With reference to the breakdown of Mughal-Rajput relations under Emperor Aurangzeb, consider the following statements: 1. Aurangzeb’s intervention in the Marwar succession following the death of Maharaja Jaswant Singh was driven primarily by political expediency to place a loyal puppet on the throne rather than purely religious zeal. 2. The re-imposition of the Jizya tax in 1679 CE was a direct trigger for the alliance between the Sisodias of Mewar and the Rathors of Marwar against the Mughal authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |ForumIAS

[A] 1 only

[B] 2 only

[C] Both 1 and 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Notes:

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct. While Aurangzeb’s orthodox leanings are undeniable, his actions regarding Marwar were strategically political. He wanted to annex Marwar (Jodhpur) into Khalisa land or install a non-independent ruler, as he did not trust the Rathors, who had supported Dara Shikoh in the war of succession.
Statement 2: Correct. The re-imposition of Jizya was deeply resented by the Rajputs. The Rajput War (1679-1707) saw the Maharana Raj Singh of Mewar (Sisodia) actively supporting the Rathor prince Ajit Singh, forming a significant anti-Mughal front based on common religious and political grievances.