphere in a process known as carbon removal.
- Statement 2 is correct: Climate Neutrality refers to the mitigation of all greenhouse gases (GHG), not just carbon dioxide. Note that carbon neutrality and climate neutrality are both different things. Climate neutrality is more inclusive while carbon neutrality only talks of carbon dioxide.
- Question 19 of 22
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWith reference to findings of ‘the State of the Global Climate 2020’, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
- 2020 was the warmest year on record.
- La Niña induced cooling resulted in drop in sea level in 2020.
- emission of major greenhouse gases increased in 2019 and 2020
Answer using the codes given below
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. 2020 was one of the three warmest years on record, despite a cooling La Niña event. The global average temperature was about 1.2° Celsius above the pre-industrial (1850-1900) level.
Statement 2 is correct. Since record-taking started in 1993 using the satellite altimeter, sea-level has been rising. However, there was a blip in summer of 2020 that recorded a drop in sea level. The WMO report says it is due to the La Niña induced cooling.
Statement 3 is correct. Not with standing the economic slowdown due to the COVID-19 pandemic, emission of major greenhouse gases increased in 2019 and 2020. More to it, the level of greenhouse gas emission will be higher in 2021.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. 2020 was one of the three warmest years on record, despite a cooling La Niña event. The global average temperature was about 1.2° Celsius above the pre-industrial (1850-1900) level.
Statement 2 is correct. Since record-taking started in 1993 using the satellite altimeter, sea-level has been rising. However, there was a blip in summer of 2020 that recorded a drop in sea level. The WMO report says it is due to the La Niña induced cooling.
Statement 3 is correct. Not with standing the economic slowdown due to the COVID-19 pandemic, emission of major greenhouse gases increased in 2019 and 2020. More to it, the level of greenhouse gas emission will be higher in 2021.
- Question 20 of 22
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentConsider the following statements regarding net-zero emission targets
- These are part of the Paris Climate Agreement
- It means reducing the country’s greenhouse gas emissions and bringing it to Zero.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Net-zero emission is the method of balancing the greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere by the greenhouse gas absorption from the atmosphere.
In zero-carbon emission, the country will focus on limiting carbon emission. But in Net-zero carbon the country will focus on bringing the net carbon emission to zero.(Statement 2 is incorrect)
These are not part of the Paris Climate Agreement. In fact, the developing countries are arguing that the adoption of Net-zero emissions target will dilute the commitments of Paris Agreement.
Read More: Net-Zero Emissions target
Incorrect
Net-zero emission is the method of balancing the greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere by the greenhouse gas absorption from the atmosphere.
In zero-carbon emission, the country will focus on limiting carbon emission. But in Net-zero carbon the country will focus on bringing the net carbon emission to zero.(Statement 2 is incorrect)
These are not part of the Paris Climate Agreement. In fact, the developing countries are arguing that the adoption of Net-zero emissions target will dilute the commitments of Paris Agreement.
Read More: Net-Zero Emissions target
- Question 21 of 22
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentProper fire safety management can prevent major loss of life. Consider the statements below:
- National Building Code – 2016 guidelines forming the basis of fire safety in India are only recommendatory in nature
- Fire safety, as a subject, is placed under concurrent list.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Many states have established Fire & Emergency Services through a statutory Act. These acts were based on the Model Fire Service Bill circulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Similarly, in some states, municipal corporations and local bodies are responsible for providing fire services.
- Currently, the National Building Code -2016 is the basis for fire safety norms in India. It covers the detailed guidelines for construction, maintenance and fire safety of the structures. National Building Code of India is published by Bureau of Indian Standards and it is recommendatory document. Guidelines were issued to the States to incorporate the recommendations of National Building Code into their local building bylaws making the recommendations of National Building Code of India as mandatory requirement.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Fire service is a state subject and also has been included as a municipal function in the XII schedule of the Constitution.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Many states have established Fire & Emergency Services through a statutory Act. These acts were based on the Model Fire Service Bill circulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Similarly, in some states, municipal corporations and local bodies are responsible for providing fire services.
- Currently, the National Building Code -2016 is the basis for fire safety norms in India. It covers the detailed guidelines for construction, maintenance and fire safety of the structures. National Building Code of India is published by Bureau of Indian Standards and it is recommendatory document. Guidelines were issued to the States to incorporate the recommendations of National Building Code into their local building bylaws making the recommendations of National Building Code of India as mandatory requirement.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Fire service is a state subject and also has been included as a municipal function in the XII schedule of the Constitution.
- Question 22 of 22
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: EnvironmentWhich of the following statement is correct regarding ‘Leaders Summit on Climate’?
Correct
Option d is correct. U.S. President Joe Biden announced that the U.S. would cut its greenhouse gas emissions by 50%-52% by 2030 relative to 2005 levels, in a clean break with the Trump administration policies on climate action. Mr. Biden also announced that the U.S. would double, by 2024, its annual financing commitments to developing countries, including a tripling of its adaptation finance by 2024.
- US president hosts the Leaders Summit on Climate on Earth Day.
- The summit coincides with the fifth anniversary of the opening of the Paris Agreement on climate change for signature.
Incorrect
Option d is correct. U.S. President Joe Biden announced that the U.S. would cut its greenhouse gas emissions by 50%-52% by 2030 relative to 2005 levels, in a clean break with the Trump administration policies on climate action. Mr. Biden also announced that the U.S. would double, by 2024, its annual financing commitments to developing countries, including a tripling of its adaptation finance by 2024.
- US president hosts the Leaders Summit on Climate on Earth Day.
- The summit coincides with the fifth anniversary of the opening of the Paris Agreement on climate change for signature.
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY I
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- Question 1 of 27
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to Indian Patent Act 1970.
- Indian Patent Act allow the evergreening of patents.
- The Act permit Indian government to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention under the Compulsory licensing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Indian Patent Act 1970 is the only legislation that till date that governs patents in India. It first came into force in 1972. It was amended in 2005.
The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks or CGPDTM is the body responsible for the Indian Patent Act.
Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act 1970 does not allow patents to the inventions or minor changes to the known substance unless it differs significantly in properties with regard to efficacy. This means that the Indian Patent Act does not allow the evergreening of patents. (Statement 1 is incorrect).
Compulsory Licensing (CL) is the method of granting permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent owner’s consent. The Patents Act in India deals with CL. (Statement 2 is correct)
Incorrect
Indian Patent Act 1970 is the only legislation that till date that governs patents in India. It first came into force in 1972. It was amended in 2005.
The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks or CGPDTM is the body responsible for the Indian Patent Act.
Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act 1970 does not allow patents to the inventions or minor changes to the known substance unless it differs significantly in properties with regard to efficacy. This means that the Indian Patent Act does not allow the evergreening of patents. (Statement 1 is incorrect).
Compulsory Licensing (CL) is the method of granting permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent owner’s consent. The Patents Act in India deals with CL. (Statement 2 is correct)
- Question 2 of 27
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements best describes the aim of Copyright (Amendment) Rules, 2021;
Correct
The Government of India has notified Copyright (Amendment) Rules, 2021 . In India, the copyright regime is governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 and the Copyright Rules, 2013. The Copyright Rules, 2013 were last amended in the year 2016.
It aims to ensure smooth and flawless compliance in the light of the technological advancement in digital era by adopting electronic means as primary mode of communication and working in the Copyright Office
Incorrect
The Government of India has notified Copyright (Amendment) Rules, 2021 . In India, the copyright regime is governed by the Copyright Act, 1957 and the Copyright Rules, 2013. The Copyright Rules, 2013 were last amended in the year 2016.
It aims to ensure smooth and flawless compliance in the light of the technological advancement in digital era by adopting electronic means as primary mode of communication and working in the Copyright Office
- Question 3 of 27
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RECOVERY Trials:
- It aims to identify treatments that may be beneficial for people hospitalized with COVID-19.
- It is being conducted globally by the World Health Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Randomised Evaluation of COVID-19 Therapy (RECOVERY) trials aims to identify treatments that may be beneficial for people hospitalised with suspected or confirmed COVID-19. The RECOVERY Trial is currently testing some of these suggested treatments:
–Regeneron’s antibody cocktail (a combination of monoclonal antibodies directed against coronavirus)
–Baricitinib (an immunomodulatory drug used in rheumatoid arthritis)
–Dimethyl fumarate (an immunomodulatory drug used in psoriasis and multiple sclerosis).
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a national trial being held in United Kingdom sponsored by the University of Oxford.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Randomised Evaluation of COVID-19 Therapy (RECOVERY) trials aims to identify treatments that may be beneficial for people hospitalised with suspected or confirmed COVID-19. The RECOVERY Trial is currently testing some of these suggested treatments:
–Regeneron’s antibody cocktail (a combination of monoclonal antibodies directed against coronavirus)
–Baricitinib (an immunomodulatory drug used in rheumatoid arthritis)
–Dimethyl fumarate (an immunomodulatory drug used in psoriasis and multiple sclerosis).
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a national trial being held in United Kingdom sponsored by the University of Oxford.
- Question 4 of 27
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) holds a key place in protection of Intellectual Property Rights. In this regard, consider the following statements:
- One of the key objectives of TRIPS is that intellectual property protection should contribute to technical innovation and the transfer of technology.
- It has expanded international copyright rules to cover rental rights
- TRIPS is administered by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The TRIPS Agreement plays a critical role in facilitating trade in knowledge and creativity, in resolving trade disputes over intellectual property. The TRIPS Agreement has an additional important general objective: intellectual property protection should contribute to technical innovation and the transfer of technology. Both producers and users should benefit, and economic and social welfare should be enhanced, the TRIPS Agreement says.
- Statement 2 is correct: TRIPS agreement has expanded international copyright rules to cover rental rights. Authors of computer programs and producers of sound recordings must have the right to prohibit the commercial rental of their works to the public. A similar exclusive right applies to films where commercial rental has led to widespread copying, affecting copyright-owners’ potential earnings from their film
Statement 3 is incorrect: TRIPS is administered by WTO (World Trade Organization). WIPO is a UN agency
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The TRIPS Agreement plays a critical role in facilitating trade in knowledge and creativity, in resolving trade disputes over intellectual property. The TRIPS Agreement has an additional important general objective: intellectual property protection should contribute to technical innovation and the transfer of technology. Both producers and users should benefit, and economic and social welfare should be enhanced, the TRIPS Agreement says.
- Statement 2 is correct: TRIPS agreement has expanded international copyright rules to cover rental rights. Authors of computer programs and producers of sound recordings must have the right to prohibit the commercial rental of their works to the public. A similar exclusive right applies to films where commercial rental has led to widespread copying, affecting copyright-owners’ potential earnings from their film
Statement 3 is incorrect: TRIPS is administered by WTO (World Trade Organization). WIPO is a UN agency
- Question 5 of 27
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Non-fungible tokens (NFTs):
- These are cryptographic assets on blockchain.
- Each NFT is entirely unique.
- A Bitcoin is an NFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Non-fungible tokens or NFTs are cryptographic assets on blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A bitcoin is fungible — by trading one for another bitcoin, and nothing in value changes hands. NFTs, on the other hand, are a class of cryptocurrency assets in which each item, or token, is entirely unique.
Most NFTs are part of the Ethereum blockchain. Ethereum is a cryptocurrency, like bitcoin or dogecoin, but its blockchain also supports these NFTs.
# NFTs can be anything digital (such as drawings, music, your brain downloaded and turned into an AI), but a lot of the recent trend is around using the tech to sell digital art.
Incorrect
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Non-fungible tokens or NFTs are cryptographic assets on blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A bitcoin is fungible — by trading one for another bitcoin, and nothing in value changes hands. NFTs, on the other hand, are a class of cryptocurrency assets in which each item, or token, is entirely unique.
Most NFTs are part of the Ethereum blockchain. Ethereum is a cryptocurrency, like bitcoin or dogecoin, but its blockchain also supports these NFTs.
# NFTs can be anything digital (such as drawings, music, your brain downloaded and turned into an AI), but a lot of the recent trend is around using the tech to sell digital art.
- Question 6 of 27
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the mRNA vaccines:
- It puts a weakened or inactivated germ into human bodies.
- It delivers the instructions for cells on how to make a protein to trigger an immune response inside the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The traditional vaccines consist of either killed or weakened forms of a virus or bacterium. These provoke an immune response that allows the body to fight off the actual pathogen later on.
RNA vaccines deliver genetic information that allows the body’s own cells to produce a viral protein. Synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral protein can borrow this machinery to produce many copies of the protein. These proteins stimulate the immune system to mount a response, without posing any risk of infection.
# COVID-19 mRNA vaccines give instructions for cells to make spike protein, that is found on the surface of the virus that causes COVID-19.
# The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research and Bharat Biotech International are looking at bringing the messenger RNA platform to India after seeing its successful use in quick development of covid-19 vaccines by US-based Pfizer and Moderna.
Incorrect
The traditional vaccines consist of either killed or weakened forms of a virus or bacterium. These provoke an immune response that allows the body to fight off the actual pathogen later on.
RNA vaccines deliver genetic information that allows the body’s own cells to produce a viral protein. Synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral protein can borrow this machinery to produce many copies of the protein. These proteins stimulate the immune system to mount a response, without posing any risk of infection.
# COVID-19 mRNA vaccines give instructions for cells to make spike protein, that is found on the surface of the virus that causes COVID-19.
# The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research and Bharat Biotech International are looking at bringing the messenger RNA platform to India after seeing its successful use in quick development of covid-19 vaccines by US-based Pfizer and Moderna.
- Question 7 of 27
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAccording to the giant-impact theory, which of the following protoplanet collided with Earth to result in formation of Moon?
Correct
The most widely accepted today about how the Moon was made is the giant-impact theory. It proposes that the Moon formed during a collision between the Earth and another small planet, about the size of Mars. The debris from this impact collected in an orbit around Earth to form the Moon.
Scientists have long agreed on the existence of the planet, called Theia, and its role in creating the moon. The theory goes that Theia crashed into Earth early in its life and knocked loose a chunk of rock that would later become the moon.
A new study led by Qian Yuan, a geodynamics researcher at Arizona State University (ASU), Tempe, suggests that the remnants of Theia is still inside Earth, probably located in two continent-size layers of rock beneath West Africa and the Pacific Ocean.
Incorrect
The most widely accepted today about how the Moon was made is the giant-impact theory. It proposes that the Moon formed during a collision between the Earth and another small planet, about the size of Mars. The debris from this impact collected in an orbit around Earth to form the Moon.
Scientists have long agreed on the existence of the planet, called Theia, and its role in creating the moon. The theory goes that Theia crashed into Earth early in its life and knocked loose a chunk of rock that would later become the moon.
A new study led by Qian Yuan, a geodynamics researcher at Arizona State University (ASU), Tempe, suggests that the remnants of Theia is still inside Earth, probably located in two continent-size layers of rock beneath West Africa and the Pacific Ocean.
- Question 8 of 27
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following technological developments have made Internet of Things (IoT) possible?
- Low-power sensor technology
- Cloud computing platforms
- Machine learning and analytics
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Internet of Things (IoT) describes the network of physical objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies for the purpose of connecting and exchanging data with other devices and systems over the internet. A collection of recent advances in a number of different technologies has made it practical:
— Affordable and low-power sensor technology are making IoT technology possible for more manufacturers.
— The increase in the availability of cloud platforms enables both businesses and consumers to access the infrastructure they need to scale up without actually having to manage it all.
— With advances in machine learning and analytics, along with access to varied and vast amounts of data stored in the cloud, businesses can gather insights faster and more easily. The emergence of these allied technologies continues to push the boundaries of IoT and the data produced by IoT also feeds these technologies.
— Advances in neural networks have brought natural-language processing (NLP) to IoT devices (such as digital personal assistants Alexa, Cortana, and Siri) and made them appealing, affordable, and viable for home use.
# To monitor the rural drinking water supply systems in villages, the Ministry of Jal Shakti has decided to take the digital route to uses ensor-based IoT devices to effectively monitor the implementation of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) in more than six lakh villages.
Incorrect
The Internet of Things (IoT) describes the network of physical objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies for the purpose of connecting and exchanging data with other devices and systems over the internet. A collection of recent advances in a number of different technologies has made it practical:
— Affordable and low-power sensor technology are making IoT technology possible for more manufacturers.
— The increase in the availability of cloud platforms enables both businesses and consumers to access the infrastructure they need to scale up without actually having to manage it all.
— With advances in machine learning and analytics, along with access to varied and vast amounts of data stored in the cloud, businesses can gather insights faster and more easily. The emergence of these allied technologies continues to push the boundaries of IoT and the data produced by IoT also feeds these technologies.
— Advances in neural networks have brought natural-language processing (NLP) to IoT devices (such as digital personal assistants Alexa, Cortana, and Siri) and made them appealing, affordable, and viable for home use.
# To monitor the rural drinking water supply systems in villages, the Ministry of Jal Shakti has decided to take the digital route to uses ensor-based IoT devices to effectively monitor the implementation of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) in more than six lakh villages.
- Question 9 of 27
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following diseases can be spread by the Aedes aegypti mosquito species?
- Dengue
- Yellow fever
- Zika virus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Aedes aegypti is a known vector of several viruses including yellow fever virus, dengue virus chikungunya virus and Zika virus.
The mosquito can be recognized by white markings on its legs and a marking in the form of a lyre on the upper surface of its thorax. This mosquito originated in Africa, but is now found in tropical, subtropical and temperate regions throughout the world.
Incorrect
Aedes aegypti is a known vector of several viruses including yellow fever virus, dengue virus chikungunya virus and Zika virus.
The mosquito can be recognized by white markings on its legs and a marking in the form of a lyre on the upper surface of its thorax. This mosquito originated in Africa, but is now found in tropical, subtropical and temperate regions throughout the world.
- Question 10 of 27
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs):
- These are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona.
- It can create currents that drive particles down toward Earth’s poles resulting in formation of aurora at poles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona. They can eject billions of tons of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength.
The CMEs can funnel particles into near-Earth space. A CME can jostle Earth’s magnetic fields creating currents that drive particles down toward Earth’s poles. When these react with oxygen and nitrogen, they help create the aurora, also known as the Northern and Southern Lights.
Additionally, the magnetic changes can affect a variety of human technologies. High frequency radio waves can be degraded: Radios transmit static, and GPS coordinates stray by a few yards.
# Researchers at Aryabhatta Research Institute of observational sciences (ARIES), Nainital along with their collaborators from Royal Observatory of Belgium, have led to the development of an algorithm, CMEs Identification in Inner Solar Corona (CIISCO) to detect and track the accelerating solar eruption in the lower corona.
Incorrect
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona. They can eject billions of tons of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength.
The CMEs can funnel particles into near-Earth space. A CME can jostle Earth’s magnetic fields creating currents that drive particles down toward Earth’s poles. When these react with oxygen and nitrogen, they help create the aurora, also known as the Northern and Southern Lights.
Additionally, the magnetic changes can affect a variety of human technologies. High frequency radio waves can be degraded: Radios transmit static, and GPS coordinates stray by a few yards.
# Researchers at Aryabhatta Research Institute of observational sciences (ARIES), Nainital along with their collaborators from Royal Observatory of Belgium, have led to the development of an algorithm, CMEs Identification in Inner Solar Corona (CIISCO) to detect and track the accelerating solar eruption in the lower corona.
- Question 11 of 27
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich one of the following is the first Mission, aimed at studying the deep interiors of Mars?
Correct
- InSight short for Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport is a NASA Mission.
- This Mission aims at studying the deep interiors of Mars. It is the first program to analyze the interior of the Red Planet, beneath its surface i.e. its crust, mantle, and core.
- Part of: InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992).
- Discovery Program is a series of Solar System exploration missions. NASA funds these missions through its Planetary Missions Program Office.
Incorrect
- InSight short for Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport is a NASA Mission.
- This Mission aims at studying the deep interiors of Mars. It is the first program to analyze the interior of the Red Planet, beneath its surface i.e. its crust, mantle, and core.
- Part of: InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992).
- Discovery Program is a series of Solar System exploration missions. NASA funds these missions through its Planetary Missions Program Office.
- Question 12 of 27
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following correctly describes the “ProrIISe Software”, recently seen in the news?
Correct
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, (IISc) and Prorigo Software Pvt. Ltd. have jointly developed a software ProrIISe.
ProrIISe Software aims to automate the legal and bureaucratic part of the patent process for intellectual property developed by Indian academicians in large and small institutes.
Significance: This software is available at a lesser cost when compared to the software available outside India which was the only choice available until now.
Incorrect
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, (IISc) and Prorigo Software Pvt. Ltd. have jointly developed a software ProrIISe.
ProrIISe Software aims to automate the legal and bureaucratic part of the patent process for intellectual property developed by Indian academicians in large and small institutes.
Significance: This software is available at a lesser cost when compared to the software available outside India which was the only choice available until now.
- Question 13 of 27
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following paragraph.
It is a technology used worldwide to protect naval ships from enemy’s radar and Radio Frequency (RF) missile seekers. It is an electronic countermeasure technology. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed 3 variants of this technology recently. Under this technology, A very less quantity of material will be deployed in the air acts as a decoy. It will deflect the enemy’s missiles for the safety of the ships.
Which of the following correctly identifies the technology described above?
Correct
Advanced Chaff Technology: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an Advanced Chaff Technology. It will safeguard the naval ships against enemy missile attack. The DRDO developed three variants of this chaff technology namely:
- Short Range Chaff Rocket (SRCR)
- Medium Range Chaff Rocket (MRCR) and
- Long Range Chaff Rocket (LRCR).
Read more about Advanced Chaff Technology
Electro Magnetic Pulse (EMP) weapon technology: The HPM weapon system is a technology used against an opponent’s network. HPM weapons knock out opponent’s electrical equipment rather than people. In future, HPM weapons may be used to counter incoming anti-ship/anti-aircraft/ anti-tank missiles.
Full Authority Digital Engine Control technology: It is a technology used in aircraft engines.
Tactical UAVs: These are the UAVs, operating up to a maximum altitude of 15000 ft and having an endurance of 24 Hrs with a payload of IR/EO sensors.
Incorrect
Advanced Chaff Technology: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an Advanced Chaff Technology. It will safeguard the naval ships against enemy missile attack. The DRDO developed three variants of this chaff technology namely:
- Short Range Chaff Rocket (SRCR)
- Medium Range Chaff Rocket (MRCR) and
- Long Range Chaff Rocket (LRCR).
Read more about Advanced Chaff Technology
Electro Magnetic Pulse (EMP) weapon technology: The HPM weapon system is a technology used against an opponent’s network. HPM weapons knock out opponent’s electrical equipment rather than people. In future, HPM weapons may be used to counter incoming anti-ship/anti-aircraft/ anti-tank missiles.
Full Authority Digital Engine Control technology: It is a technology used in aircraft engines.
Tactical UAVs: These are the UAVs, operating up to a maximum altitude of 15000 ft and having an endurance of 24 Hrs with a payload of IR/EO sensors.
- Question 14 of 27
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statement with respect to Wolf–Rayet stars. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about it?
- They are one of the darkest objects in the universe.
- They have completely lost their outer hydrogen.
- The surface temperature of WR stars is lower than the Sun
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Wolf–Rayet stars are highly luminous objects. The surface temperature of WR stars is a thousand times more than the Sun.
They are massive stars. Further, they have completely lost their outer hydrogen. So the WR stares fusing helium or heavier elements in the core.
The study of certain types of massive luminous supernovae explosion can help probe these stars that remain a mystery for scientists.
Read more: Wolf–Rayet stars
Incorrect
Wolf–Rayet stars are highly luminous objects. The surface temperature of WR stars is a thousand times more than the Sun.
They are massive stars. Further, they have completely lost their outer hydrogen. So the WR stares fusing helium or heavier elements in the core.
The study of certain types of massive luminous supernovae explosion can help probe these stars that remain a mystery for scientists.
Read more: Wolf–Rayet stars
- Question 15 of 27
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology‘Culex’ is sometime seen in the news. Which of the following correctly describes the term?
Correct
With the change in season and rise in temperature, culex or common house mosquitoes have made a reappearance across Delhi.
About Culex or Common House Mosquitoes:
- Culex is a genus of mosquitoes. They are known carriers of some serious diseases. They can fly up to a distance of 1-1.5 km.
- Diseases: Culex mosquitoes serve as a vector of one or more important diseases. Such as the West Nile virus, Japanese Encephalitis or St. Louis encephalitis, Cat Que Virus (CQV), filariasis and avian malaria.
- Presence of Culex Mosquitoes: They are present in hot and humid regions throughout the globe. They are not found in extreme northern latitudes.
Read More: Culex or Common House Mosquitoes
Incorrect
With the change in season and rise in temperature, culex or common house mosquitoes have made a reappearance across Delhi.
About Culex or Common House Mosquitoes:
- Culex is a genus of mosquitoes. They are known carriers of some serious diseases. They can fly up to a distance of 1-1.5 km.
- Diseases: Culex mosquitoes serve as a vector of one or more important diseases. Such as the West Nile virus, Japanese Encephalitis or St. Louis encephalitis, Cat Que Virus (CQV), filariasis and avian malaria.
- Presence of Culex Mosquitoes: They are present in hot and humid regions throughout the globe. They are not found in extreme northern latitudes.
Read More: Culex or Common House Mosquitoes
- Question 16 of 27
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding National Super Computing Mission
- Param Shakti is the first supercomputer assembled indigenously in India.
- Phase III of the mission aims to take the computing speed to around 45 Terabytes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Param Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by Param Shakti and Param Brahma at IIT-Kharagpur and IISER, Pune, respectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The network of supercomputers through the country will soon reach to around 16 Petaflops (PF). Phase III, to be initiated in January 2021, will take the computing speed to around 45 Petaflops.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Param Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by Param Shakti and Param Brahma at IIT-Kharagpur and IISER, Pune, respectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The network of supercomputers through the country will soon reach to around 16 Petaflops (PF). Phase III, to be initiated in January 2021, will take the computing speed to around 45 Petaflops.
- Question 17 of 27
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyAn oxygen enrichment unit device concentrates the oxygen from the air around by selectively removing which of the following gases?
Correct
An oxygen enrichment unit is a device, which concentrates the oxygen from the air around by selectively removing nitrogen to supply an oxygen-enriched air.
Incorrect
An oxygen enrichment unit is a device, which concentrates the oxygen from the air around by selectively removing nitrogen to supply an oxygen-enriched air.
- Question 18 of 27
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Remdesivir?
Correct
Veklury (remdesivir) is a nucleotide analog invented by Gilead, building on more than a decade of the company’s antiviral research. Veklury has broad-spectrum antiviral activity both in vitro and in vivo in animal models against multiple emerging viral pathogens, including Ebola, SARS, Marburg, MERS and SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes COVID-19.
Seven Indian companies are producing Injection Remdesivirunder voluntary licensing agreement with M/s. Gilead Sciences, USA. Government of India has prohibited the exports of Injection Remdesivir and Remdesivir Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) till the COVID-19 situation improves.
#Veklury is the brand name.
Incorrect
Veklury (remdesivir) is a nucleotide analog invented by Gilead, building on more than a decade of the company’s antiviral research. Veklury has broad-spectrum antiviral activity both in vitro and in vivo in animal models against multiple emerging viral pathogens, including Ebola, SARS, Marburg, MERS and SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes COVID-19.
Seven Indian companies are producing Injection Remdesivirunder voluntary licensing agreement with M/s. Gilead Sciences, USA. Government of India has prohibited the exports of Injection Remdesivir and Remdesivir Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) till the COVID-19 situation improves.
#Veklury is the brand name.
- Question 19 of 27
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are issues considered under the One Health approach?
- Zoonotic diseases
- Antimicrobial resistance
- Environmental contamination
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health issues include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, food safety and food security, vector-borne diseases, environmental contamination, and other health threats shared by people, animals, and the environment.
# Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare chaired ICMR’s International Symposium titled ‘One Health in India: Research informing biosafety, preparedness and response’ recently.
Incorrect
One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health issues include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, food safety and food security, vector-borne diseases, environmental contamination, and other health threats shared by people, animals, and the environment.
# Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare chaired ICMR’s International Symposium titled ‘One Health in India: Research informing biosafety, preparedness and response’ recently.
- Question 20 of 27
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Pharmacovigilance?
- Assessment of drugs
- Assessment of vaccines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Pharmacovigilance is the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine/vaccine related problem.
All medicines and vaccines undergo rigorous testing for safety and efficacy through clinical trials before they are authorized for use. However, the clinical trial process involves studying these products in a relatively small number of selected individuals for a short period of time. Certain side effects may only emerge once these products have been used by a heterogenous population, including people with other concurrent diseases, and over a long period of time.
Incorrect
Pharmacovigilance is the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine/vaccine related problem.
All medicines and vaccines undergo rigorous testing for safety and efficacy through clinical trials before they are authorized for use. However, the clinical trial process involves studying these products in a relatively small number of selected individuals for a short period of time. Certain side effects may only emerge once these products have been used by a heterogenous population, including people with other concurrent diseases, and over a long period of time.
- Question 21 of 27
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following vaccine(s) have been provided with Emergency Use Listing (EULs) by the World Health Organization?
- AstraZeneca/Oxford COVID-19 vaccine
- Janssen (Johnson & Johnson) vaccine
- Sputnik V
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Sputnik V has not been provided with Emergency Use Listing (EULs) by the World Health Organization yet.
WHO issued an Emergency Use Listing (EULs) for the Pfizer COVID-19 vaccine (BNT162b2) on 31 December 2020. On 15 February 2021, WHO issued EULs for two versions of the AstraZeneca/Oxford COVID-19 vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India and SKBio. On 12 March 2021, WHO issued an EUL for the COVID-19 vaccine Ad26.COV2.S, developed by Janssen (Johnson & Johnson). WHO is on track to EUL other vaccine products through June.
Incorrect
Sputnik V has not been provided with Emergency Use Listing (EULs) by the World Health Organization yet.
WHO issued an Emergency Use Listing (EULs) for the Pfizer COVID-19 vaccine (BNT162b2) on 31 December 2020. On 15 February 2021, WHO issued EULs for two versions of the AstraZeneca/Oxford COVID-19 vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India and SKBio. On 12 March 2021, WHO issued an EUL for the COVID-19 vaccine Ad26.COV2.S, developed by Janssen (Johnson & Johnson). WHO is on track to EUL other vaccine products through June.
- Question 22 of 27
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term ‘B.1.617’ has been in news recently, what is it?
Correct
The ‘double mutant’ virus that scientists had flagged last month as having a bearing on the spread of the pandemic in India, has a formal scientific classification: B.1.617.
Sixty-one per cent of the COVID-19 samples, collected by the Pune-based National Institute of Virology from the state by the premier virology institute between January and March had the double mutation, now classified as the B.1.617 lineage.
Incorrect
The ‘double mutant’ virus that scientists had flagged last month as having a bearing on the spread of the pandemic in India, has a formal scientific classification: B.1.617.
Sixty-one per cent of the COVID-19 samples, collected by the Pune-based National Institute of Virology from the state by the premier virology institute between January and March had the double mutation, now classified as the B.1.617 lineage.
- Question 23 of 27
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the RT-PCR test:
- It is a type of antibody test.
- The sample for the COVID-19 RT PCR test is collected from suspected person’s nose or throat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not an antibody test. The RT-PCR test detects the genetic material of the virus. RT-PCR (reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction) is the most sensitive technique for mRNA detection and quantitation currently available.
Statement 2 is correct. A sample is collected from the parts of the body where the COVID-19 virus gathers, such as a person’s nose or throat. The sample is treated with several chemical solutions that remove substances such as proteins and fats and that extract only the RNA present in the sample. This extracted RNA is a mix of the person’s own genetic material and, if present, the virus’s RNA.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is not an antibody test. The RT-PCR test detects the genetic material of the virus. RT-PCR (reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction) is the most sensitive technique for mRNA detection and quantitation currently available.
Statement 2 is correct. A sample is collected from the parts of the body where the COVID-19 virus gathers, such as a person’s nose or throat. The sample is treated with several chemical solutions that remove substances such as proteins and fats and that extract only the RNA present in the sample. This extracted RNA is a mix of the person’s own genetic material and, if present, the virus’s RNA.
- Question 24 of 27
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- A virus is a microscopic package of genetic material surrounded by a molecular envelope.
- DNA is a two-strand molecule that is found in all organisms, such as animals, plants and viruses.
- RNA is generally a one-strand molecule that copies, transcribes and transmits parts of the genetic code to proteins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A virus is a microscopic package of genetic material surrounded by a molecular envelope. This genetic material can be either deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or ribonucleic acid (RNA).
DNA is a two-strand molecule that is found in all organisms, such as animals, plants and viruses, and which holds the genetic code, or blueprint, for how these organisms are made and develop.
RNA is generally a one-strand molecule that copies, transcribes and transmits parts of the genetic code to proteins so that they can synthetize and carry out functions that keep organisms alive and developing. Different variations of RNA are responsible for copying, transcribing and transmitting.
Incorrect
A virus is a microscopic package of genetic material surrounded by a molecular envelope. This genetic material can be either deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or ribonucleic acid (RNA).
DNA is a two-strand molecule that is found in all organisms, such as animals, plants and viruses, and which holds the genetic code, or blueprint, for how these organisms are made and develop.
RNA is generally a one-strand molecule that copies, transcribes and transmits parts of the genetic code to proteins so that they can synthetize and carry out functions that keep organisms alive and developing. Different variations of RNA are responsible for copying, transcribing and transmitting.
- Question 25 of 27
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Heparin?
Correct
Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) that prevents the formation of blood clots. Heparin is used to treat and prevent blood clots caused by certain medical conditions or medical procedures. It is also used before surgery to reduce the risk of blood clots.
It is a medication and naturally occurring glycosaminoglycan. As a medication it is used as an anticoagulant.
Incorrect
Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) that prevents the formation of blood clots. Heparin is used to treat and prevent blood clots caused by certain medical conditions or medical procedures. It is also used before surgery to reduce the risk of blood clots.
It is a medication and naturally occurring glycosaminoglycan. As a medication it is used as an anticoagulant.
- Question 26 of 27
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to COVID vaccination in India:
- In order to achieve herd immunity in India, 70-75% of the population needs to be vaccinated
- Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALY) years through vaccination of 18-plus age group would be the highest
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: ‘Herd immunity’, also known as ‘population immunity’, is the indirect protection from an infectious disease that happens when a population is immune either through vaccination or immunity developed through previous infection. WHO supports achieving ‘herd immunity’ through vaccination, not by allowing a disease to spread through any segment of the population, as this would result in unnecessary cases and deaths. India needs to vaccinate around 70-75% of its population to achieve herd immunity
- Statement 2 is correct: Mortality does not give a complete picture of the burden of disease borne by individuals in different populations. The overall burden of disease is assessed using the disability-adjusted life year (DALY), a time-based measure that combines years of life lost due to premature mortality (YLLs) and years of life lost due to time lived in states of less than full health, or years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLDs). One DALY represents the loss of the equivalent of one year of full health. Hence, DALYs saved through vaccination of 18-plus age group would be the highest.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: ‘Herd immunity’, also known as ‘population immunity’, is the indirect protection from an infectious disease that happens when a population is immune either through vaccination or immunity developed through previous infection. WHO supports achieving ‘herd immunity’ through vaccination, not by allowing a disease to spread through any segment of the population, as this would result in unnecessary cases and deaths. India needs to vaccinate around 70-75% of its population to achieve herd immunity
- Statement 2 is correct: Mortality does not give a complete picture of the burden of disease borne by individuals in different populations. The overall burden of disease is assessed using the disability-adjusted life year (DALY), a time-based measure that combines years of life lost due to premature mortality (YLLs) and years of life lost due to time lived in states of less than full health, or years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLDs). One DALY represents the loss of the equivalent of one year of full health. Hence, DALYs saved through vaccination of 18-plus age group would be the highest.
- Question 27 of 27
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWastage Multiplier Factor (WMF), often seen in news is related to:
Correct
- The wastage multiplier factor is the factor (number) that a country multiplies its estimated vaccine needs by, in order to allow for some doses being wasted.
- For example: At least 10% of Covid-19 vaccines procured by the Centre may face “programmatic wastage”, according to the vaccination plan guidelines released by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs Ministry. This means nearly 10 in every 100 vaccines purchased by the Centre may suffer damage in different phases of vaccine management.
Incorrect
- The wastage multiplier factor is the factor (number) that a country multiplies its estimated vaccine needs by, in order to allow for some doses being wasted.
- For example: At least 10% of Covid-19 vaccines procured by the Centre may face “programmatic wastage”, according to the vaccination plan guidelines released by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs Ministry. This means nearly 10 in every 100 vaccines purchased by the Centre may suffer damage in different phases of vaccine management.
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY II
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe Hydrogen sulfide is produced in which of the following industries?
- Oil and gas refining
- Tanning
- Pulp and paper processing
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Hydrogen sulfide is a chemical with the formula H2S. Hydrogen sulfide is a dangerous, colorless gas that occurs naturally in many petroleum products. Hydrogen sulfide is used or produced in a number of industries, such as Oil and gas refining, Mining, Tanning, Pulp and paper processing and Rayon manufacturing.
Hydrogen sulfide also occurs naturally in sewers, manure pits, well water, oil and gas wells, and volcanoes.
# Scientists from the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences(CeNS), Bangalore have developed Electronic Nose to detect Hydrogen Sulphide from swamps and sewers.
Incorrect
Hydrogen sulfide is a chemical with the formula H2S. Hydrogen sulfide is a dangerous, colorless gas that occurs naturally in many petroleum products. Hydrogen sulfide is used or produced in a number of industries, such as Oil and gas refining, Mining, Tanning, Pulp and paper processing and Rayon manufacturing.
Hydrogen sulfide also occurs naturally in sewers, manure pits, well water, oil and gas wells, and volcanoes.
# Scientists from the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences(CeNS), Bangalore have developed Electronic Nose to detect Hydrogen Sulphide from swamps and sewers.
- Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding blood coagulation:
1. It is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured.
2. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a mostly in vein of heart.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Blood clotting, or coagulation, is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured. Platelets (a type of blood cell) and proteins in blood plasma work together to stop the bleeding by forming a clot over the injury.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a major vein of the leg or, less commonly, in the arms, pelvis, or other large veins in the body.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Blood clotting, or coagulation, is an important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured. Platelets (a type of blood cell) and proteins in blood plasma work together to stop the bleeding by forming a clot over the injury.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a type of clot that forms in a major vein of the leg or, less commonly, in the arms, pelvis, or other large veins in the body.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Dexamethasone:
1. It is an antiviral drug.
2. It is used for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used in a wide range of conditions for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.
It was tested in hospitalized patients with COVID-19 in the United Kingdom’s national clinical trial RECOVERY and was found to have benefits for critically ill patients.
According to preliminary findings shared with WHO, for patients on ventilators, the treatment was shown to reduce mortality by about one third, and for patients requiring only oxygen, mortality was cut by about one fifth.
Incorrect
Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used in a wide range of conditions for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.
It was tested in hospitalized patients with COVID-19 in the United Kingdom’s national clinical trial RECOVERY and was found to have benefits for critically ill patients.
According to preliminary findings shared with WHO, for patients on ventilators, the treatment was shown to reduce mortality by about one third, and for patients requiring only oxygen, mortality was cut by about one fifth.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Ingenuity Helicopter:
1. It has tested powered, controlled flight on another planet for the first-time ever.
2. It landed on Mars along with the Perseverance rover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Mars Helicopter, Ingenuity, is a technology demonstration to test powered flight on another world for the first time. It hitched a ride to Mars on the Perseverance rover. Once the rover reached a suitable “helipad” location, it released Ingenuity to the surface so it could perform a series of test flights over a 30-Martian-day experimental window. The first flight was successfully performed on April 19, 2021.
For the first flight, the helicopter took off, climbed to about 10 feet (3 meters) above the ground, hovered in the air briefly, completed a turn, and then landed.
Incorrect
The Mars Helicopter, Ingenuity, is a technology demonstration to test powered flight on another world for the first time. It hitched a ride to Mars on the Perseverance rover. Once the rover reached a suitable “helipad” location, it released Ingenuity to the surface so it could perform a series of test flights over a 30-Martian-day experimental window. The first flight was successfully performed on April 19, 2021.
For the first flight, the helicopter took off, climbed to about 10 feet (3 meters) above the ground, hovered in the air briefly, completed a turn, and then landed.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding the Quantum dots (QDs):
- These are man-made nanoscale crystals made of semiconductors.
2. They are used as labels for imaging molecules because of their very narrow fluorescence spectra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that that can transport electrons. When UV light hits these semiconducting nanoparticles, they can emit light of various colors.
Quantum dots are particularly significant for optical applications owing to their bright, pure colors along with their ability to emit rainbow of colors coupled with their high efficiencies, longer lifetimes and high extinction coefficient.
These artificial semiconductor nanoparticles that have found applications in composites, solar cells and fluorescent biological labels. They are used as labels for imaging molecules because of their very narrow fluorescence spectra, brightness and resistance to photobleaching.
Incorrect
Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that that can transport electrons. When UV light hits these semiconducting nanoparticles, they can emit light of various colors.
Quantum dots are particularly significant for optical applications owing to their bright, pure colors along with their ability to emit rainbow of colors coupled with their high efficiencies, longer lifetimes and high extinction coefficient.
These artificial semiconductor nanoparticles that have found applications in composites, solar cells and fluorescent biological labels. They are used as labels for imaging molecules because of their very narrow fluorescence spectra, brightness and resistance to photobleaching.
- Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following exactly describes the term Chimeras?
Correct
- Chimeras are organisms that are made up of the cells of two distinct species.
- Researchers at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies in the US have for the first time created the first monkey embryo containing human cells.
- This particular field of research is called “chimera research”.
Read more: chimera research
Incorrect
- Chimeras are organisms that are made up of the cells of two distinct species.
- Researchers at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies in the US have for the first time created the first monkey embryo containing human cells.
- This particular field of research is called “chimera research”.
Read more: chimera research
- Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhat is Parosmia?
Correct
Parosmia is a medical term. It describes a condition in which affected individuals experience distortions in the sense of smell. A person with parosmia is able to detect certain odours. But they might experience the smell of certain things as different and often unpleasant. People who are recovering their sense of smell following a loss from a virus or an injury typically experience parosmia.
# Ageusia is a condition, characterized by a complete loss of taste function of the tongue.
# Anosmia is the partial or complete loss of the sense of smell. This loss may be temporary or permanent.
Incorrect
Parosmia is a medical term. It describes a condition in which affected individuals experience distortions in the sense of smell. A person with parosmia is able to detect certain odours. But they might experience the smell of certain things as different and often unpleasant. People who are recovering their sense of smell following a loss from a virus or an injury typically experience parosmia.
# Ageusia is a condition, characterized by a complete loss of taste function of the tongue.
# Anosmia is the partial or complete loss of the sense of smell. This loss may be temporary or permanent.
- Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following benefits regarding Hydrogen as a potential energy source.
- Hydrogen can be used as fuel to transport heavy vehicles such as Railways, shipping and trucks etc
- Hydrogen can be used as a potential energy storage device.
- Unlike the solar which needs to charge frequently, Hydrogen can benefit long-distance travels.
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Correct
- It can be used as fuel for long-distance mobility. For example, Railways, shipping and trucks etc can use Hydrogen as a fuel.
- It can co-exist with the Electric vehicle in long-distance travel. As the EVs require charging of vehicle which is not feasible for long-distance travel. For example, 1KG of hydrogen can give 100KM range for a car.
Hydrogen can also act as a carrier device to store energy.
Incorrect
- It can be used as fuel for long-distance mobility. For example, Railways, shipping and trucks etc can use Hydrogen as a fuel.
- It can co-exist with the Electric vehicle in long-distance travel. As the EVs require charging of vehicle which is not feasible for long-distance travel. For example, 1KG of hydrogen can give 100KM range for a car.
Hydrogen can also act as a carrier device to store energy.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWith reference to Distributed Ledger Technology, consider the following statements:
- DLT can potentially improve access to finance for unbanked populations
- It enables recording of interactions, without a need for a centrally coordinating authority
- Blockchain is a type of DLT
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- DLT is a decentralized database managed by multiple participants, across multiple nodes. Blockchain is a type of DLT where transactions are recorded with an immutable cryptographic signature called a hash. The transactions are then grouped in blocks and each new block includes a hash of the previous one, chaining them together, hence why distributed ledgers are often called blockchains.
- Blockchain/ DLT are the building block of “internet of value,” and enable recording of interactions and transfer “value” peer-to-peer, without a need for a centrally coordinating entity. “Value” refers to any record of ownership of asset — for example, money, securities, land titles — and also ownership of specific information like identity, health information and other personal data.
- DLT could increase efficiency and lower remittance costs, and potentially improve access to finance for unbanked populations, who are currently outside the traditional financial system
Incorrect
- DLT is a decentralized database managed by multiple participants, across multiple nodes. Blockchain is a type of DLT where transactions are recorded with an immutable cryptographic signature called a hash. The transactions are then grouped in blocks and each new block includes a hash of the previous one, chaining them together, hence why distributed ledgers are often called blockchains.
- Blockchain/ DLT are the building block of “internet of value,” and enable recording of interactions and transfer “value” peer-to-peer, without a need for a centrally coordinating entity. “Value” refers to any record of ownership of asset — for example, money, securities, land titles — and also ownership of specific information like identity, health information and other personal data.
- DLT could increase efficiency and lower remittance costs, and potentially improve access to finance for unbanked populations, who are currently outside the traditional financial system
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding RESPOND program:
- Under the program, ISRO provides financial support for conducting research & development activities to further biodiversity conservation.
- Program is managed by Centre for Science & Environment
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect:
- ISRO launched the RESPOND (Research Sponsored) programme in the 1970s.
- Objective: The objective is to establish strong links with premier academic institutions through financial assistance to carry out R&D projects relevant to space. Further, ISRO will derive useful outputs of such R&D projects and use that in ISRO programmes
- Under the programme, ISRO provides financial support for conducting research and development activities. Projects related to space science, space technology and space applications in universities and academic institutions in India will get such financial support.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The programme is under the administration of the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL). PRL is an autonomous unit under the Department of Space.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect:
- ISRO launched the RESPOND (Research Sponsored) programme in the 1970s.
- Objective: The objective is to establish strong links with premier academic institutions through financial assistance to carry out R&D projects relevant to space. Further, ISRO will derive useful outputs of such R&D projects and use that in ISRO programmes
- Under the programme, ISRO provides financial support for conducting research and development activities. Projects related to space science, space technology and space applications in universities and academic institutions in India will get such financial support.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The programme is under the administration of the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL). PRL is an autonomous unit under the Department of Space.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements regarding an Oxygen Concentrator:
- Concentrators are designed for continuous operation and can produce oxygen 24 hours a day
- Serving more than 2 persons with same concentrator carries risk of cross-infection
- Unlike Liquid Medical Oxygen (LMO) a concentrator needs no special temperature to be stored and transported
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- An oxygen concentrator is a medical device that concentrates oxygen from ambient air. Atmospheric air has about 78 per cent nitrogen and 21 per cent oxygen, with other gases making up the remaining 1 per cent. The oxygen concentrator takes in this air, filters it through a sieve, releases the nitrogen back into the air, and works on the remaining oxygen. According to a 2015 report by the WHO, concentrators are designed for continuous operation and can produce oxygen 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, for up to 5 years or more.
- While it is not as pure as LMO (99%), experts say it is good enough for mild and moderate Covid-19 patients with oxygen saturation levels of 85% or above. It is, however, not advisable for ICU patients. Concentrators can be attached with multiple tubes to serve two patients at the same time, but experts don’t recommend it since it carries risk of cross-infection.
- Concentrators are portable and unlike LMO that needs to be stored and transported in cryogenic tankers, need no special temperature. And unlike cylinders that require refilling, concentrators only need a power source to draw in ambient air.
Incorrect
- An oxygen concentrator is a medical device that concentrates oxygen from ambient air. Atmospheric air has about 78 per cent nitrogen and 21 per cent oxygen, with other gases making up the remaining 1 per cent. The oxygen concentrator takes in this air, filters it through a sieve, releases the nitrogen back into the air, and works on the remaining oxygen. According to a 2015 report by the WHO, concentrators are designed for continuous operation and can produce oxygen 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, for up to 5 years or more.
- While it is not as pure as LMO (99%), experts say it is good enough for mild and moderate Covid-19 patients with oxygen saturation levels of 85% or above. It is, however, not advisable for ICU patients. Concentrators can be attached with multiple tubes to serve two patients at the same time, but experts don’t recommend it since it carries risk of cross-infection.
- Concentrators are portable and unlike LMO that needs to be stored and transported in cryogenic tankers, need no special temperature. And unlike cylinders that require refilling, concentrators only need a power source to draw in ambient air.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyThe term ‘Harlequin ichthyosis’ was recently seen in news, what is it?
Correct
Mutations in the ABCA 12 gene are stated to cause harlequin ichthyosis, the doctors said. The ABCA12 protein plays a major role in transporting fats in cells which make up the outermost layer of skin.
Severe mutations in the gene lead to the absence or partial production of the ABCA12 protein. This results in lack of lipid transport and as a result, the skin development is affected by varying degrees according to the severity of the mutation.
Disease is characterized by thickening of the keratin layer in the fetal human skin. The disease sees the skin form large diamond-shaped plates across the body that are separated by deep cracks (fissures). The skin is dry and scaly, almost like fish skin and hence the term ‘icthyosis’, derived from ‘ikthus’, Greek for fish.
Incorrect
Mutations in the ABCA 12 gene are stated to cause harlequin ichthyosis, the doctors said. The ABCA12 protein plays a major role in transporting fats in cells which make up the outermost layer of skin.
Severe mutations in the gene lead to the absence or partial production of the ABCA12 protein. This results in lack of lipid transport and as a result, the skin development is affected by varying degrees according to the severity of the mutation.
Disease is characterized by thickening of the keratin layer in the fetal human skin. The disease sees the skin form large diamond-shaped plates across the body that are separated by deep cracks (fissures). The skin is dry and scaly, almost like fish skin and hence the term ‘icthyosis’, derived from ‘ikthus’, Greek for fish.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement best describes the term ‘Breakthrough Infection’?
Correct
- Breakthrough infection is a case of illness in which a vaccinated individual becomes sick from the same disease for which the vaccine was administered.
- Simply, it occurs when vaccines fail to provide immunity against the pathogen they are designed to target.
Incorrect
- Breakthrough infection is a case of illness in which a vaccinated individual becomes sick from the same disease for which the vaccine was administered.
- Simply, it occurs when vaccines fail to provide immunity against the pathogen they are designed to target.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements
- Cryogenic tankers are used for the storage of liquefied gases at -150 °C or lower.
- It can be used to transport hydrogen, and helium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Cryogenic tanks are used for the storage of cryogenic liquids. Cryogenic liquids are typically liquefied gases at -150 °C or lower.
Statement 2 is correct. Common products include oxygen, argon, nitrogen, hydrogen, and helium. Cryogenic tanks are also used for storing gases at higher temperatures, examples of which include liquefied natural gas (LNG), carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Cryogenic tanks are used for the storage of cryogenic liquids. Cryogenic liquids are typically liquefied gases at -150 °C or lower.
Statement 2 is correct. Common products include oxygen, argon, nitrogen, hydrogen, and helium. Cryogenic tanks are also used for storing gases at higher temperatures, examples of which include liquefied natural gas (LNG), carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regarding Vaccines
- Covaxin is made from a weakened version of a common cold adenovirus that causes infections in chimpanzees
- Covishield is an inactivated vaccine made using the killed coronavirus thereby making them unable to infect or replicate
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Statements are interchanged
COVISHIELD:
- It is a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India based on the Oxford AstraZeneca vaccine named ChAdOx1 vaccine (also christened AZD1222)
- Type of vaccine: It is made from a weakened version of a common cold adenovirus that causes infections in chimpanzees.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine has been recommended for the approval of two full doses administered around 4-6 weeks apart. Immune response could last at least a year.
COVAXIN:
- It has been indigenously developed by Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR).
- Type of vaccine: It is an inactivated vaccine and is made by using particles of the coronavirus that were killed making them unable to infect or replicate. Injecting particular doses of these particles serves to build immunity by helping the body create antibodies against the dead virus.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine will be administered in two doses and stored at 2-8° degrees Celsius.
Read more: Covishield and Covaxin
Incorrect
Statements are interchanged
COVISHIELD:
- It is a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India based on the Oxford AstraZeneca vaccine named ChAdOx1 vaccine (also christened AZD1222)
- Type of vaccine: It is made from a weakened version of a common cold adenovirus that causes infections in chimpanzees.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine has been recommended for the approval of two full doses administered around 4-6 weeks apart. Immune response could last at least a year.
COVAXIN:
- It has been indigenously developed by Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR).
- Type of vaccine: It is an inactivated vaccine and is made by using particles of the coronavirus that were killed making them unable to infect or replicate. Injecting particular doses of these particles serves to build immunity by helping the body create antibodies against the dead virus.
- Dosage, protection duration and storage: The vaccine will be administered in two doses and stored at 2-8° degrees Celsius.
Read more: Covishield and Covaxin
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and Technology‘Zhurong‘ was sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statement correctly describes it?
Correct
- Zhurong is China’s first Mars rover mission. The rover is aboard the Tianwen-1 space probe.
- Launched in: The rover was launched in the Mars orbit in February 2021 and is due to land in May.
- Named after: The rover is named after a traditional fire god. The rover’s title also fits with the Chinese name for Mars i.e. “Huo Xing” or fire star.
- Significance: China would become the third country after the former Soviet Union and the United States to put a robot rover on Mars.
Read more: Zhurong
Incorrect
- Zhurong is China’s first Mars rover mission. The rover is aboard the Tianwen-1 space probe.
- Launched in: The rover was launched in the Mars orbit in February 2021 and is due to land in May.
- Named after: The rover is named after a traditional fire god. The rover’s title also fits with the Chinese name for Mars i.e. “Huo Xing” or fire star.
- Significance: China would become the third country after the former Soviet Union and the United States to put a robot rover on Mars.
Read more: Zhurong