UPSC has successfully conducted the 1st session of the Civil Services Prelims Exam (CSE) for 2024. Now students would start waiting for the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2024 for GS 1, to match their answers and take a guess on their future course of action. Therefore, we have come up with the UPSC Prelims answer key 2024 in the PDF format. You can either download the PDF or check your answer here only.
UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT Answer Key with Detailed Solutions
For PDF of the given answer keys, please use the following buttons:
| UPSC Prelims 2024 – GS 1 and CSAT Question Papers | Download PDF |
Check Answer key for all sets, in the below given table:
| Q. No. | SET A | SET B | SET C | SET D |
| 1 | d | d | a | d |
| 2 | a | c | d | a |
| 3 | d | d | a | b |
| 4 | a | d | b | d |
| 5 | c | b | c | c |
| 6 | b | c | c | d |
| 7 | a | b | d | d |
| 8 | b | c | d | c |
| 9 | a | d | b | a |
| 10 | b | a | b | c |
| 11 | a | b | c | d |
| 12 | a | d | d | a |
| 13 | d | a | c | c |
| 14 | c | c | b | c |
| 15 | d | d | b | b |
| 16 | b | d | d | d |
| 17 | d | d | b | a |
| 18 | b | c | a | c |
| 19 | c | d | c | d |
| 20 | c | c | d | a |
| 21 | c | a | d | c |
| 22 | a | a | a | d |
| 23 | d | d | b | c |
| 24 | a | c | d | b |
| 25 | a | d | c | b |
| 26 | a | b | d | d |
| 27 | d | d | d | b |
| 28 | a | b | c | a |
| 29 | c | c | a | c |
| 30 | a | c | c | d |
| 31 | b | d | d | a |
| 32 | d | a | a | c |
| 33 | a | d | c | d |
| 34 | c | a | c | b |
| 35 | d | c | b | b |
| 36 | d | b | d | a |
| 37 | d | a | a | b |
| 38 | c | b | c | b |
| 39 | d | a | d | a |
| 40 | c | b | a | c |
| 41 | d | c | a | a |
| 42 | c | a | c | d |
| 43 | d | d | d | a |
| 44 | d | a | b | b |
| 45 | b | a | b | c |
| 46 | c | a | a | c |
| 47 | b | d | b | d |
| 48 | c | a | b | d |
| 49 | d | c | a | b |
| 50 | a | a | c | b |
| 51 | a | a | d | d |
| 52 | c | d | c | a |
| 53 | d | a | d | d |
| 54 | b | b | d | a |
| 55 | b | c | b | c |
| 56 | a | c | c | b |
| 57 | b | d | b | a |
| 58 | b | d | c | b |
| 59 | a | b | d | a |
| 60 | c | b | a | b |
| 61 | d | c | b | c |
| 62 | a | d | d | a |
| 63 | c | c | a | d |
| 64 | c | b | c | a |
| 65 | b | b | d | a |
| 66 | d | d | d | a |
| 67 | a | a | d | d |
| 68 | c | a | c | a |
| 69 | d | c | d | c |
| 70 | a | d | c | a |
| 71 | d | d | c | a |
| 72 | a | a | a | a |
| 73 | b | c | d | d |
| 74 | d | c | a | c |
| 75 | c | b | a | d |
| 76 | d | d | a | b |
| 77 | d | a | d | d |
| 78 | c | c | a | b |
| 79 | a | d | c | c |
| 80 | c | a | a | c |
| 81 | c | a | a | d |
| 82 | d | c | a | c |
| 83 | c | d | d | d |
| 84 | b | b | c | d |
| 85 | b | b | d | b |
| 86 | d | a | b | c |
| 87 | b | b | d | b |
| 88 | a | b | b | c |
| 89 | c | a | c | d |
| 90 | d | c | c | a |
| 91 | a | d | d | b |
| 92 | d | a | a | d |
| 93 | a | b | d | a |
| 94 | b | d | a | c |
| 95 | c | c | c | d |
| 96 | c | d | b | d |
| 97 | d | d | a | d |
| 98 | d | c | b | c |
| 99 | b | a | a | d |
| 100 | b | c | b | c |
or you can check the question wise answer of the Prelims questions, provided below:
UPSC Prelims Answer key 2024 with Explanation (GS Paper 1)
Q.1) Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II : There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Bothe Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Sahel region of Africa is a 3,860-kilometre arc-like land mass lying to the immediate south of the Sahara Desert and stretching east-west across the breadth of the African continent. The Sahel region encompasses through parts of Mauritania, Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Nigeria, Chad, Sudan and Eritrea.
Statement I correct. There has been growing instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region of Africa. For example, in 2022, conflict-related fatalities in these countries increased by over 40 percent. The deterioration of the security situation over the past decade has caused a humanitarian crisis, with more than 3 million people fleeing violence in Burkina Faso, Mali, and Niger, according to UNHCR.
Statement II is correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
The area has also seen a high prevalence of coups d’état, with military juntas currently ruling in Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad, and Sudan.
Over the last three years, the African Sahel region has witnessed a wave of coups d’état in seven countries. Five military coups in five countries, in Mali, Burkina Faso, Guinea, Niger, and Gabon, while two other nations— Chad, and Sudan—had constitutional coups. For instance, Mali had two coups, in 2020 and 2021. Burkina Faso also had a coup in January 2022. In July-August 2023, Niger experienced a military coup, ousting the democratically elected President. All these coups had led to security and economic failures in the region and had led to growing instability.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/what-is-behind-the-coup-in-niger/article67139573.ece
Q.2) Consider the following statement :
Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect. India does import apples from the United States of America. Recently, India decided to remove additional duties on import of eight US products, including apples. The import of apples from USA was to the value of US$ 5.27 million (4,486 Ton) in FY 2022-23.
Statement II is correct. In India, Genetically Modified Food can be imported only with the approval of the competent authority. Import of food products is regulated under the Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSAI), 2006. Indian Customs can clear food products including Genetically Modified (GM) food products only after necessary approval/No Objection Certificate (NOC) by FSSAI. The Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006 prohibits import, manufacture, use or sale of GM food without FSSAI’s approval.
Q.3) With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
- He/She shall not preside.
- He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. When any resolution for the removal of a Lok Sabha is under consideration, he cannot preside at the sitting of the Lok Sabha. However, he may be present in the house.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When any resolution for the removal of a Lok Sabha is under consideration, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House.
Statement 3 is incorrect. When any resolution for the removal of a Lok Sabha is under consideration, he is entitled to vote in the first instance and not in the case of an equality of votes.
Q.4) With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution
- A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, a bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
Statement 2 is correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
Statement 3 is incorrect. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, a bill does not lapse if the President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
Source: Laxmikant 4th edition Chapter 22 Parliament
Q.5) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statement :
- Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India Prorogating the House which is in session.
- Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President may from time to time prorogue Houses or either House of Parliament. Termination of a session of the House by an Order by the President under the above constitutional provision is called ‘prorogation’. The President exercises this power of Prorogation of the Houses only on the recommendation of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet i.e. the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct. Prorogation normally follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die. The time-lag between the adjournment of the House sine die and its prorogation is generally two to four days. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.
Statement 3 is correct. The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
Source: Laxmikant 4th edition Chapter 22 Parliament
Q.6) Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of tis own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. The European Parliament has recently approved the Net-Zero Industry Act to enhance net-zero technology production within the European Union.
Statement II is incorrect. The European Union aims to be climate-neutral by 2050 – an economy with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions. It is part of the European Green Deal and is a legally binding target.
The Act sets a target for the European Union to produce 40 percent of its annual needs for net-zero-emitting technologies by 2030, based on national energy and climate plans (NREAPs) that each state will have to develop. It also aims to achieve 15 percent of the global market value for such technologies. The act aims to ensure that the bloc produces 40% of its solar panels, wind turbines, heat pumps and other clean tech equipment by 2030.
Q.7) Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect. The ongoing socioeconomic and political crisis in Venezuela is marked by hyperinflation, escalating starvation, disease, crime and mortality rates. This has resulted in massive emigration from the country. The situation is believed to be by far the worst economic crisis in Venezuela’s history. According to the national Living Conditions Survey (ENCOVI), by 2021-94.5% of the population was living in poverty based on income. Out of this 76.6% lived in extreme poverty.
Statement II is correct. Venezuela is currently the country with the largest proven oil reserves in the world, with an estimated 300 billion barrels of oil.
Q.8) With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :
- To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
- Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized.
- An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (erstwhile National Land Record Modernization Programme-) was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April of 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre.
Statement 2 is correct. The main components of the programme are:
(i) Setting up of Modern Record Room
(ii) Survey/re-survey
(iii) Data entry/re-entry
(iv) Digitization of cadastral Maps/FMBs/Tippans
(v) State Level Data Centre
(vi) Computerization of Registration process
(vii) DILRMP Cell
(vii) PMU
(xi) Evaluation Studies, IEC and Training
(x) Core GIS/Software Applications.
Statement 3 is correct. One of the innovative initiatives under Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme is Transliteration of Land Records in all languages of Schedule VIII in all States/UTs. In order to address the problem of linguistic barriers in land governance, the Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1947654
Q.9) With reference to the ‘Pradhan Manti Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:
- This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
- Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialties can volunteer to provide service at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan has been launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India. The program aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care, free of cost, universally to all pregnant women.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the campaign, a minimum package of antenatal care services is to be provided to the beneficiaries on the 9th day of every month in the 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy. The programme aims to reach out to all Pregnant Women who are in the 2nd & 3rd Trimesters of pregnancy. The services can be availed at Primary Health Centers, Community Health Centers, Rural Hospitals, Sub – District Hospital – District Hospital – Medical College Hospital.
However, the scheme does not guarantee six months post-delivery care.
Statement 2 is correct. The programme also invites active participation from private practitioners on a voluntary basis. Obstetricians/ physicians from private sector and retired OBGY specialists are encouraged to provide voluntary services at designated public health facilities on the 9th of every month.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/health/health-campaigns/pradhan-mantri-surakshit-matritva-abhiyan
Q.10) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements :
- The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
- Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
- Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
- Family pension is applicable to the spouse the unmarried daughters.
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In order to provide old age protection to unorganised sector workers, the Government of India had launched Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM) in 2019. The Life Insurance Corporation of India is the fund manager of the scheme.
This is a voluntary and co-contributory pension scheme.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The workers in the age group of 18-40 years whose monthly income is Rs. 15000/- or less can join the scheme.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the scheme, 50% of monthly contribution varies between Rs. 55/- to Rs. 200/- depending upon the entry age is payable by the beneficiary and equal matching contribution is paid by the Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct. The scheme aims to provide a monthly pension of Rs. 3000/- after attaining the age of 60 years to unorganized workers.
Statement 4 is incorrect. If the beneficiary dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1944374
Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’ :
- Provisions will come into effect from 18th Lok Sabha.
- This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
- There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In September 2023, history was made with Parliament passing the Women’s Reservation Bill called the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam. The bill seeks to reserve one-third of the total number of seats for women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Assembly. The allocation of reserved seats shall be determined by such authority as prescribed by Parliament.
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the provisions of the Bill, the reservation is set to be enforced following the publication of a new census and the completion of the delimitation exercise. Furthermore, it’s important to note that for the bill to be fully ratified, it necessitates approval from a minimum of 50% of the states.
Statement 2 is correct. Reservation of seats for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of this Amendment Act.
Statement 3 is correct. The Bill provides that One-third of the total number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be reserved for women of those groups in the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies.
https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-constitution-one-hundred-twenty-eighth-amendment-bill-2023
Q.12) Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
- This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
- It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
- Joint response during counter-terrorism operation was a goal of this operation.
- Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023 is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka (not India and Bangladesh).
Statement 2 is correct. The ninth edition of Joint Military exercise “Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023” commenced in Aundh (Pune).
Statement 3 is correct. The Scope of the exercise includes synergizing joint responses during counter-terrorist operations. Both sides practiced tactical actions such as raid, search and destroy missions, heliborne operations, etc. In addition, Army Martial Arts Routine (AMAR), combat reflex shooting and Yoga will also form part of the exercise curriculum.
Statement 4 is correct. 15 personnel from Indian Air Force and five personnel from Sri Lankan Air Force participated in the exercise.
Q.13) A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
c) the lower prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Prohibition means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
Source: M. Laxmikant 4th Edition (Chapter 7 Fundamental Rights and Chapter 25 Supreme Court)
Q.14) Consider the following statements :
- It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that Sates as a Scheduled Tribe.
- A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 342 of the Constitution of India, the President (not the Governor of the state) may, with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the Governor of the state specify the community who is deemed to be scheduled tribes in relation to that state or Union Territory.
Statement 2 is correct. Supreme Court of India has clarified through various judgements that a community declared as Scheduled Tribe on one state need not to be so in another state.
Source: Laxmikant
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2023/05/2023050195.pdf (Constitution Bare Act-Article 342)
https://socialjustice.gov.in/writereaddata/UploadFile/guide-certificate636017830879050722.pdf
https://www.deccanherald.com/india/st-of-one-state-can’t-claim-benefits-of-job-education-or-land-in-another-sc-1068347.html
Q.15) With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
- The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 112 of the Constitution says that the President of India (not the Prime Minister of India) shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament an “annual financial statement”. So, the finance minister lays the budget in the Parliament on behalf of the President.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 113 says that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Source: Laxmikant
https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/COI…pdf
Q.16) Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
a) Bhupender Yadav
b) Nalin Mehta
c) Shashi Tharoor
d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct. The India way and Why Bharat Matters are authored by Subrahmanyam Jaishankar.
Q.17) Consider the following pairs:
| Country | Reason for being in the news |
| 1. Argentina | Worst economic crisis |
| 2. Sudan | War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces |
| 3. Turkey | Rescinded its membership of NATO |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) All three pairs
d) None of the pairs
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. Argentina has been experiencing one of its worst economic crises in recent history, marked by several key issues like inflation, recession, currency devaluation, debt etc.
Pair 2 is correct. In Sudan fighting has erupted between the regular army and a paramilitary force called the Rapid Support Forces (RSF). It is a direct result of a vicious power struggle within the country’s military leadership.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Turkey is currently the member of NATO and has not rescinded its membership.
https://www.ft.com/content/14febdd5-5c3a-426b-a735-8c37497cd335
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-africa-65284948
Q.18) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and Natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. The SUMED pipeline is strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe and North America.
Statement II is correct and is the correct explanation of statement-I. SUMED pipeline is located in Egypt and connect the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea which works as a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe and North America.
Q.19) Consider the following statements:
- The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
- No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. The majority of the Red Sea coastline, both east and west, receives less than 250 mm of rainfall annually and is therefore classified as desert.
Statement 2 is correct. The Red Sea exchanges its water only with the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean. Unlike most seas, no rivers flow into it.
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7043373/
https://humanidades.com/en/red-sea/#ixzz8dId1sJ1B
Q.20) According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of Sulphur dioxide emissions?
a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
b) Ships using fossil fuels
c) Extraction of metals from ores
d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)’s national ambient air quality standards for SO2 are designed to protect against exposure to the entire group of sulfur oxides (SOx). The largest sources of SO2 emissions are from fossil fuel combustion at power plants and other industrial facilities.
Q.21) How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Option d is correct. Delimitation means the process of fixing the number of seats and boundaries of territorial constituencies in each State for the Lok Sabha and Legislative assemblies. The Union government creates the Delimitation Commission once the Delimitation Act is in effect. Under the Delimitation Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972, and 2002, Delimitation Commissions were established four times- in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002. The commission was not created after the 1981 and 1991 Censuses.
Source: https://forumias.com/blog/upsc-current-affairs-news/delimitation-exercise-explained-pointwise/
Q.22) The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
- Konkani
- Manipuri
- Nepali
- Maithili
Select the correct using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992 in the eighth schedule of the Constitution.
Q.23) Consider the following pairs:
| Party | Its Leader |
| 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee |
| 2. Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari |
| 3. Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram |
| 4. Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev |
How many of the above are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee founded Bharatiya Jana Sangh on 21st Oct. 1951 at Delhi and he became its first President.
Pair 2 is incorrect. C. Rajagopalachari parted ways with the Congress in 1957 after being disillusioned by the path it was taking. He founded the Swatantra Party in 1959, which favoured classical liberal principles and free enterprise.
Pair 3 is correct. Babu Jagjivan Ram resigned from the Cabinet and the Congress Party on 2 February 1977. He formed his own party, ‘Congress for Democracy’ (CFD) on 5 February 1977.
Pair 4 is incorrect. Acharya Narendra Dev was instrumental in the establishment of the Congress Socialist Party in 1934 as a radical faction working within the Indian National Congress. The Congress Socialist Party under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya Narendra Dev played a major role in the Quit India Movement (1942).
Source: https://bjpgujarat.org/shyama-prasad-mukherjee/
https://www.livemint.com/Sundayapp/XlvTGlfJcdJu9mQGZcksTI/C-Rajagopalachari–Why-Swatantra.html
https://jagjivanramfoundation.nic.in/pdf/Speeches%20in%20Parliament/JAGJIVAN%20RAM-PROFILE.pdf
https://amritmahotsav.nic.in/district-reopsitory-detail.htm?7999
Q.24) Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
- Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
- Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
- Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution (Seventy Forth Amendment) Act, 1992 has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG. Art 243 W under this Part deals with Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.
Statement 2 is correct. Part XVIII of the Constitution of India contains emergency provisions.
Statement 3 is correct. Part XX of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to the amendments.
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part18.pdf
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part20.pdf
Q.25) Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State Subject under and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject Under the Union List.
d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Option a is incorrect: Inter-state trade and commerce is entry 42 under Union list (not State List) of Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India.
Option b is incorrect: Inter- state migration is a subject under entry 81 of Union list (not state list) of Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India.
Option c is correct: Inter-State quarantine is under entry 81 of Union list. Thus, it is a union subject of Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India.
Option d is incorrect: Corporation Tax is entry 85 of Union List (not State list) of Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India.
Source: https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S7.pdf
Q.26) Under Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
a) Article 15
b) Article 16
c) Article 19
d) Article 21
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
option d is correct. In Justice K.S Puttaswamy & Another vs. Union of India and Others case the Supreme Court in a landmark judgement in 2017 unanimously ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, and that the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty (under Article 21), as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. The Bench also ruled that the right to privacy is not absolute, but is subject to reasonable restrictions
Q.27) What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
- Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
- Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
- Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-Service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Some of the duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following:
- To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary.
- To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands.
- To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri.
Statement 2 is incorrect. CDS will not exercise any military command, including over the three Service Chiefs, so as to be able to provide impartial advice to the political leadership.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1597425
Q.28) Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
a) Operation Sankalp
b) Operation Maitri
c) Operation Sadbhavana
d) Operation Madad
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct. The Indian Army under ‘Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill)’ is reaching out to local communities in far-flung areas of the region through a series of civilian programmes aimed at improving the lives of people in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh. It addresses their basic needs. From engaging youngsters in sporting activities and debates on issues such as drug abuse, the Army is also organising medical camps and capacity-building tours for students and farmers regularly under the operation.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1895974
Q.29) The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
a) Canada and the United States of America
b) Chile and Argentina
c) China and India
d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct. Canada and the United States shares the longest international land border measuring 8,893 Km. The border is divided into two: the border shared with Canada by the continental United States and the border that the state of Alaska shares with northern Canada.
Source: https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/countries-with-the-longest-land-borders.html
Q.30) Which of the following Statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
- Initially it was an ad-how Committee.
- Only a Member of the Lock Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The late Speaker, G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP, along with evidence of the alleged misconduct, and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”. If the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed. The Speaker can refer to the Committee any complaint against an MP.
Statement 3 is correct. The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or on matters that are sub judice.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ls-ethics-committee-its-constitution-members-8999613/
Q.31) Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) T.T. Krishnamachari
d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: D
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
The Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly of India, established by the members of the provincial assemblies elected by the people of India.
Dr Sachidanand Sinha, who was the oldest member of the assembly, was elected as the temporary chairman of the assembly, following the French Practice. Later, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected its president.
Dr BR Ambedkar was the chairman of its Drafting Committee.
Source:
- Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Chapter Making of the Indian Constitution
Q.32) With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
- It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
- Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
e) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp) option a is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935 indeed provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation. The federation was to include both British Indian provinces and the Princely States. However, the actual establishment of this federation was conditional upon a specified number of princely states agreeing to join, which ultimately did not happen, so the federation was never formed.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under The Government of India Act, 1935, subjects to be administered were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Reserved subjects—foreign affairs, defense, tribal areas and ecclesiastical affairs which were to be exclusively administered by the governor-general and not the federal legislature. on the advice of executive councilors.
Source – From Plassey to Partition by Sekhar Bandopadhyay
A brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) – Chapter – Debates on the Future Strategy after CDM – Government of India Act 1935.
Q.33) Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
a) Kavyalankara
b) Natyashastra
c) Madhyama-vyayoga
d) Mahabhashya
Answer: C
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. Kavyalankara is a work on poetics attributed to the scholar Bhamaha.
Option b is incorrect. Natyashastra is an ancient Indian treatise on the performing arts, attributed to Bharata Muni.
Option c is correct. Madhyama-vyayoga play is one of the thirteen plays traditionally attributed to Bhasa. It is a one-act play (vyayoga) that depicts a story from the Mahabharata, focusing on the reunion of the Pandava brothers.
Option d is incorrect. Mahabhashya is a commentary on Panini’s grammar, attributed to Patanjali.
Source:
- Ancient and Medieval India by Poonam Dahiya – Chapter – The Guptas and The Vakatakas
- https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/theatre/from-the-outer-to-the-inner/article19924154.ece
Additional Sources:
Q.34) Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:
a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
b) Visuddhimagga
c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
d) Lalitavistara
Answer: C
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Many Indian monks who travelled to China during these centuries belonged to Kashmir (Dutt [1962], 1988: 294–310). They included Sanghabhuti, author of a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, who was in China in 381–84 CE.
Source: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India: by upender singh, page 834
Q.35) Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
- Shantiniketan
- Rani-ki-Vav
- Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
- Mahabodhi Bodhgaya Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: B
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct – Shantiniketan was added to the World Heritage List released by UNESCO in the year 2023.
Statement 2 is incorrect – Rani-ki-Vav was added to the World Heritage List released by UNESCO in the year 2014.
Statement 3 is correct – Scared Ensembles of the Hoysalas was added to the World Heritage List released by UNESCO in the year 2023.
Statement 4 is incorrect – Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya was added to the World Heritage List released by UNESCO in the year 2002.
Source: https://whc.unesco.org/en/statesparties/in
Q.36) As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
- Addition
- Variation
- Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
As per Article 368 (1) under Part 20 of the Indian Constitution – “Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.”
Source –
- Indian Constitution
- https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part20.pdf
Q.37) Consider the following countries:
- Italy
- Japan
- Nigeri
- South Korea
- South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 5 only
Answer: A
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct. Births in Italy dropped to a new historic low below 400,000 in 2022, as per the national statistics bureau as the population continued to shrink. Last year Italy recorded more than 12 deaths for every seven births and the resident population fell by 179,000 to 58.85 million, ISTAT said in its annual demographic report
Option 2 is correct. The number of babies born in Japan fell for an eighth straight year to a fresh record low in 2023, preliminary government data showed on Tuesday, underscoring the daunting task the country faces in trying to stem depopulation.
The number of births fell 5.1% from a year earlier to 758,631, while the number of marriages slid 5.9% to 489,281 — the first time in 90 years the number fell below 500,000 — foreboding a further decline in the population as out-of-wedlock births are rare in Japan
Option 3 is incorrect. Nigeria is not facing the low population problem. On the contrary, Nigeria’s population is projected to grow from more than 186 million people in 2016 to 392 million in 2050, becoming the world’s fourth most populous country.
Option 4 is correct. South Korea’s fertility rate, already the world’s lowest, continued its dramatic decline in 2023, as women concerned about their career advancement and the financial cost of raising children decided to delay childbirth or to not have babies.
The average number of expected babies for a South Korean woman during her reproductive life fell to a record low of 0.72 from 0.78 in 2022, data from Statistics Korea showed
Option 5 is incorrect. The population of South Africa will increase from 59 million in 2020 to 66 million in 2030 and 80 million in 2080.
Source:
- https://www.reuters.com/world/asia-pacific/south-koreas-fertility-rate-dropped-fresh-record-low-2023-2024-02-28/#:~:text=South%20Korea’s%20demographic%20crisis%20has,further%20to%200.68%20in%202024.,%20https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/births-italy-heading-new-record-low-2023-stats-office-2023-10-26/
- https://www.reuters.com/world/asia-pacific/number-births-japan-hits-record-low-2023-2024-02-27/
- https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/births-italy-hit-record-low-2022-population-shrinks-further-2023-04-07/
- https://www.cia.gov/the-world-factbook/countries/nigeria/
- https://www.theworldcounts.com/populations/countries/south-africa
Q.38) Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
- Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
- A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
- The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
- Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Article 109 of the Indian constitution mentions Special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
Statement 2 is correct. As per Article 109 (1) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of State.
Statement 3 is correct. As per Article 109 (2) after a Money Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha, it shall be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations and the Rajya Sabha shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with its recommendations and the Lok Sabha may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States. Further as per Article 109 (5) if the bill is not retuned within 14 days by the Rajya Sabha it is deemed to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
Statement 4 is incorrect. As per Article 109(2) read with Article 109(5) the Lok Sabha may act upon the recommendations suggested by Rajya Sabha but it does not need to accept the amendments suggested.
Sources:
- The India Constitution
- Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth – Chater Parliament
Q.39) Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?
| Army | Airforce | Navy |
| 1. Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander |
| 2. Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral |
| 3. Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander |
| 4. Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain |
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 4.
b) 1 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 only
Answer: D
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
The correct sequence is:
| Indian Army | Indian Navy | Air Force |
| Brigadier | Commodore | Air Commodore |
| Major General | Rear Admiral | Air Vice Marshal |
| Major | Lieutenant Commander | Squadron Leader |
| Lieutenant Colonel | Commander | Wing Commander |
Complete List of Ranks
| Indian Army | Indian Navy | Air Force |
| *Field Marshal | *Admiral of the Fleet | *Marshal of the Air Force |
| General | Admiral | Air Chief Marshal |
| Lieutenant General | Vice Admiral | Air Marshal |
| Major General | Rear Admiral | Air Vice Marshal |
| Brigadier | Commodore | Air Commodore |
| Colonel | Captain | Group Captain |
| Lieutenant Colonel | Commander | Wing Commander |
| Major | Lieutenant Commander | Squadron Leader |
| Captain | Lieutenant | Flight Lieutenant |
| Lieutenant | Sub-Lieutenant | Flying Officer |
Q.40) The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
- Governor of the Constituent State
- Chief Minister of the Constituent State
- Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
- The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
After the North Eastern Council Amendment Act 2002, Section 3 of the 1971 Act was substitued and the amended acts defines the composition as
- The Council now has as its members the Governors of the States
- The Chief Ministers of the said States
- Three Members nominated by the President
Home Minister is the ex-Offico Chairman of the council, but he does not form the part of council as member under section 3 as mentioned in the Act.
Source: https://necouncil.gov.in/sites/default/files/about-us/Amendment%20Act%202002.pdf
Q.41) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement- I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement -II.
b) Both statement-I and Statement II are correct but statement-II does not explain statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement I is correct: The United States of America if defaults on its debt, the holders of its treasury bonds would not be able to claim and receive payments. As the US government issued bonds are not backed by any underlying asset, a default on the USA’s government bond will trigger a default.
Statement II is correct: These bonds are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government and not backed by hard assets.
Hence option a is correct: Both statement I and statement II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
https://www.nytimes.com/2023/05/18/business/default-debt-what-happens-next.html
Q.42) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement I is correct: A syndicated loan is a substantial loan provided to a large borrower by several lenders together. Each lender in the lending group (syndicate) provides part of the total amount and shares part of the lending risk.
Statement II is incorrect: A syndicated loan may combine multiple loan types (fixed-rate, floating-rate, operating, demand), with different repayment terms. A pro-rata tranche is a portion of a syndicated loan comprising two features: a revolving credit facility and an amortizing term loan. Revolving credit is a credit line that remains available even as you pay the balance. An amortized loan is a loan that requires the borrower to make scheduled, periodic payments applied to the principal and interest.
Hence option c is correct: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is correct.
Q.43) Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
- It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
- It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
- It is insured against inflation by its very design.
- It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Reserve Bank defines Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), e₹, (Digital Rupee) as the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. CBDC is sovereign currency issued by Central Banks in alignment with their monetary policy.
Statement 2 is correct: Digital Rupee appears as a liability on the central bank’s balance sheet.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Digital Rupee is considered a safe store of value but not insured against inflation. Like physical cash, the purchasing power of the digital rupee diminishes with rising inflation.
Statement 4 is correct: Digital Rupee are freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Source: https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/PublicationReportDetails.aspx?UrlPage=&ID=1218#CP1
Q.44) With reference to the Ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
- Nayaputta
- Shakyamuni
- Tathagata
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Surviving early Jain and Buddhist literature uses several names (or epithets) for Mahavira and Gautama Buddha.
Option 1 is incorrect: Lord Mahaviira was born in a Kshatriya family of Nadars (Nata-putta) of Northern India, near Patna (Vaisali), in the Jnatrika or Lichchavi Gotra of Nyaya Clan of ancient Mahavamsam (of Nadars), in Kundagrama. He is also called ‘Nayaputta’
Option 2 is correct: Gautama Buddha is also known as Shakyamuni. “Shakyamuni” means “sage of the Shākyas,” Shākya being the name of the tribe or clan to which his family belonged.
Option 3 is correct: After his enlightenment, the Buddha used the term Tathāgata to refer to himself. Tathāgata (nyorai) means “one who has come from the world of truth”; the Worshipful and “one who deserves offerings in the human and the celestial worlds”
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jeff110.pdf
https://www.500yojanas.org/the-ten-epithets-of-the-buddha/
https://www.nichirenlibrary.org/en/dic/Content/S/110
https://www.nadarindia.com/nadarsinSriBudhaandMahavirra.php
Q.45) Consider the following information:
| Archaeological site | State | Description |
| 1. Chandraketugarh | Odisha | Trading Port town |
| 2. Inamgaon | Maharastra | Chalcolithic site |
| 3. Mangadu | Kerela | Megalithic site |
| 4. Salihundam | Andhra Pradesh | Rock cave shrines |
In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Row 1 is incorrect: Chandraketugarh is an archaeological site located in the state of West Bengal. According to historians, the place dates to the 3rd century, which is the pre-Mauryan era. The archaeological studies also say that once the city was an important port city with huge walls.
Row 2 is correct: Inamgaon is a chalcolithic settlement in Western India on the river Ghod, a tributary of the Bhima in the state of Maharashtra.
Row 3 is correct: The Madankavu urn burial site, a megalithic site, is located near Madankavu, a traditional temple maintained by local families, south of Ashtamudi Lake in the state of Kerala.
Row 4 is incorrect: Village of Salihundam is located on the banks of the Vamsadhara River in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The archaeological excavations of the site revealed that it was an ancient Buddhist settlement. This site is now protected by the ASI, and contains several votive stupas, a mahastupa, chaityas and viharas. However, rock cut cave shrines were not present in this site.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/41362/1/Unit-3.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/fess105.pdf
https://aptourism.gov.in/destinations/37/salihundam
Q.46) Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
a) Krishnadevaraya
b) Narasimha Saluva
c) Muhammad Shah III
d) Yusuf Adil Shah
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Krishnadeva Rayan maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese. Alphonsa de Albuquerque, the Portuguese governor-built fort at Bhatkal located at Uttara Kannada district in the state of Karnataka in 1510 with the permission of Vijayanagara empire ruler Krishnadeva Raya (1509-1529).
Source:
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20190/1/Unit-27.pdf
Q.47) With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
- Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
- Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 not 2
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ryotwari system was introduced in Madras, Bombay, and Assam. Under this system, the government claimed the property rights to all the land but allotted it to the cultivators on the condition that they pay taxes. They could use, sell, mortgage, bequeath, and lease the land if they paid their taxes, failing which, they were evicted. The Famine Code of 1883, as adopted by Madras Presidency, had provisions to suspend revenue collection during times of bad harvest.
Statement 2 is correct: Cornwallis introduced the system of Permanent Settlement in 1793. Under this system, ‘zamindars’ were established as the proprietors or owners of land. The state’s demand for land revenue was permanently fixed but if the zamindars were unable to pay the full tax on time, their lands would be taken away and auctioned by the state.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/99024/1/Unit-3.pdf
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module3.pdf
A Brief History of Modern India – Spectrum- Page no: 576
Q.48) Consider the following statements:
- There are no parables in Upanishads
- Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Upanishad literally means ‘approaching and sitting near’ and the texts contain conversations between teachers and students. Some Upanishads include parables. For example, the wise beggar was a dialogue based on a story from one of the most famous Upanishads, the Chhandogya Upanishad and antology of the two birds was mentioned in the Katopanishad.
Statement 2 is correct: Upanishads were composed as part of the later Vedic texts (1000 – 600 BC) whereas the Puranas were compiled about 200 AD.
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/37938/1/Unit-1.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/fess107.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lehs104.pdf
https://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lehs103.pdf
Q.49) Consider the following statements:
- India is a member of the International Grains Council.
- A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The International Grains Council (IGC) is an intergovernmental organization which oversees the Grains Trade Convention and seeks to promote cooperation in the global grain trade. India is one of the members of IGC.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Currently, only 30 countries are members of the IGC. There is no such mandate under the council for a country to be a member of IGC to export or import rice and wheat. Countries such as Russia, Ukraine, Afghanistan, etc. are not the members of the IGC and yet they actively do import export of the grains.
https://www.igc.int/en/about/aboutus.aspx#
Q.50) Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
a) Chhau dance
b) Durga puja.
c) Garba dance
d) Kumbh mela
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: Chhau dance, a tradition from eastern India was inscribed under UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.
Option b is incorrect: Durga Puja, the world’s biggest public art festival, was inscribed in 2021 on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Option c is correct: UNESCO has inscribed the popular Gujarati folk dance Garba in UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity its 18th session, taking place in Kasane, Botswana from 5 to 9 December 2023.The inclusion of Garba now makes it India’s 15th inscription on the List.
Option d is incorrect: Kumbh Mela is a festival held at Allahabad, Haridwar, Ujjain and Nasik every four years by rotation. It was inscribed UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2017.
https://india.un.org/en/255203-garba-joins-unesco-list-intangible-cultural-heritage
https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/chhau-dance-00337
https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/kumbh-mela-01258
Q.51) The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year. BR
b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
c) the birth rate minus death rate.
d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the average number of children who would be born to any women in her lifetime. It is the average number of children a women would have at the end of their reproductive period if they were subject during their whole lives to the fertility rates of a given period and if they were not subject to mortality.
Q.52) Consider the following statements:
- In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
- In India, Foreign Institutional Investors (can) hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
- In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: Primary dealers can access liquidity adjustment facility of the RBI. As per definition of Primary dealers by RBI- “A non-bank entity applying for permission to undertake PD business shall obtain Certificate of Registration as an NBFC under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934 from the Department of Non-Banking Supervision, Reserve Bank of India.” Thus, non-banking financial companies can access the liquidity adjustment facility of the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) are allowed to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) in India.
Statement 3 is correct: Stock Exchanges in India can indeed offer separate trading platforms for debt instruments (bonds and other debt securities). This provides a mechanism for trading debt securities separately from equity shares.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=65937
Q.53) In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
- Insurance Companies
- Pension Funds
- Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
All three categories listed (Insurance Companies, Pension Funds and Retail Investors) can trade in corporate bonds and government securities in India.
Insurance Companies: Insurance companies are major players in the Indian bond market. They invest a significant portion of the premiums they collect from policyholders into fixed-income instruments like corporate bonds and government securities.
Pension Funds: Pension funds also invest in corporate bonds and government securities to generate returns and ensure stability for the pension payouts. Pension funds are permitted to invest in corporate bonds or securities rated ‘A’ or higher, or their equivalent on the relevant rating scale. However, investments in bonds rated between ‘A’ and ‘AA-‘ are limited to 10% of the pension fund’s total corporate bond portfolio.
Retail Investors: In recent years, the Indian government has made efforts to increase retail investor participation in the bond market. Retail investors can now invest in both corporate bonds and government securities directly or indirectly.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/bonds/new-mr-bond-on-debt-street-lic-steps-up-buy-of-top-rated-nbfc-corporate-papers/articleshow/105824176.cms?from=mdrhttps://www.pfrda.org.in/myauth/admin/showimg.cshtml?ID=1972#:~:text=The%20Pension%20Funds%20are%20allowed,of%20the%20Pension%20Fund%20at
Q.54) “Consider the following:
- Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
- Motor vehicles
- Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and Sonly
c) 1,2 and 0
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Financial instruments are intangible assets, which are expected to provide future benefits in the form of a claim to future cash. It is a tradable asset representing a legal agreement or a contractual right to evidence monetary value / ownership interest of an entity. Financial instruments are typically traded in financial markets where price of a security is arrived at based on market forces.
Option 1 is correct: Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): ETFs are financial instruments that track the performance of a basket of assets (like stocks, commodities, or bonds) and trade on stock exchanges, allowing investors to buy or sell them like stocks throughout the trading day.
Option 3 is correct: Currency swap: A currency swap is a financial derivative contract in which two parties exchange the principal amount of a loan in one currency for an equivalent amount in another currency, based on the current exchange rate. It is used to hedge against currency risk or to obtain lower interest rates in different currency markets.
Option 2 is incorrect: Motor vehicles are not considered financial instruments. They are tangible assets used for transportation and are not traded as financial securities or derivatives on financial markets.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/90561/3/Unit-3.pdf https://www.business-standard.com/podcast/finance/what-is-a-currency-swap-122090300067_1.html
https://www.nism.ac.in/understanding-etf/
Q.55) With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs :
| Economic activity | Sector |
| 1. Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary |
| 2. Dairy farm | Primary |
| 3. Mineral exploration | Tertiary |
| 4. Weaving cloth | Secondary |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Storage of agricultural produce is not part of the secondary sector. While the secondary sector processes raw materials, storage is a service activity. Service activities are part of the tertiary sector.
Pair 2 is correct: Dairy farming is correctly matched with the primary sector. The primary sector of the economy deals with the extraction of raw materials. Dairy farming involves the production of milk, which is a raw material.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Mineral exploration is not part of the tertiary sector. The tertiary sector deals with services. Mineral exploration is the process of finding mineral deposits, which is part of the primary sector (extraction of raw materials).
Pair 4 is correct: Weaving cloth is correctly matched with the secondary sector. The secondary sector of the economy deals with the processing of raw materials into finished goods. Weaving cloth involves processing raw materials like cotton or wool into finished goods like fabric.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jess202.pdf
Q.56) Consider the following materials :
- Agricultural residues
- Corn grain
- Wastewater treatment sludge
- Wood mill waste
Which of the above (can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1,3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is a type of fuel that can be used in airplanes to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. It is made from various sources, including Corn grain, Oil seeds, Algae, Agricultural residues, Forestry residues, Wood mill waste, Municipal solid waste streams, Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge), Dedicated energy crops etc.
Source: https://www.energy.gov/eere/bioenergy/sustainable-aviation-fuels
Q.57) With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
| Items | Category |
| 1. Farmer’s plough | Working capital |
| 2. Computer | Fixed capital |
| 3. Yarn used by the weaver | Fixed capital |
| 4. Petrol | Working capital |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: While a plough is necessary for production, working capital refers to items that are consumed in the production process. A plough is a durable item that can be used for many production cycles. Therefore, it is classified as fixed capital.
Pair 2 is correct: Fixed capital refers to physical assets that are used in the production process for a relatively long period. A computer is a durable item that is used in the production of goods or services for several years.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Yarn used by the weaver can be considered as working capital. Working capital refers to the funds or resources that a business uses for its day-to-day operations, including the purchase of raw materials like yarn, payment of wages, and other operational expenses.
Pair 4 is correct: Working capital generally refers to the funds or resources that a business uses for its day-to-day operations and short-term expenses, such as raw materials, inventory, wages, and other operational costs. Petrol is consumed in the production process.
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/f/fixed-capital.asp
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/w/workingcapital.asp
Q.58) Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?
a) Big data analytics
b) Cryptography
c) Metaverse
d) Virtual matrix
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The most appropriate word/phrase to describe the given concept is “metaverse”.
The term “metaverse” refers to an interconnected network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed by millions of users simultaneously. Users can create and own virtual items within the metaverse.
Q.59) With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:
- There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
- For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The RBI does have a minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries set at ₹5 billion. This applies to both new foreign banks setting up a subsidiary in India and existing foreign banks with a branch presence that want to convert to a wholly owned subsidiary.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Scheme for setting up of wholly owned subsidiaries by foreign banks in India: not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals resident in India. PIOs are not Indian nationals.
Source: https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/bs_viewcontent.aspx?Id=2758
Q.60) With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
- CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
- CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. CSR activities are meant to benefit society, not the company itself. Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013 indicates the activities that can be undertaken as CSR which broadly relates to Health, sanitation, education, environment, sports, heritage, art and culture, rural development, slum area development, Disaster management, including relief, rehabilitation, and reconstruction activities, setting up old age homes, day care centers, measures for reducing inequalities faced by socially and economically backward groups etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Companies meeting the criteria set by the Companies Act, 2013 must spend a minimum of 2% of their average net profits over three years on CSR.
Q.61) With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric gererators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
- RTGs are miature fission reactors.
- RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
- RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs) convert heat from radioactive decay into electricity using thermocouples. They power spacecraft and remote installations, providing reliable energy for decades. RTGs are crucial for missions where solar power is impractical, such as deep space exploration, due to their longevity and durability in harsh environments.
Statement 1 is incorrect. RTGs are not miniature fission reactors. Instead, they rely on the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238 to generate heat, which is then converted into electricity using thermocouples. No nuclear fission occurs in RTGs.
Statement 2 is correct. RTGs provide electrical power for spacecraft, especially in situations where solar power is impractical or insufficient. They have been used in more than two dozen U.S. space missions since 1961.
Statement 3 is correct: As per the given combination of options RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a byproduct of weapons development.
Note: Many standard sources including NASA clearly mention that Plutonium-238 is not a weapon grade material. So according to us, the answer should be 2 only. But there is no such option available, so we are considering 2 and 3 (option b) as the answer until UPSC releases the final answer key.
Source:https://science.nasa.gov/mission/cassini/radioisotope-thermoelectric-generator/
https://www.wired.com/images_blogs/wiredscience/2013/09/final72005faqs.pdf
https://www.acs.org/education/whatischemistry/landmarks/plutonium-238-production.html
http://large.stanford.edu/courses/2022/ph241/spaugh1/
Q.62) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement- I is incorrect: Giant stars actually have shorter lifetimes compared to dwarf stars. Their massive cores burn through nuclear fuel more rapidly, leading to a shorter overall lifespan.
Statement-II is correct: Giant stars, due to their higher mass, have hotter and denser cores. As a result, they experience more intense nuclear reactions, which contribute to their brightness and energy output.
Source: https://solarsystem.nasa.gov/genesismission/gm2/mission/pdf/Giantstars.pdf
Q.63) Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow
a) Nitric oxide
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Nitrogen dioxide
d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized in the human body and plays a crucial role in vasodilation, which increases blood flow. The body produces nitric oxide from the amino acid L-arginine using the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS). The primary site of NO synthesis is the inner layer of blood vessels (the endothelium), although other cell types also contribute to its production.
NO acts as a powerful vasodilator, relaxing vascular smooth muscles in arteries. This dilation increases blood flow, benefiting overall cardiovascular health.
It also serves as a neurotransmitter and is involved in various functions, including neuronal activity and learning.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/new-study-dark-chocolate-blood-pressure-9126904/
https://www.britannica.com/science/nitric-oxide
Q.64) Consider the following activities:
- Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
- Monitoring of precipitation
- Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Radars use radio waves to detect and locate objects by transmitting pulses and analyzing the reflected signals. They measure distance, speed, and direction, playing a vital role in aviation, maritime navigation, weather forecasting, and military applications. Radars enable precise tracking and surveillance over long distances and in various conditions.
Statement 1 is correct: Radars can be used for the identification of narcotics
(drugs) on passengers at airport and/or in aircraft.
Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Weather radars (specifically Doppler radars) are instrumental in monitoring and tracking precipitation, measuring the intensity of rainfall, and predicting weather patterns.
Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals, particularly birds and bats. Radar technology helps in monitoring flight patterns and migration routes of these animals over large distances.
Source: https://www.nationalguard.mil/News/Article/572811/stopping-drug-traffickers-by-air/
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/earth-and-planetary-sciences/meteorological-radar#:~:text=Weather%20radar%20observation%20can%20be,radar%20observations%20(Figure%2010),https://www.usgs.gov/centers/national-innovation-center/science/new-wildlife-tag-enabling-animal-tracking-using-weather
Q.65) Consider the following aircraft:
- Rafael
- MiG-29
- Tejas MK-1
How many of above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Fifth-generation fighters include major technologies developed during the first part of the 21st century. They typically have characteristics like stealth, super cruise (prolonged supersonic cruise without reheat), advanced avionics, and networked data fusion for situational awareness. Examples of combat-ready fifth-generation fighters include the Lockheed Martin F-22 Raptor, Lockheed Martin F-35 Lightning II, Chengdu J-20, and Sukhoi Su-57.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Rafale is a fourth-generation(4.5th) fighter jet developed by France.
Option 2 is incorrect: The MiG-29 is also a fourth-generation fighter jet developed by Russia.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Tejas MK-1 is an indigenous Indian fighter, but it falls under the fourth generation (4.5th generation) as well.
ttps://fighterworld.com.au/a-z-fighter-aircraft/five-generations-of-jets/,, ttps://fighterworld.com.au/a-z-fighter-aircraft/five-generations-of-jets/
Q.66) In which of the following are hydrogels used?
- Controlled drug delivery in patients
- Mobile air-conditioning systems
- Preparation of Industrial lubricants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Hydrogels are water-absorbent, crosslinked polymer networks that can hold large amounts of water. They are used in medical applications, such as wound dressings, drug delivery systems, and tissue engineering. Hydrogels’ biocompatibility, flexibility, and responsiveness to environmental changes make them valuable in biotechnology and soft robotics.
Statement 1 is correct: Hydrogels are widely used in controlled drug delivery systems because they can encapsulate drugs and release them in a controlled manner over time. This application leverages the hydrophilic nature and biocompatibility of hydrogels.
Statement 2 is correct: Hydrogels can be used in mobile air-conditioning systems. They can absorb and release moisture, which can be useful in humidity control, a crucial aspect of air-conditioning.
Statement 3 is correct: Hydrogels can be used in industrial lubricants to improve their properties, such as reducing friction and wear, controlling viscosity, and improving thermal stability.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC9858193/
Q.67) Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Hydronium
c) Oxygen
d) Water vapour
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct: The exhaust air from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen consists of pure water vapor. FCEVs emit only water vapor, making them locally emission-free and contributing to cleaner air in cities.
https://afdc.energy.gov/vehicles/fuel-cell
Q.68) Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
c) Long duration energy storage
d) Rainwater harvesting system
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: The term “pumped-storage hydropower” relates to long-duration energy storage. It refers to a type of hydroelectric energy storage where two water reservoirs at different elevations are used to generate power. Water moves down from one reservoir to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine, and then requires power to be pumped back into the upper reservoir (recharge).
https://www.energy.gov/eere/water/pumped-storage-hydropower
Q.69) “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of:
a) Assisted reproductive technologies
b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
c) Vaccine production technologies
d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct: Membrane Bioreactors” are commonly discussed in the context of wastewater treatment technologies. These systems combine biological treatment (using microorganisms) with membrane filtration to efficiently remove pollutants from wastewater. The membranes act as barriers, allowing clean water to pass through while retaining suspended solids and microorganisms. Membrane bioreactors are widely used in treating domestic and industrial wastewater.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1759750”
https://www.pcimembranes.com/articles/membrane-bioreactors-mbr-for-wastewater-treatment/
Q.70) With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:
a) Bond market
b) Forex market
c) Money market
d) Stock market
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: The term “Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO)” is discussed in the context of money market instruments. CBLOs represent an agreement between a borrower and a lender, where the borrower provides collateral (such as government securities) in exchange for cash from the lender. These short-term instruments facilitate borrowing and lending in a fully collateralized environment, primarily in India’s financial markets.
Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/the-humble-repo-turns-25/3396808/
https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/attachdocs/oct-2017/1509265087608.pdf
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/cblo.asp
Q.71) The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater are:
a) Birds
b) Fish
c) Insects
d) Reptiles
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
All of the Cicada, Froghopper and Pond Skater belong to insects. The cicadas are a superfamily of insects in the order Hemiptera (true bugs). The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Pond Skater are a family of insects in the order Hemiptera.
Source: NCERT
Q.72) Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-2: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-1 and statement 2 are correct and Statement-2 explains Statement-1
b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, but Statement-2 does not explain Statement-1
c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-2 is incorrect
d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-2 is correct
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. Commercially, chewing gum is produced based on synthetic gum base, which is non-biodegradable. Accordingly, chewing gum residue can be considered as a dangerous environmental pollutant.
Statement II is correct. Chewing gum does contain plastic. The ingredient known as “gum base” in the list of ingredients in chewing gum is largely made of polyvinyl acetate. This plastic is non-biodegradable and remains in the environment for a long time. Thus, chewing gum residue can be considered as a dangerous environmental pollutant.
So, both Statement-1 and statement 2 are correct and Statement-2 explains Statement-1.
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8231848/
Q.73) Consider the following pairs:
| Country | Animal found in its natural habitat |
| 1. Brazil | Indri |
| 2. Indonesia | Elk |
| 3. Madagascar | Bonobo |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The indri is an endangered species found only in remote parts of northeastern Madagascar.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Elk is a subspecies of red deer (Cervus elaphus). It is found in North America and in high mountains of Central Asia.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Bonobos live in the rainforests of the Congo Basin in Africa.
Source: https://wwf.panda.org/discover/knowledge_hub/endangered_species/great_apes/bonobo
https://www.mendocinolandtrust.org/meet-the-elk/
Q.74) Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:
- It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
- World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global satiation crisis.
- The main focus of its function is to grant founds to the least developed countries and developing countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit organisation committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Toilet Organization is not one of the agencies of the United Nations.
Statement 2 is correct. The World Toilet Organization is the organizer of the World Toilet Summit and initiated the United Nations World Toilet Day. WTO established World Toilet Day and the World Toilet Summit in 2001; this was followed by the World Toilet College in 2005.
Statement 3 is incorrect. WTO provides an international platform for toilet associations, governments, academic institutions, foundations, UN agencies and corporate stakeholders to exchange knowledge and leverage media and corporate support in an effort to promote clean sanitation and public health policies.
Source: https://worldtoilet.org/web-agency-gb-about-us/
https://www.un.org/en/about-us/un-system
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1977601
Q.75) Consider the following statements:
- Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
- Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
- Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Lions have no particular breeding season. Females cycle throughout the year every 16 days, remaining in estrus for four to eight days. Lions do not mate at a specific time of year and the females are polyestrous.
Statement 2 is correct. Unlike other big cats, including lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars, cheetahs don’t roar. They growl when there is danger, and usually only chirp, purr and meow.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Lions proclaim their territory by roaring and by scent marking. Leopards also proclaim their territory by roaring and by scent marking. Both sexes use urine to mark their territories, and often after urinating a male will then scrape the ground to transfer the scent of his urine onto his feet to be carried during territorial boundary patrols.
Source: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/did-you-know-fast-but-dismal-hunters-cheetahs-dont-roar-1145890.html https://www.nature.com/articles/329328a0.pdf
https://www.indianforester.co.in/index.php/indianforester/article/viewFile/27643/23955
Q.76) Which one of the following is the correct description of 100 Million Farmers?
- a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
- b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
- c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
- d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Framer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
100 Million Farmers is an initiative of World Economic Forum. The WEF’s 100 Million Farmers Platform is developing regional coalitions of public and private sector organizations, NGOs, and academic institutions. It aims to accelerate the transition towards net-zero, nature-positive and farmer resilient food systems. It aims to position food and farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices.
Source: https://initiatives.weforum.org/100-million-farmers/home
https://initiatives.weforum.org/100-million-farmers/about
Q.77) Consider the following:
- Battery storage
- Biomass generators
- Fuel cells
- Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered ‘distributed Energy Resources’?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Distributed energy resources are small, modular, energy generation and storage technologies that provide electric capacity or energy where you need it. Typically producing less than 10 megawatts (MW) of power, DER systems can usually be sized
to meet your particular needs and installed on site.
Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:
- roof top solar photovoltaic units
- wind generating units
- battery storage
- batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid
- combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling
- biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products.
- open and closed cycle gas turbines
- reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)
- hydro and mini-hydro schemes
- fuel cells.
Q.78) Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
a) Fig
b) Mahua
c) Sandalwood
d) Silk cotton
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Mutualism is a type of interaction which confers benefits on both the interacting species. The most spectacular and evolutionarily fascinating examples of mutualism are found in plant-animal relationships. Plants need the help of animals to pollinate their flowers and disperse their seeds.
Figs and wasps depend on each other to reproduce, and this is a fantastic example of co-evolution. In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator species of wasp. It means that a given fig species can be pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp species and no other species. The female wasp uses the fruit not only as an oviposition (egg-laying) site but uses the developing seeds within the fruit for nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the favour of pollination, the fig offers the wasp some of its developing seeds, as food for the developing wasp larvae.
Source: NCERT Class 12th Biology Page 237
Q.79) Consider the following:
- Butterflies
- Fish
- Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Item 1 is correct. Monarch butterflies have poison in their vibrant wings.
Item 2 is correct. There exist more than 1000 poisonous species of fish. For example, Reef Stonefish, which is the most venomous known fish.
Item 3 is correct. Many species of frog are known to be poisonous. The Golden Poison Frog or Phyllobates terribilis is the most poisonous frog.
Source: NCERT Class 11th Biology
https://www.deccanherald.com/science/butterflies-are-pretty-and-poisonous-too-heres-why-1021085.html
https://fishesofaustralia.net.au/home/content/161 https://www.nhm.ac.uk/discover/can-frogs-be-venomous.html#:~:text=But%20although%20incredibly%20rare%2C%20there,Greening’s%20frog%20(Corythomantis%20greeningi)
Q.80) Consider the following:
- Cashew
- Papaya
- Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Item 1 is incorrect. The Cashew is native to northeastern Brazil. Portuguese brought it to India during the late 16th century.
Item 2 is incorrect. Papaya is native to Central America. It is grown in tropical and warmer subtropical areas worldwide. Papaya was introduced from Philippines through Malaysia to India in the later part of the 16th century.
Item 3 is correct. Red Sanders is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Andhra Pradesh. Red Sanders is reported to be one of India’s most exploited tree species and is under severe pressure from illegal logging and harvesting. Following the amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in December 2022, Red Sanders is now listed in Schedule IV.
https://www.britannica.com/plant/papaya
Q.81) Consider the following airports:
- Donyi Polo Airport
- Kushinagar International Airport
- Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield project?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Since 2019, 6 Greenfield airports namely, Kalaburagi (project cost Rs. 175.57 crore), Orvakal (Kurnool) (project cost Rs. 187 crore), Sindhudurg (project cost Rs. 520 crore), Itanagar (project cost Rs. 646 crore) Kushinagar (project cost Rs. 448 crore) and Mopa (project cost Rs.2870 crore) have been operationalised, out of which Kushinagar and Mopa airports are International airports.
Statement 1 is correct. Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar is the first greenfield airport in Arunachal Pradesh, has been developed in an area of over 690 acres, at a cost of more than Rs. 640 crores. It was inaugurated by PM Modi in 2022.
Statement 2 is correct. Kushinagar International Airport, is a greenfield airport, was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in October 2021.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Vijayawada International airport is not a greenfield project.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1897659
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1943211
Q.82) With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statement is/are correct?
- It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
- Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Water vapour is a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Water vapour decreases from the equator towards the poles. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air.
Source: https://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy208.pdf
Q.83) Consider the following description:
- Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
- Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
- Precipitation varies between 50 cm- 250cm.
What is this types of climate?
a) Equatorial climate
b) Chine type climate
c) Humid subtropical climate
d) Marine West coast climate
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct. Marine west coast climate is located poleward from the Mediterranean climate on the west coast of the continents. The main areas are: Northwestern Europe, west coast of North America, north of California, southern Chile, southeastern Australia and New Zealand. Due to marine influence, the temperature is moderate and in winter, it is warmer than for its latitude. The mean temperature in summer months ranges from 15°-20°C and in winter 4°-10°C. The annual and daily ranges of temperature are small. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. Precipitation varies greatly from 50-250cm.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy212.pdf
Q.84) With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statement is/are correct?
- It increases with increase in wind velocity.
- It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high.
Statement 2 is correct. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy210.pdf
Q.85) On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 Hours?
- Equator
- Tropic of Cancer
- Tropic of Capricorn
- Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option 2 and 4 are correct. on 21st June, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat. Sunlight of more than 12 hours is received at tropic of cancer. The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months. Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy209.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/fess203.pdf
Q.86) One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years’ worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuel; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes the region?
a) Amazon Basin
b) Congo basin
c) Kikori basin
d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is the correct. The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands. The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion tons of carbon – approximately equivalent to three years’ worth of global greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide a year . The Basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon. The Congo Basin is one of the world’s last regions that absorbs more carbon than it emits. Its possible destruction can have detrimental effect on the global climate .
Q.87) With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:
- PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
- PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
- Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 , 2 and 3
Answer: D
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are synthetic chemicals that are widespread in the environment, including drinking water, food, and food packaging materials.
Statement 2 is correct. Chemically, individual PFAS can be very different. However, all have a carbon-fluorine bond, which is very strong and therefore, they do not degrade easily.
Statement 3 is correct. Persistent exposure to PFAS (per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances) leads to bioaccumulation in animals due to their chemical stability and widespread environmental presence.
Source: https://www.fda.gov/food/environmental-contaminants-food/and-polyfluoroalkyl-substances-pfas
https://www.agilent.com/en/solutions/food-beverage/food-safety/pfas-food-beverages-packaging
Q.88) Consider the following:
- Carabid beetles
- Centipedes
- Flies
- Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
A parasitoid is an organism that has young that develop on or within another organism (the host), eventually killing it. Parasitoids have characteristics of both predators and parasites.
Option 1, 3 and 5 are corect. Parasitoids include species of wasps, flies (e.g. tachinid flies), carbid beetles and worms (e.g. gordian worms).
Option 2 is incorrect. Some Centipedes are predators, but they are not parasitoids.
Option 4 is incorrect. Unlike most insects, termites have no known parasitoids.
Source: https://australian.museum/learn/animals/insects/predators-parasites-and-parasitoids/
https://zoo-web02.zoo.ox.ac.uk/group/west/pdf/West-Para-2001.pdf
Q.89) Consider the following plants :
- Groundnut
- Horse- gram
- Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants.
Option 1 is correct. The ground nut belongs to the pea and bean family and is a legume. The groundnut is the only nut that grows below the earth.
Option 2 is correct. Horsegram belongs to family Fabaceae or pea is a potential grain legume having excellent nutritional and remedial properties with better climate resilience to adapt harsh environmental conditions.
Option 3 is correct. Soybean is a flowering plant (angiosperm) and is a dicot (eudicot) , in the Fabaceae, the pea family.
https://www.cabidigitallibrary.org/doi/pdf/10.5555/20153340308
Q.90) Consider the following statement:
Statement- 1: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild life (protection) Act, 1972.
Statement- 2: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct, and statement-2 explains statement-1
b) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct, but statement-2 does not explains statement-1
c) Statement-1 is correct, But statement-2 is incorrect
d) Statement-1 is incorrect, But statement-2 is correct
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement I is correct. The Indian flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally considered a vermin as they raid orchards. The Indian flying fox comes under schedule II of WPA 1972. As per Section 62 of Act Central Government may, by notification, declare any wild animal [specified in Schedule II] to be vermin for any area and for such period as may be specified for any period of time speicfied in the Notification.
Statement II is incorrect. Indian Flying Fox also called the Great Indian Fruit Bat, as it eats fruits, feeding on the juice. It helps in seed dispersion and pollination, making them an integral part of the ecosystem.
Source: https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/1726/1/a1972-53.pdf
https://www.ias.ac.in/article/fulltext/reso/001/03/0103-0110
Q.91) Consider the following statements:
Statement – 1: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement – 2: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and statement -2 explains statement-1
b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, but Statement-2 does not explains statements-1
c) Statements -1 is correct, but Statements – 2 is incorrect
d) Statements-1 is incorrect, but statement-2 is correct
Answer: D
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect. Consider that the isolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth’s surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere. Thus, the atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial radiation than by incoming solar radiation.
Statement II is correct. The long wave radiation is absorbed by atmospheric gases particularly by carbon dioxide and the other greenhouse gases as they are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Source: NCERT – Fundamentals of Physical Geography – Chapter: Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy209.pdf
Q.92) Consider the following statements:
Statement – 1: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement – 2: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional corrects.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and statement -2 explains statement-1
b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, but Statement-2 does not explains statements-1
c) Statements -1 is correct, but Statements – 2 is incorrect
d) Statements-1 is incorrect, but statement-2 is correct
Answer: A
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. The thickness of the troposphere varies with latitude. It is thickest at the equator and thinnest at the poles. This variation is due to the differences in temperature and, consequently, the density of the air at different latitudes. Warm air is less dense and causes the troposphere to expand, making it thicker at the equator.
Statement II is correct. At the equator, the intense solar heating causes strong convectional currents. These currents transport heat to great heights, contributing to the greater thickness of the troposphere in this region.
Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. The strong convectional currents at the equator are the primary reason for the increased thickness of the troposphere compared to the poles.
Source: NCERT – Fundamentals of Physical Geography – Chapter: Climate
https://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy208.pdf
Q.93) Consider the following:
- Pyroclastic debris
- Ash and dust
- Nitrogen compounds
- Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: D
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
A volcano is a place where gases, ashes and/or molten rock material – lava – escape to the ground. The material that reaches the ground includes lava flows, pyroclastic debris, volcanic bombs, ash and dust and gases such as nitrogen compounds, Sulphur compounds and minor amounts of Chlorene, hydrogen and argon.
Source – NCERT – Fundamentals of Physical Geography – Chapter: Interiors of the Earth
Q.94) Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
- The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
- The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere.
Statement 1 is correct. In the northern hemisphere, the land surface area is much larger than the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced. In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply, and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.
Source – NCERT – Fundamentals of Physical Geography – Chapter : Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy209.pdf
Q.95) Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
a) Algeria and Morocco
b) Botswana and Namibia
c) Cote D’Ivoire and Ghana
d) Madagascar and Mozambique
Answer: C
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Cocoa, the key ingredient in chocolate production, holds significant economic importance for countries around the world. Worldwide cocoa production is predominantly centered in Africa, encompassing 60% of global output. Key factors influencing production include climate, soil type, and weather conditions in these regions.
Côte d’Ivoire, with the annual cocoa production of 22,00,000 tons, stands as the largest cocoa producer in the world, followed by Ghana, Indonesia, Nigeria and Ecuador.
https://www.worldatlas.com/industries/the-top-cocoa-producing-countries-in-the-world.html
Q.96) With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct: The correct sequence of Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East is Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy103.pdf
Q.97) Consider the following statements:
Statement – 1: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement – 2: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement – 3: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both statements-2 and statement-3 are correct and both of them explain statement-1
b) Both statements-2 and statement-3 are correct, but only one of them explains statement-1
c) Only one of the statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains statement-1
d) Neither Statement -2 nor Statement-3 is correct
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Weathering is the action of elements of weather and climate over earth materials. There are three major groups of weathering processes: (i) chemical; (ii) physical or mechanical; (iii) biological.
Statement I is correct: The chemical weathering processes act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids. Water and air (oxygen and carbon dioxide) along with heat must be present to speed up all chemical reactions. Water from rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering rocks.
Statement II is correct: Normal rain has a pH of approximately 5.6, making it slightly acidic due to the dissolution of carbon dioxide (CO2), which forms weak carbonic acid. Thus, Statement II is correct and explains statement I.
Statement III is correct: During rain, oxygen concentrations in rain drops tend to rise as rain drops saturate with oxygen as they fall. Thus, Rainwater contains atmospheric oxygen.
Therefore, the rainfall supplies water, CO2, and oxygen facilitating the chemical weathering of rocks.
Statement II and Statement III are both correct and explain statement I.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy206.pdf
https://www.epa.gov/caddis/dissolved-oxygen
Q.98) Consider the following countries:
- Finland
- Germany
- Norway
- Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct: The North Sea is the sea surrounded Norway, Scotland, England, France, Belgium, the Netherlands, Germany, and Denmark. (Finland and Russia do not share borders with North Sea).
Source: https://www.worldatlas.com/seas/north-sea.html
Q.99) Consider the following information:
| Waterfall | Region | River |
| 1. Dhuandhar | Malwa | Narmada |
| 2. Hundru | Chota Nagpur | Subarnarekha |
| 3. Gersoppa | Western Ghats | Netravati |
how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Answer: A
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Row 1 is incorrect: The Narmada River originates from the western flank of the Amarkantak plateau (not Malwa) and flows through a rift valley, bordered by the Satpura range to the south and the Vindhyan range to the north. Near Jabalpur district, it carves a scenic gorge through marble rocks and creates the stunning Dhuandhar waterfall.
Row 2 is correct: The Hundru Falls was created on the course of the Subarnarekha River. The falls is located on the Ranchi-Purulia Road on Chota Nagpur Plateau.
Row 3 is incorrect: Jog Falls, also known as Gersoppa Falls, is located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. It is created by Sharavathi river rising in the Western Ghats.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy103.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/fess206.pdf
https://www.india.com/travel/jog-falls/
https://ranchi.nic.in/tourist-place/hundru-waterfall/
https://karnatakatourism.org/tour-item/jog-falls/
Q.100) Consider the following information:
| Region | Name of the mountain range | Type of mountain |
| 1. Central Asia | Vosges | Fold mountain |
| 2. Europe | Alps | Block mountain |
| 3. North America | Appalachians | Fold mountain |
| 4. South America | Andes | Fold mountain |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) All Four
Answer: B
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Row 1 is incorrect: Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Vosges Mountain in Europe (not in Central Asia) is an example of block mountain systems.
Row 2 is incorrect: The Alps is one of the youngest fold mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks located in Europe.
Row 3 is correct: The Appalachians in North America is one of the very old fold mountains in the world.
Row 4 is correct: Andes is one of the youngest fold mountains located in South America.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/fess206.pdf
Importance of the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2024
1. Evaluation of Performance
- The UPSC Prelims Answer Key allows candidates to evaluate their performance by comparing their responses with the correct answers provided in the key.
- Candidates can calculate their estimated scores using the marking scheme, which helps in understanding their standing and chances of qualifying for the Mains exam.
2. Transparency and Accountability
- The release of the answer key promotes transparency in the examination process.
- It provides an official reference for candidates to verify their answers and ensures that the evaluation process is fair and unbiased.
3. Learning Tool
- For candidates preparing for future attempts, the answer key serves as a valuable learning resource.
- By analyzing the official answers, candidates can identify areas of weakness and improve their preparation strategy for upcoming exams.
How to Calculate Scores Using the UPSC Prelims 2024 Answer Key?
Marking Scheme:
- General Studies Paper I:
- Total Questions: 100
- Marks for Correct Answer: +2
- Negative Marks for Incorrect Answer: -0.66
- CSAT (General Studies Paper II):
- Total Questions: 80
- Marks for Correct Answer: +2.5
- Negative Marks for Incorrect Answer: -0.83
Candidates can calculate their scores by applying the above marking scheme to their responses and summing up the total marks.
When UPSC Prelims 2024 Official Answer Key Will Be Released?
The UPSC usually releases the prelims answer key after the declaration of the final results of the examination. For the 2023 prelims, the answer key was made available on the official website on May 9, 2024. Candidates can download the answer key for both General Studies Paper I and CSAT from the provided links.
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