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Basics of Constitution– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Basics of Constitution– 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryThe Regulating Act 1773 has a great constitutional importance due to which of the following?
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
- It was the first step to recognize the political,economicand administrative functions of the Company.
- It laid the foundations of decentralized administration in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Regulating act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India;
- It recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and
- It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Regulating act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India;
- It recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and
- It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is/are the features of Act of Settlement, 1781?
- It exempted the Governor-General from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity and not executive council.
- It empowered the Supreme Court to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It exempted the Governor-General and the Council from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity.
- Similarly, it also exempted the servants of the company from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for their official actions.
- It excluded the revenue matters and the matters arising in the collection of revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
- It provided that the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta.
- It also required the court to administer the personal law of the defendants i.e., Hindus were to be tried according to the Hindu law and Muslims were to be tried according to the Mohammedan law.
- It laid down that the appeals from the Provincial Courts could be taken to the Governor-General-in-Council and not to the Supreme Court.
- It empowered the Governor-General- in – Council to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It exempted the Governor-General and the Council from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity.
- Similarly, it also exempted the servants of the company from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for their official actions.
- It excluded the revenue matters and the matters arising in the collection of revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
- It provided that the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta.
- It also required the court to administer the personal law of the defendants i.e., Hindus were to be tried according to the Hindu law and Muslims were to be tried according to the Mohammedan law.
- It laid down that the appeals from the Provincial Courts could be taken to the Governor-General-in-Council and not to the Supreme Court.
- It empowered the Governor-General- in – Council to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following Act distinguish the commercial and political functions of the Company?
Correct
Pitts India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Pitts India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is/are features of Charter Act of 1813?
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India.
- Act did not assert the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It did not allow the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants.
- However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants.
- However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following words are mentioned in Objectives Resolution?
- Sovereign
- Residuary powers
- Integrity
- Justice
- Freedom
- World Peace
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:
- “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a constitution.
- Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all; and
- wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting there from; and
- where in all power and authority of the sovereign independent India, its constituent parts and organs of Government are derived from the people; and
- Where in shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality; and
- Where in adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes; and
- Where by shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations; and
- This ancient land attains its rightful and honored place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.”
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:
- “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a constitution.
- Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all; and
- wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting there from; and
- where in all power and authority of the sovereign independent India, its constituent parts and organs of Government are derived from the people; and
- Where in shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality; and
- Where in adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes; and
- Where by shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations; and
- This ancient land attains its rightful and honored place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.”
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWho among the following was headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas?
Correct
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryThe structural part of the Indian Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from which of the following?
Correct
The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryThe Indian Constitution has been described as ‘quasi-federal’ by whom among the following?
Correct
Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but, unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation with a centralizing tendency’ by Ivor Jennings and so on.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but, unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation with a centralizing tendency’ by Ivor Jennings and so on.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary form of Government?
- Minority party rule
- Dissolution of the lower House
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ Model of Government, responsible Government and Cabinet Government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre, but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
- Presence of nominal and real executives;
- Majority party rule,
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
- Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
- Leadership of the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister,
- Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ Model of Government, responsible Government and Cabinet Government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre, but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
- Presence of nominal and real executives;
- Majority party rule,
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
- Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
- Leadership of the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister,
- Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is the ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution?
Correct
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution.
- They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution.
- They can be classified into three broad categories – socialistic, Gandhian and liberal intellectual.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution.
- They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution.
- They can be classified into three broad categories – socialistic, Gandhian and liberal intellectual.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Basics of Constitution– 2020 and Before that
Basics of Constitution
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the eighth schedule of the Constitution?
1. English
2. Dogri
3. Garhwali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following takes oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution”?
Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
1. Kashmiri
2. Nepali
3. RajasthaniCorrect
: The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.Incorrect
: The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Presidential versus Parliamentary systems of government:
1. Unlike the Presidential system, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature in parliamentary systems.
2. The chief executive is chosen by members of legislature amongst themselves in presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following National Identity Element(s) of India have adaptation(s) from Ashoka’s reign?
1. State Emblem of India
2. National Flag
3. National Calendar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following languages have been recognized by the government as Classical Languages of India?
1. Kannada
2. Malayalam
3. Bengali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.Incorrect
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArrange the following States in chronological order of their creation:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribalsIncorrect
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Constitution Day of India:
- It is celebrated to commemorate the coming into effect of the Constitution of India.
- The date of the Constitution Day is mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the eighth schedule of the Constitution?
- English
- Dogri
- Garhwali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following takes oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution”?
Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.
Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
- Kashmiri
- Nepali
- Rajasthani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Presidential versus Parliamentary systems of government:
- Unlike the Presidential system, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature in parliamentary systems.
- The chief executive is chosen by members of legislature amongst themselves in presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following National Identity Element(s) of India have adaptation(s) from Ashoka’s reign?
- State Emblem of India
- National Flag
- National Calendar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following languages have been recognized by the government as Classical Languages of India?
- Kannada
- Malayalam
- Bengali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.
Incorrect
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArrange the following States in chronological order of their creation:
- Chhattisgarh
- Uttarakhand
- Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals
Incorrect
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Constitution Day of India:
- It is celebrated to commemorate the coming into effect of the Constitution of India.
- The date of the Constitution Day is mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding “Regulating Act, 1833”:
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him military powers and civil powers.
- The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Regulating Act, 1833 was the final step towards centralization in British India.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.
- It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations, while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Regulating Act, 1833 was the final step towards centralization in British India.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.
- It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations, while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Constitution of India:
- There is no mention of ‘National Capital Territory’ in the constitution.
- The First Schedule provides names of the States and their capital cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 239AA provides for special provisions with respect to Delhi which mentions that from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory of Delhi is called the National Capital Territory of Delhi (further referred to as the National Capital Territory).
Statement 2 is incorrect. First Schedule of the Constitution provides: Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction as well as names of the Union Territories and their extent.
It does not mention capital cities of the states.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 239AA provides for special provisions with respect to Delhi which mentions that from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory of Delhi is called the National Capital Territory of Delhi (further referred to as the National Capital Territory).
Statement 2 is incorrect. First Schedule of the Constitution provides: Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction as well as names of the Union Territories and their extent.
It does not mention capital cities of the states.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following most correctly defines the Distributive Justice?
Correct
The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has, its laws, institutions, policies, etc., result in different distributions of benefits and burdens across members of the society.
The structure of these frameworks is important because the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting from them fundamentally affect people’s lives. Principles of distributive justice are therefore best thought of as providing moral guidance for the political processes and structures that affect the distribution of benefits and burdens in societies.
Distributive principles vary in numerous dimensions. They vary in what is considered relevant to distributive justice (income, wealth, opportunities, jobs, welfare, utility, etc.); in the nature of the recipients of the distribution (individual persons, groups of persons, reference classes, etc.); and on what basis the distribution should be made (equality, maximization, according to individual characteristics, according to free transactions, etc.).
Incorrect
The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has, its laws, institutions, policies, etc., result in different distributions of benefits and burdens across members of the society.
The structure of these frameworks is important because the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting from them fundamentally affect people’s lives. Principles of distributive justice are therefore best thought of as providing moral guidance for the political processes and structures that affect the distribution of benefits and burdens in societies.
Distributive principles vary in numerous dimensions. They vary in what is considered relevant to distributive justice (income, wealth, opportunities, jobs, welfare, utility, etc.); in the nature of the recipients of the distribution (individual persons, groups of persons, reference classes, etc.); and on what basis the distribution should be made (equality, maximization, according to individual characteristics, according to free transactions, etc.).
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following declared Indian Constitution was “far too large and therefore far too rigid, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations”?
Correct
In 1951 the University of Madras invited Jennings to deliver a series of lectures on the just born Indian Constitution.
Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, one of the chief architects of the Constitution, attended them and stayed through all his lectures which Jennings delivered in parts on three successive days.
Jennings began his address by summing up India’s Constitution in one cynical sentence: “Too long, too rigid, too prolix.” Over the course of three lectures, Jennings elaborated on his views
- He focused on some primary aspects: The Constitution’s rigidity and its superfluous provisions; fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy; and, finally, key aspects of India’s federalism.
Jennings finally handed down a largely unfavourable verdict. India’s Constitution, he declared, was “far too large and therefore far too rigid”, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations.
Incorrect
In 1951 the University of Madras invited Jennings to deliver a series of lectures on the just born Indian Constitution.
Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, one of the chief architects of the Constitution, attended them and stayed through all his lectures which Jennings delivered in parts on three successive days.
Jennings began his address by summing up India’s Constitution in one cynical sentence: “Too long, too rigid, too prolix.” Over the course of three lectures, Jennings elaborated on his views
- He focused on some primary aspects: The Constitution’s rigidity and its superfluous provisions; fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy; and, finally, key aspects of India’s federalism.
Jennings finally handed down a largely unfavourable verdict. India’s Constitution, he declared, was “far too large and therefore far too rigid”, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language is NOT in the list of scheduled languages of eighth schedule of Indian Constitution?
Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Sindhi (added by 21st Amendment Act, 1967) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (added by 71st Amendment Act, 1992), Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santal (added by 92nd Amendment 2003). The list had originally 14 languages only but subsequently through amendments 8 new languages were added.
Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Sindhi (added by 21st Amendment Act, 1967) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (added by 71st Amendment Act, 1992), Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santal (added by 92nd Amendment 2003). The list had originally 14 languages only but subsequently through amendments 8 new languages were added.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “Part X” of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
Correct
Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Incorrect
Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements about “National Register of Citizens (NRC)”:
1. NRC is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens.
2. At present, only Assam has such a register.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens. At present, only Assam has such a register.
The exercise may be extended to other states as well
- Nagaland is already creating a similar database known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants.
The Centre is planning to create a National Population Register (NPR), which will contain demographic and biometric details of citizens.
The NRC will be updated as per the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
Incorrect
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens. At present, only Assam has such a register.
The exercise may be extended to other states as well
- Nagaland is already creating a similar database known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants.
The Centre is planning to create a National Population Register (NPR), which will contain demographic and biometric details of citizens.
The NRC will be updated as per the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the federalism, which of the following are the features of federalism?
- There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
- Different tiers of government have its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
- The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
- The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Some of the key features of federalism:
There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
The federal system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and promote unity of the country, while at the same time accommodate regional diversity
Incorrect
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Some of the key features of federalism:
There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
The federal system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and promote unity of the country, while at the same time accommodate regional diversity
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Charter Act of 1833”:
- It made the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal.
- The laws made under previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the monopoly of East India Company however company’s monopoly in trade with china kept intact.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Features of the Act:
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.
Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company.
However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Incorrect
Features of the Act:
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.
Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company.
However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Basics of Constitution Part-2
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- Question 1 of 16
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following are the features of the “parliamentary government”?
1. Presence of Nominal and Real executives
2. Majority party rule
3. Membership of ministers in the legislature
4. Dissolution of upper house
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government.
The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).Incorrect
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government.
The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). - Question 2 of 16
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following provisions of the constitution is/are related to “secular state of India”?
1. The term secular was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978.
2. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship
3. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
• The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
• The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
• The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
• Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
• All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
• Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
• No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).Incorrect
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
• The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
• The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
• The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
• Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
• All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
• Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
• No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27). - Question 3 of 16
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Chief Minister”:
1. The Constitution contains specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
2. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
• However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
• In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister.Incorrect
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
• However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
• In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister. - Question 4 of 16
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Abdul Kuddus v Union of India 2019 case, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
On May 17, 2019 in a very short hearing, a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court (the Chief Justie of India Ranjan Gogoi and Justices Deepak Gupta and Sanjiv Khanna) decided a batch of 15 petitions under the title Abdul Kuddus v Union of India.
The case involved the status of an “opinion” rendered by a Foreigners Tribunal, as to the citizenship (or the lack thereof) of any individual. The issue arose because, in the State of Assam, there are two ongoing processes concerning the question of citizenship.
• The first includes proceedings before the Foreigners Tribunals, which have been established under an executive order of the Central government.
• The second is the NRC, a process overseen and driven by the Supreme Court. While nominally independent, both processes nonetheless bleed into each other, and have thus caused significant chaos and confusion for individuals who have found themselves on the wrong side of one or both.In short, the petitioners’ case was that the two processes — that of the Foreigners Tribunal and of the NRC — should be kept entirely
Incorrect
On May 17, 2019 in a very short hearing, a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court (the Chief Justie of India Ranjan Gogoi and Justices Deepak Gupta and Sanjiv Khanna) decided a batch of 15 petitions under the title Abdul Kuddus v Union of India.
The case involved the status of an “opinion” rendered by a Foreigners Tribunal, as to the citizenship (or the lack thereof) of any individual. The issue arose because, in the State of Assam, there are two ongoing processes concerning the question of citizenship.
• The first includes proceedings before the Foreigners Tribunals, which have been established under an executive order of the Central government.
• The second is the NRC, a process overseen and driven by the Supreme Court. While nominally independent, both processes nonetheless bleed into each other, and have thus caused significant chaos and confusion for individuals who have found themselves on the wrong side of one or both.In short, the petitioners’ case was that the two processes — that of the Foreigners Tribunal and of the NRC — should be kept entirely
- Question 5 of 16
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAccording to Article 348 (1) of Indian Constitution, which of the following area (s) is/are English language officially used?
1. Supreme Court
2. High Court
3. Drafting bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The higher judiciary appeared to be the sole exception to this English-to-Hindi journey as Article 348(1) stipulates the use of English in the Supreme Court and High Courts as well as for drafting Bills, Acts and Orders.
But Article 348(2) read with Section (7) of the Official Languages Act 1963 provides for Hindi or other official languages to be used in High Courts “in addition to English”.Incorrect
The higher judiciary appeared to be the sole exception to this English-to-Hindi journey as Article 348(1) stipulates the use of English in the Supreme Court and High Courts as well as for drafting Bills, Acts and Orders.
But Article 348(2) read with Section (7) of the Official Languages Act 1963 provides for Hindi or other official languages to be used in High Courts “in addition to English”. - Question 6 of 16
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following “Article/Articles of Indian Constitution” has dealt with the
provisions regarding international treaties?
1. Article 51
2. Article 73
3. Article 253
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution of India has dealt with the provisions regarding
international treaties through Articles 51, 73 and 253.
Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to
•promote international peace and security;
•maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
•foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of
organised peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international
disputes by arbitration
Article 73: provides that the scope of the powers of the executive extend to:
•To the matters specified in the List 1, inclusive of entry 14, with respect to entering
into and implementing treaties.
•Such rights or obligations as are exercisable in consequence of any treaty or
convention which India has ratified.
Article 253: Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding
anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law
for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or
convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international
conference, association or other body.Incorrect
The Constitution of India has dealt with the provisions regarding
international treaties through Articles 51, 73 and 253.
Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to
•promote international peace and security;
•maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
•foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of
organised peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international
disputes by arbitration
Article 73: provides that the scope of the powers of the executive extend to:
•To the matters specified in the List 1, inclusive of entry 14, with respect to entering
into and implementing treaties.
•Such rights or obligations as are exercisable in consequence of any treaty or
convention which India has ratified.
Article 253: Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding
anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law
for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or
convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international
conference, association or other body. - Question 7 of 16
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding Oath or Affirmation by
the President?
1. President swears to faithfully execute the office.
2. President swears to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law.
3. President Swears to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Oath or Affirmation by the President.
Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath or
affirmation. In his oath, the President swears:
•to faithfully execute the office;
•to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
•to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.Incorrect
Oath or Affirmation by the President.
Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath or
affirmation. In his oath, the President swears:
•to faithfully execute the office;
•to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
•to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India. - Question 8 of 16
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha (Council of State):
1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 provided for the creation of a Council of State as a second
chamber.
2. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and
Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Rajya Sabha.
•The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford
Report of 1918.
•The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of
State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which
actually came into existence in 1921.
•The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the
States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
•The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha.
•The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford
Report of 1918.
•The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of
State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which
actually came into existence in 1921.
•The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the
States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
•The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State. - Question 9 of 16
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following are guidelines for declaring a language as Classical
Language?
1. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
2. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
3. The literary tradition can be original and borrowed from another speech community.
4. The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
According to information provided by the Ministry of Culture in the Rajya
Sabha in February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
•High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000
years;
•A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers;
•The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech
community;
•The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also
be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit
(2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).Incorrect
According to information provided by the Ministry of Culture in the Rajya
Sabha in February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
•High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000
years;
•A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers;
•The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech
community;
•The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also
be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit
(2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). - Question 10 of 16
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following cases is/are related to Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. Berubari Union case (1960).
2. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973).
3. LIC of India vs Consumer Education and Research Centre (1995).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
One of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of
the Constitution or not.
•In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble
shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is
thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
•Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than
one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives
enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the
Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution.
•In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the
Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
•In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the
Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.Incorrect
One of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of
the Constitution or not.
•In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble
shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is
thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
•Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than
one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives
enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the
Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution.
•In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the
Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
•In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the
Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. - Question 11 of 16
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Polity“The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the
plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission”.
Which of the following is/are features of the Cabinet Mission?
1. Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats proportional
to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:1,00,000.
2. The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
3. Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own
representatives by the method of First Past the Post System.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Formally, the Constitution was made by the Constituent Assembly which had
been elected for undivided India. It held its first sitting on 9 December1946 and
reassembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India on 14 August 1947.
Its members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act,
1935.
The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the
plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission.
According to this plan:
•Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000.
As a result the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292
members while the Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats.
•The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
•Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own
representatives by the method of proportional representation with single
transferable vote.
•The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be
determined by consultation.Incorrect
Formally, the Constitution was made by the Constituent Assembly which had
been elected for undivided India. It held its first sitting on 9 December1946 and
reassembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India on 14 August 1947.
Its members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act,
1935.
The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the
plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission.
According to this plan:
•Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000.
As a result the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292
members while the Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats.
•The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
•Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own
representatives by the method of proportional representation with single
transferable vote.
•The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be
determined by consultation. - Question 12 of 16
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Quorum:
1. It is the minimum number of members to be present at the sitting of house for valid
transaction of its business.
2. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each house excluding presiding officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Article 100 of the Constitution of India stipulates that at least 10% of
total number of members of the House must be present to constitute the quorum to
constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament.
•It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25
members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted.
•Quorum also includes the presiding officer of the particular house (Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha).
•If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding
officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.Incorrect
Article 100 of the Constitution of India stipulates that at least 10% of
total number of members of the House must be present to constitute the quorum to
constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament.
•It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25
members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted.
•Quorum also includes the presiding officer of the particular house (Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha).
•If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding
officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum. - Question 13 of 16
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution?
1. Kashmiri
2. Nepali
3. Rajasthani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22
languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8)
Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit,
(15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22)
Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was
added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were
included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22
languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8)
Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit,
(15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22)
Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was
added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were
included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004 - Question 14 of 16
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Presidential versus Parliamentary
systems of government:
1. Unlike the Presidential system, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with
that of the legislature in parliamentary systems.
2. The chief executive is chosen by members of legislature amongst themselves in
presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term
of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the
terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to
legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive
as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from
the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although
their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term
of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the
terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to
legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive
as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from
the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although
their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch. - Question 15 of 16
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) have the status of ‘Classical Language’ in India?
1. Sanskrit
2. Kannada
3. Hindi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Six languages have been conferred the status of ‘Classical Language’ in
India till now: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam
(2013), and Odia (2014).
Criteria for conferring the status of Classical Language:
-High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
-A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
-The literary tradition to be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
-The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Till date, Hindi has not been granted the Classical Language status.Incorrect
Six languages have been conferred the status of ‘Classical Language’ in
India till now: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam
(2013), and Odia (2014).
Criteria for conferring the status of Classical Language:
-High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
-A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
-The literary tradition to be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
-The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Till date, Hindi has not been granted the Classical Language status. - Question 16 of 16
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following are the indicators of Democracy Index 2019?
1. Electoral Pluralism
2. Democratic decentralization
3. Political culture
4. Fundamental Rights
5. Government functioning
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The latest edition of the Democracy Index spells gloom for India. The world’s biggest democracy slipped 10 places in the 2019 global ranking to 51st place.
The report published by The Economist Intelligence Unit — the research and analysis division of The Economist Group, which is the sister company to The Economist newspaper — records how global democracy fared, analyzing 165 independent states and two territories.
India was graded in electoral process and pluralism (8.67), government functioning (6.79), political participation (6.67), political culture (5.63) and civil liberties (6.76).
Incorrect
The latest edition of the Democracy Index spells gloom for India. The world’s biggest democracy slipped 10 places in the 2019 global ranking to 51st place.
The report published by The Economist Intelligence Unit — the research and analysis division of The Economist Group, which is the sister company to The Economist newspaper — records how global democracy fared, analyzing 165 independent states and two territories.
India was graded in electoral process and pluralism (8.67), government functioning (6.79), political participation (6.67), political culture (5.63) and civil liberties (6.76).
Rights, Duties, and Principles-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Rights, Duties, and Principles-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935?
Correct
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
- In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
- What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
- The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
- In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
- What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
- The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions of Indian Constitution embody the concept of a welfare state?
Correct
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.
- They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
- They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
- In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.
- They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
- They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
- In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Article of Indian Constitution says that directive principles are fundamental in the governance of the country?
Correct
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points“To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government” – is described in which of the following Article?
Correct
To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions are covered under Article 39 of Directive Principles of State policy?
- The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good.
- Opportunities for healthy development of children.
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
To secure
- the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
- the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
- prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
- equal pay for equal work for men and women;
- preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
- Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
NOTE: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
To secure
- the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
- the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
- prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
- equal pay for equal work for men and women;
- preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
- Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
NOTE: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich amendment act was added the directive principle of cooperative societies?
Correct
The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies.
It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies.
It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following directive principles is/are added under 42nd constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
- To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
- To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
- To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following committee fundamental duties in Indian constitution set up by the government to make recommendations about fundamental duties?
Correct
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 points“Article 51A” of Indian Constitution is associated with?
Correct
The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
- This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.
- This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
- This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.
- This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsArrange the following acts in chronological order?
- The Minimum Wages Act
- The Payment of Wages Act
- The Payment of Bonus Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Minimum Wages Act (1948), the Payment of Wages Act (1936), the Payment of Bonus Act (1965), the Contract Labour Regulation and Abolition Act (1970), the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986), the Bonded Labour System Abolition Act (1976), the Trade Unions Act (1926), the Factories Act (1948), the Mines Act (1952), the Industrial Disputes Act (1947), the Workmen’s Compensation Act (1923) and soon have been enacted to protect the interests of the labour sections. In 2006, the government banned the child labour.
In 2016, the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986) was renamed as the Child and Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act, 1986.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Minimum Wages Act (1948), the Payment of Wages Act (1936), the Payment of Bonus Act (1965), the Contract Labour Regulation and Abolition Act (1970), the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986), the Bonded Labour System Abolition Act (1976), the Trade Unions Act (1926), the Factories Act (1948), the Mines Act (1952), the Industrial Disputes Act (1947), the Workmen’s Compensation Act (1923) and soon have been enacted to protect the interests of the labour sections. In 2006, the government banned the child labour.
In 2016, the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986) was renamed as the Child and Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act, 1986.
Source: Laxmikanth.
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The original constitution consists of seven fundamental rights.
- The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the constitution to citizens without any discrimination.
- The framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of Britain to incorporate fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
- In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (i.e., Bill of Rights).
- The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.
- They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest and unity of the nation.
- Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
- In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (i.e., Bill of Rights).
- The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.
- They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest and unity of the nation.
- Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding right to property:
- It was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951.
- It is made a legal right under Article 276-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
- It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
- So, at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
- It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
- So, at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the features of Fundamental Rights?
- All fundamental rights are positive in nature.
- They are not absolute but qualified in nature.
- All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterized by the following:
- Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
- They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
- Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
- All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state. However, some of them are also available against the action of private individuals.
- Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterized by the following:
- Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
- They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
- Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
- All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state. However, some of them are also available against the action of private individuals.
- Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is NOT correct about Fundamental Rights?
Correct
Fundamental Rights are justifiable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
- They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgment of the high courts.
- They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
- They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Fundamental Rights are justifiable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
- They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgment of the high courts.
- They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
- They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsArticle 12 has defined the term “State” for the purposes of Part III. Which of the following is/are come under the definition of State?
- Executive and Legislative organs of Union and State government.
- Improvement trusts.
- Non – statutory authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
- Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
- Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
- All local authorities, which is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
- All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
- Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
- Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
- Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
- All local authorities, which is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
- All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
- Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT part of Right to equality?
Correct
Right to equality (Articles 14–18):
- Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
- Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
- Abolition of un-touchability and prohibition of its practice (Article 17).
- Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18).
NOTE: Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is covers under Right to Freedom.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Right to equality (Articles 14–18):
- Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
- Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
- Abolition of un-touchability and prohibition of its practice (Article 17).
- Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18).
NOTE: Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is covers under Right to Freedom.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Fundamental Right is NOT available to Foreigners?
Correct
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 points“No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof” – describes in which of the following Article of Indian Constitution?
Correct
No Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof (Article 105).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
No Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof (Article 105).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe famous Menaka Gandhi case of 1978 was associated with which of the following Article of Indian constitution?
Correct
In Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21.
- Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
- In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’.
- In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
In Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21.
- Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
- In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’.
- In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich constitutional amendment act added the provision of “State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine”?
Correct
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
- Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
- This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
- Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
- This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Rights, Duties, and Principles– 2020 and Before that
Rights, duties and Principles
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms?
1. Public order
2. Sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.Incorrect
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are listed as Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution?
1.Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
2.State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.
3.State to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]Incorrect
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44] - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are basis for ‘reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under the Constitution?
1. Contempt of court
2. Defamation
3. Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArticle 15 of the Constitution enables the State for making special provisions for which of the following category of citizens?
1. Women and Children
2. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
3. Economically Weaker Sections
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.Incorrect
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Men and women to equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
2. The State shall provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice arenot denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the article 226 of the Constitution?
1. The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued by a High Court.
2. High Courts are not competent to issue writs on violation of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Trade unions, industrial and labour disputes fall under the Concurrent List of Constitution.
2.The right to form associations or unions is a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)] - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following fundamental right(s) is/are guaranteed by the Constitution?
1. Right to practice and propagate religion
2. Right to convert religion of people
3. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms?
- Public order
- Sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.
Incorrect
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are listed as Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution?
- Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
- State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.
- State to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]
Incorrect
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are basis for ‘reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under the Constitution?
- Contempt of court
- Defamation
- Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArticle 15 of the Constitution enables the State for making special provisions for which of the following category of citizens?
- Women and Children
- Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
- Economically Weaker Sections
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
Incorrect
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- Men and women to equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
- The State shall provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice arenot denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the article 226 of the Constitution?
- The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued by a High Court.
- High Courts are not competent to issue writs on violation of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Trade unions, industrial and labour disputes fall under the Concurrent List of Constitution.
- The right to form associations or unions is a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following fundamental right(s) is/are guaranteed by the Constitution?
- Right to practice and propagate religion
- Right to convert religion of people
- Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are correct regarding the provisions of Preventive Detention under the Constitution of India?
- Every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest.
- The Advisory Board for allowing detention of a person longer than three months must be headed by a Judge of Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 22 (2) every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest. However, Article 22 (3) provides exception in case of preventive detention detainees and enemy aliens from the said clause.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the article 22(4), no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:
-an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention;
-or such person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 22 (2) every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest. However, Article 22 (3) provides exception in case of preventive detention detainees and enemy aliens from the said clause.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the article 22(4), no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:
-an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention;
-or such person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following exception(s) to the right to equality is/are provided under the Constitution of India?
- Special provisions for women and children.
- Special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens.
- Special provisions for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above are provided for in the Constitution of India.
Article 15 provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Further article the clause 15(3) sates that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Clause 15(4) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Clause 15(6)(a) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
Incorrect
All of the above are provided for in the Constitution of India.
Article 15 provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Further article the clause 15(3) sates that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Clause 15(4) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Clause 15(6)(a) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Freedom of Religion under the Constitution of India:
- The freedom is guaranteed to all persons subject to maintenance of public order, morality and health.
- State is empowered to regulate any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Article 25, providing for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, under clause 25(1) states that ‘subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion’.
Similar exception is provided under article 26 regarding freedom to manage religious affairs.
Sub-clause 25(2)(a) provide for power of the state for making any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Article 25, providing for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, under clause 25(1) states that ‘subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion’.
Similar exception is provided under article 26 regarding freedom to manage religious affairs.
Sub-clause 25(2)(a) provide for power of the state for making any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Right to Freedom of Religion under the Constitution of India:
- Government is empowered to provide for opening of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
- Every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(2) provides for State’s power with regard to Right to Freedom of Religion. It empowers State to make any law—
-regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
– providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 26 of the Constitution provides that ‘subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
-to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
-to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
-to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
-to administer such property in accordance with law
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(2) provides for State’s power with regard to Right to Freedom of Religion. It empowers State to make any law—
-regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
– providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 26 of the Constitution provides that ‘subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
-to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
-to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
-to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
-to administer such property in accordance with law
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding provisions of reservation in India:
- Social reservations in favour of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes under Article 16(4) are horizontal reservations.
- Special reservations in favour of women under Articles 15(3) are vertical reservations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect. The definitions of vertical and horizontal reservations have been interchanged in the above statements.
In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 1992 case, the principle of reservations in India was explained.
There are two types of reservations, which are often referred to as vertical reservations and horizontal reservations. The reservations in favour of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes [under Article 16(4)] may be called vertical reservations whereas reservations in favour of physically handicapped [under Article 16(1)] and women [under Article 15(3)] can be referred to as horizontal reservations.
Horizontal reservations cut across the vertical reservations, what is called interlocking reservations.
# Suppose 3% of the vacancies are reserved in favour of physically handicapped persons; the persons selected against this quota will be placed in the appropriate category; if she belongs to SC category he will be placed in that quota by making necessary adjustments; similarly, if she belongs to open competition (OC) category, she will be placed in that category by making necessary adjustments.
# Even after providing for these horizontal reservations, the percentage of reservations in favour of Backward Class of citizens remains and should remain the same.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect. The definitions of vertical and horizontal reservations have been interchanged in the above statements.
In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 1992 case, the principle of reservations in India was explained.
There are two types of reservations, which are often referred to as vertical reservations and horizontal reservations. The reservations in favour of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes [under Article 16(4)] may be called vertical reservations whereas reservations in favour of physically handicapped [under Article 16(1)] and women [under Article 15(3)] can be referred to as horizontal reservations.
Horizontal reservations cut across the vertical reservations, what is called interlocking reservations.
# Suppose 3% of the vacancies are reserved in favour of physically handicapped persons; the persons selected against this quota will be placed in the appropriate category; if she belongs to SC category he will be placed in that quota by making necessary adjustments; similarly, if she belongs to open competition (OC) category, she will be placed in that category by making necessary adjustments.
# Even after providing for these horizontal reservations, the percentage of reservations in favour of Backward Class of citizens remains and should remain the same.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Fundamental Duties”:
1. Fundamental Duties were added to constitution by 42nd constitutional amendment.
2. Under 42nd constitutional amendment total eleven duties were added to constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable; the original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties
- In other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution.
However, they incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity.
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
Incorrect
The rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable; the original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties
- In other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution.
However, they incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity.
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following feature of Indian constitution is called as “Instrument of Instructions”?
Correct
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
Incorrect
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following Article (s) of Indian Constitution is/are deals with the reservation in services/posts?
- Article 16
- Article 46
- Article 335
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The relevant Articles of the Constitution which govern the entire reservation set up are the following:
Article 16(4): Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
Article 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
Article 335: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.
Incorrect
The relevant Articles of the Constitution which govern the entire reservation set up are the following:
Article 16(4): Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
Article 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
Article 335: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are Socialistic Principles of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
- State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
- State shall strive to secure equal justice and free legal aid.
- State shall endeavour to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.
Socialistic principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. They direct the state:
- To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—social, economic and political—and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
- To secure
The right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
Equal pay for equal work for men and women;
Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
- To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
- To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).
NOTE: Article 48 – The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle – represent both Gandhian and liberal–intellectual principles.
Incorrect
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.
Socialistic principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. They direct the state:
- To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—social, economic and political—and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
- To secure
The right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
Equal pay for equal work for men and women;
Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
- To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
- To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).
NOTE: Article 48 – The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle – represent both Gandhian and liberal–intellectual principles.
Rights, duties and Principles Part--2
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- Question 1 of 9
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe term “Principle of Jus Cogens” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The opposition party in December, 2019 claimed that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act not only “violates” provisions of the Constitution but also falls afoul of an international convention to which India is a signatory.
• India was a signatory to the international convention on torture that talks about “providing shelter to people who face torture in another country”.
• “India is bound by the principle of jus cogens that ensures human rights to those who are tortured and persecuted”.Incorrect
The opposition party in December, 2019 claimed that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act not only “violates” provisions of the Constitution but also falls afoul of an international convention to which India is a signatory.
• India was a signatory to the international convention on torture that talks about “providing shelter to people who face torture in another country”.
• “India is bound by the principle of jus cogens that ensures human rights to those who are tortured and persecuted”. - Question 2 of 9
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityUnder which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court
has recognized the right to information as a fundamental right of citizens?
1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The country’s law on our right to information was enacted in 2005.
•However, since 1975, in multiple judgments, the Supreme Court has recognized the
right to information as a fundamental right of citizens under Article 19(1)(a) of the
Constitution on our freedom of speech and expression.
•This has been read together with Articles 14, 19 and 21 to guarantee our right to
equality, right to freedom of speech and expression, and our right to life and liberty,
respectively.
•It was those judgments, together with the RTI movements by citizens, which
culminated in the RTI Act of 2005.
•This was an Act of Parliament that set forth a practical regime and framework to
grant citizens this right and replaced the erstwhile Freedom of Information Act, 2002.Incorrect
The country’s law on our right to information was enacted in 2005.
•However, since 1975, in multiple judgments, the Supreme Court has recognized the
right to information as a fundamental right of citizens under Article 19(1)(a) of the
Constitution on our freedom of speech and expression.
•This has been read together with Articles 14, 19 and 21 to guarantee our right to
equality, right to freedom of speech and expression, and our right to life and liberty,
respectively.
•It was those judgments, together with the RTI movements by citizens, which
culminated in the RTI Act of 2005.
•This was an Act of Parliament that set forth a practical regime and framework to
grant citizens this right and replaced the erstwhile Freedom of Information Act, 2002. - Question 3 of 9
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are listed as Directive Principle of State Policy under the
Constitution?
1. Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
2. State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public
health.
3. State to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which
though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of
the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the
consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil
code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]Incorrect
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which
though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of
the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the
consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil
code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44] - Question 4 of 9
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable
restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms?
1. Public order
2. Sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(1) (b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and
without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any
law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and
without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely
for protests.Incorrect
Article 19(1) (b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and
without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any
law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and
without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely
for protests. - Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Constitution of India provides for fundamental right of an accused against forced selfincrimination.
2. India has incorporated the relevant provisions against torture in its criminal laws after
ratifying the UN Convention against Torture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution provides fundamental right against the forced self-incrimination by the accused under article 20(3) which states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India signed the United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment in 1997 but has not ratified it so far.
21st Law Commission under Justice B.S. Chauhan (retd.) recommended on implementation of convention by legislation. It proposed amendments to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In addition, the Commission submitted a draft Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017 which defines acts that should constitute torture and prescribed punishments for such acts.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution provides fundamental right against the forced self-incrimination by the accused under article 20(3) which states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India signed the United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment in 1997 but has not ratified it so far.
21st Law Commission under Justice B.S. Chauhan (retd.) recommended on implementation of convention by legislation. It proposed amendments to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In addition, the Commission submitted a draft Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017 which defines acts that should constitute torture and prescribed punishments for such acts.
- Question 6 of 9
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are basis for ‘reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental
right to freedom of speech and expression under the Constitution?
1. Contempt of court
2. Defamation
3. Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on
‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or
morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on
‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or
morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. - Question 7 of 9
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are provided under Constitution as ground(s) for
reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression?
1. Public order
2. Friendly relations with foreign States
3. Protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(2) provides for State’s power to make law imposes reasonable
restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of speech and expression in the
interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly
relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt
of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
The ‘protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe’ is provided under the
Constitution as basis of reasonable restriction on freedom to move freely throughout the
territory of India and to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for State’s power to make law imposes reasonable
restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of speech and expression in the
interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly
relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt
of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
The ‘protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe’ is provided under the
Constitution as basis of reasonable restriction on freedom to move freely throughout the
territory of India and to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India. - Question 8 of 9
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Freedom of Religion:
1.All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
2.State can make law for throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(1) provides that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 25(2) states that nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law—
–regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
— providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(1) provides that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 25(2) states that nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law—
–regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
— providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion. - Question 9 of 9
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Right to protest is explicitly guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India.
2.State can make laws providing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the fundamental right to assemble peacefully in interest of public order.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to protest in not explicitly mentioned under the constitution. It is derived from the right to free speech and expression [19(1) (a)]; and right to assemble peacefully without arms [19(1) (b)].
Statement 2 is correct. Article 19 (3) provides that State can make any law imposing, in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order, reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to protest in not explicitly mentioned under the constitution. It is derived from the right to free speech and expression [19(1) (a)]; and right to assemble peacefully without arms [19(1) (b)].
Statement 2 is correct. Article 19 (3) provides that State can make any law imposing, in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order, reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
Legislature-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Legislature-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The process of summoning the Parliament has clearly mentioned in the Constitution.
- According to rules of business of Parliament, India has a fixed Parliamentary calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. Like many other articles, it is based on the provision of Government of India Act, 1935.
- India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention (i.e., not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
- The longest, Budget Session (1st session) starts towards the end of January and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
- The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals.
- The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
- Winter Session (3rd session) is held from November to December.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. Like many other articles, it is based on the provision of Government of India Act, 1935.
- India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention (i.e., not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
- The longest, Budget Session (1st session) starts towards the end of January and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
- The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals.
- The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
- Winter Session (3rd session) is held from November to December.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following consists of Parliament?
- The President
- The Lok Sabha
- The Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts viz, the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
- In 1954, the Hindi names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were adopted by the Council of States and the House of People respectively.
- The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders) and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular House).
- The former represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union, while the latter represents the people of India as a whole.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts viz, the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
- In 1954, the Hindi names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were adopted by the Council of States and the House of People respectively.
- The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders) and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular House).
- The former represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union, while the latter represents the people of India as a whole.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
- The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
- All states are equally represented in Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
- The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
- For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members while Tripura has 1 member only.
- However, in USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their population.
- USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100 members –2 from each state.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
- The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
- For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members while Tripura has 1 member only.
- However, in USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their population.
- USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100 members –2 from each state.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich Constitutional Amendment reduced the age of voter from 21 to 18?
Correct
The election is based on the principle of universal adult franchise.
- Every Indian citizen who is above 18 years of age and who is not disqualified under the provisions of the Constitution or any law is eligible to vote at such election.
- The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The election is based on the principle of universal adult franchise.
- Every Indian citizen who is above 18 years of age and who is not disqualified under the provisions of the Constitution or any law is eligible to vote at such election.
- The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber and not subject to dissolution.
- Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber and subjected to dissolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.
- Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times.
- Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves.
- However, the President is authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.
- Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times.
- Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves.
- However, the President is authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsArticle 112 of Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
Correct
The Constitution refers to the budget as the ‘annual financial statement’.
- In other words, the term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
- It is the popular name for the ‘annual financial statement’ that has been dealt with in Article 112 of the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution refers to the budget as the ‘annual financial statement’.
- In other words, the term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
- It is the popular name for the ‘annual financial statement’ that has been dealt with in Article 112 of the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsPart VI of Indian Constitution is deals with which of the following?
Correct
Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the state legislature. Though these are similar to that of Parliament, there are some differences as well.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the state legislature. Though these are similar to that of Parliament, there are some differences as well.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following state does NOT have bicameral legislature?
Correct
There is no uniformity in the organization of state legislatures.
- Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system.
- At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral).
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
There is no uniformity in the organization of state legislatures.
- Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system.
- At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral).
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The maximum members of state legislature are fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 50.
- The Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
- Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60.
- For the purpose of holding direct elections to the assembly, each state is divided into territorial constituencies.
- The demarcation of these constituencies is done in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state.
- In other words, the Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
- Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60.
- For the purpose of holding direct elections to the assembly, each state is divided into territorial constituencies.
- The demarcation of these constituencies is done in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state.
- In other words, the Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Constitution lays down the qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
- The member of a state legislature must be not less than 35 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
- He must be a citizen of India.
- He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission for this purpose.
In his oath or affirmation, he swears
- To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
- To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
- He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
- He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
- He must be a citizen of India.
- He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission for this purpose.
In his oath or affirmation, he swears
- To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
- To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
- He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
- He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1.The Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws on any subject in State list except land and public order.
2.Parliament has the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
: The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the questions asked in the Parliament by the legislators:
1. Starred Questions are ones to which answers are desired to be given orally on the floor of the House during the Question Hour.
2. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.Incorrect
1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding Parliament of India:
1. Constitution provides for maximum gap of six months between last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the next session of a house.
2. The President may from time to time prorogue and dissolve either House of the Parliament.
3. Attorney-General of India has the right to speak/take part in the proceedings of any joint sitting of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88] - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following constitute the ‘Public debt’ of India?
1. Liabilities of Central Government contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India
2. Public Account Liabilities of the Central Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.Incorrect
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)]Incorrect
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)] - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The members are elected by the members of the house among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the questions asked in the Parliament by the legislators:
1. Starred Questions are ones to which answers are desired to be given orally on the floor of the House during the Question Hour.
2. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Parliament of India:
1. Constitution provides for maximum gap of six months between last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the next session of a house.
2. The President may from time to time prorogue and dissolve either House of the Parliament.
3. Attorney-General of India has the right to speak/take part in the proceedings of any joint sitting of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88] - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)]Incorrect
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)] - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Polity“The cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together”- is said by?
Correct
In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable.
• The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.
• As Bagehot points out, ‘the cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together.’
• Hence, the whole system of government goes against the letter and spirit of the theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers.Incorrect
In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable.
• The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.
• As Bagehot points out, ‘the cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together.’
• Hence, the whole system of government goes against the letter and spirit of the theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The members are elected by the members of the house among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Scheduled Castes in India:
1.The President after consultation with the Governor may by public notification specify the castes or groups within castes deemed to be Scheduled Castes for a state.
2.Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes any caste or group within any caste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
As per the provisions of the Constitution under Article 341:
Clause (1); President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Clause (2); Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under the clause given above any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
As per the provisions of the Constitution under Article 341:
Clause (1); President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Clause (2); Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under the clause given above any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following matters both the houses of Parliament is/are equal in powers?
1. Election of the President.
2. Approving the proclamation of emergency.
3. Proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Under article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means Rajya Sabha cannot make or unmake the Government.
• It can, however, exercise control over the Government and this function becomes quite prominent, particularly when the Government does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha.
• Ministers may belong to either House of Parliament. The Constitution does not make any distinction between the Houses in this regard.
• Every Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House but he is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
• Similarly, with regard to powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees thereof, the two Houses are placed absolutely on equal footing by the Constitution.
• Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. In respect of receiving reports and papers from various statutory authorities, etc., both Houses have equal powers.Incorrect
Under article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means Rajya Sabha cannot make or unmake the Government.
• It can, however, exercise control over the Government and this function becomes quite prominent, particularly when the Government does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha.
• Ministers may belong to either House of Parliament. The Constitution does not make any distinction between the Houses in this regard.
• Every Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House but he is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
• Similarly, with regard to powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees thereof, the two Houses are placed absolutely on equal footing by the Constitution.
• Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. In respect of receiving reports and papers from various statutory authorities, etc., both Houses have equal powers. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the Parliamentary Standing Committees, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Committee meetings are held in ‘closed door’.
2. Members of the committee are bound by their party whips.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
In a parliamentary democracy, Parliament has broadly two functions, which are lawmaking and oversight of the executive branch of the government.
• Parliament is the embodiment of the people’s will. Committees (Parliamentary standing committees) are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
• Given the volume of legislative business, discussing all Bills under the consideration of Parliament in detail on the floor of the House is impossible.
• Committees are platforms for threadbare discussion on a proposed law.
• At least in principle, the assumption is that the smaller cohort of lawmakers, assembled on the basis of the proportional strength of individual parties and interests and expertise of individual lawmakers, could have more open, intensive and better informed discussions.
• Committee meetings are ‘closed door’ and members are not bound by party whips, which allows them the latitude for a more meaningful exchange of views as against discussions in full and open Houses where grandstanding and party positions invariably take precedence.Incorrect
In a parliamentary democracy, Parliament has broadly two functions, which are lawmaking and oversight of the executive branch of the government.
• Parliament is the embodiment of the people’s will. Committees (Parliamentary standing committees) are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
• Given the volume of legislative business, discussing all Bills under the consideration of Parliament in detail on the floor of the House is impossible.
• Committees are platforms for threadbare discussion on a proposed law.
• At least in principle, the assumption is that the smaller cohort of lawmakers, assembled on the basis of the proportional strength of individual parties and interests and expertise of individual lawmakers, could have more open, intensive and better informed discussions.
• Committee meetings are ‘closed door’ and members are not bound by party whips, which allows them the latitude for a more meaningful exchange of views as against discussions in full and open Houses where grandstanding and party positions invariably take precedence. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArrange the following stages of budget presentation in Parliament:
1. Presentation of budget
2. General discussion
3. Voting on demands for grants
4. Scrutiny by departmental committees
5. Passing of appropriation bill
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:
• Presentation of budget.
• General discussion.
• Scrutiny by departmental committees.
• Voting on demands for grants.
• Passing of appropriation bill.
• Passing of finance bill.Incorrect
The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:
• Presentation of budget.
• General discussion.
• Scrutiny by departmental committees.
• Voting on demands for grants.
• Passing of appropriation bill.
• Passing of finance bill. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the President:
1. President can summon or adjourn the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
2. He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the
offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the
following legislative powers.
•He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can
also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
•He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after
each general election and the first session of each year.
•He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill
pending in the Parliament or otherwise.
•He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly,
he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
•He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social
service.
•He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
NOTE: The adjournment is done by presiding officers (speaker / deputy speaker in Lok
Sabha and Chairman / Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha).Incorrect
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the
following legislative powers.
•He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can
also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
•He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after
each general election and the first session of each year.
•He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill
pending in the Parliament or otherwise.
•He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly,
he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
•He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social
service.
•He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
NOTE: The adjournment is done by presiding officers (speaker / deputy speaker in Lok
Sabha and Chairman / Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha). - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister of India:
1. The term of the Prime Minister is fixed for five years and he holds office during the
pleasure of the president.
2. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution contains the procedure for selection and
appointment of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Prime Minister of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds
office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president
can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the
majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for
the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime
Minister shall be appointed by the presidentIncorrect
The Prime Minister of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds
office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president
can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the
majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for
the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime
Minister shall be appointed by the president - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following committee/committees comes under the Standing
Committees to enquire of Rajya Sabha?
1. Committee on Petitions.
2. Committee of Privileges.
3. Rules Committee.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing
Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
•Committee on Petitions
•Committee on Privileges
•Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinise and control:
•Committee on Government Assurances
•Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
•Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
•Business advisory committee
•Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
•House Committee
•General Purpose Committee
•Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya SabhaIncorrect
The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing
Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
•Committee on Petitions
•Committee on Privileges
•Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinise and control:
•Committee on Government Assurances
•Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
•Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
•Business advisory committee
•Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
•House Committee
•General Purpose Committee
•Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following judicial powers and functions of the Parliament:
1. It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
2. It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
3. It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its contempt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The judicial powers and functions of the Parliament include the following:
•It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
•It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
•It can recommend the removal of judges (including chief justice) of the Supreme
Court and the high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller and auditor
general to the president.
•It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt.Incorrect
The judicial powers and functions of the Parliament include the following:
•It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
•It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
•It can recommend the removal of judges (including chief justice) of the Supreme
Court and the high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller and auditor
general to the president.
•It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich types of questions are asked in Question Hour of Parliament?
1. Starred Questions
2. Un-starred Questions
3. Short Notice Questions
4. Questions addressed to private members
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of
public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned. The questions
are of four types:—
•Starred Questions- A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral
answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by
supplementary questions by members.
•Unstarred Questions- an Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is
desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by
Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary
question can be asked thereon.
•Short Notice Questions- A member may give a notice of question on a matter of
public importance and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10
days prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in ordinary
course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’.
•Questions to Private Members- A Question may also be addressed to a Private
Member (Under Rule 40 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha), provided that the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill,
Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that
Member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such questions is same as that
followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the
Speaker may consider necessary.Incorrect
Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of
public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned. The questions
are of four types:—
•Starred Questions- A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral
answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by
supplementary questions by members.
•Unstarred Questions- an Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is
desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by
Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary
question can be asked thereon.
•Short Notice Questions- A member may give a notice of question on a matter of
public importance and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10
days prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in ordinary
course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’.
•Questions to Private Members- A Question may also be addressed to a Private
Member (Under Rule 40 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha), provided that the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill,
Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that
Member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such questions is same as that
followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the
Speaker may consider necessary. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State:
1. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. Constitution mandates a Governor for each state with no two states having same person
as Governor.
3. Constitution does not provide any qualifications for appointment as Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that
the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign
his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as
Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment
as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that
the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign
his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as
Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment
as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the questions asked in the Parliament
by the legislators:
1. Starred Questions are ones to which answers are desired to be given orally on the floor of
the House during the Question Hour.
2. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on
which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires
an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a
question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer
in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To
such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the
Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and
can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary
question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary
questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is
asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to
the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires
an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a
question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer
in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To
such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the
Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and
can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary
question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary
questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is
asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to
the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Loksabha:
1. Constitution mandates the Deputy Speaker to be chosen from among the members of the
opposition parties in the LokSabha.
2. The salaries and allowances of the Deputy Speaker of the LokSabha are expenditure
charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall,
as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and
Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party
members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House
of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall,
as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and
Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party
members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House
of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Parliament of India:
1. Constitution provides for maximum gap of six months between last sitting in one session
and the first sitting in the next session of a house.
2. The President may from time to time prorogue and dissolve either House of the
Parliament.
3. Attorney-General of India has the right to speak/take part in the proceedings of any joint
sitting of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall
not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first
sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or
either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third
of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint
sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall
not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first
sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or
either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third
of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint
sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88] - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Department-related
Parliamentary Standing Committees:
1. It has members from LokSabha only.
2. The committees consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned
Ministries/Departments and make a report to the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing
Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the
Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the
Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports
thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing
Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the
Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the
Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports
thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.
Legislature Part-2
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- Question 1 of 6
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the
Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his
functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the
other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
[Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. [Article 75(2)]Incorrect
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the
Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his
functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the
other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
[Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. [Article 75(2)] - Question 2 of 6
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Business Advisory Committee of
Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The members are elected by the members of the house among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha
consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the
discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in
consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the
Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being
nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every
year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of
the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and
thereafter as and when necessary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha
consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the
discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in
consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the
Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being
nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every
year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of
the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and
thereafter as and when necessary. - Question 3 of 6
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary Committees:
1. The ad hoc Committees are appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on a
continuous basis.
2. The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of
Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Broadly, Parliamentary Committees are of two
kinds – Standing Committees and ad hoc Committees. The Standing Committees are
elected or appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on, more or less, on a
continuous basis. The ad hoc Committees are appointed as need arises and they cease to
exist as soon as they complete the task assigned to them.
Statement 2 is correct. The three Financial Committees – Committees on Estimates,
Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct group as they keep a vigil
over Government expenditure and performance.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from
the Lok Sabha.
The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of
Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. It ensures that public
money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decision and calls attention to cases of waste, extravagance, loss or nugatory expenditure.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Broadly, Parliamentary Committees are of two
kinds – Standing Committees and ad hoc Committees. The Standing Committees are
elected or appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on, more or less, on a
continuous basis. The ad hoc Committees are appointed as need arises and they cease to
exist as soon as they complete the task assigned to them.
Statement 2 is correct. The three Financial Committees – Committees on Estimates,
Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct group as they keep a vigil
over Government expenditure and performance.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from
the Lok Sabha.
The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of
Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. It ensures that public
money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decision and calls attention to cases of waste, extravagance, loss or nugatory expenditure. - Question 4 of 6
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘Adjournment sine die’ in Indian parliamentary system?
Correct
Adjournment of Debate: Adjournment on a motion adopted by the House, of
the debate on a Motion/Resolution/Bill on which the House is then engaged until a future
day or sine die as specified in the motion.
Adjournment of the sitting of the House: Termination of the sitting of the House which
meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting.
Adjournment sine die: Termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date
being fixed for the next sitting.
Prorogation: The termination of a session by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.Incorrect
Adjournment of Debate: Adjournment on a motion adopted by the House, of
the debate on a Motion/Resolution/Bill on which the House is then engaged until a future
day or sine die as specified in the motion.
Adjournment of the sitting of the House: Termination of the sitting of the House which
meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting.
Adjournment sine die: Termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date
being fixed for the next sitting.
Prorogation: The termination of a session by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. - Question 5 of 6
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding parliamentary committees:
1. The members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both houses of Parliament.
2. The Department Related Standing Committees consider the Demands for Grants of
various Ministries/Departments of Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Among the Standing Committees, the three Financial Committees –
Committees on Estimates, Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct
group as they keep an unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee reports on ‘what economies,
improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform consistent with policy
underlying the estimates’ may be affected. It also examines whether the money is well laid
out within limits of the policy implied in the estimates and suggests the form in which
estimates shall be presented to Parliament.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely
from the Lok Sabha
Statement 2 is correct. There are 24 Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs).
The functions of these Committees are:
-To consider the Demands for Grants of various Ministries/Departments of Government of
India and make reports to the Houses;
-To examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha
or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon;
-To consider Annual Reports of ministries/departments and make reports thereon; and
-To consider policy documents presented to the Houses, if referred to the Committee by the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports
thereon.Incorrect
Among the Standing Committees, the three Financial Committees –
Committees on Estimates, Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct
group as they keep an unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee reports on ‘what economies,
improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform consistent with policy
underlying the estimates’ may be affected. It also examines whether the money is well laid
out within limits of the policy implied in the estimates and suggests the form in which
estimates shall be presented to Parliament.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely
from the Lok Sabha
Statement 2 is correct. There are 24 Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs).
The functions of these Committees are:
-To consider the Demands for Grants of various Ministries/Departments of Government of
India and make reports to the Houses;
-To examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha
or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon;
-To consider Annual Reports of ministries/departments and make reports thereon; and
-To consider policy documents presented to the Houses, if referred to the Committee by the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports
thereon. - Question 6 of 6
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Parliamentary procedure:
1.Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees constituted from time to time in pursuance of the Rules of Procedure.
2.Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Most of the business of Parliament is, therefore, transacted in Committees of the House, known as Parliamentary Committees.
Statement 1 is correct. Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees which are constituted from time to time in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. The work of these Committees is of continuous nature. The Financial Committees, DRSCs and some other Committees come under the category of Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The principal Ad hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills.Incorrect
Most of the business of Parliament is, therefore, transacted in Committees of the House, known as Parliamentary Committees.
Statement 1 is correct. Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees which are constituted from time to time in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. The work of these Committees is of continuous nature. The Financial Committees, DRSCs and some other Committees come under the category of Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The principal Ad hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills.
Executive-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Executive-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion ministers from both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility.
- Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together.
- When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility.
- Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together.
- When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cabinet, which of the following role/roles is/are played by Cabinet?
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
- It is the chief coordinator of Central administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The role of Cabinet:
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The role of Cabinet:
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Cabinet Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs?
Correct
The following four are the more important cabinet committees:
- The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
- The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
- Appointments Committee decides all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
- Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The following four are the more important cabinet committees:
- The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
- The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
- Appointments Committee decides all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
- Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following cabinet committees are headed by Prime Minister?
- The Political Affairs Committee
- The Economic Affairs Committee
- The Parliamentary Affairs Committee
- The Appointment Committee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The following four are the more important cabinet committees:
- The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
- The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
- Appointments Committee decides all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
- Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
The first three committees are chaired by the Prime Minister and the last one by the home minister. Of all the Cabinet Committees, the most powerful is the Political Affairs Committee, often described as a “Super-Cabinet”.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The following four are the more important cabinet committees:
- The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
- The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
- Appointments Committee decides all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
- Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
The first three committees are chaired by the Prime Minister and the last one by the home minister. Of all the Cabinet Committees, the most powerful is the Political Affairs Committee, often described as a “Super-Cabinet”.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points“Part V” of Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
Correct
Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is not fixed and it can be changed after every delimitation.
- The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the president.
- At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent the states, 4 members represent the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the president.
- The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the president.
- At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent the states, 4 members represent the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the president.
- The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the parliamentary legislation in the state field:
- Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution to make laws on the state list.
- Such resolution should be passed by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter.
- Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time.
- The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter.
- Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time.
- The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
- The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first sitting).
- Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.
- The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first sitting).
- Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.
- The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
- The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a Council of State as a second chamber.
- The allocation of seats for Rajya Sabha is made on the basis of the population of each State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The origin of the second Chamber (Council of State) can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford Report of 1918.
- The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which actually came into existence in 1921.
- The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
- The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.
Source: https://rajyasabha.nic.in/
Incorrect
The origin of the second Chamber (Council of State) can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford Report of 1918.
- The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which actually came into existence in 1921.
- The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
- The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.
Source: https://rajyasabha.nic.in/
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following committee/committees comes under the Standing Committees to scrutinize and control of Rajya Sabha?
- Ethics Committee
- Committee on Government assurances.
- Committee on subordinate legislation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
- Committee on Petitions
- Committee on Privileges
- Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinize and control:
- Committee on Government Assurances
- Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
- Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
- Business advisory committee
- Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
- House Committee
- General Purpose Committee
- Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha
Source: https://rajyasabha.nic.in/
Incorrect
The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
- Committee on Petitions
- Committee on Privileges
- Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinize and control:
- Committee on Government Assurances
- Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
- Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
- Business advisory committee
- Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
- House Committee
- General Purpose Committee
- Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha
Source: https://rajyasabha.nic.in/
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 12
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State:
1.S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2.Constitution mandates a Governor for each state with no two states having same person as Governor.
3.Constitution does not provide any qualifications for appointment as Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit. - Question 2 of 12
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following is/are qualifications for appointment as Governor provided under the Constitution?
1. Minimum age of thirty-five years
2. Should not be a member of a recognized political party
3. Should not hold any other office of profit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 57]
Option 2 is incorrect. There is no such limitation provided for under the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. [Article 158(2)]Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 57]
Option 2 is incorrect. There is no such limitation provided for under the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. [Article 158(2)] - Question 3 of 12
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Loksabha:
1. Constitution mandates the Deputy Speaker to be chosen from among the members of the opposition parties in the LokSabha.
2. The salaries and allowances of the Deputy Speaker of the LokSabha are expenditure charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of IndiaIncorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India - Question 4 of 12
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees:
1. It has members from LokSabha only.
2. The committees consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make a report to the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses. - Question 5 of 12
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements:
1. The executive power of a State extends to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws.
2. The Governor of a State has the power to grant pardons of punishment of any person convicted of an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 161 of the Constitution states that the Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 162 of the Constitution provides that subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws:
Provided that in any matter with respect to which the Legislature of a State and Parliament have power to make laws, the executive power of the State shall be subject to, and limited by, the executive power expressly conferred by this Constitution or by any law made by Parliament upon the Union or authorities thereof.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 161 of the Constitution states that the Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 162 of the Constitution provides that subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws:
Provided that in any matter with respect to which the Legislature of a State and Parliament have power to make laws, the executive power of the State shall be subject to, and limited by, the executive power expressly conferred by this Constitution or by any law made by Parliament upon the Union or authorities thereof. - Question 6 of 12
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State:
- S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
- Constitution mandates a Governor for each state with no two states having same person as Governor.
- Constitution does not provide any qualifications for appointment as Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit.
- Question 7 of 12
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are qualifications for appointment as Governor provided under the Constitution?
- Minimum age of thirty-five years
- Should not be a member of a recognized political party
- Should not hold any other office of profit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 57]
Option 2 is incorrect. There is no such limitation provided for under the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. [Article 158(2)]
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 57]
Option 2 is incorrect. There is no such limitation provided for under the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. [Article 158(2)]
- Question 8 of 12
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Loksabha:
- Constitution mandates the Deputy Speaker to be chosen from among the members of the opposition parties in the LokSabha.
- The salaries and allowances of the Deputy Speaker of the LokSabha are expenditure charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Question 9 of 12
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees:
- It has members from LokSabha only.
- The committees consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make a report to the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.
- Question 10 of 12
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The executive power of a State extends to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws.
- The Governor of a State has the power to grant pardons of punishment of any person convicted of an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 161 of the Constitution states that the Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 162 of the Constitution provides that subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws:
Provided that in any matter with respect to which the Legislature of a State and Parliament have power to make laws, the executive power of the State shall be subject to, and limited by, the executive power expressly conferred by this Constitution or by any law made by Parliament upon the Union or authorities thereof.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 161 of the Constitution states that the Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 162 of the Constitution provides that subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws:
Provided that in any matter with respect to which the Legislature of a State and Parliament have power to make laws, the executive power of the State shall be subject to, and limited by, the executive power expressly conferred by this Constitution or by any law made by Parliament upon the Union or authorities thereof.
- Question 11 of 12
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions on the President of India:
- The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India, resign from office.
- S/he can only be removed from office as in the manner a judge of Supreme Court is removed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 56 provides for the term of office of President.
The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that—
-the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office;
-the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61;
-the President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Any resignation addressed to the Vice-President shall forthwith be communicated by him to the Speaker of the House of the People.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The separate provision on impeachment of the President is provided under article 61 of the Constitution. S/he can only be removed an investigation and resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the Houses.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 56 provides for the term of office of President.
The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that—
-the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office;
-the President may, for violation of the Constitution, be removed from office by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61;
-the President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Any resignation addressed to the Vice-President shall forthwith be communicated by him to the Speaker of the House of the People.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The separate provision on impeachment of the President is provided under article 61 of the Constitution. S/he can only be removed an investigation and resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the Houses.
- Question 12 of 12
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Speaker and Chairman in respective houses of Parliament may permit any member to address the House in his/her mother-tongue.
- Constitution motivates the states to provide for instruction in the mother-tongue in the primary education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 120 provides that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 350A states that it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 120 provides that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 350A states that it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Judiciary-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Judiciary-2021
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- Review
- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the qualifications of Supreme Court Judge:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- He should have been a Judge of a High Court for 7 years.
- He should have been Advocate of a High Court for 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (A) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (B) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (C) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (A) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (B) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (C) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe concept of “Public Interest Litigation” was first time introduced in which of the following country?
Correct
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s.
- In the USA, it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups and interests.
- It was undertaken in recognition of the fact that the ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to provide such services to significant segments of the population and to significant interests.
- Such groups and interests include the poor, environmentalists, consumers, racial and ethnic minorities, and others.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s.
- In the USA, it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups and interests.
- It was undertaken in recognition of the fact that the ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to provide such services to significant segments of the population and to significant interests.
- Such groups and interests include the poor, environmentalists, consumers, racial and ethnic minorities, and others.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the “National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)”:
- It was established by executive resolution.
- It was constituted to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
- Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all.
- In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Ac was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body that has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
- Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all.
- In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Ac was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body that has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsArticle 131 of Indian Constitution is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Amid nationwide protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, or CAA, 2019, and the threat of non-cooperation by some States with the Central government’s plan to update the National Population Register (NPR) and possibly establish a National Register of Indian Citizens, Kerala has filed a suit in the Supreme Court of India seeking to declare the CAA as unconstitutional.
- Meanwhile, Chhattisgarh has also filed a similar suit, challenging the constitutional validity of the National Investigation Agency Act.
- Both have invoked Article 131, which confers exclusive jurisdiction on the top court to adjudicate disputes between two or more States, or between States and the Centre.
- Article 131 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in disputes involving States, or the Centre on the one hand and one or more States on the other. This means no other court can entertain such a dispute.
- It is well-known that both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the State and Central governments.
- In particular, the validity of any executive or legislative action is normally challenged by way of writ petitions — under Article 226 of the Constitution in respect of High Courts, and, in respect to fundamental rights violations, under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Amid nationwide protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, or CAA, 2019, and the threat of non-cooperation by some States with the Central government’s plan to update the National Population Register (NPR) and possibly establish a National Register of Indian Citizens, Kerala has filed a suit in the Supreme Court of India seeking to declare the CAA as unconstitutional.
- Meanwhile, Chhattisgarh has also filed a similar suit, challenging the constitutional validity of the National Investigation Agency Act.
- Both have invoked Article 131, which confers exclusive jurisdiction on the top court to adjudicate disputes between two or more States, or between States and the Centre.
- Article 131 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in disputes involving States, or the Centre on the one hand and one or more States on the other. This means no other court can entertain such a dispute.
- It is well-known that both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the State and Central governments.
- In particular, the validity of any executive or legislative action is normally challenged by way of writ petitions — under Article 226 of the Constitution in respect of High Courts, and, in respect to fundamental rights violations, under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the “Lok adalat”:
- It has been given the status of a civil court.
- Its awards are challenged before any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Legal Services Authorities Act (1987) has established a nation-wide network to provide free and competent legal aid to the poor and to organize lok adalat for promoting equal justice.
- Lok adalat is a statutory forum for conciliatory settlement of legal disputes.
- It has been given the status of a civil court.
- Its awards are enforceable, binding on the parties and final as no appeal lies before any court against them.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Legal Services Authorities Act (1987) has established a nation-wide network to provide free and competent legal aid to the poor and to organize lok adalat for promoting equal justice.
- Lok adalat is a statutory forum for conciliatory settlement of legal disputes.
- It has been given the status of a civil court.
- Its awards are enforceable, binding on the parties and final as no appeal lies before any court against them.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is NOT correct about “Attorney General of India”?
Correct
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
- He is the highest law officer in the country.
- The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president.
- He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
- In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
- He is the highest law officer in the country.
- The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president.
- He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
- In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThe Integrated system of courts is adopted from which of the following?
Correct
The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it.
- Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts.
- This single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935, enforces both Central laws as well as the state laws.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it.
- Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts.
- This single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935, enforces both Central laws as well as the state laws.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following dispute (s) is/are considered under Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
- Between the Centre and one or more states.
- Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side.
- Between State government and High court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
- Between the Centre and one or more states; or
- Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
- Between two or more states.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
- Between the Centre and one or more states; or
- Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
- Between two or more states.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are come (s) under appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
- Appeals in criminal matters
- Appeal by special leave
- Appeals in civil matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
As mentioned earlier, the Supreme Court has not only succeeded the Federal Court of India but also replaced the British Privy Council as the highest court of appeal.
The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgments of the lower courts.
It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction which can be classified under four heads:
- Appeals in constitutional matters.
- Appeals in civil matters.
- Appeals in criminal matters.
- Appeals by special leave.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
As mentioned earlier, the Supreme Court has not only succeeded the Federal Court of India but also replaced the British Privy Council as the highest court of appeal.
The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgments of the lower courts.
It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction which can be classified under four heads:
- Appeals in constitutional matters.
- Appeals in civil matters.
- Appeals in criminal matters.
- Appeals by special leave.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 points“Article 143” of the Constitution of India is often seen in news is related with which of the following?
Correct
The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:
- On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.
- On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:
- On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.
- On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments.
Source: Laxmikanth
Judiciary-2020 and Before that
Judiciary and tribunals
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1.Every High Court is a court of record and has the power to punish for contempt of itself.
2.The salary and pensions payable to Judges of any High Court are charged upon consolidated fund of respective State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court are charged uponConsolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court are charged uponConsolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202] - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Only a person who has been a Judge of any High Court in India can be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court.
2.There are no grounds provided under the constitution for removal of a Supreme Court Judge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:
1.Constitution empowers the President to refer a question of law of public importance to the Supreme Court for consideration.
2.The Supreme Court may transfer any case proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)] - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following is the ‘Master of the Roster’ for the Supreme Court of India?
Correct
‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’.Incorrect
‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhat does the Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala (1973) case relate to?
Correct
The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances.Incorrect
The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Contempt of Court:
1. Scandalizing the Court is a criminal offence in India.
2. Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following appoints the Judges of High Courts in India?
Correct
President of India in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India appoints the Judges of High Courts in India.
The provisions relating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been struck down by the Supreme Court vide its order dated the 16th October, 2015 in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association and Another Vs. Union of India.Incorrect
President of India in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India appoints the Judges of High Courts in India.
The provisions relating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been struck down by the Supreme Court vide its order dated the 16th October, 2015 in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association and Another Vs. Union of India. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1.Every High Court is a court of record and has the power to punish for contempt of itself.
2.The salary and pensions payable to Judges of any High Court are charged upon consolidated fund of respective State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court are charged uponConsolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court are charged uponConsolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202] - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Only a person who has been a Judge of any High Court in India can be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court.
2.There are no grounds provided under the constitution for removal of a Supreme Court Judge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:
1.Constitution empowers the President to refer a question of law of public importance to the Supreme Court for consideration.
2.The Supreme Court may transfer any case proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)] - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following is the ‘Master of the Roster’ for the Supreme Court of India?
Correct
‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’.Incorrect
‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhat does the Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala (1973) case relate to?
Correct
The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances.Incorrect
The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Contempt of Court:
1. Scandalizing the Court is a criminal offence in India.
2. Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or (ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following appoints the Judges of High Courts in India?
Correct
President of India in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India appoints the Judges of High Courts in India.
The provisions relating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been struck down by the Supreme Court vide its order dated the 16th October, 2015 in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association and Another Vs. Union of India.Incorrect
President of India in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India appoints the Judges of High Courts in India.
The provisions relating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been struck down by the Supreme Court vide its order dated the 16th October, 2015 in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association and Another Vs. Union of India. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Constitutional provisions on Supreme Court of India:
1.Constitution provides for the seat of the Supreme Court in Delhi.
2.The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction in regard to questions as to constitutional validity of Central laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 130 provides for the Seat of Supreme Court: The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 131A was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 which provided for exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to questions as to constitutional validity of Central laws. This provision was later omitted by the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 130 provides for the Seat of Supreme Court: The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 131A was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 which provided for exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to questions as to constitutional validity of Central laws. This provision was later omitted by the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Contempt of Courts on India:
1.Supreme Court, High Courts and Sub-ordinate Courts are empowered by the Constitution to punish for their respective contempt.
2.Fair criticism of judicial act does not amount to contempt of court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution. The Contempt of Court Act outlines the procedure in relation to investigation and punishment for contempt. The Act additionally allows the High Court to punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
Statement 2 is correct. Fair criticism of judicial act and accurate report of judicial proceeding does not amount to its contempt. A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court for publishing any fair comment on the merits of any case which has been heard and finally decided.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution. The Contempt of Court Act outlines the procedure in relation to investigation and punishment for contempt. The Act additionally allows the High Court to punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
Statement 2 is correct. Fair criticism of judicial act and accurate report of judicial proceeding does not amount to its contempt. A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court for publishing any fair comment on the merits of any case which has been heard and finally decided. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are part of the Doctrine of Proportionality for judicial review?
1. The action must be sanctioned by law
2. The proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;
3. The extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference;
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are part of the Doctrine of Proportionality.
In the nine-judge Bench judgement of the Supreme Court in Justice KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India, in which the Court upheld privacy as a fundamental right, proportionality can be ascertained on the basis of the following:
-the action must be sanctioned by law;
-the proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;
-the extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference;
-there must be procedural guarantees against abuse of such interference.Incorrect
All of the above are part of the Doctrine of Proportionality.
In the nine-judge Bench judgement of the Supreme Court in Justice KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India, in which the Court upheld privacy as a fundamental right, proportionality can be ascertained on the basis of the following:
-the action must be sanctioned by law;
-the proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;
-the extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference;
-there must be procedural guarantees against abuse of such interference. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “TMA Pai foundation case” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Supreme Court recently held that the state is well within its rights to introduce a regulatory regime in the “national interest” to provide minority educational institutions with well-qualified teachers in order for them to “achieve excellence in education.”
• The managements of minority institutions cannot ignore such a legal regime by saying that it is their fundamental right under Article 30 of the Constitution to establish and administer their educational institutions according to their choice.
• “When it comes to the right to appoint teachers, in terms of law laid down in the TMA Pai Foundation case, a regulation framed in the national interest must necessarily apply to all institutions regardless whether they are run by majority or minority as the essence of Article 30(1) is to ensure equal treatment between the majority and minority institutions.
• An objection can certainly be raised if an unfavourable treatment is meted out to an educational institution established and administered by minority.
• But if ensuring of excellence in educational institutions is the underlying principle behind a regulatory regime and the mechanism of selection of teachers is so designed to achieve excellence in institutions, the matter may stand on a completely different footing”.Incorrect
The Supreme Court recently held that the state is well within its rights to introduce a regulatory regime in the “national interest” to provide minority educational institutions with well-qualified teachers in order for them to “achieve excellence in education.”
• The managements of minority institutions cannot ignore such a legal regime by saying that it is their fundamental right under Article 30 of the Constitution to establish and administer their educational institutions according to their choice.
• “When it comes to the right to appoint teachers, in terms of law laid down in the TMA Pai Foundation case, a regulation framed in the national interest must necessarily apply to all institutions regardless whether they are run by majority or minority as the essence of Article 30(1) is to ensure equal treatment between the majority and minority institutions.
• An objection can certainly be raised if an unfavourable treatment is meted out to an educational institution established and administered by minority.
• But if ensuring of excellence in educational institutions is the underlying principle behind a regulatory regime and the mechanism of selection of teachers is so designed to achieve excellence in institutions, the matter may stand on a completely different footing”. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)”:
1. It is a constitutional body under Article 39A of the constitution.
2. It was constituted to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
• Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all.
• In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Ac was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body that has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act.Incorrect
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
• Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all.
• In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Ac was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body that has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityRecently, the state government of Kerala and Chhattisgarh has invoked the Article 131. Article 131 of Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
Correct
Amid nationwide protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, or CAA, 2019, and the threat of non-cooperation by some States with the Central government’s plan to update the National Population Register (NPR) and possibly establish a National Register of Indian Citizens, Kerala has filed a suit in the Supreme Court of India seeking to declare the CAA as unconstitutional.
• Meanwhile, Chhattisgarh has also filed a similar suit, challenging the constitutional validity of the National Investigation Agency Act.
• Both have invoked Article 131, which confers exclusive jurisdiction on the top court to adjudicate disputes between two or more States, or between States and the Centre.
• Article 131 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in disputes involving States, or the Centre on the one hand and one or more States on the other. This means no other court can entertain such a dispute.
• It is well-known that both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the State and Central governments.
• In particular, the validity of any executive or legislative action is normally challenged by way of writ petitions — under Article 226 of the Constitution in respect of High Courts, and, in respect to fundamental rights violations, under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.Incorrect
Amid nationwide protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, or CAA, 2019, and the threat of non-cooperation by some States with the Central government’s plan to update the National Population Register (NPR) and possibly establish a National Register of Indian Citizens, Kerala has filed a suit in the Supreme Court of India seeking to declare the CAA as unconstitutional.
• Meanwhile, Chhattisgarh has also filed a similar suit, challenging the constitutional validity of the National Investigation Agency Act.
• Both have invoked Article 131, which confers exclusive jurisdiction on the top court to adjudicate disputes between two or more States, or between States and the Centre.
• Article 131 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in disputes involving States, or the Centre on the one hand and one or more States on the other. This means no other court can entertain such a dispute.
• It is well-known that both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the State and Central governments.
• In particular, the validity of any executive or legislative action is normally challenged by way of writ petitions — under Article 226 of the Constitution in respect of High Courts, and, in respect to fundamental rights violations, under Article 32 in the Supreme Court. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants.
2. CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in different states.
• At present, it has 17 regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of high courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow.
• These benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of high courts.
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.
• Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services.
• However, the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
• The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
• These principles keep the CAT flexible in approach. Only a nominal fee of 50 is to be paid by the applicant. The applicant may appear either in person or through a lawyer.Incorrect
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in different states.
• At present, it has 17 regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of high courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow.
• These benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of high courts.
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.
• Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services.
• However, the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
• The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
• These principles keep the CAT flexible in approach. Only a nominal fee of 50 is to be paid by the applicant. The applicant may appear either in person or through a lawyer. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the qualifications of Supreme Court Judge:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have been a Judge of a High Court for 5 years.
3. He should have been Advocate of a High Court for 7 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. (A) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (B) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (C) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.Incorrect
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. (A) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (B) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (C) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityNATIONAL LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITY (NALSA) VS UNION OF INDIA case is
related to which of the following?Correct
NATIONAL LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITY (NALSA) VS UNION OF INDIA case was filed by the NALSA to legally recognize persons who fall outside the male/female gender binary, including persons who identify as “third gender”.
•This was a landmark decision where the apex court legally recognised “third gender”/transgender persons for the first time and discussed “gender identity” at length.
•The Court recognised that third gender persons were entitled to fundamental rights under the Constitution and under International law.
•Further, it directed state governments to develop mechanisms to realise the rights of “third gender”/transgender persons.Incorrect
NATIONAL LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITY (NALSA) VS UNION OF INDIA case was filed by the NALSA to legally recognize persons who fall outside the male/female gender binary, including persons who identify as “third gender”.
•This was a landmark decision where the apex court legally recognised “third gender”/transgender persons for the first time and discussed “gender identity” at length.
•The Court recognised that third gender persons were entitled to fundamental rights under the Constitution and under International law.
•Further, it directed state governments to develop mechanisms to realise the rights of “third gender”/transgender persons. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. Every High Court is a court of record and has the power to punish for contempt of itself.
2. The salary and pensions payable to Judges of any High Court are charged upon
consolidated fund of respective State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a
court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish
for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence
of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court
are charged upon Consolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is
charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a
court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish
for contempt of itself.
# A court of record means a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence
of fact.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court
are charged upon Consolidated fund of India. [Article 112]
The expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of Judges of any High Court is
charged upon Consolidated Fund of each State. [Article 202] - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Only a person who has been a Judge of any High Court in India can be appointed as a
Judge of Supreme Court.
2. There are no grounds provided under the constitution for removal of a Supreme Court
Judge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme
Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a
Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a
High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be,
in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall
not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address
by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House
and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and
voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the
ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address
and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme
Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast five years, a
Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a
High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be,
in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Constitution provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall
not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address
by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House
and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and
voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the
ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Further, Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address
and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge.
Judiciary and tribunals Part-2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:
1. Constitution empowers the President to refer a question of law of public importance to
the Supreme Court for consideration.
2. The Supreme Court may transfer any case proceedings pending before any High Court to
any other High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to
do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before
any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or
fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public
importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as
it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court may, if it deems it expedient so to
do for the ends of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other proceedings pending before
any High Court to any other High Court. [Article 139A (2)]
Statement 2 is correct. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or
fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public
importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as
it thinks fit, report to the President. [Article 143(1)] - Question 2 of 8
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) hears appeals under which of the
following law(s)?
1. Trade Marks Act
2. Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act
3. Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides for the establishment of
an Appellate Board to be known as the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). The
Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been constituted by a Gazette notification of the
Central Government in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in 2003.
It hears appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
In pursuance of the Finance Act, 2017, all the cases pending before the Copy Right Board
under Copy Right Act, 1957 were transferred to Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
The Intellectual Property Appellate Board also exercises the jurisdiction, powers and
authority conferred with Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal to hear the appeals under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Act.Incorrect
Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides for the establishment of
an Appellate Board to be known as the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). The
Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been constituted by a Gazette notification of the
Central Government in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in 2003.
It hears appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
In pursuance of the Finance Act, 2017, all the cases pending before the Copy Right Board
under Copy Right Act, 1957 were transferred to Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
The Intellectual Property Appellate Board also exercises the jurisdiction, powers and
authority conferred with Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal to hear the appeals under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Act. - Question 3 of 8
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following is the ‘Master of the Roster’ for the Supreme Court of India?
Correct
‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the
Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of
Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his
prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’.Incorrect
‘Master of the Roster’ refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice of the
Court to constitute Benches to hear cases.
Supreme Court has also held that ‘Chief Justice in his individual capacity is the Master of
Roster and it cannot read as Collegium of first three or five Judges. Thus, it is his
prerogative to constitute the Benches and allocate the subjects which would be dealt with by the respective Benches’. - Question 4 of 8
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhat does the Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala (1973) case relate to?
Correct
The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about
the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot
be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to
amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic
structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution
that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued
the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments
under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which
destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to
repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances.Incorrect
The Keshavananda Bharti v State of Kerala 1973 case was primarily about
the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
In its majority ruling of the 13 judge bench, the court held that fundamental rights cannot
be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had the powers to
amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are the basic
structure of the Constitution as they are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution
that even Parliament cannot amend it.
# In S.R. Bommai case (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court issued
the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments
under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions.
# In Coelho case (2007), court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any law, which
destroy or damage the basic structure including the one in 9th Schedule of the Constitution.
# In D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), court held that it is unconstitutional to
repromulgate ordinances, unless in exceptional circumstances. - Question 5 of 8
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Contempt of Court:
1. Scandalizing the Court is a criminal offence in India.
2. Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt
into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or
(ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in
any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect
of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their
contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall
be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 divides contempt
into civil and criminal contempt.
-Civil contempt refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
-Criminal contempt includes any act or publication which: (i) ‘scandalises’ the court, or
(ii) prejudices any judicial proceeding, or (iii) interferes with the administration of justice in
any other manner.
‘Scandalising the Court’ broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect
of undermining public confidence in the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their
contempt powers from the Constitution.
Article 129 and 215 provide that Supreme Court and every High Court (respectively) shall
be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself. - Question 6 of 8
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971:
1.The Act allows the High Court to punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
2.It mandates for the consent of Attorney or Solicitor General for initiating a case of criminal contempt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 additionally allows the High Court to punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
Statement 2 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays down the law on contempt of court. Section 15 of the legislation describes the procedure on how a case for criminal contempt of court can be initiated.
In the case of the Supreme Court, the Attorney General or the Solicitor General, and in the case of High Courts, the Advocate General, may bring in a motion before the court for initiating a case of criminal contempt.
If the motion is brought by any other person, the consent in writing of the Attorney General or the Advocate General is required.
However, when the court itself initiates a contempt of court case the AG’s consent is not required. This is because the court is exercising its inherent powers under the Constitution to punish for contempt.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) derive their contempt powers from the Constitution. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 additionally allows the High Court to punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
Statement 2 is correct. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays down the law on contempt of court. Section 15 of the legislation describes the procedure on how a case for criminal contempt of court can be initiated.
In the case of the Supreme Court, the Attorney General or the Solicitor General, and in the case of High Courts, the Advocate General, may bring in a motion before the court for initiating a case of criminal contempt.
If the motion is brought by any other person, the consent in writing of the Attorney General or the Advocate General is required.
However, when the court itself initiates a contempt of court case the AG’s consent is not required. This is because the court is exercising its inherent powers under the Constitution to punish for contempt. - Question 7 of 8
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following category is/are entitled to free legal aid under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987?
1. A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
2. A victim of trafficking in human beings
3. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 prescribes the criteria for giving legal services to the eligible persons. It includes following categories:
–A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe.
–A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution.
–A woman or a child.
–A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
–A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster or
–An industrial workmanIncorrect
Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 prescribes the criteria for giving legal services to the eligible persons. It includes following categories:
–A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe.
–A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution.
–A woman or a child.
–A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
–A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster or
–An industrial workman - Question 8 of 8
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: polity“Public Interest Foundation & Others vs Union of India 2018” case is related to
which of the following?
Correct
The Supreme Court’s constitution bench, in its judgment in Public Interest
Foundation & Others v Union of India, 2018 explains its limitations in preventing those
charged with heinous offences from becoming legislators and finds that Parliament
alone is competent to do so.
It satisfies itself by appealing to Parliament to make a law for this purpose on priority and
issues a few directions to the Election Commission and the political parties to make the
disclosure of the criminal antecedents of candidates contesting elections sufficient and clear
to the voters, so that the latter could be warned not to vote the candidates, charged with
serious offences.
Incorrect
The Supreme Court’s constitution bench, in its judgment in Public Interest
Foundation & Others v Union of India, 2018 explains its limitations in preventing those
charged with heinous offences from becoming legislators and finds that Parliament
alone is competent to do so.
It satisfies itself by appealing to Parliament to make a law for this purpose on priority and
issues a few directions to the Election Commission and the political parties to make the
disclosure of the criminal antecedents of candidates contesting elections sufficient and clear
to the voters, so that the latter could be warned not to vote the candidates, charged with
serious offences.
Various Bodies-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Various Bodies-2021
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1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- NITI Aayog was established through executive resolution.
- NITI Aayogis the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence, it is also neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
- In other words, it is a non-constitutional or extra-constitutional body (i.e., not created by the Constitution) and a non-statutory body (not created by an Act of the Parliament).
- NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
- While designing strategic and long-term policies and programmes for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence, it is also neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
- In other words, it is a non-constitutional or extra-constitutional body (i.e., not created by the Constitution) and a non-statutory body (not created by an Act of the Parliament).
- NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
- While designing strategic and long-term policies and programmes for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The National Human Rights Commission is anon-constitutionalbody.
- The commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body.
- It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
- The commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country, that is, the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body.
- It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
- The commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country, that is, the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The chairperson of the commission should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court.
- The chairperson and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of appointment committee.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members.
- The chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and three persons (out of which atleast one should be a woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
- The chairperson and members are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and the Central home minister.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members.
- The chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and three persons (out of which atleast one should be a woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
- The chairperson and members are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and the Central home minister.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the functions of National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The functions of the Commission are:
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either Suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
- To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibits the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The functions of the Commission are:
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either Suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
- To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibits the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Central Information Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It was constituted through under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
- It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than five Information Commissioners.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005.
- It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body.
- The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. The Commission, when constituted initially, had five commissioners including the Chief Information Commissioner.
- At present (2019), the Commission has six Information Commissioners apart from the Chief Information Commissioner.
- They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005.
- It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body.
- The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. The Commission, when constituted initially, had five commissioners including the Chief Information Commissioner.
- At present (2019), the Commission has six Information Commissioners apart from the Chief Information Commissioner.
- They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe Central Vigilance Commission was established under the recommendation of which of the following?
Correct
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
- It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.
- Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
- It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.
- Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following agency would take up the case against corruption under Whistle Blower Resolution?
Correct
In 2004, the CVC has been designated as the agency to receive and act on complaints or disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office from whistle blowers under the “Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers’ Resolution” (PIDPI), which is popularly known as “Whistle Blowers” Resolution.
The Commission is also empowered as the only designated agency to take action against complainants making motivated or vexatious complaints.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
In 2004, the CVC has been designated as the agency to receive and act on complaints or disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office from whistle blowers under the “Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers’ Resolution” (PIDPI), which is popularly known as “Whistle Blowers” Resolution.
The Commission is also empowered as the only designated agency to take action against complainants making motivated or vexatious complaints.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith Reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home affairs.
- It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.
- The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.
- The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
- The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.
- The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.
- The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
- The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following country was created first Ombudsman Institution?
Correct
The institution of Ombudsman was first created in Sweden in 1809.
- ‘Ombud’ is a Swedish term and refers to a person who acts as the representative or spokesman of another person.
- According to Donald C. Rowat, Ombudsman refers to “an officer appointed by the legislature to handle complaints against administrative and judicial action.”
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The institution of Ombudsman was first created in Sweden in 1809.
- ‘Ombud’ is a Swedish term and refers to a person who acts as the representative or spokesman of another person.
- According to Donald C. Rowat, Ombudsman refers to “an officer appointed by the legislature to handle complaints against administrative and judicial action.”
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsThe Lokpal and Lokayukta Act were passed in which of the following year?
Correct
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
- These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
- They perform the function of an “ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
- These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
- They perform the function of an “ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
Source: Laxmikanth
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a permanent Constitutional body?
Correct
Constitutional bodies are important bodies in India that derive their powers and authorities from the Indian Constitution.
- They are specifically mentioned in the Constitution, meaning they have dedicated articles.
- Any change in the mechanism of these bodies would require a constitutional amendment.
- Important bodies such as the Finance Commission, the UPSC, the Election Commission, the CAG, National Commissions for SCs and STs, etc. are constitutional bodies.
- Finance Commission is non-permanent constitutional body.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Constitutional bodies are important bodies in India that derive their powers and authorities from the Indian Constitution.
- They are specifically mentioned in the Constitution, meaning they have dedicated articles.
- Any change in the mechanism of these bodies would require a constitutional amendment.
- Important bodies such as the Finance Commission, the UPSC, the Election Commission, the CAG, National Commissions for SCs and STs, etc. are constitutional bodies.
- Finance Commission is non-permanent constitutional body.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsArticle 148 of Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Union Public Service Commission, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
- The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
- It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution.
- The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
- The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
- Usually, the Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
- It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution.
- The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
- The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
- Usually, the Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the Governor of the State.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the governor of the state.
- The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62years, whichever is earlier (in the case of UPSC, the age limit is 65 years).
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the governor of the state.
- The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62years, whichever is earlier (in the case of UPSC, the age limit is 65 years).
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
- JSPSC is a statutory body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
- While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
- Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.
- The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
- While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
- Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.
- The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order?
Correct
The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e., goods and services tax – GST) in the country.
- The smooth and efficient administration of this tax requires co-operation and coordination between the Centre and the states.
- In order to facilitate this consultation process, the amendment provided for the establishment of Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council.
- The amendment inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution. This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order.
- Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e., goods and services tax – GST) in the country.
- The smooth and efficient administration of this tax requires co-operation and coordination between the Centre and the states.
- In order to facilitate this consultation process, the amendment provided for the establishment of Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council.
- The amendment inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution. This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order.
- Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich amendment act bi-furcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs?
Correct
In order to safeguard the interests of the STs More effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SCs and STs.
- This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
- This Act further amended Article 338 and inserted a new Article 338-A in the Constitution.
- The separate National Commission for STs came into existence in 2004.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
In order to safeguard the interests of the STs More effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SCs and STs.
- This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
- This Act further amended Article 338 and inserted a new Article 338-A in the Constitution.
- The separate National Commission for STs came into existence in 2004.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
- It was created in pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution.
- The Commissioner has his headquarters at Kolkata.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.
- The Commissioner has his headquarters at Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh).
- He has three regional offices at Belgaum (Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and Kolkata (West Bengal).
- Each is headed by an Assistant Commissioner.
- The Commissioner is assisted at headquarters by Deputy Commissioner and an Assistant Commissioner.
- He maintains liaison with the State Governments and Union Territories through nodal officers appointed by them.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.
- The Commissioner has his headquarters at Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh).
- He has three regional offices at Belgaum (Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and Kolkata (West Bengal).
- Each is headed by an Assistant Commissioner.
- The Commissioner is assisted at headquarters by Deputy Commissioner and an Assistant Commissioner.
- He maintains liaison with the State Governments and Union Territories through nodal officers appointed by them.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWho among the following is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country?
Correct
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
- He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state.
- His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
- He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state.
- His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement about Attorney-General of India:
- Article 76 has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
- The Attorney General is appointed by appointment committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country.
- The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
- The AG is not a member of the Central cabinet. There is a separate law minister in the Central cabinet to look after legal matters at the government level.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country.
- The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
- The AG is not a member of the Central cabinet. There is a separate law minister in the Central cabinet to look after legal matters at the government level.
Source: Laxmikanth
Various Bodies-2020 and Before that
Various Bodies
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:
1.CAG has the authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State.
2.The Governor of a State can request the CAG to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law of state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Information Act:
1.The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall hold office for four years.
2.The salary and allowances of the CIC is to be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government, further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government, further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission:
1. It was established on recommendation of the K. Santhanam Committee.
2. It is a statutory body monitoring vigilance activity under the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the 15th Finance Commission:
1.It recommended 42 percent devolution for share of States in the Centre’s taxes for the Financial Year (FY) 2020-21.
2.The commission is mandated to recommend on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States uptill FY 2024-25 only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020.Incorrect
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
1. It is a Constitutional body having the Chairperson appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The Constitution mandates Union Government to consult the Commission on major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)] - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhat are the functions of the Finance Commission?
1.The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be divided between them.
2.The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3.The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution. Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
–the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
–the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.Incorrect
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution. Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
–the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
–the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are terms of reference (ToR) to the fifteenth finance
commission?
1. To examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security
ought to be set up.
2. Recommend performance incentives for States for adoption of Direct Benefit Transfer and
solid waste management.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
: Both statements are correct.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh have submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the President.
As per the terms of reference (ToR), the Commission was mandated to give its recommendations for five years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 by 30 October, 2020. Last year, the Commission had submitted its report containing recommendations for the year 2020-21 which was accepted by the Union Government and tabled in the Parliament on 30 January
2020.
Apart from the vertical and horizontal tax devolution, local government grants, disaster management grant, the Commission was also asked to examine and recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.
The Commission was also asked to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so, how such a mechanism could be operationalized. The Commission has sought to address all its ToRs in this Report to the Union government.Incorrect
: Both statements are correct.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh have submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the President.
As per the terms of reference (ToR), the Commission was mandated to give its recommendations for five years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 by 30 October, 2020. Last year, the Commission had submitted its report containing recommendations for the year 2020-21 which was accepted by the Union Government and tabled in the Parliament on 30 January
2020.
Apart from the vertical and horizontal tax devolution, local government grants, disaster management grant, the Commission was also asked to examine and recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.
The Commission was also asked to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so, how such a mechanism could be operationalized. The Commission has sought to address all its ToRs in this Report to the Union government. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission (FC):
1. Constitution mandates the recommendations as well as action taken by the government on the report of FC to be tabled in both houses of Parliament.
2. Parliament may by law determine the qualifications requisite for appointment as members to the commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. [Article 280(2)]
The President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament. [Article 281]Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. [Article 280(2)]
The President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament. [Article 281] - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:
1.CAG has the authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State.
2.The Governor of a State can request the CAG to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law of state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Information Act:
1.The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall hold office for four years.
2.The salary and allowances of the CIC is to be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government, further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government, further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission:
1. It was established on recommendation of the K. Santhanam Committee.
2. It is a statutory body monitoring vigilance activity under the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the 15th Finance Commission:
1.It recommended 42 percent devolution for share of States in the Centre’s taxes for the Financial Year (FY) 2020-21.
2.The commission is mandated to recommend on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States uptill FY 2024-25 only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020.Incorrect
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
1. It is a Constitutional body having the Chairperson appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The Constitution mandates Union Government to consult the Commission on major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)] - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhat are the functions of the Finance Commission?
1.The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be divided between them.
2.The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3.The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution. Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
–the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
–the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.Incorrect
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution. Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
–the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
–the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
–any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are terms of reference (ToR) to the fifteenth finance
commission?
1. To examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security
ought to be set up.
2. Recommend performance incentives for States for adoption of Direct Benefit Transfer and
solid waste management.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh have submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the President.
As per the terms of reference (ToR), the Commission was mandated to give its recommendations for five years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 by 30 October, 2020. Last year, the Commission had submitted its report containing recommendations for the year 2020-21 which was accepted by the Union Government and tabled in the Parliament on 30 January
2020.
Apart from the vertical and horizontal tax devolution, local government grants, disaster management grant, the Commission was also asked to examine and recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.
The Commission was also asked to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so, how such a mechanism could be operationalized. The Commission has sought to address all its ToRs in this Report to the Union government.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh have submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the President.
As per the terms of reference (ToR), the Commission was mandated to give its recommendations for five years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 by 30 October, 2020. Last year, the Commission had submitted its report containing recommendations for the year 2020-21 which was accepted by the Union Government and tabled in the Parliament on 30 January
2020.
Apart from the vertical and horizontal tax devolution, local government grants, disaster management grant, the Commission was also asked to examine and recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.
The Commission was also asked to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so, how such a mechanism could be operationalized. The Commission has sought to address all its ToRs in this Report to the Union government. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission (FC):
1. Constitution mandates the recommendations as well as action taken by the government on the report of FC to be tabled in both houses of Parliament.
2. Parliament may by law determine the qualifications requisite for appointment as members to the commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. [Article 280(2)]
The President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament. [Article 281]Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. [Article 280(2)]
The President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament. [Article 281] - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India:
1.The CAG of India can be removed on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
2.S/he is not eligible for further office under either the Government of India or any State after s/he has ceased to hold the office of CAG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
As per the article 148 of the Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from his/her office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
As per clause (4) of article 148, the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
As per the article 148 of the Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from his/her office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
As per clause (4) of article 148, the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)”:
1. It is empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities.
2. It has the powers to examine witnesses, ordering for documents and receiving evidence.
3. It recommends concerned government to grant compensation to the victim.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
In 1993, the Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act.
• The purpose of the Act was to establish an institutional framework that could effectively protect, promote and fulfil the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.
• To this end, the Act created a National Human Rights Commission, and also, Human Rights Commissions at the levels of the various States.
• Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the Human Rights Commissions are empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities, either upon petitions presented to them, or upon their own initiative.
• While conducting these inquiries, the Commissions are granted identical powers to that of civil courts, such as the examining witnesses, ordering for documents, receiving evidence, and so on.
• These proceedings are deemed to be judicial proceedings, and they require that any person, who may be prejudicially affected by their outcome, has a right to be heard.
• The controversy before the Madras High Court stems from the issue of what is to be done after the Human Rights Commission completes its enquiry, and reaches a conclusion that human rights have been violated.
• Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act empowers the Human Rights Commission to “recommend” to the concerned government to grant compensation to the victim, to initiate prosecution against the erring state authorities, to grant interim relief, and to take various other steps.Incorrect
In 1993, the Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act.
• The purpose of the Act was to establish an institutional framework that could effectively protect, promote and fulfil the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.
• To this end, the Act created a National Human Rights Commission, and also, Human Rights Commissions at the levels of the various States.
• Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the Human Rights Commissions are empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities, either upon petitions presented to them, or upon their own initiative.
• While conducting these inquiries, the Commissions are granted identical powers to that of civil courts, such as the examining witnesses, ordering for documents, receiving evidence, and so on.
• These proceedings are deemed to be judicial proceedings, and they require that any person, who may be prejudicially affected by their outcome, has a right to be heard.
• The controversy before the Madras High Court stems from the issue of what is to be done after the Human Rights Commission completes its enquiry, and reaches a conclusion that human rights have been violated.
• Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act empowers the Human Rights Commission to “recommend” to the concerned government to grant compensation to the victim, to initiate prosecution against the erring state authorities, to grant interim relief, and to take various other steps. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Controller General of Accounts (CGA):
1. It is a Constitutional body.
2. It derives its mandate from Article 150 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The CGA is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India. The office is in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. Controller General of Accounts derives his mandate from Article 150 of the Constitution. This statutory mandate as incorporated in the Allocation of Business Rules 1961.
The office of the CGA has the mandate to establish and maintain a technically sound Management Accounting system.
It also prepares and submits the accounts of the Central Government.
It is also in charge of the exchequer control and internal audits.
Incorrect
The CGA is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India. The office is in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. Controller General of Accounts derives his mandate from Article 150 of the Constitution. This statutory mandate as incorporated in the Allocation of Business Rules 1961.
The office of the CGA has the mandate to establish and maintain a technically sound Management Accounting system.
It also prepares and submits the accounts of the Central Government.
It is also in charge of the exchequer control and internal audits.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
1. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country.
2. He is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and the state.
• His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
• The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.Incorrect
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and the state.
• His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
• The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
Articles of Indian Constitution : Organization
1. Article 21 : National Green Tribunal
2. Article 279 : Goods & Service Tax Council
3. Article 323A : Central Administrative Tribunal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT was established in the year 2010
under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 to dispose of civil cases relating to
environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, including
enforcement of any legal rights related to the environment (National Green Tribunal). The
Act was enacted through the Parliament of India, under the provision of Article 21 of the
Constitution of India, which emphasizes the right to live in a clean and healthy
environment.
Goods & Service Tax Council: As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the
GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of
Article 279A. The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th
September, 2016 was issued on 10th September, 2016.
Central Administrative Tribunal: The Central Administrative Tribunal had been
established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution for adjudication of disputes and
complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government.Incorrect
National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT was established in the year 2010
under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 to dispose of civil cases relating to
environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, including
enforcement of any legal rights related to the environment (National Green Tribunal). The
Act was enacted through the Parliament of India, under the provision of Article 21 of the
Constitution of India, which emphasizes the right to live in a clean and healthy
environment.
Goods & Service Tax Council: As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the
GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of
Article 279A. The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th
September, 2016 was issued on 10th September, 2016.
Central Administrative Tribunal: The Central Administrative Tribunal had been
established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution for adjudication of disputes and
complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission:
1. It was established on recommendation of the K. Santhanam Committee.
2. It is a statutory body monitoring vigilance activity under the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on
the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K.
Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive
authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising
various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing
and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on
the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K.
Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive
authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising
various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing
and reforming their vigilant work.
It is a statutory authority under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the 15th Finance Commission:
1. It recommended 42 percent devolution for share of States in the Centre’s taxes for the Financial Year (FY) 2020-21.
2. The commission is mandated to recommend on distribution of tax revenues between the
Union and the States uptill FY 2024-25 only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020.Incorrect
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The share of states in the center’s taxes was recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. The 1% decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission (Chair: Mr N. K. Singh) was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the next five financial years starting from 2021-22 to 2025-26 will be submitted on November 9, 2020. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General
of India:
1. CAG has the authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or
of a State.
2. The Governor of a State can request the CAG to audit the accounts of a corporation
established by law of state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President
by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner
and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the
performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the
keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary
in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit
the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President
by warrant under his hand and seal and can only be removed from office in like manner
and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. The Comptroller and Auditor-General, in connection with the
performance of his duties have authority to inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the
keeping of initial or subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to him.
Statement 2 is correct. The Governor of a State, where he is of opinion that it is necessary
in the public interest so to do, can request the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit
the accounts of a corporation established by law made by the Legislature of the State.
# Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC):
1. It is a Constitutional body having the Chairperson appointed by the President by warrant
under his hand and seal.
2. The Constitution mandates Union Government to consult the Commission on major
policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the
Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One
Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted,
forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as
NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed
by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially
and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards
of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and
educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy
matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the
Central Govt by The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One
Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted,
forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as
NCBC.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission are appointed
by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. [Article 338B (3)]
Duties of the Commission [Article 338B (5)]:
-to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially
and educationally backward classes;
-to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards
of the socially and educationally backward classes;
-to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and
educationally backward classes;
-to present to the President reports upon the working of the safeguards.
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy
matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes. [Article 338B (9)]
Centre State Relations and Emergency Provisions-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Centre State Relations and Emergency Provisions-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich State Appointed Rajamannar Committee to give recommendations on Inter-State Relation?
Correct
In 1969, the Tamil Nadu Government (DMK) appointed a three-member committee under the chairmanship of Dr P V Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre–state relations and to suggest amendments to the Constitution so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states.
The committee submitted its report to the Tamil Nadu Government in 1971.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
In 1969, the Tamil Nadu Government (DMK) appointed a three-member committee under the chairmanship of Dr P V Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre–state relations and to suggest amendments to the Constitution so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states.
The committee submitted its report to the Tamil Nadu Government in 1971.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Inter-State council:
- Article 262 of Indian Constitution provisions for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
- Parliament can establish such a council by passing a law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.
- Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.
- He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organization and procedure.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.
- Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.
- He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organization and procedure.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Congress government headed by P. V. Narasimha Rao established the Inter-State Council in 1990.
- The Inter – State council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre–state and Centre–union territories relations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In pursuance of the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission, the Janata Dal Government headed by V. P. Singh established the Inter-State Council in 1990.
The council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre–state and Centre–union territories relations.
It aims at promoting coordination between them by examining, discussing and deliberating on such issues. Its duties, in detail, are as follows:
- investigating and discussing such subjects in which the states or the Centre have a common interest;
- making recommendations upon any such subject for the better coordination of policy and action on it; and
- deliberating upon such other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred to it by the chairman.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
In pursuance of the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission, the Janata Dal Government headed by V. P. Singh established the Inter-State Council in 1990.
The council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre–state and Centre–union territories relations.
It aims at promoting coordination between them by examining, discussing and deliberating on such issues. Its duties, in detail, are as follows:
- investigating and discussing such subjects in which the states or the Centre have a common interest;
- making recommendations upon any such subject for the better coordination of policy and action on it; and
- deliberating upon such other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred to it by the chairman.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe Punchhi Commission report was related to which among the following?
Correct
The Second commission on Centre-State Relations was set-up by the Government of India in April 2007 under the Chairmanship of Madan Mohan Punchhi, former Chief Justice of India.
It was required to look into the issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the sea-changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India since the Sarkaria Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-State relations over two decades ago.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Second commission on Centre-State Relations was set-up by the Government of India in April 2007 under the Chairmanship of Madan Mohan Punchhi, former Chief Justice of India.
It was required to look into the issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the sea-changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India since the Sarkaria Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-State relations over two decades ago.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsThe funds under Statutory Grants to the states are charged upon which of the following?
Correct
Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
- Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year.
- Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants for promoting the welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of administration of the scheduled areas in a state including the State of Assam.
- The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
- Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year.
- Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants for promoting the welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of administration of the scheduled areas in a state including the State of Assam.
- The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects is vested in the Parliament.
- The residuary power of legislation does not include the power to levy residuary taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., the matters which are not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament.
- This residuary power of legislation includes the power to levy residuary taxes.
- From the above scheme, it is clear that the matters of national importance and the matters which require uniformity of legislation nationwide are included in the Union List.
- The matters of regional and local importance and the matters which permit diversity of interest are specified in the State List.
- The matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the concurrent list. Thus, it permits diversity along with uniformity.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., the matters which are not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament.
- This residuary power of legislation includes the power to levy residuary taxes.
- From the above scheme, it is clear that the matters of national importance and the matters which require uniformity of legislation nationwide are included in the Union List.
- The matters of regional and local importance and the matters which permit diversity of interest are specified in the State List.
- The matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the concurrent list. Thus, it permits diversity along with uniformity.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Finance Commission:
- It is a quasi-Judicial body.
- It is required to make recommendations to parliament with respect to distribution of proceeding of taxes between Centre and states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier.
It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:
- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier.
It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:
- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Sarkaria Commission:
- It was formed to review the foreign policy of India.
- It was in favor of structural changes with respect to foreign policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
- The commission was asked to examine and review the working of existing arrangements between the Centre and states in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures.
- It was initially given one year to complete its work, but its term was extended four times.
- The Commission did not Favour structural changes and regarded the existing constitutional arrangements and principles relating to the institutions basically sound.
- But it emphasized on the need for changes in the functional or operational aspects. It observed that federalism is more a functional arrangement for co-operative action than a static institutional concept.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
- The commission was asked to examine and review the working of existing arrangements between the Centre and states in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures.
- It was initially given one year to complete its work, but its term was extended four times.
- The Commission did not Favour structural changes and regarded the existing constitutional arrangements and principles relating to the institutions basically sound.
- But it emphasized on the need for changes in the functional or operational aspects. It observed that federalism is more a functional arrangement for co-operative action than a static institutional concept.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following is not a constitutional body?
Correct
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies.
- They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganization Act of 1956.
- The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
- While forming these zones, several factors have been taken into account which includes: the natural divisions of the country, the river systems and means of communication, the cultural and linguistic affinity and the requirements of economic development, security and law and order.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies.
- They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganization Act of 1956.
- The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
- While forming these zones, several factors have been taken into account which includes: the natural divisions of the country, the river systems and means of communication, the cultural and linguistic affinity and the requirements of economic development, security and law and order.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils:
- Zonal Councils was established under the State Reorganization Act, 1956.
- The Act divided the country into five zones namely, northern, central, eastern, western, and southern.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganization Act of 1956.
- The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
- In addition to the above Zonal Councils, a North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
- Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachala Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim. Its functions are similar to those of the zonal councils, but with few additions.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganization Act of 1956.
- The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
- In addition to the above Zonal Councils, a North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
- Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachala Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim. Its functions are similar to those of the zonal councils, but with few additions.
Source: Laxmikanth
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions is/are amended by simple majority of Parliament?
- Delimitation of Constituencies.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Union territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
These provisions include:
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
- Quorum in Parliament.
- Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
- Rules of procedure in Parliament.
- Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
- Use of English language in Parliament.
- Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
- Conferment of more jurisdictions on the Supreme Court.
- Use of official language.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
- Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
- Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
These provisions include:
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
- Quorum in Parliament.
- Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
- Rules of procedure in Parliament.
- Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
- Use of English language in Parliament.
- Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
- Conferment of more jurisdictions on the Supreme Court.
- Use of official language.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
- Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
- Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution:
- An amendment of the Constitution cannot be initiated in the state legislature.
- The constitutional amendment bill cannot be introduced by a private member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
- An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
- The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
- The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Each House must pass the bill separately.
- In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
- If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
- The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
- After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
- An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
- The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
- The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Each House must pass the bill separately.
- In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
- If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
- The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
- After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- During emergency, Central government converts the federal structure into a unitary one by an amendment of the Constitution.
- Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
The Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360.
- These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
- The rationality behind the incorporation of these provisions in the Constitution is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution.
- During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre.
- It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360.
- These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
- The rationality behind the incorporation of these provisions in the Constitution is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution.
- During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre.
- It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following amendment/amendments is/are NOT comes under Article 368?
- Simple Majority
- Special Majority
- Special Majority with half of thestate’sratification
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
- But some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process).
- Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
- But some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process).
- Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following cases Supreme Court used the power of Judicial Review?
- The Golaknath case
- The Privy Purses Abolition case
- The Minerva Mills case
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Supreme Court used the power of judicial review in various cases, as for example, the Golaknath case (1967), the Bank Nationalization case (1970), the Privy Purses Abolition case (1971), the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Minerva Mills case (1980), and so on.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Supreme Court used the power of judicial review in various cases, as for example, the Golaknath case (1967), the Bank Nationalization case (1970), the Privy Purses Abolition case (1971), the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Minerva Mills case (1980), and so on.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions/features is/are consider as Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution?
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.
- Unity and integrity of nation.
- Freedom and dignity of individual.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
From the various judgments, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Unity and integrity of the nation
- Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
- Judicial review
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
From the various judgments, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Unity and integrity of the nation
- Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
- Judicial review
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding financial emergency:
- The Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked, if it is approved by both houses.
- A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency should be passed by both Houses of Parliament by special majority.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Emergency:
- President proclaims a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
- President can declare a national emergency only on the actual occurrence of war or external aggression.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
- It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
- The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
- This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
- In 1975, the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim emergency without consulting her cabinet.
- The cabinet was informed of the proclamation after it was made, as a fait accompli.
- The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime minister alone taking a decision in this regard.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
- It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
- The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
- This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
- In 1975, the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim emergency without consulting her cabinet.
- The cabinet was informed of the proclamation after it was made, as a fait accompli.
- The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime minister alone taking a decision in this regard.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 points“The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation” – this provision was added by which amendment act?
Correct
The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation. This provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation. This provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding “President’s Rule”:
- It should be approved by both houses of the Parliament.
- Maximum period of President’s rule is 3 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
- However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the meantime.
- If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.
- It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
- However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the meantime.
- If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.
- It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
Source: Laxmikanth
Centre State Relations and Emergency Provisions-2020 and Before that
Center-State Relations and emergency provisions
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Betting and gambling is listed under the Concurrent List of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
2.The Information Technology Act 2000 explicitly prohibits online betting and gambling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Betting and gambling’ is listed as Entry 34 under the State List of Seventh Schedule under the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Information Technology Act 2000 regulates cyber activities in India but does not explicitly regulate or mention online betting or gambling. Various states have their own legislation on gambling, and most States have an exemption for games of skill.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Betting and gambling’ is listed as Entry 34 under the State List of Seventh Schedule under the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Information Technology Act 2000 regulates cyber activities in India but does not explicitly regulate or mention online betting or gambling. Various states have their own legislation on gambling, and most States have an exemption for games of skill. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council:
1.Every decision of the GST Council is taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
2.Two-third of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council constitute the quorum at its meetings.
3.The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one third of the total votes cast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Statement 1 is correct. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council is taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting
Statement 2 is incorrect. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
Statement 3 is correct. In the GST Council meeting; the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes castIncorrect
Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Statement 1 is correct. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council is taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting
Statement 2 is incorrect. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
Statement 3 is correct. In the GST Council meeting; the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List of Seventh Schedule?
1. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
2. Adulteration of foodstuffs
3. Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Entry 33 in the concurrent list is: Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of,— (a) the products of any industry where the control of such industry by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest, and imported goods of the same kind as such products; (b) foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; (c) cattle fodder, including oilcakes and other concentrates; (d) raw cotton, whether ginned or unginned, and cotton seed; and (e) raw jute.
Entry 18 in the concurrent list is: Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.
Entry 22 in the concurrent list is: Trade unions; industrial and labour disputesIncorrect
Entry 33 in the concurrent list is: Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of,— (a) the products of any industry where the control of such industry by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest, and imported goods of the same kind as such products; (b) foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; (c) cattle fodder, including oilcakes and other concentrates; (d) raw cotton, whether ginned or unginned, and cotton seed; and (e) raw jute.
Entry 18 in the concurrent list is: Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.
Entry 22 in the concurrent list is: Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the reorganization of the erstwhile Jammu and Kashmir State:
1.The new Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir has been provided with Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
2.The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir is the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganized the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The total number of seats in the Assembly will be 107. Of these, 24 seats will remain vacant on account of certain areas of Jammu and Kashmir being under the occupation of Pakistan.
The Legislative Council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been abolished.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provided that the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir. Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganized the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The total number of seats in the Assembly will be 107. Of these, 24 seats will remain vacant on account of certain areas of Jammu and Kashmir being under the occupation of Pakistan.
The Legislative Council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been abolished.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provided that the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir. Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List under the Constitution?
1. Transfer of property other than agricultural land
2. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
3. Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity.Incorrect
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) was/were added to the concurrent list by the Constitution (Forty-second amendment) Act, 1976?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Deployment of armed force of the Union in States
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act transferred five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list:
-Administrationof Justice; constitution and organization of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts
-Weights and measures except establishment of standards
-Education, including technical education, medical education and universities,
-Forests
-Protection of wild animals and birds
It added to Union List: Deployment of any armed force of the Union or any other force subject to the control of the Union or any contingent or unit thereof in any State in aid of the civil power; powers, jurisdiction, privileges and liabilities of the members of such forces while on such deployment.Incorrect
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act transferred five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list:
-Administrationof Justice; constitution and organization of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts
-Weights and measures except establishment of standards
-Education, including technical education, medical education and universities,
-Forests
-Protection of wild animals and birds
It added to Union List: Deployment of any armed force of the Union or any other force subject to the control of the Union or any contingent or unit thereof in any State in aid of the civil power; powers, jurisdiction, privileges and liabilities of the members of such forces while on such deployment. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) fall under State List in Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Education
2. Posts and telegraphs
3. Relief of the disabled and unemployable
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities is part of Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is incorrect. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication is Entry 31 of the Union List.
Option 3 is correct. Relief of the disabled and unemployable is Entry 9 of the State List.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities is part of Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is incorrect. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication is Entry 31 of the Union List.
Option 3 is correct. Relief of the disabled and unemployable is Entry 9 of the State List. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Parliament may by law form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States.
2. First Schedule of the Constitution lists the States and their Capital cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 3 of the Constitution states that the
Parliament may by law—
–form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
–increase the area of any State;
–diminish the area of any State;
–alter the boundaries of any State;
–alter the name of any State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The first schedule of the Constitution lists the States and Union Territories, not the capital cities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 3 of the Constitution states that the
Parliament may by law—
–form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
–increase the area of any State;
–diminish the area of any State;
–alter the boundaries of any State;
–alter the name of any State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The first schedule of the Constitution lists the States and Union Territories, not the capital cities. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List under the Constitution?
1. Transfer of property other than agricultural land
2. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
3. Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity.Incorrect
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Betting and gambling is listed under the Concurrent List of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
2.The Information Technology Act 2000 explicitly prohibits online betting and gambling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Betting and gambling’ is listed as Entry 34 under the State List of Seventh Schedule under the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Information Technology Act 2000 regulates cyber activities in India but does not explicitly regulate or mention online betting or gambling. Various states have their own legislation on gambling, and most States have an exemption for games of skill.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Betting and gambling’ is listed as Entry 34 under the State List of Seventh Schedule under the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Information Technology Act 2000 regulates cyber activities in India but does not explicitly regulate or mention online betting or gambling. Various states have their own legislation on gambling, and most States have an exemption for games of skill. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council:
1.Every decision of the GST Council is taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
2.Two-third of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council constitute the quorum at its meetings.
3.The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one third of the total votes cast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Statement 1 is correct. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council is taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting
Statement 2 is incorrect. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
Statement 3 is correct. In the GST Council meeting; the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast.Incorrect
Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Statement 1 is correct. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council is taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting
Statement 2 is incorrect. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
Statement 3 is correct. In the GST Council meeting; the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List of Seventh Schedule?
1. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
2. Adulteration of foodstuffs
3. Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Entry 33 in the concurrent list is: Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of,— (a) the products of any industry where the control of such industry by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest, and imported goods of the same kind as such products; (b) foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; (c) cattle fodder, including oilcakes and other concentrates; (d) raw cotton, whether ginned or unginned, and cotton seed; and (e) raw jute.
Entry 18 in the concurrent list is: Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.
Entry 22 in the concurrent list is: Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes.Incorrect
Entry 33 in the concurrent list is: Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of,— (a) the products of any industry where the control of such industry by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest, and imported goods of the same kind as such products; (b) foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; (c) cattle fodder, including oilcakes and other concentrates; (d) raw cotton, whether ginned or unginned, and cotton seed; and (e) raw jute.
Entry 18 in the concurrent list is: Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.
Entry 22 in the concurrent list is: Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the reorganization of the erstwhile Jammu and Kashmir State:
1.The new Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir has been provided with Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
2.The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir is the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganized the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The total number of seats in the Assembly will be 107. Of these, 24 seats will remain vacant on account of certain areas of Jammu and Kashmir being under the occupation of Pakistan.
The Legislative Council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been abolished.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provided that the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir. Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganized the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The total number of seats in the Assembly will be 107. Of these, 24 seats will remain vacant on account of certain areas of Jammu and Kashmir being under the occupation of Pakistan.
The Legislative Council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been abolished.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provided that the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir. Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List under the Constitution?
1. Transfer of property other than agricultural land
2. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
3. Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity.Incorrect
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) was/were added to the concurrent list by the Constitution (Forty-second amendment) Act, 1976?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Deployment of armed force of the Union in States
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act transferred five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list:
-Administrationof Justice; constitution and organization of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts
-Weights and measures except establishment of standards
-Education, including technical education, medical education and universities,
-Forests
-Protection of wild animals and birds
It added to Union List: Deployment of any armed force of the Union or any other force subject to the control of the Union or any contingent or unit thereof in any State in aid of the civil power; powers, jurisdiction, privileges and liabilities of the members of such forces while on such deployment.Incorrect
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act transferred five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list:
-Administrationof Justice; constitution and organization of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts
-Weights and measures except establishment of standards
-Education, including technical education, medical education and universities,
-Forests
-Protection of wild animals and birds
It added to Union List: Deployment of any armed force of the Union or any other force subject to the control of the Union or any contingent or unit thereof in any State in aid of the civil power; powers, jurisdiction, privileges and liabilities of the members of such forces while on such deployment. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) fall under State List in Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Education
2. Posts and telegraphs
3. Relief of the disabled and unemployable
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities is part of Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is incorrect. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication is Entry 31 of the Union List.
Option 3 is correct. Relief of the disabled and unemployable is Entry 9 of the State List.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities is part of Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is incorrect. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication is Entry 31 of the Union List.
Option 3 is correct. Relief of the disabled and unemployable is Entry 9 of the State List. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Parliament may by law form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States.
2. First Schedule of the Constitution lists the States and their Capital cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 3 of the Constitution states that the
Parliament may by law—
–form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
–increase the area of any State;
–diminish the area of any State;
–alter the boundaries of any State;
–alter the name of any State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The first schedule of the Constitution lists the States and Union Territories, not the capital cities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 3 of the Constitution states that the
Parliament may by law—
–form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
–increase the area of any State;
–diminish the area of any State;
–alter the boundaries of any State;
–alter the name of any State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The first schedule of the Constitution lists the States and Union Territories, not the capital cities. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List under the Constitution?
1. Transfer of property other than agricultural land
2. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
3. Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity.Incorrect
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;
Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Education was moved from State list to Concurrent List through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
2.Kothari Commission was set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
Statement 2 is correct. National Education Commission also known as Kothari Commission (1964-1966) was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
Statement 2 is correct. National Education Commission also known as Kothari Commission (1964-1966) was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “Article 256” of Indian constitution is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Article 256 of the Constitution obligates the State government to ensure implementation of the laws made by Parliament.
• If the State government fails to do so, the Government of India is empowered to give “such directions to a State as may appear… to be necessary”.
• The refusal to enforce the law even after the Centre issues directions would empower the President to impose President’s Rule in those States under Articles 356 and 365.
• The Supreme Court of India has also confirmed this reading of the law in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India.Incorrect
Article 256 of the Constitution obligates the State government to ensure implementation of the laws made by Parliament.
• If the State government fails to do so, the Government of India is empowered to give “such directions to a State as may appear… to be necessary”.
• The refusal to enforce the law even after the Centre issues directions would empower the President to impose President’s Rule in those States under Articles 356 and 365.
• The Supreme Court of India has also confirmed this reading of the law in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the parliamentary legislation in the state field:
1. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution to make laws on the state list.
2. Resolution should pass with a simple majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter.
• Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
•The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time.
• The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.Incorrect
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter.
• Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
•The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time.
• The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following provision (s) is/are comes under union list?
1. Sanctioning of cinematograph films for exhibition.
2. Money lending.
3. Preventive detention for maintenance of public order.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Sanctioning of cinematograph films for exhibition – comes under union list.
• Money lending and money lenders, relief of agriculture indebtedness comes under state list.
• Preventive detention for the reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order, or the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community comes under concurrent list.Incorrect
Sanctioning of cinematograph films for exhibition – comes under union list.
• Money lending and money lenders, relief of agriculture indebtedness comes under state list.
• Preventive detention for the reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order, or the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community comes under concurrent list. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe 42nd Amendment Act transferred some subjects from state list to concurrent list. Which of the following state subjects are transferred to concurrent list?
1. Education
2. Public health
3. Forests
4. Weights and measures
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Both, the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.
• This list has at present 52 subjects (originally 47 subjects) like criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage and divorce, population control and family planning, electricity, labor welfare, economic and social planning, drugs, newspapers, books and printing press, and others.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is, (a) education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e) administration of justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.Incorrect
Both, the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.
• This list has at present 52 subjects (originally 47 subjects) like criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage and divorce, population control and family planning, electricity, labor welfare, economic and social planning, drugs, newspapers, books and printing press, and others.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is, (a) education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e) administration of justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Article : State
1. Article 371 (a) : Nagaland
2. Article 371 (b) : Arunachal Pradesh
3. Article 371 (c) : Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
As the government abrogated Article 370 that gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir, Article 371, which has special provisions for other States, mostly from the Northeast, has invited some attention.
• Article 371(A) states that no act of Parliament shall apply to the State of Nagaland in respect of the religious or social practices of the Nagas, its customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law and ownership and transfer of land and its resources.
• Article 371B deals with special provision with respect to the State of Assam.
• The main objective of inserting Article 371B was to facilitate the creation of the sub-State ‘Meghalaya’.•Article 371C deals with special provisions with respect to Manipur which became a State in 1972.
• Articles 371F, 371H talk about special provisions with respect to States of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, respectively.
• Article 371 gives the power to the President of India to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada regions of Maharashtra and the rest of the State and Saurashtra, Kutch and rest of Gujarat.
• Special provisions with respect to Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Goa are dealt in Articles 371D and 371E, 371J, 371I respectively.Incorrect
As the government abrogated Article 370 that gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir, Article 371, which has special provisions for other States, mostly from the Northeast, has invited some attention.
• Article 371(A) states that no act of Parliament shall apply to the State of Nagaland in respect of the religious or social practices of the Nagas, its customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law and ownership and transfer of land and its resources.
• Article 371B deals with special provision with respect to the State of Assam.
• The main objective of inserting Article 371B was to facilitate the creation of the sub-State ‘Meghalaya’.•Article 371C deals with special provisions with respect to Manipur which became a State in 1972.
• Articles 371F, 371H talk about special provisions with respect to States of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, respectively.
• Article 371 gives the power to the President of India to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada regions of Maharashtra and the rest of the State and Saurashtra, Kutch and rest of Gujarat.
• Special provisions with respect to Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Goa are dealt in Articles 371D and 371E, 371J, 371I respectively. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following directions are given by centre on the proclamation of financial emergency?
1. To observe the specified canons of financial propriety.
2. To reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state.
3. To reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
While the proclamation of financial emergency (under Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states:
• to observe the specified canons of financial propriety;
• to reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state (including the high court judges); and
• to reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.Incorrect
While the proclamation of financial emergency (under Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states:
• to observe the specified canons of financial propriety;
• to reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state (including the high court judges); and
• to reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
Center-State Relations and emergency provisions Part-2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Emergency (Article 352):
1. President proclaims a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
2. President can declare a national emergency only on the actual occurrence of war or external aggression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
•It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
• The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
• This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
• In 1975, the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim emergency without consulting her cabinet. The cabinet was informed of the proclamation after it was made, as a fait accompli.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime minister alone taking a decision in this regard.Incorrect
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
•It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
• The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
• This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
• In 1975, the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim emergency without consulting her cabinet. The cabinet was informed of the proclamation after it was made, as a fait accompli.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime minister alone taking a decision in this regard. - Question 2 of 11
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Jammu and Kashmir
Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1. The Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws on any subject in
State list except land and public order.
2. Parliament has the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the UT of Jammu
and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of
Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the
Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List
applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the
Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of
Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the
Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List
applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the
Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct. - Question 3 of 11
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the reorganization of the erstwhile
Jammu and Kashmir State:
1. The new Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir has been provided with Legislative
Assembly and Legislative Council.
2. The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir is the common High Court for the Union
Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act,
2019 reorganized the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir with a legislature, and the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir. The total number of seats in the Assembly will be 107. Of these, 24 seats will
remain vacant on account of certain areas of Jammu and Kashmir being under the
occupation of Pakistan.
The Legislative Council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been abolished.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provided that the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will
be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to
provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act,
2019 reorganized the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir with a legislature, and the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir. The total number of seats in the Assembly will be 107. Of these, 24 seats will
remain vacant on account of certain areas of Jammu and Kashmir being under the
occupation of Pakistan.
The Legislative Council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been abolished.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provided that the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will
be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to
provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory. - Question 4 of 11
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) is/are listed in the Concurrent List under the
Constitution?
1. Transfer of property other than agricultural land
2. Trade and commerce in foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils
3. Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity.Incorrect
All of the above are listed in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. In the Concurrent list;
Entry 6 is Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents;Entry 33(b) is Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; and
Entry 38 is Electricity. - Question 5 of 11
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following was determined by the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula?
Correct
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to
states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab
Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a
suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in
December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds
required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the
balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula.Incorrect
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to
states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab
Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a
suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in
December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds
required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the
balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula. - Question 6 of 11
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following subject(s) fall under State List in Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
1. Education
2. Posts and telegraphs
3. Relief of the disabled and unemployable
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Education, including technical education, medical
education and universities is part of Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is incorrect. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other
like forms of communication is Entry 31 of the Union List.
Option 3 is correct. Relief of the disabled and unemployable is Entry 9 of the State List.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Education, including technical education, medical
education and universities is part of Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is incorrect. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other
like forms of communication is Entry 31 of the Union List.
Option 3 is correct. Relief of the disabled and unemployable is Entry 9 of the State List. - Question 7 of 11
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the North Eastern Council (NEC):
1. It is a statutory body established by an act of parliament.
2. Union Home Minister as the ex-officio chairman of the NEC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of
the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. The North Eastern Council
was constituted in 1971 by an NEC Act 1971.
The Union Home Minister is ex-officio Chairman and the MoS(IC) DoNER is the ex-officio
Vice-Chairman of the NEC.
# Destination Northeast, an annual festival organised by the DONER ministry was
inaugurated recently by the Union Home Minister.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of
the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. The North Eastern Council
was constituted in 1971 by an NEC Act 1971.
The Union Home Minister is ex-officio Chairman and the MoS(IC) DoNER is the ex-officio
Vice-Chairman of the NEC.
# Destination Northeast, an annual festival organised by the DONER ministry was
inaugurated recently by the Union Home Minister. - Question 8 of 11
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Parliament has exclusive power of making a law imposing a tax not mentioned in the
Seventh Schedule.
2. Parliament can make laws on a State List subject if the Council of States passes a
resolution to that effect by simple majority citing national interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 248 of the Constitution provides for the
residuary powers of legislation:
Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not
enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.
Further, such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not
mentioned in either of those Lists.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 249 provides for power of Parliament to legislate with
respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest:
If the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds
of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national
interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the
State List specified in the resolution; Parliament is empowered to make laws for the whole
or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains
in force.
The resolution passed by Rajyasabha remains in force for such period not exceeding one
year. Further, the law made by Parliament, to the extent of the incompetency, ceases to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 248 of the Constitution provides for the
residuary powers of legislation:
Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not
enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.
Further, such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not
mentioned in either of those Lists.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 249 provides for power of Parliament to legislate with
respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest:
If the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds
of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national
interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the
State List specified in the resolution; Parliament is empowered to make laws for the whole
or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains
in force.
The resolution passed by Rajyasabha remains in force for such period not exceeding one
year. Further, the law made by Parliament, to the extent of the incompetency, ceases to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. - Question 9 of 11
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of following subject(s) find mention in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution?
1. Agricultural market
2. Agricultural education and research
3. Taxes on agricultural income
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. Agricultural market is not listed in the Seventh
Schedule.
The committees headed by Ashok Dalwai, Ramesh Chand and Swaminathan Commission
recommended that ‘agricultural markets’ should be entered in the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is correct. Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, protection
against pests and prevention of plant diseases are mentioned as Entry 14 in the State List.
Option 3 is correct. The ‘taxes on agricultural income’ is Entry 46 in the State List.Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. Agricultural market is not listed in the Seventh
Schedule.
The committees headed by Ashok Dalwai, Ramesh Chand and Swaminathan Commission
recommended that ‘agricultural markets’ should be entered in the Concurrent List.
Option 2 is correct. Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, protection
against pests and prevention of plant diseases are mentioned as Entry 14 in the State List.
Option 3 is correct. The ‘taxes on agricultural income’ is Entry 46 in the State List. - Question 10 of 11
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding provisions under the Constitution:
1.Failure to comply with directions of the Union can be construed by President as inability of State Government to carry on the governance in accordance with constitution.
2.If the President or the Chief Justice of the High court is satisfied of the failure of constitutional machinery in States, the State Government can be dismissed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 365 of the Constitution states that if any State has failed to comply with, or to give effect to, any directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any of the provisions of this Constitution, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 356 provides for provisions regarding the failure of Constitutional machinery in States. The article explicitly puts the onus of such determination on executive, i.e. President and the Governor of the State concerned, and not the Judiciary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 365 of the Constitution states that if any State has failed to comply with, or to give effect to, any directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any of the provisions of this Constitution, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 356 provides for provisions regarding the failure of Constitutional machinery in States. The article explicitly puts the onus of such determination on executive, i.e. President and the Governor of the State concerned, and not the Judiciary. - Question 11 of 11
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Article 356 of the Constitution:
1.Under the article, President can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State.
2.It explicitly prohibits President from assuming to himself powers vested in or exercisable by a High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Article 356 states that If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President may by Proclamation—
(a) assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State;
(b)declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.
Provided that nothing in this clause shall authorise the President to assume to himself any of the powers vested in or exercisable by a High Court, or to suspend in whole or in part the operation of any provision of this Constitution relating to High Courts.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Article 356 states that If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President may by Proclamation—
(a) assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State;
(b)declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.
Provided that nothing in this clause shall authorise the President to assume to himself any of the powers vested in or exercisable by a High Court, or to suspend in whole or in part the operation of any provision of this Constitution relating to High Courts.
State government and UT
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Capital Territory of Delhi:
1.The Council of Ministers of NCT of Delhi cannot have more than ten per cent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
2.The Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister and hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As per the special provisions for NCT of Delhi under article 239AA of the Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten per cent. of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the President and other Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative AssemblyIncorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As per the special provisions for NCT of Delhi under article 239AA of the Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten per cent. of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the President and other Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly - Question 2 of 8
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the legislature of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir:
1.The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister.
2.Lieutenant Governor may nominate two members to the Legislative Assembly to give representation to women.
3.The Legislative Assembly may make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List except Public Order and Police.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor.
The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Statement 2 is correct. Lieutenant Governor of the successor Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir may nominate two members to the Legislative Assembly to give representation to women, if in his opinion, women are not adequately represented in the Legislative Assembly.
Statement 3 is correct. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for the whole or any part of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List except the subjects mentioned at entries 1 and 2, namely “Public Order” and “Police” respectively.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor.
The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Statement 2 is correct. Lieutenant Governor of the successor Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir may nominate two members to the Legislative Assembly to give representation to women, if in his opinion, women are not adequately represented in the Legislative Assembly.
Statement 3 is correct. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for the whole or any part of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List except the subjects mentioned at entries 1 and 2, namely “Public Order” and “Police” respectively. - Question 3 of 8
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1.The Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws on any subject in State list except land and public order.
2.Parliament has the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct. - Question 4 of 8
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are the result of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
1.The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is administered by the President, through a Lieutenant Governor appointed by him.
2.Jammu and Kashmir no more shares its border with the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganised the state of Jammu and Kashmir into: (i) the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and (ii) the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Union Territory of Ladakh comprises Kargil and Leh districts, and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises the remaining territories of the existing state of Jammu and Kashmir.
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is administered by the President, through an administrator appointed by him known as the Lieutenant Governor.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Both new UTs share their border with the state of Himachal Pradesh.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganised the state of Jammu and Kashmir into: (i) the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and (ii) the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature.
The Union Territory of Ladakh comprises Kargil and Leh districts, and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises the remaining territories of the existing state of Jammu and Kashmir.
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is administered by the President, through an administrator appointed by him known as the Lieutenant Governor.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Both new UTs share their border with the state of Himachal Pradesh. - Question 5 of 8
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1.It provided for Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with vacant seats for Gilgit-Baltistan region.
2.Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws on any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except ‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the reorganisation of the erstwhile Jammu & Kashmir state, the region of Gilgit-Baltistan now falls under UT of Ladakh.
Statement 2 is correct. The Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu & Kashmir can make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Parliament also has the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the reorganisation of the erstwhile Jammu & Kashmir state, the region of Gilgit-Baltistan now falls under UT of Ladakh.
Statement 2 is correct. The Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu & Kashmir can make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Parliament also has the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. - Question 6 of 8
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Legislative Assemblies:
1. Constitution provides for maximum strength of Legislative Assembly not to exceed five
hundred.
2. Constitution does not provide for duration of the State Assemblies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 170(1) states that Legislative Assembly of
each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members
chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 172(1) states that every Legislative Assembly of every
State, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as dissolution of the Assembly:
Provided that the said period may, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not
extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 170(1) states that Legislative Assembly of
each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members
chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 172(1) states that every Legislative Assembly of every
State, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as dissolution of the Assembly:
Provided that the said period may, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not
extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate. - Question 7 of 8
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are among the reform(s) for States to adopt for being eligible for additional borrowing under the “Scheme for Financial Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure”?
1. Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System
2. Urban Local body/ utility reforms
3. Power Sector reforms
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Government of India has identified four critical areas for reforms by the States:
–Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System,
–Ease of doing business reform,
–Urban Local body/ utility reforms and
–Power Sector reforms.
States successfully completing the reforms are eligible to get two benefits. Such States get the facility of additional borrowing equivalent to 0.25 percent of their Gross States Domestic Product (GSDP) for completing each reform. Under this facility, additional borrowings of up to Rs.2.14 lakh crore is available to the States on completion of all the four reforms.
Further, States completing three out of the four reforms is additional funds assistance under the “Scheme for Financial Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure”. Under the scheme, an amount of Rs.2,000 crore is earmarked for the States that will complete at least three out of the four stipulated reforms.Incorrect
The Government of India has identified four critical areas for reforms by the States:
–Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System,
–Ease of doing business reform,
–Urban Local body/ utility reforms and
–Power Sector reforms.
States successfully completing the reforms are eligible to get two benefits. Such States get the facility of additional borrowing equivalent to 0.25 percent of their Gross States Domestic Product (GSDP) for completing each reform. Under this facility, additional borrowings of up to Rs.2.14 lakh crore is available to the States on completion of all the four reforms.
Further, States completing three out of the four reforms is additional funds assistance under the “Scheme for Financial Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure”. Under the scheme, an amount of Rs.2,000 crore is earmarked for the States that will complete at least three out of the four stipulated reforms. - Question 8 of 8
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Scheme for Special Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure”:
1.The Scheme is aimed at boosting capital expenditure by the State Governments facing difficult financial environment due to the COVID 19 pandemic.
2.It pushes for adoption of One Nation One Ration Card and Ease of doing Business Reforms in States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The “Scheme for Special Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure” is aimed at boosting capital expenditure by the State Governments who are facing difficult financial environment this year due to the shortfall in tax revenue arising from the COVID 19 pandemic.
Part-I of the Scheme covers the north-eastern region. Under this part, Rs.200 crores is allocated to 7 north-eastern States (Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura). In view of higher population and geographical area, Assam has been allocated Rs.450 crores under the scheme.
Part-II of the Scheme is, for all other States not included in Part-I. Rs.7,500 has been allocated amongst these States in proportion to their share of central tax as per the interim award of the 15th Finance Commission for the year 2020-21.
Part-III of the Scheme is aimed at pushing various citizen-centric reforms in the States. Under this Part, an amount of Rs.2000 crores is earmarked. This amount will be available only to those States who carry out at least 3 out of the 4 reforms specified by the Ministry of Finance in its letter dated 17th May, 2020 regarding reform linked additional borrowing permissions. The 4 reforms are – One Nation One Ration Card, Ease of doing Business Reform, Urban Local Body/ Utility Reform and Power Sector Reform.
# All the States except Tamil Nadu have availed benefits of the newly announced scheme for “Special Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure”.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The “Scheme for Special Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure” is aimed at boosting capital expenditure by the State Governments who are facing difficult financial environment this year due to the shortfall in tax revenue arising from the COVID 19 pandemic.
Part-I of the Scheme covers the north-eastern region. Under this part, Rs.200 crores is allocated to 7 north-eastern States (Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura). In view of higher population and geographical area, Assam has been allocated Rs.450 crores under the scheme.
Part-II of the Scheme is, for all other States not included in Part-I. Rs.7,500 has been allocated amongst these States in proportion to their share of central tax as per the interim award of the 15th Finance Commission for the year 2020-21.
Part-III of the Scheme is aimed at pushing various citizen-centric reforms in the States. Under this Part, an amount of Rs.2000 crores is earmarked. This amount will be available only to those States who carry out at least 3 out of the 4 reforms specified by the Ministry of Finance in its letter dated 17th May, 2020 regarding reform linked additional borrowing permissions. The 4 reforms are – One Nation One Ration Card, Ease of doing Business Reform, Urban Local Body/ Utility Reform and Power Sector Reform.
# All the States except Tamil Nadu have availed benefits of the newly announced scheme for “Special Assistance to States for Capital Expenditure”.
Local Bodies and tribal councils
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA):
1.It aims to develop governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
2.It recognizes and incentivizes Panchayati Raj Institutions based on performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Objectives of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA):
-Develop governance capabilities of PRIs to deliver on the SDGs.
-Enhance capabilities of Panchayats for inclusive local governance with focus on optimum utilization of available resources
-Enhance capabilities of Panchayats to raise their own sources of revenue.
-Promote devolution of powers and responsibilities to Panchayats according to the spirit of the Constitution and PESA Act 1996.
-Promote e-governance and other technology driven solutions to enable good governance in Panchayats for administrative efficiency and improved service delivery.
-Recognize and incentivize PRIs based on performance.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Objectives of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA):
-Develop governance capabilities of PRIs to deliver on the SDGs.
-Enhance capabilities of Panchayats for inclusive local governance with focus on optimum utilization of available resources
-Enhance capabilities of Panchayats to raise their own sources of revenue.
-Promote devolution of powers and responsibilities to Panchayats according to the spirit of the Constitution and PESA Act 1996.
-Promote e-governance and other technology driven solutions to enable good governance in Panchayats for administrative efficiency and improved service delivery.
-Recognize and incentivize PRIs based on performance. - Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule:
1.The Governor may, by public notification increase or diminish the area of any autonomous district.
2.Any amendment to the schedule requires the parliamentary majority as stated under the article 368 of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor may, by public notification create a new autonomous district, increase the area of any autonomous district, diminish the area of any autonomous district, unite two or more autonomous districts or parts thereof so as to form one autonomous district.
Provided that no order shall be made by the Governor except after consideration of the report of a Commission to inquire into and report on the administration of autonomous districts and autonomous regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament may from time to time by law amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any of the provisions of the Sixth Schedule. No such law is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of article 368, therefore does not require the two-thirds majority of houses in Parliament.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Governor may, by public notification create a new autonomous district, increase the area of any autonomous district, diminish the area of any autonomous district, unite two or more autonomous districts or parts thereof so as to form one autonomous district.
Provided that no order shall be made by the Governor except after consideration of the report of a Commission to inquire into and report on the administration of autonomous districts and autonomous regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament may from time to time by law amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any of the provisions of the Sixth Schedule. No such law is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of article 368, therefore does not require the two-thirds majority of houses in Parliament. - Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Which of the following states have the autonomous districts as defined under the Sixth Schedule?
1. Assam
2. Manipur
3. Nagaland
4. Tripura
Select the correct answer using the code give below:Correct
The Sixth Schedule currently includes 10 autonomous district councils in four northeastern States — Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
Sixth Schedule provides to safeguard the rights of tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC). ADCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.Incorrect
The Sixth Schedule currently includes 10 autonomous district councils in four northeastern States — Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
Sixth Schedule provides to safeguard the rights of tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC). ADCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature. - Question 4 of 10
4. Question
The Eleventh Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of?
Correct
Mahatma Gandhi had first championed the idea of little village republics but it was under P.V. Narasimha Rao that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, better known as the Panchayati Raj Act, became effective
Incorrect
Mahatma Gandhi had first championed the idea of little village republics but it was under P.V. Narasimha Rao that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, better known as the Panchayati Raj Act, became effective
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
The term “tribe” was first included in which of the following Act?
Correct
In India, around eight percent of the population belongs to the category of Scheduled Tribes.
• The tribes inhabit areas spread over the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Jharkhand, West Bengal and the Northeastern States of Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The term “tribes” were first included in the Government of India Act 1935.
• The term “Scheduled Castes” was used in this Act to define, “such castes, races or tribes or parts of groups within castes, races or tribes, which appear to His Majesty in Council to correspond to the classes of persons formerly known as the ‘Depressed Classes’, as His Majesty in Council may prefer.”•After Independence, the Constituent Assembly of India reserved the prevailing definition of Scheduled Castes and Tribes and conferred the responsibility of compiling a full listing of castes and tribes and also the power to edit this later, on the President of India and the Governors of states.
• Hence, ‘tribes’ were placed in a separate schedule in the schedules to the Presidential Order of 1950 and are today known as ‘Scheduled Tribes’.
• Article 342 of the Constitution of India defines a ‘tribe’ as “an endogamous group with an ethnic identity; who have retained their traditional cultural identity; they have a distinct language or dialect of their own; they are economically backward and live in seclusion, governed by their own social norms and largely having a self-contained economy.Incorrect
In India, around eight percent of the population belongs to the category of Scheduled Tribes.
• The tribes inhabit areas spread over the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Jharkhand, West Bengal and the Northeastern States of Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The term “tribes” were first included in the Government of India Act 1935.
• The term “Scheduled Castes” was used in this Act to define, “such castes, races or tribes or parts of groups within castes, races or tribes, which appear to His Majesty in Council to correspond to the classes of persons formerly known as the ‘Depressed Classes’, as His Majesty in Council may prefer.”•After Independence, the Constituent Assembly of India reserved the prevailing definition of Scheduled Castes and Tribes and conferred the responsibility of compiling a full listing of castes and tribes and also the power to edit this later, on the President of India and the Governors of states.
• Hence, ‘tribes’ were placed in a separate schedule in the schedules to the Presidential Order of 1950 and are today known as ‘Scheduled Tribes’.
• Article 342 of the Constitution of India defines a ‘tribe’ as “an endogamous group with an ethnic identity; who have retained their traditional cultural identity; they have a distinct language or dialect of their own; they are economically backward and live in seclusion, governed by their own social norms and largely having a self-contained economy. - Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the “Panchayati Raj system in India”:
1. Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj.
2. West Bengal adopted the four-tier system of Panchayati Raj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj. The scheme was inaugurated by the prime minister on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district.
• Rajasthan was followed by Andhra Pradesh, which also adopted the system in 1959. Thereafter, most of the states adopted the system.
• Though most of the states created panchayati raj institutions by mid 1960s, there were differences from one state to another with regard to the number of tiers, relative position of samiti and parishad, their tenure, composition, functions, finances and so on.
• For example, Rajasthan adopted the three-tier system while Tamil Nadu adopted the two-tier system. West Bengal, on the other hand, adopted the four-tier system.
• Further, in the Rajasthan–Andhra Pradesh pattern, panchayat samiti was powerful as the block was the unit of planning and development, while in Maharashtra–Gujarat pattern, zila parishad was powerful as the district was the unit of planning and development.
• Some states also established nyaya panchayats, that is, judicial panchayats to try petty civil and criminal casesIncorrect
Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj. The scheme was inaugurated by the prime minister on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district.
• Rajasthan was followed by Andhra Pradesh, which also adopted the system in 1959. Thereafter, most of the states adopted the system.
• Though most of the states created panchayati raj institutions by mid 1960s, there were differences from one state to another with regard to the number of tiers, relative position of samiti and parishad, their tenure, composition, functions, finances and so on.
• For example, Rajasthan adopted the three-tier system while Tamil Nadu adopted the two-tier system. West Bengal, on the other hand, adopted the four-tier system.
• Further, in the Rajasthan–Andhra Pradesh pattern, panchayat samiti was powerful as the block was the unit of planning and development, while in Maharashtra–Gujarat pattern, zila parishad was powerful as the district was the unit of planning and development.
• Some states also established nyaya panchayats, that is, judicial panchayats to try petty civil and criminal cases - Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the “Cantonment Board”:
1. A cantonment board is created by Central government but administered by the state government.
2. Both the elected members and nominated members hold office for a term of five years.
3. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India.
Which the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
• It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006-a legislation enacted by the Central government.
• It works under the administrative control of the defense ministry of the Central government.
• Thus, unlike the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
• A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
• The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings•The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
• The functions performed by a cantonment board are similar to those of a municipality. These are statutorily categorised into obligatory functions and discretionary functions.
• The sources of income include both, tax revenue and non-tax revenue. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India.
• He implements all the resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees. He belongs to the central cadre established for the purpose.Incorrect
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
• It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006-a legislation enacted by the Central government.
• It works under the administrative control of the defense ministry of the Central government.
• Thus, unlike the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
• A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
• The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings•The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
• The functions performed by a cantonment board are similar to those of a municipality. These are statutorily categorised into obligatory functions and discretionary functions.
• The sources of income include both, tax revenue and non-tax revenue. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India.
• He implements all the resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees. He belongs to the central cadre established for the purpose. - Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Which of the following are the criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule?
1. Preponderance of tribal population.
2. Compactness and reasonable size of the area.
3. Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.
4. Area surrounded by forests.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the President, after consultation with the Governor of that State.
• In accordance with the provisions of paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the President may increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State; and make fresh orders redefining the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas in relation to any State.
• The same applies in the case of any alteration, increase, decrease, incorporation of new areas, or rescinding any Orders relating to “Scheduled Areas”.
• At present, Scheduled Areas have been declared in the States of Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana), Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.The criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule are:
• Preponderance of tribal population,
• Compactness and reasonable size of the area,
• A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk, and
• Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.
These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established. Accordingly, since the year 1950 to 2007 Constitutional Order relating to Scheduled Areas has been notified.Incorrect
As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the President, after consultation with the Governor of that State.
• In accordance with the provisions of paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the President may increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State; and make fresh orders redefining the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas in relation to any State.
• The same applies in the case of any alteration, increase, decrease, incorporation of new areas, or rescinding any Orders relating to “Scheduled Areas”.
• At present, Scheduled Areas have been declared in the States of Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana), Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.The criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule are:
• Preponderance of tribal population,
• Compactness and reasonable size of the area,
• A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk, and
• Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.
These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established. Accordingly, since the year 1950 to 2007 Constitutional Order relating to Scheduled Areas has been notified. - Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Tribal Advisory Council (TAC):
1. Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribal advisory council.
2. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribal advisory council to advice on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.
• It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
• A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribes but not scheduled areas therein, if the president so directs.Incorrect
Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribal advisory council to advice on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.
• It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
• A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribes but not scheduled areas therein, if the president so directs. - Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Metropolitan Planning Committee
(MPC) provisions under the Constitution:
1. Two-thirds of the members of MPC shall be elected by, and amongst, the elected
members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats.
2. The member of the Legislative Assembly in the metropolitan area shall be ex-officio
chairperson of the MPC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 243ZE provides that there
shall be constituted in every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan Planning Committee to
prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area as a whole.
The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to-
–the composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committees;
–the manner in which the seats in such Committees shall be filled:
Provided that not less than two-thirds of the members of such Committee shall be elected
by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the
Panchayats in the Metropolitan area in proportion to the ratio between the population of the
Municipalities and of the Panchayats in that area.
Statement 2 is incorrect. No such provision exists. The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to the manner in which the Chairpersons of such Committees shall be chosen.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 243ZE provides that there
shall be constituted in every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan Planning Committee to
prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area as a whole.
The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to-
–the composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committees;
–the manner in which the seats in such Committees shall be filled:
Provided that not less than two-thirds of the members of such Committee shall be elected
by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the
Panchayats in the Metropolitan area in proportion to the ratio between the population of the
Municipalities and of the Panchayats in that area.
Statement 2 is incorrect. No such provision exists. The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to the manner in which the Chairpersons of such Committees shall be chosen.
Election and Related Issues-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Election and Related Issues-2021
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1. Question
1 points“Article 324” of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
Correct
Articles 324 to 329 in Part XV of the Constitution make the following provisions with regard to the electoral system in our country.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Articles 324 to 329 in Part XV of the Constitution make the following provisions with regard to the electoral system in our country.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections. Which of the following bodies/personalities is/are comes under the mandate of Election Commission?
- The Parliament
- The President
- Speaker and Chairman of Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Constitution (Article 324) provides for an independent Election Commission in order to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
The power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to the Parliament, the state legislatures, the office of the President and the office of the Vice-President is vested in the Commission.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution (Article 324) provides for an independent Election Commission in order to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
The power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to the Parliament, the state legislatures, the office of the President and the office of the Vice-President is vested in the Commission.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- There is to be only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Any person can claim to be included in any special electoral roll for any constituency on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex or any of them.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
There is to be only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Thus, the Constitution has abolished the system of communal representation and separate electorates which led to the partition of the country.
- No person is to be ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them.
- Further, no person can claim to be included in any special electoral roll for any constituency on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex or any of them.
- Thus, the Constitution has accorded equality to every citizen in the matter of electoral franchise.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
There is to be only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Thus, the Constitution has abolished the system of communal representation and separate electorates which led to the partition of the country.
- No person is to be ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them.
- Further, no person can claim to be included in any special electoral roll for any constituency on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex or any of them.
- Thus, the Constitution has accorded equality to every citizen in the matter of electoral franchise.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points“Article 323B” of Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
Correct
Article 323B empowers the appropriate legislature (Parliament or state legislature) to establish a tribunal for the adjudication of election disputes.
It also provides for the exclusion of the jurisdiction of all courts (except the special leave appeal jurisdiction of the Supreme Court) in such disputes.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Article 323B empowers the appropriate legislature (Parliament or state legislature) to establish a tribunal for the adjudication of election disputes.
It also provides for the exclusion of the jurisdiction of all courts (except the special leave appeal jurisdiction of the Supreme Court) in such disputes.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the time of elections, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Elections for the Lok Sabha and every state Legislative Assembly have to take place every five years, unless called earlier.
- The Central Cabinet can dissolve Lok Sabha and call a General Election before five years is up.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Elections for the Lok Sabha and every state Legislative Assembly have to take place every five years, unless called earlier.
The President can dissolve Lok Sabha and call a General Election before five years is up, if the Government can no longer command the confidence of the Lok Sabha, and if there is no alternative government available to take over.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Elections for the Lok Sabha and every state Legislative Assembly have to take place every five years, unless called earlier.
The President can dissolve Lok Sabha and call a General Election before five years is up, if the Government can no longer command the confidence of the Lok Sabha, and if there is no alternative government available to take over.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the schedule of elections, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Constitution states that there can be no longer than one year between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the new House.
- The formal process for the elections starts with the issuance of election notification.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
When the five-year limit is up, or the legislature has been dissolved and new elections have been called, the Election Commission puts into effect the machinery for holding an election.
- The Constitution states that there can be no longer than six months between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the new House, so elections have to be concluded before then.
- The formal process for the elections starts with the Notification or Notifications calling upon the electorate to elect Members of a House.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
When the five-year limit is up, or the legislature has been dissolved and new elections have been called, the Election Commission puts into effect the machinery for holding an election.
- The Constitution states that there can be no longer than six months between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the new House, so elections have to be concluded before then.
- The formal process for the elections starts with the Notification or Notifications calling upon the electorate to elect Members of a House.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThe official campaign of elections ends before in how many hours?
Correct
The official campaign lasts at least two weeks from the drawing up of the list of nominated candidates, and officially ends 48 hours before polling closes.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The official campaign lasts at least two weeks from the drawing up of the list of nominated candidates, and officially ends 48 hours before polling closes.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Model code lays down broad guidelines as to how the political parties and candidates should conduct themselves during the election campaign.
- Model code of Conduct is prepared by judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
During the election campaign, the political parties and contesting candidates are expected to abide by a Model Code of Conduct evolved by the Election Commission on the basis of a consensus among political parties.
- The model code lays down broad guidelines as to how the political parties and candidates should conduct themselves during the election campaign.
- It is intended to maintain the election campaign on healthy lines, avoid clashes and conflicts between political parties or their supporters and to ensure peace and order during the campaign period and thereafter, until the results are declared.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
During the election campaign, the political parties and contesting candidates are expected to abide by a Model Code of Conduct evolved by the Election Commission on the basis of a consensus among political parties.
- The model code lays down broad guidelines as to how the political parties and candidates should conduct themselves during the election campaign.
- It is intended to maintain the election campaign on healthy lines, avoid clashes and conflicts between political parties or their supporters and to ensure peace and order during the campaign period and thereafter, until the results are declared.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the voting procedure, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Polling stations should be within the distance of five kilometers of the voter.
- Each polling station is open for at least twelve hours on the day of the election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Voting is by secret ballot. Polling stations are usually set up in public institutions, such as schools and community halls.
- To enable as many electors as possible to vote, the officials of the Election Commission try to ensure that there is a polling station within two kilometers of every voter, and that no polling stations should have to deal with more than 1500 voters.
- Each polling station is open for at least eight hours on the day of the election.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Voting is by secret ballot. Polling stations are usually set up in public institutions, such as schools and community halls.
- To enable as many electors as possible to vote, the officials of the Election Commission try to ensure that there is a polling station within two kilometers of every voter, and that no polling stations should have to deal with more than 1500 voters.
- Each polling station is open for at least eight hours on the day of the election.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the election petitions, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Only candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
- An election petition is not an ordinary civil suit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Any elector or candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
- An election petition is not an ordinary civil suit, but treated as a contest in which the whole constituency is involved.
- Election petitions are tried by the High Court of the state involved, and if upheld can even lead to the restaging of the election in that constituency.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Any elector or candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
- An election petition is not an ordinary civil suit, but treated as a contest in which the whole constituency is involved.
- Election petitions are tried by the High Court of the state involved, and if upheld can even lead to the restaging of the election in that constituency.
Source: Laxmikanth
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following can vote through postal ballot in India?
1. A person subjected to preventive detention.
2. A public servant on election duty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Postal ballot allows a voter to cast her/his vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.
A voter on election duty on election duty, i.e. any polling agent, any polling officer, presiding officer or other public servant, who is an elector in the constituency and is by reason of his being on election duty unable to vote as the polling station where he is entitled to vote, can vote through postal ballot.
Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.Incorrect
Postal ballot allows a voter to cast her/his vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.
A voter on election duty on election duty, i.e. any polling agent, any polling officer, presiding officer or other public servant, who is an elector in the constituency and is by reason of his being on election duty unable to vote as the polling station where he is entitled to vote, can vote through postal ballot.
Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.The speaker is not bound to accept the resignation of a member if s/he is satisfied that such resignation is not voluntary or genuine.
2.Constitution mandates to hold by-elections within six months of a seat getting vacated, either due to resignation or the death of a legislator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 190(3) of the Constitution states that if a member of a House of the Legislature of a State resigns his seat by writing under his hand addressed to the speaker and his resignation is accepted by the Speaker his seat shall thereupon become vacant;
Provided that in the case of resignation, if from information received or otherwise and after making such inquiry as he thinks fit, the Speaker is satisfied that such resignation is not voluntary or genuine, he shall not accept such resignation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is not mandated in the Constitution, rather under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the election commission is supposed to hold by-elections within six months of a seat getting vacated, either due to resignation or the death of a legislator.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 190(3) of the Constitution states that if a member of a House of the Legislature of a State resigns his seat by writing under his hand addressed to the speaker and his resignation is accepted by the Speaker his seat shall thereupon become vacant;
Provided that in the case of resignation, if from information received or otherwise and after making such inquiry as he thinks fit, the Speaker is satisfied that such resignation is not voluntary or genuine, he shall not accept such resignation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is not mandated in the Constitution, rather under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the election commission is supposed to hold by-elections within six months of a seat getting vacated, either due to resignation or the death of a legislator. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Political parties in India:
1.Registration of political parties is governed by the explicit provisions provided under the Constitution.
2.All registered political parties are eligible to raise funds through electoral bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Election Commission has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
# As per existing guidelines, the applicant association is asked to publish proposed Name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers, on two days for submitting objections, if any, with regard to the proposed registration of the party before the Commission within 30 days from such publication. Notice so published is also displayed on the website of the Commission.
# Election Commission of India has given a relaxation and has reduced the notice period from 30 days to 7 days for the parties who have published their public notice on or before 07.10.2020. This relaxation will remain in force till 20th October, 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds.
The party is allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Election Commission has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
# As per existing guidelines, the applicant association is asked to publish proposed Name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers, on two days for submitting objections, if any, with regard to the proposed registration of the party before the Commission within 30 days from such publication. Notice so published is also displayed on the website of the Commission.
# Election Commission of India has given a relaxation and has reduced the notice period from 30 days to 7 days for the parties who have published their public notice on or before 07.10.2020. This relaxation will remain in force till 20th October, 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds.
The party is allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the voting rights in India:
1.Constitution provides for basis of adult suffrage for elections to both Houses of the Parliament and to the Legislative Assembly of every State.
2.The electors under preventive detention have right to vote unlike those confined in a prison under sentence of imprisonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following electoral constituency has the highest ceiling on poll expenditure?
Correct
The Law Ministry has recently notified the Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules, 2020 that has increased the ceiling on poll expenditure for Assembly and Lok Sabha elections by 10%.
The ceiling on poll expenditure varies across States, with candidates in Assembly elections in bigger States like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra now allowed to spend up to 30.8 lakhs as against 28 lakhs earlier.
For Lok Sabha poll in these bigger States, the revised ceiling on poll expenditure is now 77 lakh.
Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and a few Union Territories, based on the size of their constituencies and population, have a lower ceiling; for a Lok Sabha candidate it is now 59.4 lakhs and those contesting an Assembly can spend up to 22 lakhs.
Delhi, like big states have the ceiling of 77 lakhs and 30.8 lakhs on Parliamentary and Assembly constituency respectively.Incorrect
The Law Ministry has recently notified the Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules, 2020 that has increased the ceiling on poll expenditure for Assembly and Lok Sabha elections by 10%.
The ceiling on poll expenditure varies across States, with candidates in Assembly elections in bigger States like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra now allowed to spend up to 30.8 lakhs as against 28 lakhs earlier.
For Lok Sabha poll in these bigger States, the revised ceiling on poll expenditure is now 77 lakh.
Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and a few Union Territories, based on the size of their constituencies and population, have a lower ceiling; for a Lok Sabha candidate it is now 59.4 lakhs and those contesting an Assembly can spend up to 22 lakhs.
Delhi, like big states have the ceiling of 77 lakhs and 30.8 lakhs on Parliamentary and Assembly constituency respectively. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
1.Every election candidate is to keep an account of all expenditure in connection with the election incurred or authorised by him.
2.If a person who is already a member of the Loksabha is chosen a member of the Rajyasabha, his seat in the Loksabha shall become vacant.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 77(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that every candidate at an election shall, either by himself or by his election agent, keep a separate and correct account of all expenditure in connection with the election incurred or authorized by him or by his election agent between the date on which he has been nominated] and the date of declaration of the result.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 69 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that if a person who is already a member of the House of the People and has taken his seat in such House is chosen a member of the Council of States, his seat in the House of the People shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.
Further, if a person who is already a member of the Council of States and has taken his seat in such Council is chosen a member of the House of the People, his seat in the Council of States shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 77(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that every candidate at an election shall, either by himself or by his election agent, keep a separate and correct account of all expenditure in connection with the election incurred or authorized by him or by his election agent between the date on which he has been nominated] and the date of declaration of the result.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 69 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that if a person who is already a member of the House of the People and has taken his seat in such House is chosen a member of the Council of States, his seat in the House of the People shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.
Further, if a person who is already a member of the Council of States and has taken his seat in such Council is chosen a member of the House of the People, his seat in the Council of States shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
1.It has a statutory status through Representation of People Act 1951.
2.It mandates that Ministers shall not announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof during the period MCC is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a statutorily backed provision.
The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections. This is in keeping with Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives the Election Commission the power to supervise elections to the Parliament and state legislatures.
The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced.
Statement 2 is correct. A form of the MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960. It was a set of instructions to political parties regarding election meetings, speeches, slogans, etc.
In 1979, the Election Commission added a section to regulate the ‘party in power’ and prevent it from gaining an unfair advantage at the time of elections.
From the time elections are announced by Commission, Ministers and other authorities shall not –
–announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof; or
–(except civil servants) lay foundation stones etc. of projects or schemes of any kind; or
–make any promise of construction of roads, provision of drinking water facilities etc.; or
–make any ad-hoc appointments in Government, Public Undertakings etc. which may have the effect of influencing the voters in favor of the party in power.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a statutorily backed provision.
The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections. This is in keeping with Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives the Election Commission the power to supervise elections to the Parliament and state legislatures.
The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced.
Statement 2 is correct. A form of the MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960. It was a set of instructions to political parties regarding election meetings, speeches, slogans, etc.
In 1979, the Election Commission added a section to regulate the ‘party in power’ and prevent it from gaining an unfair advantage at the time of elections.
From the time elections are announced by Commission, Ministers and other authorities shall not –
–announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof; or
–(except civil servants) lay foundation stones etc. of projects or schemes of any kind; or
–make any promise of construction of roads, provision of drinking water facilities etc.; or
–make any ad-hoc appointments in Government, Public Undertakings etc. which may have the effect of influencing the voters in favor of the party in power. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following is/are direction(s) issued under Model Code of Conduct issued by Election Commission of India?
1.Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers during the election period for partisan coverage of political news shall be avoided.
2.The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Statement 1 is correct. MCC contains specific directions for party in power. The party in power whether at the Centre or in the States concerned shall ensure that no cause is given for any complaint that it has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers and other media and the misuse of official mass media during the election period for partisan coverage of political news and publicity regarding achievements with a view to furthering the prospects of the party in power shall be scrupulously avoided.
Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Commission.
Statement 2 is correct. The MCC directions state that:
–The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
–The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution enjoin upon the State to frame various welfare measures for the citizens and therefore there can be no objection to the promise of such welfare measures in election manifestos. However, political parties should avoid making those promises which are likely to vitiate the purity of the election process or exert undue influence on the voters in exercising their franchise.
–In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it. Trust of voters should be sought only on those promises which are possible to be fulfilled.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. MCC contains specific directions for party in power. The party in power whether at the Centre or in the States concerned shall ensure that no cause is given for any complaint that it has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers and other media and the misuse of official mass media during the election period for partisan coverage of political news and publicity regarding achievements with a view to furthering the prospects of the party in power shall be scrupulously avoided.
Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Commission.
Statement 2 is correct. The MCC directions state that:
–The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
–The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution enjoin upon the State to frame various welfare measures for the citizens and therefore there can be no objection to the promise of such welfare measures in election manifestos. However, political parties should avoid making those promises which are likely to vitiate the purity of the election process or exert undue influence on the voters in exercising their franchise.
–In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it. Trust of voters should be sought only on those promises which are possible to be fulfilled. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. The State Election Commissions are responsible for superintendence, direction and control of elections to state legislative assemblies.
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy proposes the terms of legislative assemblies to be coterminous with the LokSabha term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. State Election Commission has been vested with the power of the superintendence, direction and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Three- tier Panchayat Raj Institutions.
The elections to the legislative assembly fall under the jurisdiction of Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
There is no proposal under the DPSPs to end the terms of state legislative assemblies with the Lok Sabha.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. State Election Commission has been vested with the power of the superintendence, direction and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Three- tier Panchayat Raj Institutions.
The elections to the legislative assembly fall under the jurisdiction of Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
There is no proposal under the DPSPs to end the terms of state legislative assemblies with the Lok Sabha. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following can vote through postal ballot in India?
- A person subjected to preventive detention.
- A public servant on election duty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Postal ballot allows a voter to cast her/his vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.
A voter on election duty on election duty, i.e. any polling agent, any polling officer, presiding officer or other public servant, who is an elector in the constituency and is by reason of his being on election duty unable to vote as the polling station where he is entitled to vote, can vote through postal ballot.
Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
Incorrect
Postal ballot allows a voter to cast her/his vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.
A voter on election duty on election duty, i.e. any polling agent, any polling officer, presiding officer or other public servant, who is an elector in the constituency and is by reason of his being on election duty unable to vote as the polling station where he is entitled to vote, can vote through postal ballot.
Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The speaker is not bound to accept the resignation of a member if s/he is satisfied that such resignation is not voluntary or genuine.
- Constitution mandates to hold by-elections within six months of a seat getting vacated, either due to resignation or the death of a legislator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 190(3) of the Constitution states that if a member of a House of the Legislature of a State resigns his seat by writing under his hand addressed to the speaker and his resignation is accepted by the Speaker his seat shall thereupon become vacant;
Provided that in the case of resignation, if from information received or otherwise and after making such inquiry as he thinks fit, the Speaker is satisfied that such resignation is not voluntary or genuine, he shall not accept such resignation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is not mandated in the Constitution, rather under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the election commission is supposed to hold by-elections within six months of a seat getting vacated, either due to resignation or the death of a legislator.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 190(3) of the Constitution states that if a member of a House of the Legislature of a State resigns his seat by writing under his hand addressed to the speaker and his resignation is accepted by the Speaker his seat shall thereupon become vacant;
Provided that in the case of resignation, if from information received or otherwise and after making such inquiry as he thinks fit, the Speaker is satisfied that such resignation is not voluntary or genuine, he shall not accept such resignation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is not mandated in the Constitution, rather under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the election commission is supposed to hold by-elections within six months of a seat getting vacated, either due to resignation or the death of a legislator.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Political parties in India:
- Registration of political parties is governed by the explicit provisions provided under the Constitution.
- All registered political parties are eligible to raise funds through electoral bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Election Commission has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
# As per existing guidelines, the applicant association is asked to publish proposed Name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers, on two days for submitting objections, if any, with regard to the proposed registration of the party before the Commission within 30 days from such publication. Notice so published is also displayed on the website of the Commission.
# Election Commission of India has given a relaxation and has reduced the notice period from 30 days to 7 days for the parties who have published their public notice on or before 07.10.2020. This relaxation will remain in force till 20th October, 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds.
The party is allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Election Commission has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
# As per existing guidelines, the applicant association is asked to publish proposed Name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers, on two days for submitting objections, if any, with regard to the proposed registration of the party before the Commission within 30 days from such publication. Notice so published is also displayed on the website of the Commission.
# Election Commission of India has given a relaxation and has reduced the notice period from 30 days to 7 days for the parties who have published their public notice on or before 07.10.2020. This relaxation will remain in force till 20th October, 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds.
The party is allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the voting rights in India:
- Constitution provides for basis of adult suffrage for elections to both Houses of the Parliament and to the Legislative Assembly of every State.
- The electors under preventive detention have right to vote unlike those confined in a prison under sentence of imprisonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following electoral constituency has the highest ceiling on poll expenditure?
Correct
The Law Ministry has recently notified the Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules, 2020 that has increased the ceiling on poll expenditure for Assembly and Lok Sabha elections by 10%.
The ceiling on poll expenditure varies across States, with candidates in Assembly elections in bigger States like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra now allowed to spend up to 30.8 lakhs as against 28 lakhs earlier.
For Lok Sabha poll in these bigger States, the revised ceiling on poll expenditure is now 77 lakh.
Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and a few Union Territories, based on the size of their constituencies and population, have a lower ceiling; for a Lok Sabha candidate it is now 59.4 lakhs and those contesting an Assembly can spend up to 22 lakhs.
Delhi, like big states have the ceiling of 77 lakhs and 30.8 lakhs on Parliamentary and Assembly constituency respectively.
Incorrect
The Law Ministry has recently notified the Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules, 2020 that has increased the ceiling on poll expenditure for Assembly and Lok Sabha elections by 10%.
The ceiling on poll expenditure varies across States, with candidates in Assembly elections in bigger States like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra now allowed to spend up to 30.8 lakhs as against 28 lakhs earlier.
For Lok Sabha poll in these bigger States, the revised ceiling on poll expenditure is now 77 lakh.
Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and a few Union Territories, based on the size of their constituencies and population, have a lower ceiling; for a Lok Sabha candidate it is now 59.4 lakhs and those contesting an Assembly can spend up to 22 lakhs.
Delhi, like big states have the ceiling of 77 lakhs and 30.8 lakhs on Parliamentary and Assembly constituency respectively.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
- Every election candidate is to keep an account of all expenditure in connection with the election incurred or authorised by him.
- If a person who is already a member of the Loksabha is chosen a member of the Rajyasabha, his seat in the Loksabha shall become vacant.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 77(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that every candidate at an election shall, either by himself or by his election agent, keep a separate and correct account of all expenditure in connection with the election incurred or authorized by him or by his election agent between the date on which he has been nominated] and the date of declaration of the result.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 69 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that if a person who is already a member of the House of the People and has taken his seat in such House is chosen a member of the Council of States, his seat in the House of the People shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.
Further, if a person who is already a member of the Council of States and has taken his seat in such Council is chosen a member of the House of the People, his seat in the Council of States shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 77(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that every candidate at an election shall, either by himself or by his election agent, keep a separate and correct account of all expenditure in connection with the election incurred or authorized by him or by his election agent between the date on which he has been nominated] and the date of declaration of the result.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 69 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that if a person who is already a member of the House of the People and has taken his seat in such House is chosen a member of the Council of States, his seat in the House of the People shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.
Further, if a person who is already a member of the Council of States and has taken his seat in such Council is chosen a member of the House of the People, his seat in the Council of States shall, on the date on which he is so chosen, become vacant.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
- It has a statutory status through Representation of People Act 1951.
- It mandates that Ministers shall not announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof during the period MCC is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a statutorily backed provision.
The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections. This is in keeping with Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives the Election Commission the power to supervise elections to the Parliament and state legislatures.
The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced.
Statement 2 is correct. A form of the MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960. It was a set of instructions to political parties regarding election meetings, speeches, slogans, etc.
In 1979, the Election Commission added a section to regulate the ‘party in power’ and prevent it from gaining an unfair advantage at the time of elections.
From the time elections are announced by Commission, Ministers and other authorities shall not –
–announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof; or
–(except civil servants) lay foundation stones etc. of projects or schemes of any kind; or
–make any promise of construction of roads, provision of drinking water facilities etc.; or
–make any ad-hoc appointments in Government, Public Undertakings etc. which may have the effect of influencing the voters in favor of the party in power.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a statutorily backed provision.
The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections. This is in keeping with Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives the Election Commission the power to supervise elections to the Parliament and state legislatures.
The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced.
Statement 2 is correct. A form of the MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960. It was a set of instructions to political parties regarding election meetings, speeches, slogans, etc.
In 1979, the Election Commission added a section to regulate the ‘party in power’ and prevent it from gaining an unfair advantage at the time of elections.
From the time elections are announced by Commission, Ministers and other authorities shall not –
–announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof; or
–(except civil servants) lay foundation stones etc. of projects or schemes of any kind; or
–make any promise of construction of roads, provision of drinking water facilities etc.; or
–make any ad-hoc appointments in Government, Public Undertakings etc. which may have the effect of influencing the voters in favor of the party in power.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are direction(s) issued under Model Code of Conduct issued by Election Commission of India?
- Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers during the election period for partisan coverage of political news shall be avoided.
- The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. MCC contains specific directions for party in power. The party in power whether at the Centre or in the States concerned shall ensure that no cause is given for any complaint that it has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers and other media and the misuse of official mass media during the election period for partisan coverage of political news and publicity regarding achievements with a view to furthering the prospects of the party in power shall be scrupulously avoided.
Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Commission.
Statement 2 is correct. The MCC directions state that:
–The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
–The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution enjoin upon the State to frame various welfare measures for the citizens and therefore there can be no objection to the promise of such welfare measures in election manifestos. However, political parties should avoid making those promises which are likely to vitiate the purity of the election process or exert undue influence on the voters in exercising their franchise.
–In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it. Trust of voters should be sought only on those promises which are possible to be fulfilled.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. MCC contains specific directions for party in power. The party in power whether at the Centre or in the States concerned shall ensure that no cause is given for any complaint that it has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers and other media and the misuse of official mass media during the election period for partisan coverage of political news and publicity regarding achievements with a view to furthering the prospects of the party in power shall be scrupulously avoided.
Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Commission.
Statement 2 is correct. The MCC directions state that:
–The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
–The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution enjoin upon the State to frame various welfare measures for the citizens and therefore there can be no objection to the promise of such welfare measures in election manifestos. However, political parties should avoid making those promises which are likely to vitiate the purity of the election process or exert undue influence on the voters in exercising their franchise.
–In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to meet the financial requirements for it. Trust of voters should be sought only on those promises which are possible to be fulfilled.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The State Election Commissions are responsible for superintendence, direction and control of elections to state legislative assemblies.
- The Directive Principles of State Policy proposes the terms of legislative assemblies to be coterminous with the LokSabha term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. State Election Commission has been vested with the power of the superintendence, direction and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Three- tier Panchayat Raj Institutions.
The elections to the legislative assembly fall under the jurisdiction of Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
There is no proposal under the DPSPs to end the terms of state legislative assemblies with the Lok Sabha.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. State Election Commission has been vested with the power of the superintendence, direction and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Three- tier Panchayat Raj Institutions.
The elections to the legislative assembly fall under the jurisdiction of Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
There is no proposal under the DPSPs to end the terms of state legislative assemblies with the Lok Sabha.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS):
1. It was developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
2. It was first used in general election 2019.
3. It enables a service voter to cast his/her vote using an electronically received postal ballot from anywhere outside the constituency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The ETBPS, developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), in collaboration with the EC is being used for the first time for a general election.
The system enables a service voter to cast his/her vote using an electronically received postal ballot from anywhere outside the constituency.
The record officer who receives a batch of postal ballots electronically will download it and operate using a one-time password.
The voter will exercise his/ her franchise on the postal ballot, sign it and get it signed by his higher-up and despatch it to the Returning Officer.
The e-postal ballot system can avoid delay in postal ballots reaching recording offices. In the previous system, the ballot papers were sent by the electoral authorities via registered post
- The ETPBS was first used in a by-election in the Nellithope Assembly constituency in Puducherry in 2016 and on pilot basis in the State during the Chengannur bypoll.
The pilot and trials were carried out in U.P., Punjab, Uttarakhand, Goa and Manipur Assembly elections.
Incorrect
The ETBPS, developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), in collaboration with the EC is being used for the first time for a general election.
The system enables a service voter to cast his/her vote using an electronically received postal ballot from anywhere outside the constituency.
The record officer who receives a batch of postal ballots electronically will download it and operate using a one-time password.
The voter will exercise his/ her franchise on the postal ballot, sign it and get it signed by his higher-up and despatch it to the Returning Officer.
The e-postal ballot system can avoid delay in postal ballots reaching recording offices. In the previous system, the ballot papers were sent by the electoral authorities via registered post
- The ETPBS was first used in a by-election in the Nellithope Assembly constituency in Puducherry in 2016 and on pilot basis in the State during the Chengannur bypoll.
The pilot and trials were carried out in U.P., Punjab, Uttarakhand, Goa and Manipur Assembly elections.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “Tenth Schedule” of Indian Constitution is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution (which talks about the anti-defection law) is designed to prevent political defections prompted by the lure of office or material benefits or other like considerations.
The Anti-defection law was passed by Parliament in 1985 and reinforced in 2002.
The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution.
The anti-defection law was enacted to ensure that a party member does not violate the mandate of the party and in case he does so, he will lose his membership of the House.
The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Incorrect
The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution (which talks about the anti-defection law) is designed to prevent political defections prompted by the lure of office or material benefits or other like considerations.
The Anti-defection law was passed by Parliament in 1985 and reinforced in 2002.
The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution.
The anti-defection law was enacted to ensure that a party member does not violate the mandate of the party and in case he does so, he will lose his membership of the House.
The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:
- It is a Permanent and Independent body.
- It deals with elections to parliament, state legislature and local bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body
established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the
country.
- Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction
and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president
of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election
commission.
- Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to
both the Central government and the state governments.
- It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the
elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states.
NOTE: Elections to local bodies are dealt by state election commission.
Incorrect
The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body
established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the
country.
- Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction
and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president
of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election
commission.
- Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to
both the Central government and the state governments.
- It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the
elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states.
NOTE: Elections to local bodies are dealt by state election commission.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the First Past the Post system (FPTP):
- Under FPTP the country is divided into small geographical units are called as
constituents.
- Voters vote for party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The candidate who secures the highest number of votes in constituency is
declared elected.
- The winning candidate need not secure a majority of the votes. This method is called
the First Past the Post (FPTP) system.
- In the electoral race, the candidate who is ahead of others, who crosses the winning
post first of all, is the winner. This method is also called the Plurality System.
· This is the method of election prescribed by the Constitution.
Incorrect
The candidate who secures the highest number of votes in constituency is
declared elected.
- The winning candidate need not secure a majority of the votes. This method is called
the First Past the Post (FPTP) system.
- In the electoral race, the candidate who is ahead of others, who crosses the winning
post first of all, is the winner. This method is also called the Plurality System.
· This is the method of election prescribed by the Constitution.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the voting rights in India:
- Constitution provides for basis of adult suffrage for elections to both Houses of the
Parliament and to the Legislative Assembly of every State.
- The electors under preventive detention have right to vote unlike those confined in a
prison under sentence of imprisonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the
elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of
States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides
that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a
sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the
police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive
detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the
electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules,
1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the
elections to the House of the People (not both houses) and to the Legislative Assemblies of
States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides
that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a
sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the
police:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive
detention under any law for the time being in force.”
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the
electors subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules,
1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Association of World Election
Bodies (A-WEB):
- It provides training programs for election officials of member nations.
- The Election Commission of India is a member of the association.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Election Commission of the Republic of Korea first proposed
the creation of a global election management body institution to the Association of Asian
Election Authorities (AAEA) in 2010.
Statement 1 is correct. The A-WEB Secretariat provides training programs for election
officials of member nations and undertakes country programs at the request of member
organization, providing support during the election cycle to boost election management
capacity.
Statement 2 is correct. Election Commission of India is a member and has been very
closely associated with the process of formation of A-WEB since 2011-1 ECI hosted the
4th General Assembly of A-WEB on 03 Sep 2019 at Bengaluru and took over as Chair of AWEB
for 2019-2021 term.
Incorrect
The National Election Commission of the Republic of Korea first proposed
the creation of a global election management body institution to the Association of Asian
Election Authorities (AAEA) in 2010.
Statement 1 is correct. The A-WEB Secretariat provides training programs for election
officials of member nations and undertakes country programs at the request of member
organization, providing support during the election cycle to boost election management
capacity.
Statement 2 is correct. Election Commission of India is a member and has been very
closely associated with the process of formation of A-WEB since 2011-1 ECI hosted the
4th General Assembly of A-WEB on 03 Sep 2019 at Bengaluru and took over as Chair of AWEB
for 2019-2021 term.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following committee is related to anti-defection law?
Correct
The Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms, the Law Commission
of India and the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution has
recommended a review of the anti-defection law.
- The issues arising out of the decisions given by different Presiding Officers and the
interpretation of the law by various courts were discussed at the Conferences of
Presiding Officers of Legislative Bodies in India as well.
- In view of the near unanimity among the Presiding Officers for a review of the law,
the then Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of the Conference, Shri G.M.C.
Balayogi constituted in October 1998 a Committee of Presiding Officers headed
by the Speaker of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly, Shri Hashim Abdul
Halim, to go into different aspects of the matter.
- The Committee presented its Report in February 2003 recommending inter alia that
the provisions relating to splits and mergers be deleted from the Tenth Schedule; the
terms ‘voluntarily giving up membership’ and ‘political party’ are definedd; and that
a time frame is laid down for decisions on the anti-defection cases.
Incorrect
The Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms, the Law Commission
of India and the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution has
recommended a review of the anti-defection law.
- The issues arising out of the decisions given by different Presiding Officers and the
interpretation of the law by various courts were discussed at the Conferences of
Presiding Officers of Legislative Bodies in India as well.
- In view of the near unanimity among the Presiding Officers for a review of the law,
the then Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of the Conference, Shri G.M.C.
Balayogi constituted in October 1998 a Committee of Presiding Officers headed
by the Speaker of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly, Shri Hashim Abdul
Halim, to go into different aspects of the matter.
- The Committee presented its Report in February 2003 recommending inter alia that
the provisions relating to splits and mergers be deleted from the Tenth Schedule; the
terms ‘voluntarily giving up membership’ and ‘political party’ are definedd; and that
a time frame is laid down for decisions on the anti-defection cases.
Governance and its legislations, initiatives-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Governance and its legislations, initiatives-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsThe right to information movement in India began with which of the following movement?
Correct
The right to information movement in India began with the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) movement to bring in transparency in village accounts through the demand for minimum wages in rural India.
False entries in wage rolls were a sign of increasing corruption in the system, which encouraged MKSS to demand official information recorded in government files.
Source: http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/444/Right-To-Information.html
Incorrect
The right to information movement in India began with the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) movement to bring in transparency in village accounts through the demand for minimum wages in rural India.
False entries in wage rolls were a sign of increasing corruption in the system, which encouraged MKSS to demand official information recorded in government files.
Source: http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/444/Right-To-Information.html
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 points“Information is the currency of democracy” – was described by which of the following?
Correct
According to Thomas Jefferson “Information is the currency of democracy,” and critical to the emergence and development of a vibrant civil society.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
According to Thomas Jefferson “Information is the currency of democracy,” and critical to the emergence and development of a vibrant civil society.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsSection 12(5) of Right to Information Act is often seen in news is related to?
Correct
Section 12 (5) of the RTI Act states that the commissioners be selected from among “persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.”
Incorrect
Section 12 (5) of the RTI Act states that the commissioners be selected from among “persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.”
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the recent amendments to Right to Information bill, 2019, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The term of the central Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners will be prescribed by Central Government.
- The salaries, allowances and other terms of service of the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners shall be such as may be determined by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsThe term Principle of Non-Refoulement often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Non-refoulement is a fundamental principle of international law.
It prohibits states from forcibly returning refugees to conditions that caused them to flee their homes in the first place, where they would be likely in danger of persecution based on race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion.
Source: Press Information Bureau
Incorrect
Non-refoulement is a fundamental principle of international law.
It prohibits states from forcibly returning refugees to conditions that caused them to flee their homes in the first place, where they would be likely in danger of persecution based on race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion.
Source: Press Information Bureau
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe “Global Social Mobility Index” is released by which of the following International Institution?
Correct
India has been ranked very low at 76th place out of 82 countries on a new Social Mobility Index compiled by the World Economic Forum, while Denmark has topped the charts.
The report, released ahead of the 50th Annual Meeting of the WEF, also lists India among the five countries that stand to gain the most from a better social mobility score that seeks to measure parameters necessary for creating societies where every person has the same opportunity to fulfill his potential in life irrespective of socioeconomic background.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-ranks-low-at-76th-place-on-global-social-mobility-index/
Incorrect
India has been ranked very low at 76th place out of 82 countries on a new Social Mobility Index compiled by the World Economic Forum, while Denmark has topped the charts.
The report, released ahead of the 50th Annual Meeting of the WEF, also lists India among the five countries that stand to gain the most from a better social mobility score that seeks to measure parameters necessary for creating societies where every person has the same opportunity to fulfill his potential in life irrespective of socioeconomic background.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-ranks-low-at-76th-place-on-global-social-mobility-index/
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThe Corruption Perception Index is released by which of the following?
Correct
The Corruption Perceptions Index is released by the Transparency International annually.
- The latest edition is the Corruption Perceptions Index 2019 which was released in January 2020.
- The index includes the ranks of the 180 countries or territories based on the perceived levels of public sector corruption.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The Corruption Perceptions Index is released by the Transparency International annually.
- The latest edition is the Corruption Perceptions Index 2019 which was released in January 2020.
- The index includes the ranks of the 180 countries or territories based on the perceived levels of public sector corruption.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 points“Sevottam model” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Sevottam Model is a model proposed by 2nd ARC (Administrative Reforms Commission) for public Service Delivery.
- The word, Sevottam, is a combination of two Hindi words: ‘Seva’ (service) and ‘Uttam’ (excellence).
- Sevottam Model is now regarded as a standard model for providing services in citizen centric governance.
- The model is developed by rectifying the drawbacks in the earlier mechanisms of public service delivery like Citizen Charters (CC), and is gradually adopted by various departments under Central and State government.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Sevottam Model is a model proposed by 2nd ARC (Administrative Reforms Commission) for public Service Delivery.
- The word, Sevottam, is a combination of two Hindi words: ‘Seva’ (service) and ‘Uttam’ (excellence).
- Sevottam Model is now regarded as a standard model for providing services in citizen centric governance.
- The model is developed by rectifying the drawbacks in the earlier mechanisms of public service delivery like Citizen Charters (CC), and is gradually adopted by various departments under Central and State government.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe task of coordination, formulation, and operationalization of citizen’s charters are done by?
Correct
The task of coordination, formulation, and operationalization of citizen’s charters are done by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The task of coordination, formulation, and operationalization of citizen’s charters are done by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsThe “Gender Social Norms Index” is released by which of the following institution?
Correct
Nine in 10 people are prejudiced against women, such as thinking university education is more important for men or that men deserve jobs more if work is scarce, the United Nations said.
More than a quarter of men and women also think it is justified for a husband to beat his wife, found the Gender Social Norms Index by the U.N. Development Programme (UNDP), designed to measure how social beliefs obstruct gender equality.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Nine in 10 people are prejudiced against women, such as thinking university education is more important for men or that men deserve jobs more if work is scarce, the United Nations said.
More than a quarter of men and women also think it is justified for a husband to beat his wife, found the Gender Social Norms Index by the U.N. Development Programme (UNDP), designed to measure how social beliefs obstruct gender equality.
Source: The Hindu
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Open Government Data Platform India:
- It is used to publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications collected by Government of India Ministries/ Departments for public use.
- It is a joint initiative of Government of India and Singapore Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India – data.gov.in – is a platform for supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India.
- The portal is intended to be used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments their organizations to publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications collected by them for public use.
- It intends to increase transparency in the functioning of Government and also open avenues for many more innovative uses of Government Data to give different perspective.
- The Open Government Data Platform India is a joint initiative of Government of India and US Government.
- Open Government Data Platform India is also packaged as a product and made available in open source for implementation by countries globally.
Source: Mygov.com
Incorrect
Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India – data.gov.in – is a platform for supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India.
- The portal is intended to be used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments their organizations to publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications collected by them for public use.
- It intends to increase transparency in the functioning of Government and also open avenues for many more innovative uses of Government Data to give different perspective.
- The Open Government Data Platform India is a joint initiative of Government of India and US Government.
- Open Government Data Platform India is also packaged as a product and made available in open source for implementation by countries globally.
Source: Mygov.com
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- e-Pramaan provides a simple, convenient and secure way for the users to access government services via internet/mobile.
- e-Pramaan is a National e-Authentication service offered by DeitY.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
e-Pramaan is a National e-Authentication service offered by DeitY.
- e-Pramaan provides a simple, convenient and secure way for the users to access government services via internet/mobile as well as for the government to assess the authenticity of the users.
- e-Pramaan builds up confidence and trust in online transactions and encourages the use of the e-services as a channel for service delivery.
Source: Press Information Bureau
Incorrect
e-Pramaan is a National e-Authentication service offered by DeitY.
- e-Pramaan provides a simple, convenient and secure way for the users to access government services via internet/mobile as well as for the government to assess the authenticity of the users.
- e-Pramaan builds up confidence and trust in online transactions and encourages the use of the e-services as a channel for service delivery.
Source: Press Information Bureau
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is the first state in India to operationalize a law that makes social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice?
Correct
Meghalaya became the first state in India to operationalize a law that makes social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice.
Chief Minister of Meghalaya launched ‘The Meghalaya Community Participation and Public Services Social Audit Act, 2017’, at a national convention in Shillong.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Meghalaya became the first state in India to operationalize a law that makes social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice.
Chief Minister of Meghalaya launched ‘The Meghalaya Community Participation and Public Services Social Audit Act, 2017’, at a national convention in Shillong.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS):
- It is a web-based application created by the Department of Legal Affairs.
- It is applicable to civil cases only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS) is a web-based application created by the Department of Legal Affairs under the Ministry of Law and Justice.
- The idea is to make the legal data available at one single point and streamline the procedure of litigation matters conducted on behalf of Union of India.
- It is in line with Digital India to digitalize the details of court cases and bring various stakeholders on a single platform.
- At present it is applicable to civil cases only.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS) is a web-based application created by the Department of Legal Affairs under the Ministry of Law and Justice.
- The idea is to make the legal data available at one single point and streamline the procedure of litigation matters conducted on behalf of Union of India.
- It is in line with Digital India to digitalize the details of court cases and bring various stakeholders on a single platform.
- At present it is applicable to civil cases only.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points“COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training)” is developed by Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) with the help of which of the following?
Correct
COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training) is developed by DoPT in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
- Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training (COMMIT) for State Government officials.
- The objective of this training programme is to improve the public service delivery mechanism and provide citizen centric administration through capacity building of officials who interact with the citizens on day-to-day basis.
- Advantage of COMMIT is that it is cost effective and has the potential to cover about 3.3 lakh officials annually, compared to 10,000 officials under existing 12-Day Induction Training Programme (ITP).
Source: Press Information Bureau
Incorrect
COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training) is developed by DoPT in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
- Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training (COMMIT) for State Government officials.
- The objective of this training programme is to improve the public service delivery mechanism and provide citizen centric administration through capacity building of officials who interact with the citizens on day-to-day basis.
- Advantage of COMMIT is that it is cost effective and has the potential to cover about 3.3 lakh officials annually, compared to 10,000 officials under existing 12-Day Induction Training Programme (ITP).
Source: Press Information Bureau
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
- It was established under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
- The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Its head office is in New Delhi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Its head office is in New Delhi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the “Law Commission of India”:
- It is a non – statutory body.
- It is constituted for every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
- The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is re-constituted every three years.
- The tenure of twenty-first Law Commission of India was up to 31st August, 2018.
- The various Law Commissions have been able to make important contribution towards the progressive development and codification of Law of the country.
- The Law Commission has so far submitted 277 reports.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
- The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is re-constituted every three years.
- The tenure of twenty-first Law Commission of India was up to 31st August, 2018.
- The various Law Commissions have been able to make important contribution towards the progressive development and codification of Law of the country.
- The Law Commission has so far submitted 277 reports.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
- It exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants.
- It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in different states.
- At present, it has 17 regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of high courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow.
- These benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of high courts.
- The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.
- Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services.
- However, the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
- The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
- These principles keep the CAT flexible in approach. Only a nominal fee of 50 is to be paid by the applicant. The applicant may appear either in person or through a lawyer.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in different states.
- At present, it has 17 regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of high courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow.
- These benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of high courts.
- The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.
- Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services.
- However, the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
- The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
- These principles keep the CAT flexible in approach. Only a nominal fee of 50 is to be paid by the applicant. The applicant may appear either in person or through a lawyer.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pension scheme (s) is/are NOT run by the Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority (PFRDA)?
- National Pension System (NPS)
- Atal Pension Yojana
- Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was passed on 19th September, 2013 and the same was notified on 1st February, 2014.
- PFRDA is regulating NPS, subscribed by employees of Govt. of India, State Governments and by employees of private institutions/organizations & unorganized sectors.
- Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme launched by Government of India and run by PFRDA is focused on the unorganized sector workers.
- Under the APY, minimum guaranteed pension of Rs. 1,000/- or 2,000/- or 3,000/- or 4,000 or 5,000/- per month will start after attaining the age of 60 years depending on the contributions by the subscribers for their chosen pension amount.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was passed on 19th September, 2013 and the same was notified on 1st February, 2014.
- PFRDA is regulating NPS, subscribed by employees of Govt. of India, State Governments and by employees of private institutions/organizations & unorganized sectors.
- Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme launched by Government of India and run by PFRDA is focused on the unorganized sector workers.
- Under the APY, minimum guaranteed pension of Rs. 1,000/- or 2,000/- or 3,000/- or 4,000 or 5,000/- per month will start after attaining the age of 60 years depending on the contributions by the subscribers for their chosen pension amount.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsThe “eShakti” initiative, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
eShakti or Digitization of SHGs is an initiative of Micro Credit and Innovations Department of NABARD in line with our Hon’ble PM statement, ‘we move with the dream of electronic digital India.’
- Digital India is an Rs 1.13-lakh crore initiative of Government of India to integrate the government departments and the people of India and to ensure effective governance. It is to “transform India into digital empowered society and knowledge economy”.
- Keeping in view the Government of India’s mission for creating a digital India, NABARD launched a project for digitization of all Self-Help Group (SHG) in the country.
- The project is being implemented in 250 districts across the country.
Source: Indian Express
Incorrect
eShakti or Digitization of SHGs is an initiative of Micro Credit and Innovations Department of NABARD in line with our Hon’ble PM statement, ‘we move with the dream of electronic digital India.’
- Digital India is an Rs 1.13-lakh crore initiative of Government of India to integrate the government departments and the people of India and to ensure effective governance. It is to “transform India into digital empowered society and knowledge economy”.
- Keeping in view the Government of India’s mission for creating a digital India, NABARD launched a project for digitization of all Self-Help Group (SHG) in the country.
- The project is being implemented in 250 districts across the country.
Source: Indian Express
Governance and its legislations, initiatives-2020 and Before that
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- Question 1 of 21
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe ‘Financial Management Index for Rural Development Programmes’ is to rank States on which of the following parameter(s)?
1. Social Audit
2. Internal Audit
3. Direct Benefit Transfer
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Recently Ministry of Rural Development released a “Financial Management Index for Rural Development Programmes” to rank the performance of the States on the basis of following parameters:
-Preparation of annual plan, projecting the requirement of funds for the financial year, expeditious release of State’s share, timely utilization of the funds and submission of the Utilization Certificates etc.;
-Optimum implementation of Public Financial Management System (PFMS) & Direct Benefit Transfer;
-Internal Audit; and
-Social Audit.Incorrect
Recently Ministry of Rural Development released a “Financial Management Index for Rural Development Programmes” to rank the performance of the States on the basis of following parameters:
-Preparation of annual plan, projecting the requirement of funds for the financial year, expeditious release of State’s share, timely utilization of the funds and submission of the Utilization Certificates etc.;
-Optimum implementation of Public Financial Management System (PFMS) & Direct Benefit Transfer;
-Internal Audit; and
-Social Audit. - Question 2 of 21
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are exempt from disclosure of information under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. The disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court
2. Information received in confidence from foreign Government
3. The disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Section 8 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 provides for exemption from disclosure of information:
(a) information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence;
(b) Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court;
(c) Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature;
(d) information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(e) Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(f) Information received in confidence from foreign Government;
(g) Information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes;
(h) Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders;
(i) Cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers; (shall be made public after the decision has been taken)
(j) Information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interestIncorrect
Section 8 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 provides for exemption from disclosure of information:
(a) information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence;
(b) Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court;
(c) Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature;
(d) information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(e) Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(f) Information received in confidence from foreign Government;
(g) Information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes;
(h) Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders;
(i) Cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers; (shall be made public after the decision has been taken)
(j) Information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest - Question 3 of 21
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe concept of “Public Interest Litigation” was first time introduced in which of the following country?
Correct
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s.
• In the USA, it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups and interests.
• It was undertaken in recognition of the fact that the ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to provide such services to significant segments of the population and to significant interests.
• Such groups and interests include the poor, environmentalists, consumers, racial and ethnic minorities, and others.Incorrect
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s.
• In the USA, it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups and interests.
• It was undertaken in recognition of the fact that the ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to provide such services to significant segments of the population and to significant interests.
• Such groups and interests include the poor, environmentalists, consumers, racial and ethnic minorities, and others. - Question 4 of 21
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)”:
1. The Companies Act, 2013 is a landmark legislation that made India the first country to mandate and quantify CSR expenditure
2. The details of corporate social responsibility are mentioned in the Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
As per as Corporate Social Responsibility is concerned, the Companies Act, 2013 is a landmark legislation that made India the first country to mandate and quantify CSR expenditure.
• The inclusion of CSR is an attempt by the government to engage the businesses with the national development agenda.
• The details of on corporate social responsibility are mentioned in the Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013.
• The Act came into force from April 1, 2014, every company, private limited or public limited, which either has a net worth of Rs 500 crore or a turnover of Rs 1,000 crore or net profit of Rs 5 crore, needs to spend at least 2% of its average net profit for the immediately preceding three financial years on Corporate social responsibility activities.
• The CSR activities in India should not be undertaken in the normal course of business and must be with respect to any of the activities mentioned in Schedule VII of the act.Incorrect
As per as Corporate Social Responsibility is concerned, the Companies Act, 2013 is a landmark legislation that made India the first country to mandate and quantify CSR expenditure.
• The inclusion of CSR is an attempt by the government to engage the businesses with the national development agenda.
• The details of on corporate social responsibility are mentioned in the Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013.
• The Act came into force from April 1, 2014, every company, private limited or public limited, which either has a net worth of Rs 500 crore or a turnover of Rs 1,000 crore or net profit of Rs 5 crore, needs to spend at least 2% of its average net profit for the immediately preceding three financial years on Corporate social responsibility activities.
• The CSR activities in India should not be undertaken in the normal course of business and must be with respect to any of the activities mentioned in Schedule VII of the act. - Question 5 of 21
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is the first state in India to operationalise a law that makes
social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice?Correct
Meghalaya became the first state in India to operationalise a law that makes
social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice. Chief Minister of Meghalaya launched ‘The Meghalaya Community Participation and Public
Services Social Audit Act, 2017’, at a national convention in Shillong.Incorrect
Meghalaya became the first state in India to operationalise a law that makes
social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice. Chief Minister of Meghalaya launched ‘The Meghalaya Community Participation and Public
Services Social Audit Act, 2017’, at a national convention in Shillong. - Question 6 of 21
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe term “e-Pramaan” is related to which of the following?
Correct
e-Pramaan is a National e-Authentication service offered by DeitY.
•e-Pramaan provides a simple, convenient and secure way for the users to access
government services via internet/mobile as well as for the government to assess the
authenticity of the users.
•e-Pramaan builds up confidence and trust in online transactions and encourages
the use of the e-services as a channel for service delivery.Incorrect
e-Pramaan is a National e-Authentication service offered by DeitY.
•e-Pramaan provides a simple, convenient and secure way for the users to access
government services via internet/mobile as well as for the government to assess the
authenticity of the users.
•e-Pramaan builds up confidence and trust in online transactions and encourages
the use of the e-services as a channel for service delivery. - Question 7 of 21
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Open Government Data Platform
India:
1. It is a platform for supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India.
2. It is a joint initiative of Government of India and US Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India – data.gov.in – is a platform for
supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India.
•The portal is intended to be used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments
their organizations to publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications
collected by them for public use.
•It intends to increase transparency in the functioning of Government and also open
avenues for many more innovative uses of Government Data to give different
perspective.
•The Open Government Data Platform India is a joint initiative of Government of
India and US Government.
•Open Government Data Platform India is also packaged as a product and made
available in open source for implementation by countries globally.Incorrect
Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India – data.gov.in – is a platform for
supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India.
•The portal is intended to be used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments
their organizations to publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications
collected by them for public use.
•It intends to increase transparency in the functioning of Government and also open
avenues for many more innovative uses of Government Data to give different
perspective.
•The Open Government Data Platform India is a joint initiative of Government of
India and US Government.
•Open Government Data Platform India is also packaged as a product and made
available in open source for implementation by countries globally. - Question 8 of 21
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Legal Information Management
and Briefing System (LIMBS):
1. It is a web based application created by the Department of Electronics and Information
Technology (DeITY).
2. It is applicable to civil cases only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS) is a web based
application created by the Department of Legal Affairs under the Ministry of Law and
Justice.
•The idea is to make the legal data available at one single point and streamline the
procedure of litigation matters conducted on behalf of Union of India.
•It is in line with Digital India to digitalise the details of court cases and bring various
stakeholders on a single platform.
•At present it is applicable to civil cases only.Incorrect
Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS) is a web based
application created by the Department of Legal Affairs under the Ministry of Law and
Justice.
•The idea is to make the legal data available at one single point and streamline the
procedure of litigation matters conducted on behalf of Union of India.
•It is in line with Digital India to digitalise the details of court cases and bring various
stakeholders on a single platform.
•At present it is applicable to civil cases only. - Question 9 of 21
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Polity“COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training)” is developed by Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) with the help of which of the following?
Correct
COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training) is
developed by DoPT in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP).
•Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training (COMMIT) for State
Government officials.
•The objective of this training programme is to improve the public service delivery
mechanism and provide citizen centric administration through capacity building of
officials who interact with the citizens on day-to-day basis.
•Advantage of COMMIT is that it is cost effective and has the potential to cover about
3.3 lakh officials annually, compared to 10,000 officials under existing 12-Day
Induction Training Programme (ITP).Incorrect
COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training) is
developed by DoPT in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP).
•Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training (COMMIT) for State
Government officials.
•The objective of this training programme is to improve the public service delivery
mechanism and provide citizen centric administration through capacity building of
officials who interact with the citizens on day-to-day basis.
•Advantage of COMMIT is that it is cost effective and has the potential to cover about
3.3 lakh officials annually, compared to 10,000 officials under existing 12-Day
Induction Training Programme (ITP). - Question 10 of 21
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Integrated Grievance Redress
Mechanism (INGRAM):
1. Integrated Grievance Redress Mechanism (INGRAM) is a website launched by
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances.
2. This portal will also act as a central registry to lodge complaints of Employees of central
Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Department of Consumer Affairs has launched a portal (Website) as an
integrated Grievance Redress Mechanism (INGRAM) for bringing all Stakeholders such as
Consumers, Central and State Government Agencies, Private Companies, Regulators,
Ombudsmen and call centres etc. onto a single platform.
The portal will also help in creating awareness among consumers to protect their rights and
inform them of their responsibilities. Consumers can register online their grievances
through this portal.Incorrect
The Department of Consumer Affairs has launched a portal (Website) as an
integrated Grievance Redress Mechanism (INGRAM) for bringing all Stakeholders such as
Consumers, Central and State Government Agencies, Private Companies, Regulators,
Ombudsmen and call centres etc. onto a single platform.
The portal will also help in creating awareness among consumers to protect their rights and
inform them of their responsibilities. Consumers can register online their grievances
through this portal. - Question 11 of 21
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
Government to Consumer (G2C) initiative State
1. e-Seva : Tamil Nadu
2. Sukhmani centres : Haryana
3. Lok-mitra project : Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
A key component of e-governance is to provide governments with a citizenfriendly
face. Naturally, G2C (government-to-citizens) is an important element of all egovernance
projects.
•FirstGov in the US, e-Envoy of the UK, e-Taiwan, e-Citizen in Singapore, e-Korea, e-
Malaysia, Victoria Online in Australia and Government Online in Canada are awardwinning
G2C services in the world.
•Closer home, e-Seva in Andhra Pradesh, Friends in Kerala, Sukhmani centres in
Punjab, the Lok-Mitra project in Rajasthan, Coimbatore-Online in Tamil Nadu
and BangaloreOne in Karnataka are some of the pioneering G2C initiatives in India.Incorrect
A key component of e-governance is to provide governments with a citizenfriendly
face. Naturally, G2C (government-to-citizens) is an important element of all egovernance
projects.
•FirstGov in the US, e-Envoy of the UK, e-Taiwan, e-Citizen in Singapore, e-Korea, e-
Malaysia, Victoria Online in Australia and Government Online in Canada are awardwinning
G2C services in the world.
•Closer home, e-Seva in Andhra Pradesh, Friends in Kerala, Sukhmani centres in
Punjab, the Lok-Mitra project in Rajasthan, Coimbatore-Online in Tamil Nadu
and BangaloreOne in Karnataka are some of the pioneering G2C initiatives in India. - Question 12 of 21
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe National Conference on Vigilance and Anti-Corruption is being organized by which of the following institution?
Correct
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the National Conference on
Vigilance and Anti-Corruption on the theme ‘Vigilant India, Prosperous India’.
The Central Bureau of Investigation organizes this National Conference coinciding with
‘Vigilance Awareness Week’, which is observed in India every year from 27th October to 2nd
November.
Activities in this conference would be focused on Vigilance issues aimed at raising
awareness and reaffirming India’s commitment to promotion of integrity and probity in
public life through citizen participation.Incorrect
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the National Conference on
Vigilance and Anti-Corruption on the theme ‘Vigilant India, Prosperous India’.
The Central Bureau of Investigation organizes this National Conference coinciding with
‘Vigilance Awareness Week’, which is observed in India every year from 27th October to 2nd
November.
Activities in this conference would be focused on Vigilance issues aimed at raising
awareness and reaffirming India’s commitment to promotion of integrity and probity in
public life through citizen participation. - Question 13 of 21
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Data Governance Quality Index
(DGQI):
1. It has been released by the NITI Aayog.
2. It is based on survey assessing different Ministries/Departments’ performance on the
implementation of Central Sector Schemes and Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI Aayog has
undertaken Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) exercise to assess different Ministries
/Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS). It is a self-assessment-based review of data
preparedness levels across Ministries / Departments to produce a DGQI score card.
Accordingly, a survey was initiated with the objective of assessing data preparedness of
Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework to drive healthy competition among
them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
# The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was constituted in September
2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent
Evaluation Office (IEO). It is an attached office under NITI Aayog, aimed at fulfilling the organization’s monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and building the M&E ecosystem in India.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI Aayog has
undertaken Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) exercise to assess different Ministries
/Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS). It is a self-assessment-based review of data
preparedness levels across Ministries / Departments to produce a DGQI score card.
Accordingly, a survey was initiated with the objective of assessing data preparedness of
Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework to drive healthy competition among
them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
# The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was constituted in September
2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent
Evaluation Office (IEO). It is an attached office under NITI Aayog, aimed at fulfilling the organization’s monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and building the M&E ecosystem in India. - Question 14 of 21
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Information Act:
1. The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall hold office for four years.
2. The salary and allowances of the CIC is to be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act
in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service
of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government,
further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
The provisions for term and salary of CIC/ICs were changed by a RTI Amendment Act
in 2019.
Now, the act states that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service
of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government,
further the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs. - Question 15 of 21
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Prevention of Corruption Act:
1. Giving bribe to public servant is an offence under the Act.
2. Prior sanction of appropriate government or authority is required before any investigation into an offence committed by a public servant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018 amended the 1988 PCA.
The amendment act introduced the offence of giving a bribe as a direct offence. However, a person who is compelled to give a bribe will not be charged with the offence if he report the matter to law enforcement authorities within seven days.The PCA 1988 required prior sanction of the appropriate government for prosecution of serving public officials. The 2018 Amendment Act extends this protection of requirement of prior approval to any enquiry, inquiry or investigation prior to prosecution.
Accordingly, no police officer shall initiate any enquiry, inquiry or investigation against a current/former public servant for an alleged offence (where the alleged offence relates to recommendations made or decisions taken in the course of his official duties), without the prior approval of the employer government.
Such approval would not be necessary in cases which involves the arrest of a person on the spot on the charge of taking a bribe.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018 amended the 1988 PCA.
The amendment act introduced the offence of giving a bribe as a direct offence. However, a person who is compelled to give a bribe will not be charged with the offence if he report the matter to law enforcement authorities within seven days.The PCA 1988 required prior sanction of the appropriate government for prosecution of serving public officials. The 2018 Amendment Act extends this protection of requirement of prior approval to any enquiry, inquiry or investigation prior to prosecution.
Accordingly, no police officer shall initiate any enquiry, inquiry or investigation against a current/former public servant for an alleged offence (where the alleged offence relates to recommendations made or decisions taken in the course of his official duties), without the prior approval of the employer government.
Such approval would not be necessary in cases which involves the arrest of a person on the spot on the charge of taking a bribe. - Question 16 of 21
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Open Government Data (OGD)
Platform of India:
1. It used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments to publish datasets, documents,
tools and applications collected by them for public use.
2. It has been developed by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India is a
platform for supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India. The portal is intended
to be used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments their organizations to
publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications collected by them for public
use.
It intends to increase transparency in the functioning of Government and also open
avenues for many more innovative uses of Government Data to give different perspective.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India has been set-up
by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in compliance with the National Data Sharing
and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) of India.
The objective of the policy is to provide proactive access to Government owned shareable
data along with its usage information in open/machine readable format, through a wide
area of network across the country, in a periodically updated manner, within the framework
of various related policies, rules, and acts of the Government.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India is a
platform for supporting Open Data initiative of Government of India. The portal is intended
to be used by Government of India Ministries/ Departments their organizations to
publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications collected by them for public
use.
It intends to increase transparency in the functioning of Government and also open
avenues for many more innovative uses of Government Data to give different perspective.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India has been set-up
by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in compliance with the National Data Sharing
and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) of India.
The objective of the policy is to provide proactive access to Government owned shareable
data along with its usage information in open/machine readable format, through a wide
area of network across the country, in a periodically updated manner, within the framework
of various related policies, rules, and acts of the Government. - Question 17 of 21
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Mission Karmayogi:
1. The mission emphasizes on ‘on-site learning’ to complement the ‘off-site’ learning of the
civil servents.
2. It is to be delivered by setting up an Integrated Government Online Training (iGOT
Karmayogi) Platform.
3. A Public Human Resources Council under the chairmanship of the Prime Minister to be
set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
All of the above statements are correct.
Union cabinet recently approved the Mission Karmayogi – National Programme for Civil
Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) with the following institutional framework:
-Prime Minister’s Public Human Resources Council,
-Capacity Building Commission.
-Special Purpose Vehicle for owning and operating the digital assets and the technological
platform for online training,
-Coordination Unit headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
The Programme will be delivered by setting up an Integrated Government Online
Training-iGOT Karmayogi Platform. Some of the guiding principles of the Programme:
– Supporting Transition from ‘Rules based’ to ‘Roles based’ HR Management.
– To emphasize on ‘on-site learning’ to complement the ‘off-site’ learning,
– To calibrate all Civil Service positions to a Framework of Roles, Activities and
Competencies (FRACs) approach.
It is also proposed to set up a Capacity Building Commission, with a view to ensure a
uniform approach in managing and regulating the capacity building ecosystem on
collaborative and co-sharing basis.
A Public Human Resources Council comprising of select Union Ministers, Chief Ministers,
eminent public HR practitioners, thinkers, global thought leaders and Public Service
functionaries under the Chairmanship of Prime Minister will serve as the apex body for
providing strategic direction to the task of Civil Services Reform and capacity building.Incorrect
All of the above statements are correct.
Union cabinet recently approved the Mission Karmayogi – National Programme for Civil
Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) with the following institutional framework:
-Prime Minister’s Public Human Resources Council,
-Capacity Building Commission.
-Special Purpose Vehicle for owning and operating the digital assets and the technological
platform for online training,
-Coordination Unit headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
The Programme will be delivered by setting up an Integrated Government Online
Training-iGOT Karmayogi Platform. Some of the guiding principles of the Programme:
– Supporting Transition from ‘Rules based’ to ‘Roles based’ HR Management.
– To emphasize on ‘on-site learning’ to complement the ‘off-site’ learning,
– To calibrate all Civil Service positions to a Framework of Roles, Activities and
Competencies (FRACs) approach.
It is also proposed to set up a Capacity Building Commission, with a view to ensure a
uniform approach in managing and regulating the capacity building ecosystem on
collaborative and co-sharing basis.
A Public Human Resources Council comprising of select Union Ministers, Chief Ministers,
eminent public HR practitioners, thinkers, global thought leaders and Public Service
functionaries under the Chairmanship of Prime Minister will serve as the apex body for
providing strategic direction to the task of Civil Services Reform and capacity building. - Question 18 of 21
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements government procurement:
1. Government e Marketplace (GeM) facilitates online procurement of Goods & Services
required by various Government Departments in India.
2. Entities of countries not allowing participation of Indian companies in their Government
procurement are not allowed to participate in Government procurement in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Government e Marketplace (GeM), facilitates online
procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government
Departments / Organisations / PSUs. GeM aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and
speed in public procurement.
It provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse e-auction and demand aggregation to facilitate the
government users, achieve the best value for their money.
Statement 2 is correct. Government has recently amended the Public Procurement
(Preference to Make in India) Order, 2017 enabling nodal Ministries and Departments to
notify higher minimum local content requirement for local suppliers.
Further, as per the Order, entities of countries which do not allow Indian companies to
participate in their Government procurement for any item, shall not be allowed to
participate in Government procurement in India for all items related to that nodal Ministry
or Department, except for the list of items published by the Ministry or Department
permitting their participation.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Government e Marketplace (GeM), facilitates online
procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government
Departments / Organisations / PSUs. GeM aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and
speed in public procurement.
It provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse e-auction and demand aggregation to facilitate the
government users, achieve the best value for their money.
Statement 2 is correct. Government has recently amended the Public Procurement
(Preference to Make in India) Order, 2017 enabling nodal Ministries and Departments to
notify higher minimum local content requirement for local suppliers.
Further, as per the Order, entities of countries which do not allow Indian companies to
participate in their Government procurement for any item, shall not be allowed to
participate in Government procurement in India for all items related to that nodal Ministry
or Department, except for the list of items published by the Ministry or Department
permitting their participation. - Question 19 of 21
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Official Secrets Act (OSA):
1. The person communicating the secret information as well as the person receiving the
secret information can be punished under the Act.
2. Notwithstanding anything in the OSA, a public authority may disclose information under
Right to Information Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Official Secrets Act provides punishment for
spying, espionage, disclosure of secret information.
Secret information can be any official code, password, sketch, plan, model, article, note,
document, or information. Under Section 5, both the person communicating the
information and the person receiving the information can be punished.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 8 of the Right to Information Act provides for cases of
exemption from disclosure of information. It further states under clause 8(2) that
notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 nor any of the exemptions
permissible in under RTI Act Section 8(1), a public authority may allow access to
information, if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.
Further Section 22 of the RTI Act provides for its primacy vis-a-vis provisions of other
laws, including OSA. This gives the RTI Act an overriding effect, notwithstanding anything
inconsistent with the provisions of OSA.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Official Secrets Act provides punishment for
spying, espionage, disclosure of secret information.
Secret information can be any official code, password, sketch, plan, model, article, note,
document, or information. Under Section 5, both the person communicating the
information and the person receiving the information can be punished.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 8 of the Right to Information Act provides for cases of
exemption from disclosure of information. It further states under clause 8(2) that
notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 nor any of the exemptions
permissible in under RTI Act Section 8(1), a public authority may allow access to
information, if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.
Further Section 22 of the RTI Act provides for its primacy vis-a-vis provisions of other
laws, including OSA. This gives the RTI Act an overriding effect, notwithstanding anything
inconsistent with the provisions of OSA. - Question 20 of 21
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are grounds for exemption from disclosure of information under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information received in confidence from foreign Government
2. Trade secrets or intellectual property
3. Personal information the which has no relationship to any public activity or interest
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Section 8 of the Right to Information Act provides for exemption from disclosure of information. Some of the grounds for exemption are:
–information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information
–information received in confidence from foreign Government
–information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the appellate authority, as the case may be, is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information.Incorrect
Section 8 of the Right to Information Act provides for exemption from disclosure of information. Some of the grounds for exemption are:
–information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information
–information received in confidence from foreign Government
–information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the appellate authority, as the case may be, is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information. - Question 21 of 21
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Indian Administrative Service and Indian Police Service are deemed to be services created by Parliament under the Constitution.
2.Members of civil service cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which they were appointed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. As per article 312(2) of the Constitution the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service shall be deemed to be services created by Parliament under this article.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 311 of Constitution of India deals with Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.
According to article 311, no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. As per article 312(2) of the Constitution the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service shall be deemed to be services created by Parliament under this article.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 311 of Constitution of India deals with Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.
According to article 311, no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.
Miscellaneous-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Miscellaneous-2021
Test-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following was the first state to pass legislation on Social Audit?
Correct
In April 2017, Meghalaya became the first State in the country to pass social audit legislation, the Meghalaya Community Participation and Public Services Social Audit Act.
This Act mandated social audits across 21 schemes and 11 departments.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
In April 2017, Meghalaya became the first State in the country to pass social audit legislation, the Meghalaya Community Participation and Public Services Social Audit Act.
This Act mandated social audits across 21 schemes and 11 departments.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsForeign funding of voluntary organizations in India is regulated under which of the following act?
Correct
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010
- Foreign funding of voluntary organizations in India is regulated under FCRA act which is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The Acts ensures that the recipients of foreign contributions adhere to the stated purpose for which such contribution has been obtained.
- Under the Act, organizations are required to register themselves every five years.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010
- Foreign funding of voluntary organizations in India is regulated under FCRA act which is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The Acts ensures that the recipients of foreign contributions adhere to the stated purpose for which such contribution has been obtained.
- Under the Act, organizations are required to register themselves every five years.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsUnder which of the following act/acts Non – Governmental Organizations is/are registered?
- Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860
- Religious Endowments Act, 1863
- Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
NGOs are groups of ordinary citizens that are involved in a wide range of activities that may have charitable, social, political, religious or other interests.
- NGOs are helpful in implementing government schemes at the grassroots.
- In India, NGOs can be registered under a plethora of Acts such as the Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860, Religious Endowments Act, 1863, Indian Trusts Act, etc.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
NGOs are groups of ordinary citizens that are involved in a wide range of activities that may have charitable, social, political, religious or other interests.
- NGOs are helpful in implementing government schemes at the grassroots.
- In India, NGOs can be registered under a plethora of Acts such as the Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860, Religious Endowments Act, 1863, Indian Trusts Act, etc.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe Self-Help Group (SHG) Bank Linkage Project was launched by which of the following?
Correct
The SHG Bank Linkage Project launched by NABARD in 1992 has blossomed into the world’s largest microfinance project.
NABARD along with RBI permitted SHGs to have a savings account in banks from the year of 1993. This action gave a considerable boost to the SHG movement and paved the way for the SHG-Bank linkage program.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The SHG Bank Linkage Project launched by NABARD in 1992 has blossomed into the world’s largest microfinance project.
NABARD along with RBI permitted SHGs to have a savings account in banks from the year of 1993. This action gave a considerable boost to the SHG movement and paved the way for the SHG-Bank linkage program.
Source: Governance in India by Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points“Kudumbashree” programme often seen in news is associated with which of the following state?
Correct
Kudumbashree was launched in Kerala in 1998 to wipe out absolute poverty through community action.
- It is the largest women empowering project in the country.
- It has three components i.e., microcredit, entrepreneurship and empowerment.
- It has three tier structure – neighborhood groups (SHG), area development society (15-20 SHGs) and Community development society (federation of all groups).
- Kudumbashree is a government agency that has a budget and staff paid by the government. The three tiers are also managed by unpaid volunteers.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Kudumbashree was launched in Kerala in 1998 to wipe out absolute poverty through community action.
- It is the largest women empowering project in the country.
- It has three components i.e., microcredit, entrepreneurship and empowerment.
- It has three tier structure – neighborhood groups (SHG), area development society (15-20 SHGs) and Community development society (federation of all groups).
- Kudumbashree is a government agency that has a budget and staff paid by the government. The three tiers are also managed by unpaid volunteers.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:
- The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age.
- It is agender-neutrallaw.
- It recognizes consensual sexual acts among children or between a child and an adult.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
To deal with child sexual abuse cases, the Government has brought in a special law, namely, The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. The Act has come into force with effect from 14th November, 2012 along with the Rules framed there under.
Provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:
- The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age and regards the best interests and well-being of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child.
- It defines different forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain circumstances, such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor
- It also seeks to establish Special Courts for speedy trial of such offences. The Act stipulates that a case of Child Sexual Abuse must be disposed of within one year from the date the offence is reported.
- It also provides for relief and rehabilitation of the child, as soon as the complaint is made. The Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police are also required to report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee within 24 hours of recording the complaint, for long term rehabilitation of the child.
- It is gender neutral law, wherein the law takes cognizance of sexual crimes committed against both girls and boys under the age of 18 years.
- It does not recognize consensual sexual acts among children or between a child and an adult. Prosecutes any person (including a child) for engaging in a sexual act with a child irrespective of whether the latter consented to it.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-protection-of-children-from-sexual-offences-amendment-bill.
Incorrect
To deal with child sexual abuse cases, the Government has brought in a special law, namely, The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. The Act has come into force with effect from 14th November, 2012 along with the Rules framed there under.
Provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:
- The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age and regards the best interests and well-being of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child.
- It defines different forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain circumstances, such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor
- It also seeks to establish Special Courts for speedy trial of such offences. The Act stipulates that a case of Child Sexual Abuse must be disposed of within one year from the date the offence is reported.
- It also provides for relief and rehabilitation of the child, as soon as the complaint is made. The Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police are also required to report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee within 24 hours of recording the complaint, for long term rehabilitation of the child.
- It is gender neutral law, wherein the law takes cognizance of sexual crimes committed against both girls and boys under the age of 18 years.
- It does not recognize consensual sexual acts among children or between a child and an adult. Prosecutes any person (including a child) for engaging in a sexual act with a child irrespective of whether the latter consented to it.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-protection-of-children-from-sexual-offences-amendment-bill.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
Government to Consumer (G2C) initiative State
- e-Seva : Andhra Pradesh
- Friends : Haryana
- Lok-mitra project : Punjab
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
A key component of e-governance is to provide governments with a citizen-friendly face. Naturally, G2C (government-to-citizens) is an important element of all e-governance projects.
- FirstGov in the US, e-Envoy of the UK, e-Taiwan, e-Citizen in Singapore, e-Korea, e-Malaysia, Victoria Online in Australia and Government Online in Canada are award-winning G2C services in the world.
- Closer home, e-Seva in Andhra Pradesh, Friends in Kerala, Sukhmani centres in Punjab, the Lok-Mitra project in Rajasthan, Coimbatore-Online in Tamil Nadu and BangaloreOne in Karnataka are some of the pioneering G2C initiatives in India.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
A key component of e-governance is to provide governments with a citizen-friendly face. Naturally, G2C (government-to-citizens) is an important element of all e-governance projects.
- FirstGov in the US, e-Envoy of the UK, e-Taiwan, e-Citizen in Singapore, e-Korea, e-Malaysia, Victoria Online in Australia and Government Online in Canada are award-winning G2C services in the world.
- Closer home, e-Seva in Andhra Pradesh, Friends in Kerala, Sukhmani centres in Punjab, the Lok-Mitra project in Rajasthan, Coimbatore-Online in Tamil Nadu and BangaloreOne in Karnataka are some of the pioneering G2C initiatives in India.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsThe Time to Care report (Wealth Inequality), sometimes in news was released by which of the following?
Correct
India’s richest 1% hold more than four-times the wealth held by 953 million people who make up for the bottom 70% of the country’s population, while the total wealth of all Indian billionaires is more than the full-year budget.
- Releasing the study Time to Care, ahead of the 50th Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum (WEF), rights group Oxfam also said the world’s 2,153 billionaires have more wealth than the 4.6 billion people who make up 60 per cent of the planet’s population.
- The report flagged that global inequality is shockingly entrenched and vast and the number of billionaires has doubled in the last decade, despite their combined wealth having declined in the last year.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
India’s richest 1% hold more than four-times the wealth held by 953 million people who make up for the bottom 70% of the country’s population, while the total wealth of all Indian billionaires is more than the full-year budget.
- Releasing the study Time to Care, ahead of the 50th Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum (WEF), rights group Oxfam also said the world’s 2,153 billionaires have more wealth than the 4.6 billion people who make up 60 per cent of the planet’s population.
- The report flagged that global inequality is shockingly entrenched and vast and the number of billionaires has doubled in the last decade, despite their combined wealth having declined in the last year.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe “Empowered Action Group (EAG) States” often seen in news, which of the following states are under EAG?
- Uttarakhand
- Uttar Pradesh
- Jharkhand
- Madhya Pradesh
- Chhattisgarh
- Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
India’s MMR has declined from 130 per 1 lakh live births in 2014-2016 to 122 per 1 lakh live births in 2015-2017 as per the recently released Sample Registration System (SRS) 2015-2017 bulletin for MMR. A decline of 8 points (6.2%) has been observed.
- The bulletin categorizes the country into three groups: Empowered Action Group (EAG), Southern States and other states.
- The following states are coming under EAG are Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Rajasthan.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
India’s MMR has declined from 130 per 1 lakh live births in 2014-2016 to 122 per 1 lakh live births in 2015-2017 as per the recently released Sample Registration System (SRS) 2015-2017 bulletin for MMR. A decline of 8 points (6.2%) has been observed.
- The bulletin categorizes the country into three groups: Empowered Action Group (EAG), Southern States and other states.
- The following states are coming under EAG are Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Rajasthan.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule?
- Preponderance of tribal population.
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area.
- Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighboring areas.
- A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
The criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule are:
- Preponderance of tribal population,
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area,
- A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk, and
- Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighboring areas.
These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established. Accordingly, since the year 1950 to 2007 Constitutional Order relating to Scheduled Areas has been notified.
Source: Ministry of Tribal Welfare
Incorrect
As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
The criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule are:
- Preponderance of tribal population,
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area,
- A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk, and
- Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighboring areas.
These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established. Accordingly, since the year 1950 to 2007 Constitutional Order relating to Scheduled Areas has been notified.
Source: Ministry of Tribal Welfare
Miscellaneous-2020 and Before that
Miscellaneous
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Liberhan Commission of Inquiry was related to which of the following?
Correct
The Liberhan Ayodhya Commission of Inquiry was a long-running inquiry commissioned by the Government of India to investigate the destruction of the Ram Janma Bhoomi-Babri Masjid structure on 6 December 1992.
Headed by Justice M. S. Liberhan, set up on December 16, 1992, the Commission was initially asked to give a report in three months. Extensions were given 48 times, and after a delay of about 17 years, the one-man commission submitted the report in 2009.Incorrect
The Liberhan Ayodhya Commission of Inquiry was a long-running inquiry commissioned by the Government of India to investigate the destruction of the Ram Janma Bhoomi-Babri Masjid structure on 6 December 1992.
Headed by Justice M. S. Liberhan, set up on December 16, 1992, the Commission was initially asked to give a report in three months. Extensions were given 48 times, and after a delay of about 17 years, the one-man commission submitted the report in 2009. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI):
1.It has been released by the NITI Aayog.
2.It is based on survey assessing different Ministries/Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes and Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI Aayog has undertaken Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) exercise to assess different Ministries /Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS). It is a self-assessment-based review of data preparedness levels across Ministries / Departments to produce a DGQI score card.
Accordingly, a survey was initiated with the objective of assessing data preparedness of Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
# The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was constituted in September 2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent Evaluation Office (IEO). It is an attached office under NITI Aayog, aimed at fulfilling the organization’s monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and building the M&E ecosystem in India.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI Aayog has undertaken Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) exercise to assess different Ministries /Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS). It is a self-assessment-based review of data preparedness levels across Ministries / Departments to produce a DGQI score card.
Accordingly, a survey was initiated with the objective of assessing data preparedness of Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
# The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was constituted in September 2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent Evaluation Office (IEO). It is an attached office under NITI Aayog, aimed at fulfilling the organization’s monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and building the M&E ecosystem in India. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):
1.It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act) 2012.
2.The commission may inquire into complaints and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to deprivation and violation of child rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
Statement 2 is correct. The commission may inquire into complaints and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to-
– Deprivation and violation of child rights;
– Non-implementation of laws providing for protection and development of children;
– Non-compliance of policy decisions, guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships to and ensuring welfare of the children and to provide relief to such children.
# NCPCR also monitors the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
Statement 2 is correct. The commission may inquire into complaints and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to-
– Deprivation and violation of child rights;
– Non-implementation of laws providing for protection and development of children;
– Non-compliance of policy decisions, guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships to and ensuring welfare of the children and to provide relief to such children.
# NCPCR also monitors the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following was/were the recommendation(s) of the Justice J.S. Verma Committee?
1. It rejected the proposal for chemical castration for crimes against women.
2. Electoral candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences.
3. It proposed death penalty for the offence of rape.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report in January 2013.
Statement 1 is correct. The Committee rejected the proposal for chemical castration as it fails to treat the social foundations of rape.
Statement 2 is correct. The Committee recommended the amendment of the Representation of People Act, 1951. The Committee was of the opinion that filing of charge sheet and cognizance by the Court was sufficient for disqualification of a candidate under the Act. It further recommended that candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It opined that death penalty should not be awarded for the offence of rape as there was considerable evidence that death penalty was not a deterrence to serious crimes. It recommended life imprisonment for rape.Incorrect
Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report in January 2013.
Statement 1 is correct. The Committee rejected the proposal for chemical castration as it fails to treat the social foundations of rape.
Statement 2 is correct. The Committee recommended the amendment of the Representation of People Act, 1951. The Committee was of the opinion that filing of charge sheet and cognizance by the Court was sufficient for disqualification of a candidate under the Act. It further recommended that candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It opined that death penalty should not be awarded for the offence of rape as there was considerable evidence that death penalty was not a deterrence to serious crimes. It recommended life imprisonment for rape. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Indo-Pacific Division of the Ministry of External Affairs deals with which of the following matters?
1. East Asia Summit
2. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
3. Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Given the increasing salience of the Indo-Pacific concept in global discourse, the Ministry of External Affairs established a new Division for the Indo-Pacific in April 2019.
Indo-Pacific Division deals with matters relating to the Indo-Pacific, India-ASEAN relations, East Asia Summit, Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM), Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) and Ayeyawady-Chao Phraya-Mekong Economic Cooperation Strategy (ACMECS).
# Asia Europe Meeting (ASEM) is the biggest inter-governmental process between Asia and Europe. It currently has 53 Partners – 51 countries and 2 regional organisations (ASEAN and European Union).Incorrect
Given the increasing salience of the Indo-Pacific concept in global discourse, the Ministry of External Affairs established a new Division for the Indo-Pacific in April 2019.
Indo-Pacific Division deals with matters relating to the Indo-Pacific, India-ASEAN relations, East Asia Summit, Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM), Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) and Ayeyawady-Chao Phraya-Mekong Economic Cooperation Strategy (ACMECS).
# Asia Europe Meeting (ASEM) is the biggest inter-governmental process between Asia and Europe. It currently has 53 Partners – 51 countries and 2 regional organisations (ASEAN and European Union). - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following committee(s) relate to criminal law reforms in India?
1. Malimath Committee
2. Ranbir Singh Committee
3. K. Kasturirangan Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. The Malimath Committee (2000) constituted by the Home Ministry on reforms in the Criminal Justice System of India submitted its report in 2003
Option 2 is correct. Ranbir Singh Committee for Reforms in Criminal Laws was constituted by the Union Home Ministry in May 2020. This committee is looking into the IPC, the CrPC (the Code of Criminal Procedure), the Indian Evidence Act and the Narcotics Act.
Option 3 is incorrect. Dr K. Kasturirangan Committee was set up to recommend the New National Education Policy of India. The report was submitted in 2019 and the NEP 2020 was notified recently.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The Malimath Committee (2000) constituted by the Home Ministry on reforms in the Criminal Justice System of India submitted its report in 2003
Option 2 is correct. Ranbir Singh Committee for Reforms in Criminal Laws was constituted by the Union Home Ministry in May 2020. This committee is looking into the IPC, the CrPC (the Code of Criminal Procedure), the Indian Evidence Act and the Narcotics Act.
Option 3 is incorrect. Dr K. Kasturirangan Committee was set up to recommend the New National Education Policy of India. The report was submitted in 2019 and the NEP 2020 was notified recently. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhat was the mandate of the K.S. Radhakrishnan Committee?
Correct
Supreme Court’s Road Safety Committee headed the Justice KS Radhakrishnan was formed by the apex court on the basis of a PIL to measure and monitor the implementation of road safety laws in the country.
In its report [2015], the panel has recommended for ban on sale of alcohol on highways, both National and State highways, to curb the menace of road accident.
A total of 151,113 people were killed in 480,652 road accidents across India in 2019, an average of 414 a day or 17 an hour, according to a report by the transport research wing of the ministry of road transport and highways.
According to the report, speeding was the leading cause of deaths, while, in terms of vehicles, two-wheelers were involved in most road fatalities.Incorrect
Supreme Court’s Road Safety Committee headed the Justice KS Radhakrishnan was formed by the apex court on the basis of a PIL to measure and monitor the implementation of road safety laws in the country.
In its report [2015], the panel has recommended for ban on sale of alcohol on highways, both National and State highways, to curb the menace of road accident.
A total of 151,113 people were killed in 480,652 road accidents across India in 2019, an average of 414 a day or 17 an hour, according to a report by the transport research wing of the ministry of road transport and highways.
According to the report, speeding was the leading cause of deaths, while, in terms of vehicles, two-wheelers were involved in most road fatalities. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityIndia continued to have the most road fatalities in the world, followed by China.
Which of the following was determined by the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula?
Correct
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula.Incorrect
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following force(s) is/are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs?
1. Assam Rifles (AR)
2. Border Security Force (BSF)
3. Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains seven CAPFs: (i) the Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency, (ii) the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings, (iii) the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and (iv) four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The administrative control of the Assam Rifles is with the Ministry of Home Affairs, the operational control of Assam Rifles rests with the Ministry of Defence.Incorrect
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains seven CAPFs: (i) the Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency, (ii) the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings, (iii) the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and (iv) four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The administrative control of the Assam Rifles is with the Ministry of Home Affairs, the operational control of Assam Rifles rests with the Ministry of Defence. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following force(s) is/are under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs?
1. Border Security Force (BSF)
2. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
3. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
4. Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
: Under the Constitution, police and public order are state subjects. However, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains following CAPFs: The Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency; the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings; the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The dual control structure for Assam Rifles, which comes under both the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has been recently under judicial scrutiny.Incorrect
: Under the Constitution, police and public order are state subjects. However, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains following CAPFs: The Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency; the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings; the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The dual control structure for Assam Rifles, which comes under both the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has been recently under judicial scrutiny. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the PM CARES Fund:
1. The fund in addition to the voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations also gets a budgetary support from Union Government.
2. It can accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
With the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected, a public charitable trust under the name of ‘Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund’ (PM CARES Fund)’ has been set up.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support.
Statement 2 is correct. PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
# This is consistent with respect to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011Incorrect
With the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected, a public charitable trust under the name of ‘Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund’ (PM CARES Fund)’ has been set up.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support.
Statement 2 is correct. PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
# This is consistent with respect to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011 - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Streets for People Challenge:
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
2. It aims to create walking-friendly streets through quick measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Streets for People Challenge is an initiative of the Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Statement 2 is correct. The challenge aims to inspire cities to create walking-friendly streets through quick measures, in response to COVID-19.
As the lockdowns lift, cities face many challenges in providing safe, affordable, and equitable modes of transport that enable social distancing. Limited public transport options, narrow, crowded sidewalks particularly in market places and deterioration of mental health, are key issues that must be addressed on priority.
All cities participating in the challenge shall be encouraged to use the ‘test-learn-scale’ approach to initiate both, flagship and neighbourhood walking interventions.
The interventions can include inter alia creating pedestrian-friendly streets in high footfall areas, re-imagining under-flyover spaces, re-vitalizing dead neighbourhood spaces, and creating walking links through parks and institutional areas.
Fit India Mission, under Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, along with the India program of the Institute for Transport Development and Policy (ITDP) have partnered with the Smart Cities Mission to support the challenge.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Streets for People Challenge is an initiative of the Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Statement 2 is correct. The challenge aims to inspire cities to create walking-friendly streets through quick measures, in response to COVID-19.
As the lockdowns lift, cities face many challenges in providing safe, affordable, and equitable modes of transport that enable social distancing. Limited public transport options, narrow, crowded sidewalks particularly in market places and deterioration of mental health, are key issues that must be addressed on priority.
All cities participating in the challenge shall be encouraged to use the ‘test-learn-scale’ approach to initiate both, flagship and neighbourhood walking interventions.
The interventions can include inter alia creating pedestrian-friendly streets in high footfall areas, re-imagining under-flyover spaces, re-vitalizing dead neighbourhood spaces, and creating walking links through parks and institutional areas.
Fit India Mission, under Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, along with the India program of the Institute for Transport Development and Policy (ITDP) have partnered with the Smart Cities Mission to support the challenge. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following statement correctly defines a Zero FIR?
Correct
First Information Report (FIR) is prepared by the police based on a complaint or available information in the case of cognizable offences. The information or the complaint is provided by an informant as per Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Zero FIR is a FIR lodged in any police station irrespective of the location of incidence or jurisdiction of the police station. It is later transferred to the appropriate jurisdictional police station.
Based on the Justice Verma Committee report, the Home Ministry, in 2013, issued an advisory to all states and union territories asking the police to register Zero FIR if an informant comes with the details of a cognizable crime irrespective of the jurisdiction in order to initiate investigation at the earliest.
# Cognizable offences are those which do not require an order from magistrate, and which requires the police to take immediate action on receipt of complaint or information.Incorrect
First Information Report (FIR) is prepared by the police based on a complaint or available information in the case of cognizable offences. The information or the complaint is provided by an informant as per Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Zero FIR is a FIR lodged in any police station irrespective of the location of incidence or jurisdiction of the police station. It is later transferred to the appropriate jurisdictional police station.
Based on the Justice Verma Committee report, the Home Ministry, in 2013, issued an advisory to all states and union territories asking the police to register Zero FIR if an informant comes with the details of a cognizable crime irrespective of the jurisdiction in order to initiate investigation at the earliest.
# Cognizable offences are those which do not require an order from magistrate, and which requires the police to take immediate action on receipt of complaint or information. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Education was moved from State list to Concurrent List through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
2.Kothari Commission was set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is correct. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
Statement 2 is correct. National Education Commission also known as Kothari Commission (1964-1966) was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is correct. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
Statement 2 is correct. National Education Commission also known as Kothari Commission (1964-1966) was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Bamboo is classified as a tree under the Indian Forest Act.
2. Bamboo has potential for its use as a clean source of energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest Act 1927 says “forest produce” is what is found in or brought from a forest. This originally included bamboo as trees.
The Parliament amendment the act in 2017 to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
Statement 2 is correct. Bamboo pellets are considered reliable biomass energy sources in certain parts of the world. In terms of mass and energy density, pellets from bamboo have characteristics superior to other biomass products, such as woodchips and briquettes.
Such higher density allows for easy and cost-effective transportation and greater efficiency in energy generation with suitable properties for residential and industrial use.
# Minister of DONER at inauguration of Virtual Bamboo Exhibition stated that ‘Bamboo has great potential for its use as a clean source of energy and can also replace the single use plastic, thus promoting the environment and Climate cause in India’.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest Act 1927 says “forest produce” is what is found in or brought from a forest. This originally included bamboo as trees.
The Parliament amendment the act in 2017 to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
Statement 2 is correct. Bamboo pellets are considered reliable biomass energy sources in certain parts of the world. In terms of mass and energy density, pellets from bamboo have characteristics superior to other biomass products, such as woodchips and briquettes.
Such higher density allows for easy and cost-effective transportation and greater efficiency in energy generation with suitable properties for residential and industrial use.
# Minister of DONER at inauguration of Virtual Bamboo Exhibition stated that ‘Bamboo has great potential for its use as a clean source of energy and can also replace the single use plastic, thus promoting the environment and Climate cause in India’. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
1.It is a gender neutral law with regards to that an aggrieved person can either be male or female.
2.The act covers ‘economic abuse’ in the category of domestic violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are provided for by the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
1. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
2. National Executive Committee (NEC)
3. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Disaster Management Act was passed with the primary objective of preparedness, prevention and early planning towards disaster.
It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels. Four important entities have been placed at the national level:
–The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) tasked with laying down disaster management policies and ensuring timely and effective response mechanism.
–The National Executive Committee (NEC) comprised of secretary level officers of the Government of India assigned to assist the NDMA
–The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is an institute for planning and promoting training and research in the area of disaster management, documentation and development of national level information base relating to disaster management policies.
–National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for the purpose of specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster.Incorrect
The Disaster Management Act was passed with the primary objective of preparedness, prevention and early planning towards disaster.
It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels. Four important entities have been placed at the national level:
–The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) tasked with laying down disaster management policies and ensuring timely and effective response mechanism.
–The National Executive Committee (NEC) comprised of secretary level officers of the Government of India assigned to assist the NDMA
–The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is an institute for planning and promoting training and research in the area of disaster management, documentation and development of national level information base relating to disaster management policies.
–National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for the purpose of specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the recently amended Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 the ‘News and current affairs content on online platforms’ is under which of the following Ministry?
Correct
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
Incorrect
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityThe Central Government can designate an individual as terrorist under Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act on which of the following grounds?
1. Commits or participates in acts of terrorism
2. Promotes or encourages terrorism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it: (i) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, (ii) prepares for terrorism, (iii) promotes terrorism, or (iv) is otherwise involved in terrorism.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 additionally empowered the
government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds.Incorrect
Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it: (i) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, (ii) prepares for terrorism, (iii) promotes terrorism, or (iv) is otherwise involved in terrorism.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 additionally empowered the
government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Asol Chini’ campaign:
- It has been launched by the Government of West Bengal.
- It aims to fight fake information and rumour spreading on social media.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of Bangladesh has launched a
campaign named ‘Asol Chini’ or ‘real-sugar’.
Statement 2 is correct. Asol Chini campaign aims to fight fake information and rumour
spreading on social media. The campaign aims to create digital literacy to stop fake
information and rumours.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of Bangladesh has launched a
campaign named ‘Asol Chini’ or ‘real-sugar’.
Statement 2 is correct. Asol Chini campaign aims to fight fake information and rumour
spreading on social media. The campaign aims to create digital literacy to stop fake
information and rumours.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
- It is a gender neutral law with regards to that an aggrieved person can either be male or female.
- The act covers ‘economic abuse’ in the category of domestic violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the recently amended Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 the ‘News and current affairs content on online platforms’ is under which of the following Ministry?
Correct
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.
# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
Incorrect
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.
# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the World Conference of Speakers of Parliament 2020:
- It is being organized jointly by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) and the Parliament of Austria.
- The Loksabha Speaker from India is a participant in this first ever world conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The World Conference of Speakers of Parliament 2020 is being organized jointly by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), Geneva and the Parliament of Austria with the support of the United Nations (UN).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lok Sabha Speaker from India is a participant along with few MPs from India. This is not the first but fifth edition of the World Conference of Speakers of Parliament.
The theme of the Conference is Parliamentary leadership for more effective multilateralism that delivers peace and sustainable development for the people and planet.
The first Conference of Presiding Officers of National Parliaments took place in August 2000. The commitment of Member States for greater cooperation with the world of parliaments was embedded in the final declaration of the 2000 Summit, known as the Millennium Declaration.
Fourth World Conference of Speakers of Parliament was held in September 2015.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The World Conference of Speakers of Parliament 2020 is being organized jointly by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), Geneva and the Parliament of Austria with the support of the United Nations (UN).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lok Sabha Speaker from India is a participant along with few MPs from India. This is not the first but fifth edition of the World Conference of Speakers of Parliament.
The theme of the Conference is Parliamentary leadership for more effective multilateralism that delivers peace and sustainable development for the people and planet.
The first Conference of Presiding Officers of National Parliaments took place in August 2000. The commitment of Member States for greater cooperation with the world of parliaments was embedded in the final declaration of the 2000 Summit, known as the Millennium Declaration.
Fourth World Conference of Speakers of Parliament was held in September 2015.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the modern democracies, which of the following is/are the types of power sharing arrangements?
- Power sharing between different organs of the government.
- Power sharing among governments at different levels.
- Power sharing among different social groups.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
In modern democracies, power sharing arrangements can take many forms.
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level
- Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government.
In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Power may also be shared among different social groups, such as the religious and linguistic groups.
In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power.
In contemporary democracies this takes the form of competition among different parties.
Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
In the long run power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
Incorrect
In modern democracies, power sharing arrangements can take many forms.
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level
- Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government.
In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Power may also be shared among different social groups, such as the religious and linguistic groups.
In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power.
In contemporary democracies this takes the form of competition among different parties.
Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
In the long run power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are the example (s) of “coming together federations”?
- United States of America
- Australia
- Belgium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
This type of ‘coming together’ federations includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia.
In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal government.
The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government.
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations.
In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States
Incorrect
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
This type of ‘coming together’ federations includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia.
In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal government.
The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government.
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations.
In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States
Miscellaneous Part-2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB):
1. It is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
2. The permanent secretariat of A-WEB is located at Seoul.
3. Election Commission of India hosted the 4th General Assembly of Association of World Election Bodies (A- WEB) at Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB) is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
•It is established on October 14, 2013 in Song-do, South Korea and the permanent secretariat is located at Seoul.
• Representatives from election bodies in over 50 countries will congregate in Bengaluru to share their electoral experience with programmes connected to the Fourth General Assembly of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
• Currently, the A-WEB has 115 members and 20 regional associations/ organizations as associate members.
• The members include 24 from Asia, 37 from Africa, 31 from America, 17 from Europe, and six from Oceania.
• The ECI will continue to remain on the executive board of the A-WEB for 2021–23 in its capacity as immediate former chair of the A-WEB.Incorrect
The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB) is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
•It is established on October 14, 2013 in Song-do, South Korea and the permanent secretariat is located at Seoul.
• Representatives from election bodies in over 50 countries will congregate in Bengaluru to share their electoral experience with programmes connected to the Fourth General Assembly of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
• Currently, the A-WEB has 115 members and 20 regional associations/ organizations as associate members.
• The members include 24 from Asia, 37 from Africa, 31 from America, 17 from Europe, and six from Oceania.
• The ECI will continue to remain on the executive board of the A-WEB for 2021–23 in its capacity as immediate former chair of the A-WEB. - Question 2 of 3
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “Section 124-A” of Indian Penal Code is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The section 124-A deals with the offence of sedition, a term that covers speech or writing, or any form of visible representation, which brings the government into hatred or contempt, or excites disaffection towards the government, or attempts to do so.
• It is punishable with three years in prison or a life term. “Disaffection”, it says, includes disloyalty and feelings of enmity.
• However, it also says expressing disapproval of government measures or actions, with a view to getting them changed by lawful means, without promoting hatred or disaffection or contempt towards the government will not come under this section.
• Sedition was introduced in the penal code in 1870; a decade after the Indian Penal Code came into force. It was a colonial law directed against strong criticism of the British administration.
• Its most famous victims included Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi called it “the prince among the political sections of the IPC designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen”.
• Two high courts had found it unconstitutional after Independence, as it violated the freedom of speech and expression. The Constitution was amended to include ‘public order’ as one of the ‘reasonable restrictions’ on which free speech could be abridged by law.
• Thereafter, the Supreme Court, in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld its validity. At the same time, it limited its application to acts that involve “intention or tendency to create disorder” or incitement to violence.
• Thus, even strongly worded remarks, as long as they do not excite disloyalty and enmity, or incite violence, are not offences under this section.Incorrect
The section 124-A deals with the offence of sedition, a term that covers speech or writing, or any form of visible representation, which brings the government into hatred or contempt, or excites disaffection towards the government, or attempts to do so.
• It is punishable with three years in prison or a life term. “Disaffection”, it says, includes disloyalty and feelings of enmity.
• However, it also says expressing disapproval of government measures or actions, with a view to getting them changed by lawful means, without promoting hatred or disaffection or contempt towards the government will not come under this section.
• Sedition was introduced in the penal code in 1870; a decade after the Indian Penal Code came into force. It was a colonial law directed against strong criticism of the British administration.
• Its most famous victims included Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi called it “the prince among the political sections of the IPC designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen”.
• Two high courts had found it unconstitutional after Independence, as it violated the freedom of speech and expression. The Constitution was amended to include ‘public order’ as one of the ‘reasonable restrictions’ on which free speech could be abridged by law.
• Thereafter, the Supreme Court, in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld its validity. At the same time, it limited its application to acts that involve “intention or tendency to create disorder” or incitement to violence.
• Thus, even strongly worded remarks, as long as they do not excite disloyalty and enmity, or incite violence, are not offences under this section. - Question 3 of 3
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):
1. It is an organ of the United Nations.
2. India and China are both members to the IPU.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is the global
organization of national parliaments and not a UN organ.
It is financed primarily by Members out of public funds. Its headquarters are in Geneva,
Switzerland.
# The main organs of the UN are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic
and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the UN
Secretariat.
Statement 2 is correct. The IPU has 179 Member Parliaments out of the 193 countries in
the world – from huge nations like China, India and Indonesia, to the tiny States of Cabo
Verde, San Marino and Palau.
All parliaments can join IPU if they are lawfully established national bodies operating in
States or aspirational States recognized by the United Nations. On rare occasions, Members
are suspended due to the unconstitutional dissolution of parliament.
# Lok Sabha Speaker will lead Indian Parliamentary delegation to 206th session of Governing
Council of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) to be held from 1 to 4 November 2020.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is the global
organization of national parliaments and not a UN organ.
It is financed primarily by Members out of public funds. Its headquarters are in Geneva,
Switzerland.
# The main organs of the UN are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic
and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the UN
Secretariat.
Statement 2 is correct. The IPU has 179 Member Parliaments out of the 193 countries in
the world – from huge nations like China, India and Indonesia, to the tiny States of Cabo
Verde, San Marino and Palau.
All parliaments can join IPU if they are lawfully established national bodies operating in
States or aspirational States recognized by the United Nations. On rare occasions, Members
are suspended due to the unconstitutional dissolution of parliament.
# Lok Sabha Speaker will lead Indian Parliamentary delegation to 206th session of Governing
Council of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) to be held from 1 to 4 November 2020.