Dear Friends,

Around 2 weeks are remaining for UPSC Prelims 2022. This time period is crucial for practicing as many questions as possible to start taking the examination feel. Thus, we have created a topic-wise list of Polity questions for prelims as per the subjects.

Basics of Constitution– 2022

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Question No. 1

The Regulating Act 1773 has a great constitutional importance due to which of the following?
1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
2. It was the first step to recognize the political, economic and administrative functions of the Company.
3. It was laid the foundations of centralized administration in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C1 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 2

The Indian Constitution has been described as ‘quasi-federal’ by whom among the following?

AK.C. Wheare

BMorris Jones

CIvor Jennings

DJames Mill

✕

Question No. 3

Which of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary form of Government?
1. Minority party rule
2. Dissolution of the lower House
3. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 4

Which of the following is the ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution?

AFundamental duties

BWrits

CObjectives Resolution

DDirective Principles of State Policy

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Question No. 5

The structural part of the Indian Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from which of the following?

ABritish Constitution

BIndependence Act, 1947

CGovernment of India Act, 1935

DSoviet Union Constitution

✕

Question No. 6

Who among the following was headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas?

AJawaharlal Nehru

BB. R. Ambedkar

CSardar Vallabhai Patel

DH Kunzru

✕

Question No. 7

Which of the following words are mentioned in Objectives Resolution?
1. Sovereign
2. Residuary powers
3. Integrity
4. Justice
5. Freedom
6. World Peace
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

B2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

C1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

D1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

✕

Question No. 8

Which of the following is/are features of Charter Act of 1813?
1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India.
2. Act did not assert the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
3. It did not allow the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C1 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 9

Which of the following is/are the features of Act of Settlement, 1781?
1. It exempted the Governor-General from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity.
2. It empowered the Supreme Court to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 10

Which of the following Act distinguish the commercial and political functions of the Company?

ARegulating Act of 1773

BAct of Settlement, 1781

CPitts India Act, 1784

DRegulating act of 1793

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Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Basics of Constitution– 2021

[WpProQuiz 2561]

Basics of Constitution– 2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1942]

[WpProQuiz 2059]

Rights, Duties, and Principles-2022

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Question No. 1

Which constitutional amendment act added the provision of “State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine”?

A61st constitutional amendment act

B65th constitutional amendment act

C81st constitutional amendment act

D86th constitutional amendment act

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Question No. 2

The famous Menaka Gandhi case of 1978 was associated with which of the following Article of Indian constitution?

AArticle 15

BArticle 19

CArticle 21

DArticle 22

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Question No. 3

“No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof” – describes in which of the following Article of Indian Constitution?

AArticle 102

BArticle 103

CArticle 104

DArticle 105

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Question No. 4

Which of the following Fundamental Right is NOT available to Foreigners?

AEquality before law and equal protection of laws.

BProtection of life and personal liberty.

CRight to elementary education.

DProhibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, sex, race and caste.

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Question No. 5

Which of the following is NOT part of Right to equality?

AProhibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

BRight to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

CAbolition of titles except military and academic.

DEquality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

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Question No. 6

Article 12 has defined the term “State” for the purposes of Part III. Which of the following is/are come under the definition of State?
1. Executive organs of Union and State government.
2. Improvement trusts.
3. Legislative organs of Union and State government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 7

Which of the following is/are the features of Fundamental Rights?
1. All fundamental rights are positive in nature.
2. They are absolute and qualified in nature.
3. All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D3 only

✕

Question No. 8

Which of the following statement is NOT correct about Fundamental Rights?

AThey are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court.

BAggrieved person cannot directly go to the Supreme Court for their violation or enforcement.

CParliament can curtail or repeal fundamental rights by a constitutional amendment act.

DThey can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.

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Question No. 9

Consider the following statements regarding right to property:
1. It was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
2. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 10

Consider the following statements:
1. The original constitution consists of six fundamental rights.
2. The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.
3. The framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of France to incorporate fundamental rights in Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

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Question No. 1

Arrange the following acts in chronological order?
1. The Minimum Wages Act
2. The Payment of Wages Act
3. The Payment of Bonus Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 2 3

B2 1 3

C2 3 1

D1 3 2

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Question No. 2

“Article 51A” of Indian Constitution is associated with?

ARatification of International Conventions

BWild Life Protection

CFundamental Duties

DWorld Peace

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Question No. 3

Which of the following committee fundamental duties in Indian constitution set up by the government to make recommendations about fundamental duties?

ASarkaria Committee

BFazl ali committee

CSwaran Singh committee

DPunchhi Commission

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Question No. 4

Which of the following directive principles is/are added under 42nd constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
1. To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
3. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 5

Which amendment act was added the directive principle of cooperative societies?

A65th Amendment Act

B86th Amendment Act

C91st Amendment Act

D97th Amendment Act

✕

Question No. 6

Which of the following provisions are covered under Article 39 of Directive Principles of State policy?
1. The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good.
2. Opportunities for healthy development of children.
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 7

“To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government” – is described in which of the following Article?

AArticle 36

BArticle 37

CArticle 38

DArticle 40

✕

Question No. 8

Which of the following provisions of Indian Constitution embody the concept of a welfare state?

AFundamental Rights

BDirective Principles of State Policy

CFundamental duties

DPreamble

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Question No. 9

Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution says that directive principles are fundamental in the governance of the country?

AArticle 37

BArticle 42

CArticle 48

DArticle 51

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Question No. 10

Which of the following are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935?

AFundamental Rights

BFundamental duties

CDirective Principles of State Policy

DObjective Resolution

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Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

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Total Wrong :

Rights, Duties, and Principles-2021

[WpProQuiz 2567]

[WpProQuiz 2565]

Rights, Duties, and Principles– 2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1943]

[WpProQuiz 2062]

Legislature-2022

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Question No. 1

Consider the following statements:
1. The process of summoning the Parliament has specified in the Constitution.
2. According to rules of business of Parliament, India has a fixed Parliamentary calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 2

Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum members of state legislature are fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 50.
2. The Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

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Question No. 3

Which of the following state does NOT have bicameral legislature?

ATelangana

BMaharashtra

CKarnataka

DOdisha

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Question No. 4

Consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber and not subject to dissolution.
2. Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber and subjected to dissolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

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Question No. 5

Part VI of Indian Constitution is deals with which of the following?

AUnion Territories

BState Legislature

CScheduled Languages

DCitizenship

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Question No. 6

Article 112 of Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?

AQualifications of Members of Rajya Sabha

BQuorum

CAnnual Financial Statement

DOrdinance passed by President

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Question No. 7

Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the age of voter from 21 to 18?

A35th Constitutional Amendment

B42nd Constitutional Amendment

C48th Constitutional Amendment

D61st Constitutional Amendment

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Question No. 8

Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
1. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
2. All states are equally represented in Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following consists of Parliament?
1. The President
2. The Lok Sabha
3. The Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3  

✕

Question No. 10

Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution lays down qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
2. The member of a state legislature must be not less than 35 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Legislature-2021

[WpProQuiz 2577]

Legislature-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1944]

[WpProQuiz 2063]

Executive-2022

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Correct Answer : 2

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Question No. 1

Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
2. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
1. The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a Council of State as a second chamber.
2. The allocation of seats for Rajya Sabha is made on the basis of the population of each State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 3

Which of the following committee/committees comes under the Standing Committees to scrutinize and control of Rajya Sabha?
1. Ethics Committee
2. Committee on Government assurances.
3. Committee on subordinate legislation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 4

Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary legislation in the state field:
1. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution to make laws on the state list.
2. Such resolution should be passed by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 5

Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is not fixed and it can be changed after every delimitation.
2. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 6

“Part V” of Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?

ACitizenship

BFundamental Rights

CParliament

DDirective principles of State Policy

✕

Question No. 7

Which of the following cabinet committees are headed by Prime Minister?
1. The Political Affairs Committee
2. The Economic Affairs Committee
3. The Parliamentary Affairs Committee
4. The Appointment Committee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1, 2 and 3 only

B2, 3 and 4 only

C1, 2 and 4 only

D1, 2, 3 and 4

✕

Question No. 8

Which of the following Cabinet Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs?

AThe Political Affairs Committee

BThe Cabinet Committee on Security

CThe Economic Affairs Committee

DThe Appointment Committee

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Question No. 9

With reference to the Cabinet, which of the following role/roles is/are played by Cabinet?
1. It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
2. It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
3. It is the chief coordinator of Central administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 10

Consider the following statements:
1. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion ministers from both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Executive-2021

[WpProQuiz 2579]

Executive-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1949]

Judiciary-2022

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Time Left :5

Question No. 1

“Article 143” of the Constitution of India is often seen in news is related with which of the following?

AOriginal Jurisdiction

BWrit Jurisdiction

CAdvisory Jurisdiction

DA Court of Record

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Question No. 2

Which of the following is/are come (s) under appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
1. Appeals in criminal matters
2. Appeal by special leave
3. Appeals in civil matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 3

Which of the following dispute (s) is/are considered under Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
1. Between the Centre and one or more states.
2. Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side.
3. Between State and High court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 4

The Integrated system of courts is adopted from which of the following?

AJapanese Constitution

BAustralian Constitution

CAmerican Constitution

DGovernment of India Act, 1935

✕

Question No. 5

Which of the following statement is NOT correct about “Attorney General of India”?

AArticle 76 has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.

BHe is the highest law officer in the country.

CHe must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.

DHe is appointed by appointment committee.

✕

Question No. 6

Consider the following statements regarding the “Lok adalat”:
1. It has been given the status of a civil court.
2. Its awards are challenged before any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 7

Article 131 of Indian Constitution is often seen in news is related to which of the following?

AOriginal jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

BAppellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in civil matters.

CAppellate jurisdiction of the high court in appeals from district Courts in criminal matters.

DJurisdiction and powers of the federal court under existing law to be exercisable by the Supreme Court.

✕

Question No. 8

Consider the following statements regarding the “National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)”:
1. It was established by executive resolution.
2. It was constituted to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications of Supreme Court Judge:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have been a Judge of a High Court for 7 years.
3. He should have been Advocate of a High Court for 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C1, 2 and 3

D1 and 3 only

✕

Question No. 10

The concept of “Public Interest Litigation” was first time introduced in which of the following country?

ANew Zealand

BBritain

CUnited States of America

DFrance

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Judiciary-2021

[WpProQuiz 2581]

Judiciary-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1945]

[WpProQuiz 2064]

Various Bodies-2022

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Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Question No. 1

With Reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home affairs.
2. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 2

Which of the following country created first Ombudsman Institution?

AAustralia

BNew Zealand

CSweden

DNorway

✕

Question No. 3

The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act were passed in which of the following year?

A2010

B2011

C2012

D2013

✕

Question No. 4

Which of the following agency would take up the case against corruption under Whistle Blower Resolution?

ACentral Vigilance Commission

BCentral Bureau of Investigation

CCrime Investigation Department of Concerned state

DNational Human Rights Commission

✕

Question No. 5

The Central Vigilance Commission was established under the recommendation of which of the following?

APunchi Commission

BVenkata Chellaih Committee

CSanthanam Committee

DSecond ARC commission

✕

Question No. 6

With reference to the functions of National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation.
2. To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
3. To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 7

With reference to the Central Information Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was constituted through under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
2. It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than five Information Commissioners.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 8

With reference to the National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The chairperson of the commission should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. The chairperson and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of appointment committee.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

Consider the following statements:
1. The National Human Rights Commission is a non constitutional body.
2. The commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 10

Consider the following statements:
1. NITI Aayog was established through executive resolution.
2. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Various Bodies-2021

[WpProQuiz 2587]

[WpProQuiz 2583]

Various Bodies-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1946]

Centre State Relations and Emergency Provisions-2022

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Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Question No. 1

Consider the following statements about Finance Commission:
1. It is a quasi-Judicial body.
2. It is required to make recommendations to parliament with respect to distribution of proceeding of taxes between centre and states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 2

Consider the following statements about Sarkaria Commission:
1. It was formed to review the foreign policy of India.
2. It was in favor of structural changes with respect to foreign policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 3

Which among the following is not a constitutional body?

AFinance Commission

BInter-State Council

CZonal Council

DElection Commission

✕

Question No. 4

Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils:
1. Zonal Councils was established under the State Reorganization Act, 1956.
2. The Act divided the country into five zones namely, northern, central, eastern, western, and southern.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 5

Consider the following statements:
1. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects is vested in the Parliament.
2. The residuary power of legislation does not include the power to levy residuary taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 6

The Punchhi Commission report was related to which among the following?

ACentre-State Relations

BFiscal Federalism

CElectoral Reforms

DCreation of new states

✕

Question No. 7

The funds under Statutory Grants to the states are charged upon which of the following?

AConsolidated Fund of India

BContingency Fund of India

CPublic Accounts of India

DBoth A & B

✕

Question No. 8

consider the following statements:
1. The Congress government headed by P. V. Narasimha Rao established the Inter-State Council in 1990.
2. The Inter – State council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre–state and Centre–union territories relations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State council:
1. Article 262 of Indian Constitution provisions for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
2. Parliament can establish such a council by passing a law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 10

Which State Appointed Rajamannar Committee to give recommendations on Inter-State Relation?

AMaharashtra

BTamil Nadu

CAndhra Pradesh

DKerala

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

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Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Question No. 1

Consider the following statements regarding “President’s Rule”:
1. It should be approved by both houses of the Parliament.
2. Maximum period of President’s rule is 3 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 2

“The power conferred on the President by this article (Article 352) shall include the power to issue different Proclamations on different grounds, being war or external aggression or internal disturbance …. whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation” – this provision was added by which amendment act?

A38th Amendment Act of 1975

B42nd Amendment Act 1976

C44th Amendment Act 1978

D56th Amendment Act 1987

✕

Question No. 3

Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:
1. President proclaims a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
2. President can declare a national emergency only on the actual occurrence of war or external aggression.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 4

Consider the following statements regarding financial emergency:
1. The Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked, if it is approved by both houses.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency should be passed by both Houses of Parliament by special majority.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 5

Which of the following provisions/features is/are consider as Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution?
1. Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.
2. Unity and integrity of nation.
3. Freedom and dignity of individual.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 6

In which of the following cases Supreme Court used the power of Judicial Review?
1. The Golaknath case
2. The Privy Purses Abolition case
3. The Minerva Mills case
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 7

Consider the following statements:
1. During emergency, Central government converts the federal structure into a unitary one by an amendment of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 8

Which of the following amendment/amendments is/are NOT comes under Article 368?
1. Simple Majority
2. Special Majority
3. Special Majority with half of the states ratification
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 and 2 only

B1 only

C2 and 3 only

D1 and 3 only

✕

Question No. 9

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution:
1. An amendment of the Constitution cannot be initiated in the state legislature.
2. The constitutional amendment bill cannot be introduced by a private member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 10

Which of the following provisions is/are amended by simple majority of Parliament?
1. Delimitation of Constituencies.
2. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
3. Union territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Centre State Relations and Emergency Provisions-2021

[WpProQuiz 2573]

[WpProQuiz 2569]

Centre State Relations and Emergency Provisions-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1947]

[WpProQuiz 2065]

[WpProQuiz 2069]

[WpProQuiz 2070]

Election and Related Issues-2022

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Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Question No. 1

With reference to the election petitions, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Only candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
2. An election petition is not an ordinary civil suit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 2

With reference to the voting procedure, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Polling stations should be within the distance of five kilometers of the voter.
2. Each polling station is open for at least twelve hours on the day of the election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 3

Consider the following statements:
1. Model code lays down broad guidelines as to how the political parties and candidates should conduct themselves during the election campaign.
2. Model code of Conduct is prepared by judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 4

The official campaign of elections ends before in how many hours?

A12 hours

B24 hours

C48 hours

D72 hours

✕

Question No. 5

With reference to the schedule of elections, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Constitution states that there can be no longer than one year between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the new House.
2. The formal process for the elections starts with the issuance of election notification.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 6

With reference to the time of elections, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Elections for the Lok Sabha and every state Legislative Assembly have to take place every five years, unless called earlier.
2. The Central Cabinet can dissolve Lok Sabha and call a General Election before five years is up.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 7

“Article 323B” of Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?

ASpecial officer for Linguistic minorities

BTribunal for the adjudication of election disputes

CCentral Administrative Tribunal

DInterstate Council

✕

Question No. 8

Consider the following statements:
1. There is to be only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to the Parliament and the state legislatures.
2. Any person can claim to be included in any special electoral roll for any constituency on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex or any of them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

“Article 324” of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?

ATribunals

BFinance and Suits

CElections

DTribal Languages

✕

Question No. 10

The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections. Which of the following bodies/personalities is/are comes under the mandate of Election Commission?
1. The Parliament
2. The President
3. Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Election and Related Issues-2021

[WpProQuiz 2589]

Election and Related Issues-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1948]

Governance and its legislations, initiatives-2022

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Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Time Left :5

Question No. 1

The “Gender Social Norms Index” is released by which of the following institution?

AUnited Nations Environment Programme

BUNESCO

CWEF

DUnited Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

✕

Question No. 2

The task of coordination, formulation, and operationalization of citizen’s charters are done by?

ADepartment of Justice and Legal affairs

BDepartment of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

CDepartment of Personnel

DDepartment of Social Welfare

✕

Question No. 3

“Sevottam model” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?

APublic Service Delivery

BCorruption

CCode of Ethics for public servants

DSustainable Development Goals

✕

Question No. 4

The Corruption Perception Index is released by which of the following?

ATax Justice Network

BWorld Bank

CTransparency International

DWorld Economic Forum

✕

Question No. 5

The “Global Social Mobility Index” is released by which of the following International Institution?

AAsian Development Bank

BUnited Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

CWorld Economic Forum (WEF)

DWorld Bank

✕

Question No. 6

The term Principle of Non-Refoulement often seen in news is related to which of the following?

AEconomic offender

BRefugees

CRight to property

DRight to Information

✕

Question No. 7

Section 12(5) of Right to Information Act is often seen in news is related to?

AMaintain and proactively disclose information

BPublic Authorities

CPrescribes simple procedure for securing information

DQualifications of Commissioners of RTI

✕

Question No. 8

With reference to the recent amendments to Right to Information bill, 2019, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The term of the central Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners will be prescribed by Central Government.
2. The salaries, allowances and other terms of service of the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners shall be such as may be determined by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

“Information is the currency of democracy” – was described by which of the following?

AJohn Marshall

BAdam Smith

CDavid Ricardo

DThomas Jefferson

✕

Question No. 10

The right to information movement in India began with which of the following movement?

AMazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) movement

BAppiko movement

CChipko movement

DNarmada Bachao Andholan (NBA)

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Start Quiz

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Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Question No. 1

The “eShakti” initiative, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?

ASelf Help Groups (SHG)

BWomen Contingent force to deal with girl child trafficking

CMerit scholarship for girls

DWomen Scientist programme

✕

Question No. 2

Which of the following pension scheme (s) is/are NOT run by the Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority (PFRDA)?
1. National Pension System (NPS)
2. Atal Pension Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 3

Consider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. It exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants.
2. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 4

Consider the following statements regarding the “Law Commission of India”:
1. It is a non – statutory body.
2. It is constituted for every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 5

Consider the following statements regarding the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
1. It was established under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
2. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 6

“COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training)” is developed by Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) with the help of which of the following?

AWorld Bank

BUNESCO

CWorld Trade Organization

DUnited Nations Development Programme

✕

Question No. 7

Consider the following statements regarding the Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS):
1. It is a web based application created by the Department of Legal Affairs.
2. It is applicable to civil cases only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 8

Consider the following statements:
1. e-Pramaan provides a simple, convenient and secure way for the users to access government services via internet/mobile.
2. e-Pramaan is a National e-Authentication service offered by DeitY.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 9

Which of the following is the first state in India to operationalise a law that makes social audit of government programmes and schemes a part of government practice?

AMeghalaya

BAssam

CAndhra Pradesh

DKerala

✕

Question No. 10

Consider the following statements regarding the Open Government Data Platform India:
1. It is used to publish datasets, documents, services, tools and applications collected by Government of India Ministries/ Departments for public use.
2. It is a joint initiative of Government of India and Singapore Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Governance and its legislations, initiatives-2021

[WpProQuiz 2597]

[WpProQuiz 2593]

Governance and its legislations, initiatives-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 2071]

Miscellaneous-2022

Start Quiz

Marking Pattern

Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Time Left :5

Question No. 1

The “Section 124-A” of Indian Penal Code is often seen in news is related to which of the following?

APrivacy

BDomestic abuse

CSedition

DExtra marital affairs

✕

Question No. 2

Consider the following statements regarding to Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalaya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
1. Scheme was launched by Ministry of Rural Development in 2014.
2. Scheme aim is to transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 3

Which of the following is/are functional items of “Eleventh Schedule”?
1. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry.
2. Food processing industries.
3. Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C1 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 4

Consider the following statements regarding the Higher Education Financing Agency (HEFA):
1. It is a non-profit, Non Banking Financing Company (NBFC).
2. All Centrally Funded Educational Institutions in Higher Education, School Education and Medical Education sectors are eligible to avail of loans through HEFA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B2 only

CBoth 1 and 2

DNeither 1 nor 2

✕

Question No. 5

Which of the following is/are functional items of “Twelfth Schedule”?
1. Planning for economic and social development.
2. Fire services.
3. Fisheries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C1 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 6

Ayushman Sahakar, a scheme to assist cooperatives in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country was launched by which of the following?

AMinistry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

BMinistry of Finance

CMinistry of Health & Family Welfare

DMinistry of Home Affairs

✕

Question No. 7

The “Recognition of Prior Learning” is the component of which of the following scheme?

AMahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

BPrime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme

CPradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

DNational Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana

✕

Question No. 8

Consider the following pairs:
List: Subject
1. Union List:Electricity
2. State List:Regulation of mines and mineral development
3. Concurrent List:Public health
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 9

With reference to the PRADHAN MANTRI AWAS YOJANA (GRAMEEN), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was launched in 2018.
2. Beneficiaries are identified through Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) data.
3. Funds under PMAY-G are given in a single installment, directly into the bank account of beneficiary.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B2 and 3 only

C2 only

D1 and 2 only

✕

Question No. 10

With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It Provide 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural unskilled labour.
2. Mandatory Social Audit for MGNREGA works.
3. 50:50 division of scheme allocation between wage and material.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Start Quiz

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Correct Answer : 2

Wrong Answer : -0.66

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Time Left :5

Question No. 1

“Kudumbashree” programme often seen in news is associated with which of the following state?

AUttar Pradesh

BKerala

CAndhra Pradesh

DKarnataka

✕

Question No. 2

The Time to Care report (Wealth Inequality), sometimes in news was released by which of the following?

AOxfam International

BUNESCO

CWorld Bank

DUNDP

✕

Question No. 3

Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Government to Consumer (G2C) initiativeState
1. e-Seva:Andhra Pradesh
2. Friends :Haryana
3. Lok-mitra project:Punjab
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D3 only

✕

Question No. 4

Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:
1. The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age.
2. It is a gender neutral law.
3. It recognizes consensual sexual acts among children or between a child and an adult.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 5

Under which of the following act/acts Non – Governmental Organizations is/are registered?
1. Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860
2. Religious Endowments Act, 1863
3. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A1 only

B1 and 2 only

C2 and 3 only

D1, 2 and 3

✕

Question No. 6

The Self Help Group (SHG) Bank Linkage Project was launched by which of the following?

AIndian Banks Bureau

BRegional Rural Banks

CNational Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

DMicro Finance Institutions

✕

Question No. 7

Foreign funding of voluntary organizations in India is regulated under which of the following act?

AForeign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010

BSocieties Registration Act, 1860

CForeign Investment regulation Act, 1988

DCompetition Commission of India Act, 2002

✕

Question No. 8

Which of the following was the first state to pass legislation on Social Audit?

AKerala

BAndhra Pradesh

CTripura

DMeghalaya

✕

Question No. 9

Which of the following are the criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule?
1. Preponderance of tribal population.
2. Compactness and reasonable size of the area.
3. Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighboring areas.
4. A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1, 2, 3 and 4

B2, 3 and 4 only

C1, 2 and 3 only

D1, 3 and 4 only

✕

Question No. 10

The “Empowered Action Group (EAG) States” often seen in news, which of the following states are under EAG?
1. Uttarakhand
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Jharkhand
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Chhattisgarh
6. Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

B1, 2, 4 and 5 only

C2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

D1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

✕

Total Number of Questions :

Total Not Attempted Questions :

Total Correct :

Total Wrong :

Miscellaneous-2021

[WpProQuiz 2605]

Miscellaneous-2020 and Before that

[WpProQuiz 1950]

[WpProQuiz 2068]