Contents
- 1 Environment and Ecology– 2021
- 2 Environment and Ecology– 2020 and Before that
- 2.1 Environment and Ecology
- 2.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 2.1.0.2 Information
- 2.1.0.3 Results
- 2.1.0.4 Categories
- 2.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 2.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 2.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 2.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 2.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 2.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 2.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 2.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 2.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 2.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 2.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 2.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 2.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 2.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 2.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 2.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 2.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 2.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 2.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 2.1 Environment and Ecology
- 3 Pollution– 2021
- 4 Pollution– 2020 and Before that
- 4.1 Pollution
- 4.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 4.1.0.2 Information
- 4.1.0.3 Results
- 4.1.0.4 Categories
- 4.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 4.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 4.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 4.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 4.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 4.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 4.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 4.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 4.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 4.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 4.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 4.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 4.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 4.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 4.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 4.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 4.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 4.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 4.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 4.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 4.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 4.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 4.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 4.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 4.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 4.1 Pollution
- 5 Protected areas– 2022
- 6 Protected areas– 2021
- 7 Protected areas– 2020 and Before that
- 7.1 Protected areas
- 7.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 7.1.0.2 Information
- 7.1.0.3 Results
- 7.1.0.4 Categories
- 7.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 7.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 7.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 7.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 7.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 7.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 7.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 7.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 7.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 7.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 7.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 7.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 7.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 7.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 7.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 7.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 7.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 7.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 7.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 7.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 7.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 7.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 7.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 7.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 7.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 7.2 Protected areas 2
- 7.1 Protected areas
- 8 Bio-Diversity and Conservation– 2022
- 9 Bio-Diversity and Conservation– 2021
- 10 Bio-Diversity and Conservation– 2020 and Before that
- 10.1 Bio-Diversity and Conservation
- 10.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 10.1.0.2 Information
- 10.1.0.3 Results
- 10.1.0.4 Categories
- 10.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 10.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 10.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 10.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 10.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 10.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 10.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 10.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 10.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 10.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 10.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 10.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 10.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 10.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 10.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 10.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 10.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 10.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 10.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 10.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 10.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 10.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 10.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 10.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 10.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 10.2 Bio-Diversity and Conservation 2
- 10.2.0.1 Test-summary
- 10.2.0.2 Information
- 10.2.0.3 Results
- 10.2.0.4 Categories
- 10.2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 10.2.0.4.2 2. Question
- 10.2.0.4.3 3. Question
- 10.2.0.4.4 4. Question
- 10.2.0.4.5 5. Question
- 10.2.0.4.6 6. Question
- 10.2.0.4.7 7. Question
- 10.2.0.4.8 8. Question
- 10.2.0.4.9 9. Question
- 10.2.0.4.10 10. Question
- 10.2.0.4.11 11. Question
- 10.2.0.4.12 12. Question
- 10.2.0.4.13 13. Question
- 10.2.0.4.14 14. Question
- 10.2.0.4.15 15. Question
- 10.2.0.4.16 16. Question
- 10.2.0.4.17 17. Question
- 10.2.0.4.18 18. Question
- 10.2.0.4.19 19. Question
- 10.2.0.4.20 20. Question
- 10.2.0.4.21 21. Question
- 10.2.0.4.22 22. Question
- 10.2.0.4.23 23. Question
- 10.2.0.4.24 24. Question
- 10.2.0.4.25 25. Question
- 10.3 Bio-Diversity and Conservation 3
- 10.1 Bio-Diversity and Conservation
- 11 Legislations/initiatives– 2022
- 11.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 11.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 11.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 11.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 11.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 11.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 11.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 11.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 11.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 11.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 11.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 11.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 12 Legislations/initiatives– 2021
- 13 Legislations/initiatives– 2020 and Before that
- 13.1 Legislations/initiatives
- 13.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 13.1.0.2 Information
- 13.1.0.3 Results
- 13.1.0.4 Categories
- 13.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 13.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 13.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 13.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 13.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 13.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 13.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 13.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 13.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 13.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 13.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 13.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 13.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 13.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 13.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 13.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 13.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 13.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 13.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 13.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 13.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 13.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 13.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 13.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 13.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 13.2 Legislations/initiatives 2
- 13.1 Legislations/initiatives
- 14 Climate Change– 2021
- 15 Climate Change– 2020 and Before that
- 15.1 Climate Change
- 15.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 15.1.0.2 Information
- 15.1.0.3 Results
- 15.1.0.4 Categories
- 15.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 15.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 15.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 15.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 15.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 15.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 15.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 15.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 15.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 15.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 15.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 15.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 15.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 15.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 15.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 15.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 15.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 15.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 15.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 15.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 15.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 15.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 15.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 15.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 15.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 15.2 Climate Change 2
- 15.2.0.1 Test-summary
- 15.2.0.2 Information
- 15.2.0.3 Results
- 15.2.0.4 Categories
- 15.2.0.4.1 1. Question
- 15.2.0.4.2 2. Question
- 15.2.0.4.3 3. Question
- 15.2.0.4.4 4. Question
- 15.2.0.4.5 5. Question
- 15.2.0.4.6 6. Question
- 15.2.0.4.7 7. Question
- 15.2.0.4.8 8. Question
- 15.2.0.4.9 9. Question
- 15.2.0.4.10 10. Question
- 15.2.0.4.11 11. Question
- 15.2.0.4.12 12. Question
- 15.2.0.4.13 13. Question
- 15.2.0.4.14 14. Question
- 15.1 Climate Change
- 16 Organisations conventions and related– 2022
- 16.0.0.0.1 Marking Pattern
- 16.0.0.0.2 CHOOSE A QUESTION
- 16.0.0.0.3 Question No. 1
- 16.0.0.0.4 Question No. 2
- 16.0.0.0.5 Question No. 3
- 16.0.0.0.6 Question No. 4
- 16.0.0.0.7 Question No. 5
- 16.0.0.0.8 Question No. 6
- 16.0.0.0.9 Question No. 7
- 16.0.0.0.10 Question No. 8
- 16.0.0.0.11 Question No. 9
- 16.0.0.0.12 Question No. 10
- 17 Organisations conventions and related– 2021
- 18 Organisations conventions and related– 2020 and Before that
- 18.1 Organisations conventions and related
- 18.1.0.1 Test-summary
- 18.1.0.2 Information
- 18.1.0.3 Results
- 18.1.0.4 Categories
- 18.1.0.4.1 1. Question
- 18.1.0.4.2 2. Question
- 18.1.0.4.3 3. Question
- 18.1.0.4.4 4. Question
- 18.1.0.4.5 5. Question
- 18.1.0.4.6 6. Question
- 18.1.0.4.7 7. Question
- 18.1.0.4.8 8. Question
- 18.1.0.4.9 9. Question
- 18.1.0.4.10 10. Question
- 18.1.0.4.11 11. Question
- 18.1.0.4.12 12. Question
- 18.1.0.4.13 13. Question
- 18.1.0.4.14 14. Question
- 18.1.0.4.15 15. Question
- 18.1.0.4.16 16. Question
- 18.1.0.4.17 17. Question
- 18.1.0.4.18 18. Question
- 18.1.0.4.19 19. Question
- 18.1.0.4.20 20. Question
- 18.1.0.4.21 21. Question
- 18.1.0.4.22 22. Question
- 18.1.0.4.23 23. Question
- 18.1.0.4.24 24. Question
- 18.1.0.4.25 25. Question
- 18.2 Organisations conventions and related 2
- 18.1 Organisations conventions and related
Environment and Ecology– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 14 Apr, 2021
Test-summary
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- Review
- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are the biotic components of Environment?
1. Symbionts
2. Radiation
3. Gravity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The environment is not static. Both biotic and abiotic factors are in a flux and keep changing continuously.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The environment is not static. Both biotic and abiotic factors are in a flux and keep changing continuously.
Source: Shankar
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyIn ecosystem, the organisms which are incapable of producing their own food are called as?
Correct
Consumers – Heterotrophs or phagotrophs (other nourishing): Consumers are incapable of producing their own food (photosynthesis). They depend on organic food derived from plants, animals or both.
Source: NCERT
Incorrect
Consumers – Heterotrophs or phagotrophs (other nourishing): Consumers are incapable of producing their own food (photosynthesis). They depend on organic food derived from plants, animals or both.
Source: NCERT
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyEcosystems are capable of maintaining their state of equilibrium & they can regulate their own species structure and functional processes – is called as?
Correct
Ecosystems are capable of maintaining their state of equilibrium. They can regulate their own species structure and functional processes. This capacity of ecosystem of self-regulation is known as homeostasis.
Source: NCERT
Incorrect
Ecosystems are capable of maintaining their state of equilibrium. They can regulate their own species structure and functional processes. This capacity of ecosystem of self-regulation is known as homeostasis.
Source: NCERT
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are the examples of ecotone?
1. River Bank
2. Mangrove
3. Estuary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are – grassland, estuary and river bank.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are – grassland, estuary and river bank.
Source: Shankar
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following plant/plants is/are “Predator plants”?
1. Pitcher plants
2. Sarracenia
3. Butterworts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Carnivorous plants are usually categorized based on the way they catch the insects. There are wide varieties of common predator plants — pitcher plants, sundews, sarracenia, Venus fly trap and butterworts.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Carnivorous plants are usually categorized based on the way they catch the insects. There are wide varieties of common predator plants — pitcher plants, sundews, sarracenia, Venus fly trap and butterworts.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Tiger estimation”:
1. It is conducted for every four years by Central Zoo Authority.
2. It is technically supported by IUCN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The All-India Tiger Estimation done every four years once, it is
Steered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority
Technically supported by Wildlife Institute of India
Implemented by State Forest Departments and partners.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The All-India Tiger Estimation done every four years once, it is
Steered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority
Technically supported by Wildlife Institute of India
Implemented by State Forest Departments and partners.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Climate Investment Funds (CIFs)”:
1. World Bank is the trustee of CIFs.
2. They were designed by developed and developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Climate Investment Funds (CIFs) are implemented by the Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) to bridge the financing and learning gap between international climate change agreements.
- They were designed by developed and developing countries. The World Bank is the Trustee of the CIFs.
- It includes a “sunset clause” to ensure that the Fund’s activities do not prejudice the outcome on the UNFCCC negotiations.
CIFs are two distinct funds
- Clean Technology Fund
- Strategic Climate Fund.
The CTF promotes scaled-up financing for demonstration, deployment and transfer of low carbon technologies with a significant potential for long-term greenhouse gas emissions savings.
Source: World Bank
Incorrect
The Climate Investment Funds (CIFs) are implemented by the Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) to bridge the financing and learning gap between international climate change agreements.
- They were designed by developed and developing countries. The World Bank is the Trustee of the CIFs.
- It includes a “sunset clause” to ensure that the Fund’s activities do not prejudice the outcome on the UNFCCC negotiations.
CIFs are two distinct funds
- Clean Technology Fund
- Strategic Climate Fund.
The CTF promotes scaled-up financing for demonstration, deployment and transfer of low carbon technologies with a significant potential for long-term greenhouse gas emissions savings.
Source: World Bank
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Selective Catalytic Reduction” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF) and Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) are being introduced with the roll-out of BS VI norms, which were not a part of BS IV.
- Real Driving Emission (RDE) will be introduced in India for the first time with the implementation of Bharat Stage VI emission norms.
- It will measure a vehicle’s emission in real-time conditions against laboratory conditions.
- Onboard Diagnostics (OD) has been made mandatory for all vehicles which will give the vehicle owner or repair technician access to the status of the various vehicle sub-systems.
Source: MOEFCC
Incorrect
Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF) and Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) are being introduced with the roll-out of BS VI norms, which were not a part of BS IV.
- Real Driving Emission (RDE) will be introduced in India for the first time with the implementation of Bharat Stage VI emission norms.
- It will measure a vehicle’s emission in real-time conditions against laboratory conditions.
- Onboard Diagnostics (OD) has been made mandatory for all vehicles which will give the vehicle owner or repair technician access to the status of the various vehicle sub-systems.
Source: MOEFCC
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are NOT the characteristics of “Petcoke”?
1. It is a by-product of oil refinery process.
2. It is a high-grade fuel with high calorific value.
3. Low ash with low sulphur content.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Petcoke is a by-product (carbonaceous solid) of the oil refinery process mainly “the bottom of the barrel.”
It is characterized as a high-grade fuel with high calorific value of more than 8,000 Kcal per kg, having low ash content and low volatile matter but high Sulphur content, up to 7%.
Source: Indian Express
Incorrect
Petcoke is a by-product (carbonaceous solid) of the oil refinery process mainly “the bottom of the barrel.”
It is characterized as a high-grade fuel with high calorific value of more than 8,000 Kcal per kg, having low ash content and low volatile matter but high Sulphur content, up to 7%.
Source: Indian Express
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “uranium contamination in India”:
1. The permissible limit according to the World Health Organization (WHO) is 50 microgram per litre.
2. There is limit maintained for uranium under Bureau of Indian Standards’ Drinking Water Specifications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The permissible limit according to the World Health Organization (WHO) is 30 microgram per litre.
- However, unlike the limits for arsenic and other toxic or heavy metals specified in the under Bureau of Indian Standards’ Drinking Water Specifications, there is no limit maintained for uranium.
- Earlier, a report brought by Central Ground Water Board noted widespread uranium contamination in groundwater from aquifers across 16 states in India including Punjab, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, etc.
Uranium can cause serious ailments such as:
- If uranium-laced water, more than permissible level, is consumed for long, it can cause thyroid cancer, blood cancer, depression and other serious ailments.
- Some studies have also linked the excessive ingestion of uranium to chronic kidneys disease.
Source: Down to Earth
Incorrect
The permissible limit according to the World Health Organization (WHO) is 30 microgram per litre.
- However, unlike the limits for arsenic and other toxic or heavy metals specified in the under Bureau of Indian Standards’ Drinking Water Specifications, there is no limit maintained for uranium.
- Earlier, a report brought by Central Ground Water Board noted widespread uranium contamination in groundwater from aquifers across 16 states in India including Punjab, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, etc.
Uranium can cause serious ailments such as:
- If uranium-laced water, more than permissible level, is consumed for long, it can cause thyroid cancer, blood cancer, depression and other serious ailments.
- Some studies have also linked the excessive ingestion of uranium to chronic kidneys disease.
Source: Down to Earth
Environment and Ecology– 2020 and Before that
Environment and Ecology
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- Question 1 of 19
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following wetland(s) is/are correctly matched to their respective country(s)?
1. Pantanal – Brazil
2. Llanos – Venezuela
3. Sudd – Argentina
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correctly matched. The Pantanal is the world’s largest tropical wetland located in southwestern Brazil and some part in neighboring Paraguay and Bolivia.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Los Llanos is vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of the Andes in Colombia and Venezuela, in northwestern South America. It is an eco-region of the flooded grasslands and savannas biome.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. The Sudd wetland in South Sudan, formed by the White Nile’s Baḥr al-Jabal section, represents one of the largest freshwater ecosystems in the world.Incorrect
Option 1 is correctly matched. The Pantanal is the world’s largest tropical wetland located in southwestern Brazil and some part in neighboring Paraguay and Bolivia.
Option 2 is correctly matched. Los Llanos is vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of the Andes in Colombia and Venezuela, in northwestern South America. It is an eco-region of the flooded grasslands and savannas biome.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. The Sudd wetland in South Sudan, formed by the White Nile’s Baḥr al-Jabal section, represents one of the largest freshwater ecosystems in the world. - Question 2 of 19
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are types of Ecosystem Services derived from nature?
1. Provisioning Services
2. Regulating Services
3. Cultural Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, a major UN-sponsored effort to analyze the impact of human actions on ecosystems and human well-being, defined Ecosystem Services as “the benefits people derive from ecosystems” and identified four major categories of ecosystem services: provisioning, regulating, cultural and supporting services.
Provisioning services are: The products obtained from ecosystems, including, for example, genetic resources, food and fiber, and fresh water.
Regulating services are: The benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes, including, for example, the regulation of climate, water, and some human diseases.
Cultural services are: The non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems through spiritual enrichment, cognitive development, reflection, recreation, and aesthetic experience, including, e.g., knowledge systems, social relations, and aesthetic values.
Supporting services are: Ecosystem services that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services. Some examples include biomass production, production of atmospheric oxygen, soil formation and retention, nutrient cycling, water cycling, and provisioning of habitat.
# Ecosystem services provided by New Delhi’s National Zoological Park are estimated to have generated Rs 422.76 crore in 2019-20 as per the study by the Energy and Resources Institute commissioned by Central Zoo Authority.Incorrect
The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, a major UN-sponsored effort to analyze the impact of human actions on ecosystems and human well-being, defined Ecosystem Services as “the benefits people derive from ecosystems” and identified four major categories of ecosystem services: provisioning, regulating, cultural and supporting services.
Provisioning services are: The products obtained from ecosystems, including, for example, genetic resources, food and fiber, and fresh water.
Regulating services are: The benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes, including, for example, the regulation of climate, water, and some human diseases.
Cultural services are: The non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems through spiritual enrichment, cognitive development, reflection, recreation, and aesthetic experience, including, e.g., knowledge systems, social relations, and aesthetic values.
Supporting services are: Ecosystem services that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services. Some examples include biomass production, production of atmospheric oxygen, soil formation and retention, nutrient cycling, water cycling, and provisioning of habitat.
# Ecosystem services provided by New Delhi’s National Zoological Park are estimated to have generated Rs 422.76 crore in 2019-20 as per the study by the Energy and Resources Institute commissioned by Central Zoo Authority. - Question 3 of 19
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following organization has released the Living Planet Report 2020?
Correct
The Living Planet Report, WWF’s flagship publication released every two
years, is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet.
Through multiple indicators including the Living Planet Index (LPI), provided by the
Zoological Society of London (ZSL), it shows an average 68% fall in almost 21,000 wildlife
populations between 1970 and 2016.
The 2020 report finds that the highest biodiversity loss due to land use change globally has
been found in Europe and Central Asia at 57.9 per cent, then in North America at 52.5 per
cent, Latin America and Caribbean at 51.2 per cent, Africa at 45.9 per cent and then Asia
at 43 per cent.
India has lost nearly one-third of its natural wetlands to urbanization, agricultural
expansion and pollution over the last four decades and WWF India’s report on Water
Stewardship for Industries revealed that 14 out of 20 river basins in India are already water
stressed and will be moving to extreme water scarcity by 2050.Incorrect
The Living Planet Report, WWF’s flagship publication released every two
years, is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet.
Through multiple indicators including the Living Planet Index (LPI), provided by the
Zoological Society of London (ZSL), it shows an average 68% fall in almost 21,000 wildlife
populations between 1970 and 2016.
The 2020 report finds that the highest biodiversity loss due to land use change globally has
been found in Europe and Central Asia at 57.9 per cent, then in North America at 52.5 per
cent, Latin America and Caribbean at 51.2 per cent, Africa at 45.9 per cent and then Asia
at 43 per cent.
India has lost nearly one-third of its natural wetlands to urbanization, agricultural
expansion and pollution over the last four decades and WWF India’s report on Water
Stewardship for Industries revealed that 14 out of 20 river basins in India are already water
stressed and will be moving to extreme water scarcity by 2050. - Question 4 of 19
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following institution has recently released the ‘Ecological Threat
Register’ report?Correct
The 2020 Ecological Threat Register (ETR) is the inaugural edition which
covers 157 independent states and territories. It has been released by the Institute for
Economics and Peace (IEP).
The ETR measures ecological threats that countries are currently facing and provides
projections to 2050. The Ecological Threat Register analyses risk from population growth,
water stress, food insecurity, droughts, floods, cyclones, rising temperatures and sea levels.
Report highlights:
-Over the next 30 years, 141 countries are exposed to at least one ecological threat by 2050.
-Country with the largest number of people at risk of mass displacements in Pakistan,
followed by Ethiopia and Iran. In these countries, even small ecological threats and
natural disasters could result in mass population displacement, affecting regional and
global security.
-Today, 2.6 billion people experience high or extreme water stress – by 2040, this will
increase to 5.4 billion people.
-So far, India received the largest amount of climate-related aid in 2018, amounting to the
US $6.5 billion dollars.Incorrect
The 2020 Ecological Threat Register (ETR) is the inaugural edition which
covers 157 independent states and territories. It has been released by the Institute for
Economics and Peace (IEP).
The ETR measures ecological threats that countries are currently facing and provides
projections to 2050. The Ecological Threat Register analyses risk from population growth,
water stress, food insecurity, droughts, floods, cyclones, rising temperatures and sea levels.
Report highlights:
-Over the next 30 years, 141 countries are exposed to at least one ecological threat by 2050.
-Country with the largest number of people at risk of mass displacements in Pakistan,
followed by Ethiopia and Iran. In these countries, even small ecological threats and
natural disasters could result in mass population displacement, affecting regional and
global security.
-Today, 2.6 billion people experience high or extreme water stress – by 2040, this will
increase to 5.4 billion people.
-So far, India received the largest amount of climate-related aid in 2018, amounting to the
US $6.5 billion dollars. - Question 5 of 19
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Blue Flag certification:
1. It is an eco-label awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism
operators.
2. The certification is accorded by UN Environment Program under Ramsar Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most
recognized voluntary eco-labels awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating
tourism operators.
In order to qualify for this prestigious award, a series of stringent environmental,
educational, safety-related and access-related criteria must be met and maintained.
It has 33 stringent criteria in four major heads–environmental education and
information, bathing water quality, environment management and conservation and safety
and services in the beaches.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Blue Flag programme is operated under the auspices of the
Foundation for Environmental Education and is headquartered in Copenhagen,
Denmark.
# Eight beaches of the country have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’
international eco-label: Shivrajpur in Gujarat, Ghoghla in Daman and Diu, Kasarkod and
Padubidri in Karnataka, Kappad in Kerala, Rushikonda in Andhra Pradesh, Golden in Odisha
and Radhanagar in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most
recognized voluntary eco-labels awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating
tourism operators.
In order to qualify for this prestigious award, a series of stringent environmental,
educational, safety-related and access-related criteria must be met and maintained.
It has 33 stringent criteria in four major heads–environmental education and
information, bathing water quality, environment management and conservation and safety
and services in the beaches.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Blue Flag programme is operated under the auspices of the
Foundation for Environmental Education and is headquartered in Copenhagen,
Denmark.
# Eight beaches of the country have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’
international eco-label: Shivrajpur in Gujarat, Ghoghla in Daman and Diu, Kasarkod and
Padubidri in Karnataka, Kappad in Kerala, Rushikonda in Andhra Pradesh, Golden in Odisha
and Radhanagar in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. - Question 6 of 19
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Savanna Climate:
1. It has alternate wet and dry seasons similar to monsoon climate but has considerably
less annual rainfall.
2. It is confined within the tropics.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
Savanna Climate.
Statement 1 is correct: Savanna Climate is a type of climate has alternate wet and dry
seasons similar to monsoon climate but has considerably less annual rainfall. Also, there
is no distinct rainy season like in monsoon climate.
Statement 2 is correct: It is confined within the tropics and is best developed in Sudan,
hence its name the Sudan Climate.Incorrect
Savanna Climate.
Statement 1 is correct: Savanna Climate is a type of climate has alternate wet and dry
seasons similar to monsoon climate but has considerably less annual rainfall. Also, there
is no distinct rainy season like in monsoon climate.
Statement 2 is correct: It is confined within the tropics and is best developed in Sudan,
hence its name the Sudan Climate. - Question 7 of 19
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are criteria for identifying “Wetlands of International
Importance”?
1. If Wetlands contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or nearnatural
wetland type found within the appropriate bio-geographic region.
2. If Wetlands regularly supports 10,000 or more water birds.
3. If Wetlands regularly supports 10% of the individuals in a population of one species or
subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Under the Ramsar Criteria, wetlands should be selected for the Ramsar List
on account of their international significance in terms of the biodiversity and uniqueness
of their ecology, botany, zoology, limnology or hydrology. In addition, the Criteria
indicate that in the first instance, wetlands of international importance to water-birds at
any season should be included on the Ramsar List.Incorrect
Under the Ramsar Criteria, wetlands should be selected for the Ramsar List
on account of their international significance in terms of the biodiversity and uniqueness
of their ecology, botany, zoology, limnology or hydrology. In addition, the Criteria
indicate that in the first instance, wetlands of international importance to water-birds at
any season should be included on the Ramsar List. - Question 8 of 19
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are characteristics of “Mangroves”?
1. They are basically evergreen land plants growing on shelted shores like tidal flats, deltas,
bays and creeks.
2. They exhibits viviparity mode of reproduction.
3. They require less solar radiation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Mangrove swamps are coastal wetlands found in tropical and subtropical
regions. They are characterized by halophytic (salt loving) trees, shrubs and other plants
growing in brackish to saline tidal waters. These wetlands are often found in estuaries,
where fresh water meets salt water and are infamous for their impenetrable maze of woody
vegetation.
Important characteristics of Mangroves:
•They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on
tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.
•They exhibits viviparity mode of reproduction, it means seeds germinate in the
tree itself.
•They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from
saline/brackish water.Incorrect
Mangrove swamps are coastal wetlands found in tropical and subtropical
regions. They are characterized by halophytic (salt loving) trees, shrubs and other plants
growing in brackish to saline tidal waters. These wetlands are often found in estuaries,
where fresh water meets salt water and are infamous for their impenetrable maze of woody
vegetation.
Important characteristics of Mangroves:
•They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on
tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.
•They exhibits viviparity mode of reproduction, it means seeds germinate in the
tree itself.
•They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from
saline/brackish water. - Question 9 of 19
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Cold water corals”?
1. Cold-water corals have symbiotic algae living in their polyps.
2. They are found on the continental shelf and also in deep-sea areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Cold water coral reefs.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike tropical corals, cold-water corals don’t have symbiotic
algae living in their polyps so they don’t need sunlight to survive. They feed solely by
capturing food particles from the surrounding water. Their polyps tend to be much bigger
than tropical corals.
Statement 2 is correct: Cold-water coral reefs are commonly found where current flow is
accelerated. They are found on the continental shelf, and also in deep-sea areas with
topographic highs, such as seamounts, mounds, ridges, and pinnacles.Incorrect
Cold water coral reefs.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike tropical corals, cold-water corals don’t have symbiotic
algae living in their polyps so they don’t need sunlight to survive. They feed solely by
capturing food particles from the surrounding water. Their polyps tend to be much bigger
than tropical corals.
Statement 2 is correct: Cold-water coral reefs are commonly found where current flow is
accelerated. They are found on the continental shelf, and also in deep-sea areas with
topographic highs, such as seamounts, mounds, ridges, and pinnacles. - Question 10 of 19
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Sunderban Wetland”?
1. It is the largest protected wetland in the country.
2. It is a UNESCO World heritage site.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Sunderban Wetland.
•On January 30, 2019 the Indian Sundarban was accorded the status of ‘Wetland of
International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention.
•The Sundarbans comprises hundreds of islands and a network of rivers, tributaries
and creeks in the delta of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra at the mouth of the Bay
of Bengal in India and Bangladesh.
•Located on the southwestern part of the delta, the Indian Sundarban constitutes
over 60% of the country’s total mangrove forest area.
•It is the 27th Ramsar Site in India, and with an area of 4,23,000 hectares is
now the largest protected wetland in the country.
•The Indian Sundarban, also a UNESCO world heritage site, and it is home to
the Royal Bengal Tiger.Incorrect
Sunderban Wetland.
•On January 30, 2019 the Indian Sundarban was accorded the status of ‘Wetland of
International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention.
•The Sundarbans comprises hundreds of islands and a network of rivers, tributaries
and creeks in the delta of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra at the mouth of the Bay
of Bengal in India and Bangladesh.
•Located on the southwestern part of the delta, the Indian Sundarban constitutes
over 60% of the country’s total mangrove forest area.
•It is the 27th Ramsar Site in India, and with an area of 4,23,000 hectares is
now the largest protected wetland in the country.
•The Indian Sundarban, also a UNESCO world heritage site, and it is home to
the Royal Bengal Tiger. - Question 11 of 19
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe term “MARKAL model” is related to which of the following?
Correct
MARKAL computes energy balances at all levels of an energy system:
primary resources, secondary fuels, final energy, and energy services.
•The model aims to supply energy services at minimum global cost by
simultaneously making equipment investment and operating decisions and primary
energy supply decisions, by region.
•For example, in MARKAL, if there is an increase in residential lighting energy service
(perhaps due to a decline in the cost of residential lighting), either existing
generation equipment must be used more intensively or new equipment must be
installed.
•The choice of generation equipment (type and fuel) incorporates analysis of both the
characteristics of alternative generation technologies and the economics of primary
energy supply.
•MARKAL is thus a vertically integrated model of the entire energy system.Incorrect
MARKAL computes energy balances at all levels of an energy system:
primary resources, secondary fuels, final energy, and energy services.
•The model aims to supply energy services at minimum global cost by
simultaneously making equipment investment and operating decisions and primary
energy supply decisions, by region.
•For example, in MARKAL, if there is an increase in residential lighting energy service
(perhaps due to a decline in the cost of residential lighting), either existing
generation equipment must be used more intensively or new equipment must be
installed.
•The choice of generation equipment (type and fuel) incorporates analysis of both the
characteristics of alternative generation technologies and the economics of primary
energy supply.
•MARKAL is thus a vertically integrated model of the entire energy system. - Question 12 of 19
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyAccording to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, which of the following state
has highest Plant (tree + shrub + herb) Species richness?Correct
The top five Species richness states are Arunachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
Karnataka, Jammu & Kashmir and Kerala.Incorrect
The top five Species richness states are Arunachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
Karnataka, Jammu & Kashmir and Kerala. - Question 13 of 19
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyAccording to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, which of the following has
highest per capita dependence on forests for Bamboo?Correct
Andaman & Nicobar Islands has highest per capita dependence on forests for
Bamboo.Incorrect
Andaman & Nicobar Islands has highest per capita dependence on forests for
Bamboo. - Question 14 of 19
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWith reference to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, arrange the following
states in descending order in terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical
area:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Mizoram
3. Manipur
4. Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Shri
Prakash Javadekar today released the biennial “India State of Forest Report (ISFR)”, in New
Delhi.
•The report is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) which has been
mandated to assess the forest and tree resources of the country including wall-towall
forest cover mapping in a biennial cycle.
•Starting 1987, ISFR 2019 is the 16th report in the series.
•Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed
by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
•In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five
States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya
(76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%).Incorrect
The Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Shri
Prakash Javadekar today released the biennial “India State of Forest Report (ISFR)”, in New
Delhi.
•The report is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) which has been
mandated to assess the forest and tree resources of the country including wall-towall
forest cover mapping in a biennial cycle.
•Starting 1987, ISFR 2019 is the 16th report in the series.
•Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed
by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
•In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five
States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya
(76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%). - Question 15 of 19
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe tribes “Bedouins and Bindibu” are associated with which of the following climatic regions?
Correct
The mid-latitude desert is considered an arid climate in which the total annual precipitation is less than half the annual potential evapotranspiration.
• Precipitation is sparse as the interior location is distant from a source of moisture. Or, the lack of rainfall is due to its leeward, rain shadow location.
• Despite the inhospitality, the desert has always been populated by different group of inhabitations such as Bedouins of Arab, Bushmen of Kalahari, Bindibu of Australia etc.Incorrect
The mid-latitude desert is considered an arid climate in which the total annual precipitation is less than half the annual potential evapotranspiration.
• Precipitation is sparse as the interior location is distant from a source of moisture. Or, the lack of rainfall is due to its leeward, rain shadow location.
• Despite the inhospitality, the desert has always been populated by different group of inhabitations such as Bedouins of Arab, Bushmen of Kalahari, Bindibu of Australia etc. - Question 16 of 19
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The rainfall mostly experienced in winters. It is also known as Subtropical Winter Rain Zone. The vegetation is mostly deciduous type. In summer, short stature, moisture retentive trees especially citrus fruits grow here.” Which of the following region describes the above lines?
Correct
The climate is known for warm to hot, dry summers and mild to cool, wet winters. Winter temperatures are usually between 30 and 65 degrees. Summer months all average above 50 degrees. The warmest month averages about 72 degrees.
• The cause of this climate is directly related to large bodies of water such as the Mediterranean Sea and ocean currents.
• During the summer, cold currents keep the climate mild and dry. Ocean currents shift as the seasons change.
• During the winter the water that was warmed up all summer moves in and keeps the land warm and often brings rain.
• Plants in Mediterranean climate must be able to survive long dry summers. Evergreens such as Pine and Cypress trees are mixed with deciduous trees such as some Oaks.
• Fruit trees and vines such as grapes, figs, olives, and citrus fruits grow well here. Other plants include what are called “scrub”, which include small shrubs, grasses, and herbs.Incorrect
The climate is known for warm to hot, dry summers and mild to cool, wet winters. Winter temperatures are usually between 30 and 65 degrees. Summer months all average above 50 degrees. The warmest month averages about 72 degrees.
• The cause of this climate is directly related to large bodies of water such as the Mediterranean Sea and ocean currents.
• During the summer, cold currents keep the climate mild and dry. Ocean currents shift as the seasons change.
• During the winter the water that was warmed up all summer moves in and keeps the land warm and often brings rain.
• Plants in Mediterranean climate must be able to survive long dry summers. Evergreens such as Pine and Cypress trees are mixed with deciduous trees such as some Oaks.
• Fruit trees and vines such as grapes, figs, olives, and citrus fruits grow well here. Other plants include what are called “scrub”, which include small shrubs, grasses, and herbs. - Question 17 of 19
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Bridgestone World Solar Challenge (BWSC)” is often seen in news is conducted in which of the following country?
Correct
For over 30 years, the Bridgestone World Solar Challenge has welcomed the greatest minds from around the world to Australia to push the limits of technological innovation and travel the outback in a vehicle powered only by the energy of the sun.
- Traversing 3,000km from Darwin to Adelaide, teams comprise of tertiary and secondary students from over 30 countries.
These students and their support team have achieved greatness by engineering and building a vehicle with their own hands and powering it across some of the world’s most challenging landscape.
In 2017, the Bridgestone World Solar Challenge celebrated its 30th Anniversary. The 2021 competition marks the 16th journey from the Top End to Adelaide.
Based on the original notion that a 1000W car would complete the journey in 50 hours, solar cars are allowed a nominal 5kW hours of stored energy, which is 10% of that theoretical figure.
All other energy must come from the sun or be recovered from the kinetic energy of the vehicle. These are arguably the most efficient electric vehicles.
Incorrect
For over 30 years, the Bridgestone World Solar Challenge has welcomed the greatest minds from around the world to Australia to push the limits of technological innovation and travel the outback in a vehicle powered only by the energy of the sun.
- Traversing 3,000km from Darwin to Adelaide, teams comprise of tertiary and secondary students from over 30 countries.
These students and their support team have achieved greatness by engineering and building a vehicle with their own hands and powering it across some of the world’s most challenging landscape.
In 2017, the Bridgestone World Solar Challenge celebrated its 30th Anniversary. The 2021 competition marks the 16th journey from the Top End to Adelaide.
Based on the original notion that a 1000W car would complete the journey in 50 hours, solar cars are allowed a nominal 5kW hours of stored energy, which is 10% of that theoretical figure.
All other energy must come from the sun or be recovered from the kinetic energy of the vehicle. These are arguably the most efficient electric vehicles.
- Question 18 of 19
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Recycling of nutrients in the ecosystem through the process of mineralization of dead organic materials is the most important role for decomposers”, which of the following given is decomposers?
Correct
Saprotrophs feed by a process known as absorptive nutrition, in which the nutritional substrate (e.g., dead organism or other nonliving organic matter) is directly digested by a variety of enzymes that are excreted by the saprotroph.
The enzymes convert the detritus into simpler molecules, which are then absorbed by the cells to feed the organism.
Incorrect
Saprotrophs feed by a process known as absorptive nutrition, in which the nutritional substrate (e.g., dead organism or other nonliving organic matter) is directly digested by a variety of enzymes that are excreted by the saprotroph.
The enzymes convert the detritus into simpler molecules, which are then absorbed by the cells to feed the organism.
- Question 19 of 19
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the “Tropical Thorn Forest”:
- These occur in areas with rainfall less than 50 cm.
- Important species found here are oak, teak and sal.
- The forests are given an expression of scrub vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Tropical thorn forests occur in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm.
These consist of a variety of grasses and shrubs. It includes semi-arid areas of south west Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
In these forests, plants remain leafless for most part of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation.
Important species found are babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, etc. Tussocky grass grows upto a height of 2 m as the under growth.
Incorrect
Tropical thorn forests occur in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm.
These consist of a variety of grasses and shrubs. It includes semi-arid areas of south west Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
In these forests, plants remain leafless for most part of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation.
Important species found are babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, etc. Tussocky grass grows upto a height of 2 m as the under growth.
Pollution– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 26 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“State of Global Air” is recently in news is released by?
Correct
Long-term exposure to outdoor and household air pollution contributed to over 1.67 million annual deaths from stroke, heart attack, diabetes, lung cancer, chronic lung diseases and neonatal diseases in India in 2019, according to the State of Global Air 2020 by the U.S.-based Health Effects Institute.
Overall, air pollution was now the largest risk factor for death among all health risks, the report noted.
Incorrect
Long-term exposure to outdoor and household air pollution contributed to over 1.67 million annual deaths from stroke, heart attack, diabetes, lung cancer, chronic lung diseases and neonatal diseases in India in 2019, according to the State of Global Air 2020 by the U.S.-based Health Effects Institute.
Overall, air pollution was now the largest risk factor for death among all health risks, the report noted.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1. According to IQAir, New Delhi was the world’s most polluted capital in 2020.
2. Report is based on the calculation of PM 2.5.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
New Delhi was the world’s most polluted capital for the third straight year in 2020, according to IQAir, a Swiss group that measures air quality levels based on the concentration of lung-damaging airborne particles known as PM2.5.
- India was home to 35 of the world’s 50 most polluted cities, according to IQAir’s 2020 World Air Quality Report, which gathered data for 106 countries.
- The findings were based on the country’s annual average of particulate matter PM2.5, airborne particles with less than 2.5 microns in diameter.
- Prolonged exposure to PM2.5 can lead to deadly diseases, including cancer and cardiac problems.
Incorrect
New Delhi was the world’s most polluted capital for the third straight year in 2020, according to IQAir, a Swiss group that measures air quality levels based on the concentration of lung-damaging airborne particles known as PM2.5.
- India was home to 35 of the world’s 50 most polluted cities, according to IQAir’s 2020 World Air Quality Report, which gathered data for 106 countries.
- The findings were based on the country’s annual average of particulate matter PM2.5, airborne particles with less than 2.5 microns in diameter.
- Prolonged exposure to PM2.5 can lead to deadly diseases, including cancer and cardiac problems.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding particulate matter:
1. PM2.5 and PM10 are mixture of solid and liquid particles generally having diameters of or less than 2.5 and 10 micrometers.
2. The common chemical composition of particulate matter includes nitrates, sulfates, ammonium, and also metals and biological components.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
PM2.5 and PM10 are mixture of solid and liquid particles generally having diameters of or less than 2.5 and 10 micrometers— smaller than the diameter of a single strand of average human hair, which is about 70 micrometers.
- The 24-hour exposure limit of PM2.5 in India is 60 micrograms per cubic meter air (ug/m3), while that of PM10 is 100 ug/m3.
- At the three highly polluted areas in Delhi between 12PM Thursday and Friday, the levels of PM2.5 and PM10 had reached 500 ug/m3 or close to it.
- These particulates are emitted from various sources and can be inhaled, causing serious health problems.
- Their physical and chemical characteristics vary by location, and common chemical composition includes nitrates, sulfates, ammonium, and also metals and biological components.
Incorrect
PM2.5 and PM10 are mixture of solid and liquid particles generally having diameters of or less than 2.5 and 10 micrometers— smaller than the diameter of a single strand of average human hair, which is about 70 micrometers.
- The 24-hour exposure limit of PM2.5 in India is 60 micrograms per cubic meter air (ug/m3), while that of PM10 is 100 ug/m3.
- At the three highly polluted areas in Delhi between 12PM Thursday and Friday, the levels of PM2.5 and PM10 had reached 500 ug/m3 or close to it.
- These particulates are emitted from various sources and can be inhaled, causing serious health problems.
- Their physical and chemical characteristics vary by location, and common chemical composition includes nitrates, sulfates, ammonium, and also metals and biological components.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are common source/sources of Particulate Matter?
1. Combustion of petrol & diesel engines
2. Combustion of solid fuel for energy production
3. Erosion of pavement by road traffic
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Combustion of diesel and petrol in engines, combustion of solid fuel for energy production, construction and industrial activities, and erosion of pavement by road traffic are some of the primary sources of PM, but they are also formed in the atmosphere through chemical reaction of gaseous pollutants.
Incorrect
Combustion of diesel and petrol in engines, combustion of solid fuel for energy production, construction and industrial activities, and erosion of pavement by road traffic are some of the primary sources of PM, but they are also formed in the atmosphere through chemical reaction of gaseous pollutants.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Ammonia:
1. It occurs naturally in air, soil and water, and is used as an agricultural fertilizer and in cleaning products.
2. Short-term inhalation of high levels of ammonia can cause irritation and serious burns in the mouth, lungs and eyes.
Which of the statements above given is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Ammonia (NH3) is another gaseous pollutant that is monitored, whose 24-hour exposure limit is 400 ug/m3.
- The average 24-hour range of NH3 as of 1pm on Friday at the three highly polluted areas in Delhi was between 9 and 28 ug/m3, as per CPCB data.
- The EPA states that ammonia occurs naturally in air, soil and water, and is used as an agricultural fertilizer and in cleaning products.
- Short-term inhalation of high levels of ammonia can cause irritation and serious burns in the mouth, lungs and eyes.
- Chronic exposure to airborne ammonia can increase the risk of respiratory problems, including impaired lung function.
Incorrect
Ammonia (NH3) is another gaseous pollutant that is monitored, whose 24-hour exposure limit is 400 ug/m3.
- The average 24-hour range of NH3 as of 1pm on Friday at the three highly polluted areas in Delhi was between 9 and 28 ug/m3, as per CPCB data.
- The EPA states that ammonia occurs naturally in air, soil and water, and is used as an agricultural fertilizer and in cleaning products.
- Short-term inhalation of high levels of ammonia can cause irritation and serious burns in the mouth, lungs and eyes.
- Chronic exposure to airborne ammonia can increase the risk of respiratory problems, including impaired lung function.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Sulfur Dioxide:
- China is the largest emitter of Sulfur dioxide pollution.
- Largest source of SO2 in atmosphere is burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and particulate matter emitted from combustion of fossil fuels have, historically, been the main components of air pollution in many parts of the world.
- A Greenpeace report from 2019 had found that India was the largest emitter of SO2 in the world due to burning of coal.
- The EPA states that largest source of SO2 in atmosphere is burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.
- Short-term exposure to SO2 can harm respiratory system, making breathing more difficult.
- SO2 emissions in the air can also lead to formation of other sulphur oxides (SOx), which can react with other compounds in the atmosphere and form particulate matter.
Incorrect
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and particulate matter emitted from combustion of fossil fuels have, historically, been the main components of air pollution in many parts of the world.
- A Greenpeace report from 2019 had found that India was the largest emitter of SO2 in the world due to burning of coal.
- The EPA states that largest source of SO2 in atmosphere is burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.
- Short-term exposure to SO2 can harm respiratory system, making breathing more difficult.
- SO2 emissions in the air can also lead to formation of other sulphur oxides (SOx), which can react with other compounds in the atmosphere and form particulate matter.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are the applications of fly ash?
- Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability.
- It can be used in reclamation of wastelands.
- It can increase the crop yield and it also enhances water holding capacity of the land.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Cement can be replaced by fly ash up to 35%, thus reducing the cost of construction, making roads, etc.
- Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability.
- Fly ash is a better fill material for road embankments and in concrete roads.
- Fly ash can be used in reclamation of wastelands.
- Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly ash.
- Fly ash can increase the crop yield and it also enhances water holding capacity of the land.
Source: Shankar page no: 58
Incorrect
Cement can be replaced by fly ash up to 35%, thus reducing the cost of construction, making roads, etc.
- Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability.
- Fly ash is a better fill material for road embankments and in concrete roads.
- Fly ash can be used in reclamation of wastelands.
- Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly ash.
- Fly ash can increase the crop yield and it also enhances water holding capacity of the land.
Source: Shankar page no: 58
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “National Air Quality Index”:
- It was launched in April, 2019 starting with 14 cities to disseminate air quality information.
- Carbon monoxide and Particulate Matter 2.5 are part of National Air Quality Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
National Air Quality Index was launched by the Prime Minister in April, 2015 starting with 14 cities to disseminate air quality information.
- The AQI has six categories of air quality, viz Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor and Severe with distinct colour scheme.
- Each of these categories is associated with likely health impacts.
- AQI considers eight pollutants (PM10, PM 2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb) for which (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.
Source: Shankar page no: 61
Incorrect
National Air Quality Index was launched by the Prime Minister in April, 2015 starting with 14 cities to disseminate air quality information.
- The AQI has six categories of air quality, viz Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor and Severe with distinct colour scheme.
- Each of these categories is associated with likely health impacts.
- AQI considers eight pollutants (PM10, PM 2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb) for which (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.
Source: Shankar page no: 61
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe terms “Biological Oxygen Demand, Biochemical Oxygen Demand and Chemical Oxygen Demand” are related to which of the following?
Correct
The higher amounts of waste increase the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption, thereby decreases the DO content of water.
- The demand for O2 is directly related to increasing input of organic wastes and is empresses as biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water.
- Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
- BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
- The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only. Therefore, it is not a reliable method of measuring pollution load in water.
- Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water.
- It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water.
Source: Shankar page no: 63
Incorrect
The higher amounts of waste increase the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption, thereby decreases the DO content of water.
- The demand for O2 is directly related to increasing input of organic wastes and is empresses as biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water.
- Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
- BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
- The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only. Therefore, it is not a reliable method of measuring pollution load in water.
- Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water.
- It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water.
Source: Shankar page no: 63
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The methaemoglobinemia” symptoms are due to which of the following?
Correct
Excess nitrate in drinking water reacts with hemoglobin to form non-functional methaemoglobin, and impairs oxygen transport. This condition is called methaemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome.
Source: Shankar page no: 64
Incorrect
Excess nitrate in drinking water reacts with hemoglobin to form non-functional methaemoglobin, and impairs oxygen transport. This condition is called methaemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome.
Source: Shankar page no: 64
Pollution– 2020 and Before that
Pollution
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
1.It aims to reduce the concentration of PM10 and PM2.5 by at least 20 percent by 2024, with 2017 as the base year.
2.City specific action plans have been formulated for 102 Aspirational Districts identified for implementing mitigation actions under NCAP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Overall objective of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is comprehensive mitigation actions for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution besides augmenting the air quality monitoring network across the country and strengthening the awareness and capacity building activities.
Statement 1 is correct. The Central Government had launched National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in 2019 under the Central Sector “Control of Pollution” Scheme as a long-term, time-bound, national level strategy to tackle the air pollution problem across the country in a comprehensive manner with targets to achieve 20 % to 30 % reduction in PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations by 2024 keeping 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.Statement 2 is incorrect. The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
102 non-attainment cities (not Aspirational Districts) mostly in Indo-Gangetic Plains have been identified based on ambient air quality data for the period 2011 – 2015 and WHO report 2014/2018. The city specific Action Plans have been approved for all 102 non-attainment cities for implementation on ground.
Other features of NCAP include, increasing number of monitoring stations in the country including rural monitoring stations, technology support, emphasis on awareness and capacity building initiatives, setting up of certification agencies for monitoring equipment, source apportionment studies, emphasis on enforcement, specific sectoral interventions etc.Incorrect
Overall objective of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is comprehensive mitigation actions for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution besides augmenting the air quality monitoring network across the country and strengthening the awareness and capacity building activities.
Statement 1 is correct. The Central Government had launched National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in 2019 under the Central Sector “Control of Pollution” Scheme as a long-term, time-bound, national level strategy to tackle the air pollution problem across the country in a comprehensive manner with targets to achieve 20 % to 30 % reduction in PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations by 2024 keeping 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.Statement 2 is incorrect. The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
102 non-attainment cities (not Aspirational Districts) mostly in Indo-Gangetic Plains have been identified based on ambient air quality data for the period 2011 – 2015 and WHO report 2014/2018. The city specific Action Plans have been approved for all 102 non-attainment cities for implementation on ground.
Other features of NCAP include, increasing number of monitoring stations in the country including rural monitoring stations, technology support, emphasis on awareness and capacity building initiatives, setting up of certification agencies for monitoring equipment, source apportionment studies, emphasis on enforcement, specific sectoral interventions etc. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhat are Safe water releaser (SWAS) and Safe minimal aluminium (SAFAL) that
have been in news recently?Correct
CSIR scientists had developed Less Polluting Firecrackers which are not
only environment friendly but 15-20 % cheaper than the conventional ones. These crackers
have been named as safe water releaser (SWAS), safe minimal aluminium (SAFAL) and
safe thermite cracker (STAR).
SWAS crackers eliminates usage of (KNO3) Potassium nitrate and Sulphur with consequent
reduction in particulate matter (30-35%) SO2 and NOx. It has matching sound intensity
with commercial crackers in the range of 105-110 dBA.
STAR eliminates usage of KNO3 and S with consequent reduction in particulate matter (35-
40%), SO2 and NOx. It has matching sound intensity with commercial crackers in the range
of 105-110 dBA.
SAFAL has minimal usage of aluminium (only in flash powder for initiation) with
consequent significant reduction in particulate matter (35-40 %) compared to commercial
crackers.Incorrect
CSIR scientists had developed Less Polluting Firecrackers which are not
only environment friendly but 15-20 % cheaper than the conventional ones. These crackers
have been named as safe water releaser (SWAS), safe minimal aluminium (SAFAL) and
safe thermite cracker (STAR).
SWAS crackers eliminates usage of (KNO3) Potassium nitrate and Sulphur with consequent
reduction in particulate matter (30-35%) SO2 and NOx. It has matching sound intensity
with commercial crackers in the range of 105-110 dBA.
STAR eliminates usage of KNO3 and S with consequent reduction in particulate matter (35-
40%), SO2 and NOx. It has matching sound intensity with commercial crackers in the range
of 105-110 dBA.
SAFAL has minimal usage of aluminium (only in flash powder for initiation) with
consequent significant reduction in particulate matter (35-40 %) compared to commercial
crackers. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas:
1. The Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the ex-officio chairperson of
the commission.
2. The adjoining areas for the commission include State of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh,
Punjab and Haryana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
Dissolving the 22-year-old Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority
(EPCA) that has so far addressed air pollution in Delhi, the Central Government
promulgated an ordinance to constitute “permanent” body — the Commission for Air
Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas.
The adjoining areas for the body include Delhi NCR, Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana and Uttar
Pradesh.
The proposed commission shall consist of a full-time chairperson who is or has been a
Secretary to Union Government or Chief Secretary to Government of State.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
Dissolving the 22-year-old Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority
(EPCA) that has so far addressed air pollution in Delhi, the Central Government
promulgated an ordinance to constitute “permanent” body — the Commission for Air
Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas.
The adjoining areas for the body include Delhi NCR, Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana and Uttar
Pradesh.
The proposed commission shall consist of a full-time chairperson who is or has been a
Secretary to Union Government or Chief Secretary to Government of State. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following pollutants is/are monitored under the National Air Quality
Index?
1. SO2
2. NO2
3. NH3
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Air Quality Index is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to
people interms, which are easy to understand. It transforms complex air quality data of
various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature and colour.
There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very
Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration
values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ
sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2,
SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb).Incorrect
Air Quality Index is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to
people interms, which are easy to understand. It transforms complex air quality data of
various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature and colour.
There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very
Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration
values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ
sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2,
SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb). - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) relates to which of the following issue?
Correct
In pursuant to the Supreme Court’s order dated December 02, 2016 in the matter of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India regarding air quality in National Capital Region of Delhi, a Graded Response Action Plan was prepared and notified for implementation under different Air Quality Index (AQI) categories namely, Moderate & Poor, Very Poor, and Severe as per National Air Quality Index.
Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change had notified for implementation of
Graded Response Action Plan through Environment Pollution (Prevention & Control)
Authority in 2017.
# The Environment Pollution
(Prevention & Control) Authority (EPCA) has directed Delhi and neighboring States to implement air pollution control measures under “very poor” and “severe” category air quality of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) from October 15, including a ban on the use of diesel generators, except for emergency activities.Incorrect
In pursuant to the Supreme Court’s order dated December 02, 2016 in the matter of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India regarding air quality in National Capital Region of Delhi, a Graded Response Action Plan was prepared and notified for implementation under different Air Quality Index (AQI) categories namely, Moderate & Poor, Very Poor, and Severe as per National Air Quality Index.
Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change had notified for implementation of
Graded Response Action Plan through Environment Pollution (Prevention & Control)
Authority in 2017.
# The Environment Pollution
(Prevention & Control) Authority (EPCA) has directed Delhi and neighboring States to implement air pollution control measures under “very poor” and “severe” category air quality of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) from October 15, including a ban on the use of diesel generators, except for emergency activities. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
1.It aims for a better co-ordination, identification, and resolution of problems related to air quality in the national capital region (NCR) and adjoining areas.
2.In case of any conflict, the orders or directions of the Commission will prevail over the orders of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated in October, 2020.
It provides for constitution of a CAQM for better co-ordination, research, identification, and resolution of problems related to air quality in the national capital region (NCR) and adjoining areas.
Adjoining areas refers to areas in the states of Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh where any source of pollution may cause adverse impact on air quality in the NCR.
Statement 2 is correct. The Commission is to be the sole authority with jurisdiction over matters defined in the Ordinance and in case of any conflict, the orders or directions of the Commission will prevail over the orders of the state governments (of Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh), the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), state PCBs, and state-level statutory bodies.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated in October, 2020.
It provides for constitution of a CAQM for better co-ordination, research, identification, and resolution of problems related to air quality in the national capital region (NCR) and adjoining areas.
Adjoining areas refers to areas in the states of Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh where any source of pollution may cause adverse impact on air quality in the NCR.
Statement 2 is correct. The Commission is to be the sole authority with jurisdiction over matters defined in the Ordinance and in case of any conflict, the orders or directions of the Commission will prevail over the orders of the state governments (of Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh), the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), state PCBs, and state-level statutory bodies. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1.Project Arth Ganga is aimed at promoting economic activities along the Ganga river bank.
2.Centre for Ganga River Basin Management and Studies (cGanga) is a statutory body under Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct??Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP) aimed to develop river Ganges as a safe mode of navigation and is being implemented with the technical and financial assistance of the World Bank. ‘Project Arth Ganga’ envisages to re-engineer the JMVP by involving the local community with a focus on economic activities in and around the Ganga river.
Apart from providing benefits in terms of trade and access to markets, local community’s economic enhancement and passenger facilitation, the ‘Arth Ganga’ project will also ensure large scale skills enhancement and public/private sector capability development.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Centre for Ganga River Basin Management and Studies (cGanga) is a think tank formed under the aegis of NMCG. The Centre is headquartered at IIT Kanpur and has representation from most leading science and technological institutes of the country.
cGanga’s mandate is to serve as think-tank in implementation and dynamic evolution of Ganga River Basin Management Plan (GRBMP) prepared by the Consortium of 7 IITs.
# The Norwegian Institute of Bioeconomy Research (NIBIO), has signed an MOU for development of sludge management framework in India, in collaboration with cGanga.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP) aimed to develop river Ganges as a safe mode of navigation and is being implemented with the technical and financial assistance of the World Bank. ‘Project Arth Ganga’ envisages to re-engineer the JMVP by involving the local community with a focus on economic activities in and around the Ganga river.
Apart from providing benefits in terms of trade and access to markets, local community’s economic enhancement and passenger facilitation, the ‘Arth Ganga’ project will also ensure large scale skills enhancement and public/private sector capability development.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Centre for Ganga River Basin Management and Studies (cGanga) is a think tank formed under the aegis of NMCG. The Centre is headquartered at IIT Kanpur and has representation from most leading science and technological institutes of the country.
cGanga’s mandate is to serve as think-tank in implementation and dynamic evolution of Ganga River Basin Management Plan (GRBMP) prepared by the Consortium of 7 IITs.
# The Norwegian Institute of Bioeconomy Research (NIBIO), has signed an MOU for development of sludge management framework in India, in collaboration with cGanga. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Local Treatment of Urban Sewage streams for Healthy Reuse (LOTUS-HR) program:
1. It is jointly supported by Government of India and Government of Sweden.
2. It aims to demonstrate a novel holistic waste-water management approach that will produce clean water that can be reused for various proposes.
3. The partners in the project are IIT-Delhi, NEERI and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Department of biotechnology (DBT) and NWO, the Netherlands Science Agency announced a joint call for proposals to clean the Barapullah drain in New Delhi.
• LOTUS-HR stands for Local Treatment of Urban Sewage streams for Healthy Reuse plant.
• The project was initiated in 2017. It aims to demonstrate a novel holistic waste-water management approach that will produce clean water that can be reused for various proposes.
• The project also aims to simultaneously recover nutrients and energy from the urban wastewater thus converting drain into profitable mines.
• The project is jointly supported by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India and the Netherlands Organization for Scientific Research, Government of the Netherlands.
• The partners in the project are IIT-Delhi, NEERI and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).Incorrect
Department of biotechnology (DBT) and NWO, the Netherlands Science Agency announced a joint call for proposals to clean the Barapullah drain in New Delhi.
• LOTUS-HR stands for Local Treatment of Urban Sewage streams for Healthy Reuse plant.
• The project was initiated in 2017. It aims to demonstrate a novel holistic waste-water management approach that will produce clean water that can be reused for various proposes.
• The project also aims to simultaneously recover nutrients and energy from the urban wastewater thus converting drain into profitable mines.
• The project is jointly supported by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India and the Netherlands Organization for Scientific Research, Government of the Netherlands.
• The partners in the project are IIT-Delhi, NEERI and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are sources of cadmium emissions to air?
1. Volcanoes
2. Airborne soil particles
3. Forest fires
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Cadmium is a heavy metal with a high toxicity. Cadmium is toxic at very low
exposure levels and has acute and chronic effects on health and environment. Cadmium is
not degradable in nature and will thus, once released to the environment, stay in
circulation.
•The major natural sources for mobilizations of cadmium from the earth’s crust are
volcanoes and weathering of rocks.
•Within the biosphere the cadmium is trans-located by different processes. The major
sources for emission to air from natural sources are volcanoes, airborne soil
particles, sea spray, biogenic material and forest fires.Incorrect
Cadmium is a heavy metal with a high toxicity. Cadmium is toxic at very low
exposure levels and has acute and chronic effects on health and environment. Cadmium is
not degradable in nature and will thus, once released to the environment, stay in
circulation.
•The major natural sources for mobilizations of cadmium from the earth’s crust are
volcanoes and weathering of rocks.
•Within the biosphere the cadmium is trans-located by different processes. The major
sources for emission to air from natural sources are volcanoes, airborne soil
particles, sea spray, biogenic material and forest fires. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding e-waste clinic in India:
1. India’s first e-waste clinic has been inaugurated in Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
2. It would enable segregation, processing and disposal of waste from both household and
commercial units.
3. The clinic is set up in accordance with the Solid Waste Management Rules adopted in
2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
India’s first e-waste clinic has been inaugurated in Bhopal and will enable
segregation, processing and disposal of electronic waste from both household and
commercial units.
•It was set up by the Bhopal Municipal Corporation and the Central Pollution Control
Board.
•The e-waste clinic is developed on the bases of a three-month pilot project and, if
successful, more clinics will be built throughout the country.
•The clinic is set up in accordance with the Solid Waste Management
Rules adopted in 2016.Incorrect
India’s first e-waste clinic has been inaugurated in Bhopal and will enable
segregation, processing and disposal of electronic waste from both household and
commercial units.
•It was set up by the Bhopal Municipal Corporation and the Central Pollution Control
Board.
•The e-waste clinic is developed on the bases of a three-month pilot project and, if
successful, more clinics will be built throughout the country.
•The clinic is set up in accordance with the Solid Waste Management
Rules adopted in 2016. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“World Air Quality Report” is released by which of the following?
Correct
World Air Quality Report.
•The World Air Quality report was released by the pollution tracker IQAir and
Greenpeace.
•The ranking is based on a comparison of PM 2.5 levels.
•India was the fifth most polluted country in 2019 and an account for almost twothirds
of the world’s most polluted cities according to the World Air Quality Report
2019.Incorrect
World Air Quality Report.
•The World Air Quality report was released by the pollution tracker IQAir and
Greenpeace.
•The ranking is based on a comparison of PM 2.5 levels.
•India was the fifth most polluted country in 2019 and an account for almost twothirds
of the world’s most polluted cities according to the World Air Quality Report
2019. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Gothenburg Protocol seeks to reduce the harmful effects of air pollution such as
acid rain and ground-level ozone by targeting emissions of which of the following
pollutants?
1. Sulphur (SO2)
2. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
3. Volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
4. Ammonia (NH3)
5. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Executive Body adopted the Protocol to Abate Acidification,
Eutrophication and Ground-level Ozone in Gothenburg (Sweden) on 30 November 1999.
•The Protocol sets national emission ceilings for 2010 up to 2020 for four
pollutants: sulphur (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), volatile organic compounds
(VOCs) and ammonia (NH3).
•These ceilings were negotiated on the basis of scientific assessments of pollution
effects and abatement options.
•The Protocol also sets tight limit values for specific emission sources (e.g.
combustion plant, electricity production, dry cleaning, cars and Lorries) and
requires best available techniques to be used to keep emissions down.
•VOCs emissions from such products as paints or aerosols also have to be cut.
•Finally, farmers have to take specific measures to control ammonia emissions.Incorrect
The Executive Body adopted the Protocol to Abate Acidification,
Eutrophication and Ground-level Ozone in Gothenburg (Sweden) on 30 November 1999.
•The Protocol sets national emission ceilings for 2010 up to 2020 for four
pollutants: sulphur (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), volatile organic compounds
(VOCs) and ammonia (NH3).
•These ceilings were negotiated on the basis of scientific assessments of pollution
effects and abatement options.
•The Protocol also sets tight limit values for specific emission sources (e.g.
combustion plant, electricity production, dry cleaning, cars and Lorries) and
requires best available techniques to be used to keep emissions down.
•VOCs emissions from such products as paints or aerosols also have to be cut.
•Finally, farmers have to take specific measures to control ammonia emissions. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Aqueduct’s global water risk atlas” is sometimes seen in news is released by which of the following?
Correct
Aqueduct’s global water risk mapping tool helps companies, investors, governments, and other users understand where and how water risks and opportunities are emerging worldwide.
• The Atlas uses a robust, peer reviewed methodology and the best-available data to create high-resolution, customizable global maps of water risk.
• With the support of a diverse group of partners, the World Resources Institute built Aqueduct to help companies, investors, governments, and communities better understand where and how water risks are emerging around the world.
• The World Resources Institute is committed to transparency and open data. The data and methodology behind Aqueduct are documented and available for downloadIncorrect
Aqueduct’s global water risk mapping tool helps companies, investors, governments, and other users understand where and how water risks and opportunities are emerging worldwide.
• The Atlas uses a robust, peer reviewed methodology and the best-available data to create high-resolution, customizable global maps of water risk.
• With the support of a diverse group of partners, the World Resources Institute built Aqueduct to help companies, investors, governments, and communities better understand where and how water risks are emerging around the world.
• The World Resources Institute is committed to transparency and open data. The data and methodology behind Aqueduct are documented and available for download - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Actions on Air Quality report is released by which of the following?
Correct
The Actions on Air Quality report is released by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Incorrect
The Actions on Air Quality report is released by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Producer Responsibility Organization (PRO), sometimes seen in news, is related to which of the following?
Correct
E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016, enacted since October 1, 2017, had further strengthened the existing rules.
• Over 21 products (Schedule-I) were included under the purview of the rule. The rule also extended its purview to components or consumables or parts or spares of Electrical and Electronic Equipment (EEE), along with their products.•The present rule has strengthened the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), which is the global best practice to ensure the take-back of the end-of-life products.
• A new arrangement entitled, ‘Producer Responsibility Organisation’ (PRO) has been introduced to strengthen EPR further.
• PRO, a professional organisation, would be authorised or financed collectively or individually by producers, to share the responsibility for collection and channelisation of e-waste generated from the ‘end-of-life’ products to ensure environmentally sound management of such e-waste.Incorrect
E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016, enacted since October 1, 2017, had further strengthened the existing rules.
• Over 21 products (Schedule-I) were included under the purview of the rule. The rule also extended its purview to components or consumables or parts or spares of Electrical and Electronic Equipment (EEE), along with their products.•The present rule has strengthened the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), which is the global best practice to ensure the take-back of the end-of-life products.
• A new arrangement entitled, ‘Producer Responsibility Organisation’ (PRO) has been introduced to strengthen EPR further.
• PRO, a professional organisation, would be authorised or financed collectively or individually by producers, to share the responsibility for collection and channelisation of e-waste generated from the ‘end-of-life’ products to ensure environmentally sound management of such e-waste. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the fly ash:
1. It is extremely hydrophilic in nature.
2. Its size varies from 100nanometres to a few microns.
3. It can be used as a resource material for many applications of construction industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Fly ash, the end product of combustion during the process of power generation in the coal based thermal power plants.
• It is a proven resource material for many applications of construction industries and currently is being utilized in manufacturing of Portland Cement, bricks/blocks/tiles manufacturing, road embankment construction and low-lying area development, etc.
• Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Hyderabad have developed a cheap waterproofing material by coating fly ash, a waste by-product from coal-based thermal power plants, with stearic acid, which is a surfactant.
• While fly ash is extremely water-loving (hydrophilic), it turns into a highly water-repelling surface once coated with stearic acid.
• Fly ash varies in size from 100 nanometres to a few microns and can thus provide surfaces with different roughness based on the size of the particles chosen.Incorrect
Fly ash, the end product of combustion during the process of power generation in the coal based thermal power plants.
• It is a proven resource material for many applications of construction industries and currently is being utilized in manufacturing of Portland Cement, bricks/blocks/tiles manufacturing, road embankment construction and low-lying area development, etc.
• Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Hyderabad have developed a cheap waterproofing material by coating fly ash, a waste by-product from coal-based thermal power plants, with stearic acid, which is a surfactant.
• While fly ash is extremely water-loving (hydrophilic), it turns into a highly water-repelling surface once coated with stearic acid.
• Fly ash varies in size from 100 nanometres to a few microns and can thus provide surfaces with different roughness based on the size of the particles chosen. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently which country officially banned reef-toxic sunscreen to protect coral reefs?
Correct
In an attempt to protect the coral reefs that divers so admire they have dubbed them the underwater Serengeti.
• The Pacific nation of Palau will soon ban many types of sunscreen.
• President Tommy Remengesau Jr. last week signed legislation that bans “reef-toxic” sunscreen from 2020.
• Banned sunscreens will be confiscated from tourists who carry them into the country, and merchants selling the banned products will be fined up to $1,000
.Incorrect
In an attempt to protect the coral reefs that divers so admire they have dubbed them the underwater Serengeti.
• The Pacific nation of Palau will soon ban many types of sunscreen.
• President Tommy Remengesau Jr. last week signed legislation that bans “reef-toxic” sunscreen from 2020.
• Banned sunscreens will be confiscated from tourists who carry them into the country, and merchants selling the banned products will be fined up to $1,000
. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Agasthyamalai Mountain region:
1. The region receives precipitation from both the southwest and northeast monsoons.
2. It is a Sacred Mountain.
3. The eastern side of Agasthyamalai is composed of the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
Reserve (KMTR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Agasthyamalai Mountain falls in the Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari
districts of Tamil Nadu and the Kollam and Thiruvananthapuram districts of Kerala.
•It is a Sacred Mountain and pilgrim centre, where devotees come to worship
sage Agasthya. Agasthya was a Dravidian sage, and is considered to be one of the
seven rishis (saptarishi) of Hindu mythology. The Tamil language is considered to be
a boon from Agasthya. There is a statue of Agasthya at the top of the peak and the
devotees can render poojas themselves.
•The Agasthyamalai region constitutes an extensive and compact tract of forest-clad
mountains and plays a very important role as a watershed and repository of
biodiversity. The region receives precipitation from both the southwest and
northeast monsoons and has a very short dry season of less than 2-3 months
duration.
•Agasthyamalai is one of the few safest homes in Western Ghats for many endemic
animals such as Lion -Tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Langur, Brown Palm Civet, Malabar
Spiny Dormouse, Nilgiri Marten and Nilgiri Tahr. The eastern side of
Agasthyamalai is composed of the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(KMTR), a 900 sq km. protected area.Incorrect
The Agasthyamalai Mountain falls in the Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari
districts of Tamil Nadu and the Kollam and Thiruvananthapuram districts of Kerala.
•It is a Sacred Mountain and pilgrim centre, where devotees come to worship
sage Agasthya. Agasthya was a Dravidian sage, and is considered to be one of the
seven rishis (saptarishi) of Hindu mythology. The Tamil language is considered to be
a boon from Agasthya. There is a statue of Agasthya at the top of the peak and the
devotees can render poojas themselves.
•The Agasthyamalai region constitutes an extensive and compact tract of forest-clad
mountains and plays a very important role as a watershed and repository of
biodiversity. The region receives precipitation from both the southwest and
northeast monsoons and has a very short dry season of less than 2-3 months
duration.
•Agasthyamalai is one of the few safest homes in Western Ghats for many endemic
animals such as Lion -Tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Langur, Brown Palm Civet, Malabar
Spiny Dormouse, Nilgiri Marten and Nilgiri Tahr. The eastern side of
Agasthyamalai is composed of the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(KMTR), a 900 sq km. protected area. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently which of the following international Institute has launched the Accelerator Lab to tackling pollution?
Correct
Seeking to address some of the most pressing issues facing India, including air pollution, through innovation, the United Nations Development Programme in November 2019, launched the country chapter of its Accelerator Lab here.
• The laboratory that will be housed in the UNDP India office has partnered with the Indian government’s Atal Innovation Mission to achieve its objectives.
• Other issues that the laboratory will seek to address include sustainable water management and client-resilient livelihoods
.Incorrect
Seeking to address some of the most pressing issues facing India, including air pollution, through innovation, the United Nations Development Programme in November 2019, launched the country chapter of its Accelerator Lab here.
• The laboratory that will be housed in the UNDP India office has partnered with the Indian government’s Atal Innovation Mission to achieve its objectives.
• Other issues that the laboratory will seek to address include sustainable water management and client-resilient livelihoods
. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the State of Global Air 2019:
1. It is published by Health Effects Institute with the support of United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP).
2. According to the report air pollution is the third-highest cause of death among all health risks in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The State of Global Air 2019 annual report and accompanying interactive website are designed and implemented by the Health Effects Institute in cooperation with the Institute of Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME) at the University of Washington, the University of British Columbia, and the University of Texas, Austin.
• According to the report exposure to outdoor and indoor air pollution contributed to over 1.2 million deaths in India in 2017.
• The report added that worldwide, air pollution was responsible for more deaths than many better-known risk factors such as malnutrition, alcohol abuse and physical inactivity.
• In India, air pollution is the third-highest cause of death among all health risks, ranking just above smoking;
• Each year, more people globally die from air pollution related disease than from road traffic injuries or malaria.
• Meanwhile, for the first time, this year’s report and website include worldwide estimates of the effect of air pollution on life expectancy.
• Worldwide, air pollution reduced life expectancy by an average of 20 months in 2017, a global impact rivaling that of smoking; this means a child born today will die 20 months sooner, on average, than would be expected without air pollution.
• The report also highlighted that nearly half of the world’s population — a total of 3.6 billion people — were exposed to household air pollution in 2017. Globally, there has been progress: the proportion of people cooking with solid fuels has declined as economies develop.Incorrect
The State of Global Air 2019 annual report and accompanying interactive website are designed and implemented by the Health Effects Institute in cooperation with the Institute of Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME) at the University of Washington, the University of British Columbia, and the University of Texas, Austin.
• According to the report exposure to outdoor and indoor air pollution contributed to over 1.2 million deaths in India in 2017.
• The report added that worldwide, air pollution was responsible for more deaths than many better-known risk factors such as malnutrition, alcohol abuse and physical inactivity.
• In India, air pollution is the third-highest cause of death among all health risks, ranking just above smoking;
• Each year, more people globally die from air pollution related disease than from road traffic injuries or malaria.
• Meanwhile, for the first time, this year’s report and website include worldwide estimates of the effect of air pollution on life expectancy.
• Worldwide, air pollution reduced life expectancy by an average of 20 months in 2017, a global impact rivaling that of smoking; this means a child born today will die 20 months sooner, on average, than would be expected without air pollution.
• The report also highlighted that nearly half of the world’s population — a total of 3.6 billion people — were exposed to household air pollution in 2017. Globally, there has been progress: the proportion of people cooking with solid fuels has declined as economies develop. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following product (s) is/are come (s) under the purview of e-waste management rules 2016?
1. Personal Computers
2. Refrigerators
3. Solar e-waste
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016, enacted since October 1, 2017.
• Over 21 products (Schedule-I) were included under the purview of the rule.
• The rule also extended its purview to components or consumables or parts or spares of Electrical and Electronic Equipment (EEE), along with their products.
• Currently, India’s e-waste rules have no laws mandating solar cell manufacturers to recycle or dispose waste from this sector.NOTE: Some of the 21 products of Schedule 1 are Centralized data processing: Mainframes, Minicomputers, Personal Computers (Central Processing Unit with input and output devices), Cellular telephones, Television sets (including sets based on (Liquid Crystal Display and Light Emitting Diode technology), Refrigerator, Washing Machine and Air-conditioners excluding centralized air conditioning plants.
Incorrect
E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016, enacted since October 1, 2017.
• Over 21 products (Schedule-I) were included under the purview of the rule.
• The rule also extended its purview to components or consumables or parts or spares of Electrical and Electronic Equipment (EEE), along with their products.
• Currently, India’s e-waste rules have no laws mandating solar cell manufacturers to recycle or dispose waste from this sector.NOTE: Some of the 21 products of Schedule 1 are Centralized data processing: Mainframes, Minicomputers, Personal Computers (Central Processing Unit with input and output devices), Cellular telephones, Television sets (including sets based on (Liquid Crystal Display and Light Emitting Diode technology), Refrigerator, Washing Machine and Air-conditioners excluding centralized air conditioning plants.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich Global sportswear giant aims to eliminate the use of virgin plastics in its products by 2024?
Correct
Global sportswear giant Adidas aims at eliminating the use of virgin plastics in its products by 2024 — with a little help from a Maharashtra-based firm — the only one of its kind in the country to produce yarn out of discarded PET bottles.
• At its first factory set up in Nashik five years ago, Polygenta Technology Limited deploys a unique technology to break down used PET (short for Polyethylene Terephthalate) bottles and convert them into polyester filament yarn.
• The firm, with a capacity to convert 30 tonnes of PET bottles into yarn a day, plans to scale up capacity to around 100 tonnes a day in the next two years to meet demand from the likes of Adidas — one of its first clients.NOTE: According to the United Nations, around 300 million tonnes of plastic are produced every year — roughly the weight of the entire human population. Of this, eight million tonnes of plastic waste ends up in the oceans; PET bottles are the main contributors to plastic waste globally and in India.
Incorrect
Global sportswear giant Adidas aims at eliminating the use of virgin plastics in its products by 2024 — with a little help from a Maharashtra-based firm — the only one of its kind in the country to produce yarn out of discarded PET bottles.
• At its first factory set up in Nashik five years ago, Polygenta Technology Limited deploys a unique technology to break down used PET (short for Polyethylene Terephthalate) bottles and convert them into polyester filament yarn.
• The firm, with a capacity to convert 30 tonnes of PET bottles into yarn a day, plans to scale up capacity to around 100 tonnes a day in the next two years to meet demand from the likes of Adidas — one of its first clients.NOTE: According to the United Nations, around 300 million tonnes of plastic are produced every year — roughly the weight of the entire human population. Of this, eight million tonnes of plastic waste ends up in the oceans; PET bottles are the main contributors to plastic waste globally and in India.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following institution (s) is/are announced/launched the “Clean Air Initiative”?
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition.
2. World Health Organization (WHO).
3. United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Ahead of the upcoming 2019 Climate Action Summit, the United Nations, the World Health Organization (WHO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment) and Climate and Clean Air Coalition announced today the “Clean Air Initiative”, calling on governments at all levels to join the Initiative.
• The “Clean Air Initiative” calls on national and sub national governments to commit to achieving air quality that is safe for citizens, and to align climate change and air pollution policies by 2030.
• According to WHO, each year, air pollution causes 7 million premature deaths, of which 600,000 are children.
• According to the World Bank, air pollution costs the global economy an estimated US$5.11 trillion in welfare losses and in the 15 countries with the highest greenhouse gas emissions, health impacts of air pollution are estimated to cost more than 4 per cent of GDP.
• Meeting the Paris Agreement on climate change, however, could save over 1 million lives a year by 2050 and yield health benefits worth an estimated US$54.1 trillion – about twice the costs of mitigation – through reduced air pollution alone.Incorrect
Ahead of the upcoming 2019 Climate Action Summit, the United Nations, the World Health Organization (WHO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment) and Climate and Clean Air Coalition announced today the “Clean Air Initiative”, calling on governments at all levels to join the Initiative.
• The “Clean Air Initiative” calls on national and sub national governments to commit to achieving air quality that is safe for citizens, and to align climate change and air pollution policies by 2030.
• According to WHO, each year, air pollution causes 7 million premature deaths, of which 600,000 are children.
• According to the World Bank, air pollution costs the global economy an estimated US$5.11 trillion in welfare losses and in the 15 countries with the highest greenhouse gas emissions, health impacts of air pollution are estimated to cost more than 4 per cent of GDP.
• Meeting the Paris Agreement on climate change, however, could save over 1 million lives a year by 2050 and yield health benefits worth an estimated US$54.1 trillion – about twice the costs of mitigation – through reduced air pollution alone. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe term “KNOxOUT” is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
: A local paint manufacturer and distributor have developed a type of paint that can eliminate harmful air pollutants such as nitrogen oxide (NOx) and other volatile organic compounds.
• Mainly generated by vehicle emissions, NOx is a common air pollutant known to have serious consequences for health and the environment, including causing acid rain and smog.
• Called KNOxOUT, the paint – developed by Pacific Paint (Boysen) Philippines, Inc. – contains ultrafine titanium dioxide that breaks down NOx and converts it into harmless substances.Incorrect
: A local paint manufacturer and distributor have developed a type of paint that can eliminate harmful air pollutants such as nitrogen oxide (NOx) and other volatile organic compounds.
• Mainly generated by vehicle emissions, NOx is a common air pollutant known to have serious consequences for health and the environment, including causing acid rain and smog.
• Called KNOxOUT, the paint – developed by Pacific Paint (Boysen) Philippines, Inc. – contains ultrafine titanium dioxide that breaks down NOx and converts it into harmless substances. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe term “Earth Beats” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Earth Beats, an international and collaborative initiative gathering 18 news media outlets from around the world to focus on solutions to waste and pollution
Incorrect
Earth Beats, an international and collaborative initiative gathering 18 news media outlets from around the world to focus on solutions to waste and pollution
Protected areas– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Protected areas– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 15 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Tadoba Andhari National Park” is often seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Notably Maharashtra’s oldest and largest National Park, the “Tadoba National Park”, also known as the “Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve” is one of India’s project tiger reserves existing in India.
- It lies in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra state and is approximately 150 km from Nagpur city.
- The total area of the tiger reserve is 1,727 Sq.km, which includes the Tadoba National Park, created in the year 1955.
- The Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary was formed in the year 1986 and was amalgamated with the park in 1995 to establish the present Tadoba Andheri Tiger Reserve.
- The word ‘Tadoba’ is derived from the name of God “Tadoba” or “Taru,” which is praised by local tribal people of this region and “Andhari” is derived from the name of Andhari river that flows in this area.
Incorrect
Notably Maharashtra’s oldest and largest National Park, the “Tadoba National Park”, also known as the “Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve” is one of India’s project tiger reserves existing in India.
- It lies in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra state and is approximately 150 km from Nagpur city.
- The total area of the tiger reserve is 1,727 Sq.km, which includes the Tadoba National Park, created in the year 1955.
- The Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary was formed in the year 1986 and was amalgamated with the park in 1995 to establish the present Tadoba Andheri Tiger Reserve.
- The word ‘Tadoba’ is derived from the name of God “Tadoba” or “Taru,” which is praised by local tribal people of this region and “Andhari” is derived from the name of Andhari river that flows in this area.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is NOT located in Madhya Pradesh?
Correct
Ranthambore National Park is one of the biggest and most renowned national parks in Northern India.
- The Park is located in the Sawai Madhopur district of southeastern Rajasthan, which is about 130 km from Jaipur.
- Once considered as one of the famous and former hunting grounds of the Maharajas of Jaipur, today the Ranthambore National Park terrain is a major wildlife tourist attraction that has drawn the attention of many wildlife photographers and lovers.
Incorrect
Ranthambore National Park is one of the biggest and most renowned national parks in Northern India.
- The Park is located in the Sawai Madhopur district of southeastern Rajasthan, which is about 130 km from Jaipur.
- Once considered as one of the famous and former hunting grounds of the Maharajas of Jaipur, today the Ranthambore National Park terrain is a major wildlife tourist attraction that has drawn the attention of many wildlife photographers and lovers.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“It had lost all its tigers to poaching by 2009 and it is only in the last decade through a careful process of relocation from other tiger reserves and natural breeding that the tiger population has climbed back to about 50” – describes which of the following tiger reserves?
Correct
Panna Tiger Reserve had lost all its tigers to poaching by 2009 and it is only in the last decade through a careful process of relocation from other tiger reserves and natural breeding that the tiger population has climbed back to about 50.
Incorrect
Panna Tiger Reserve had lost all its tigers to poaching by 2009 and it is only in the last decade through a careful process of relocation from other tiger reserves and natural breeding that the tiger population has climbed back to about 50.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary” is recently seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Many wildlife habitats in the Northeast are understaffed, without trained manpower and proper infrastructure, the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) report of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has said.
- The MEE has marked Meghalaya for fairly good management practices while the evaluated wildlife sanctuaries in Assam were found to have “extremely poor” infrastructure, thus adversely affecting their management.
- The best managed among the 16 evaluated protected areas in the region was found to be Meghalaya’s Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary because of the continuity of a management plan since 2001 “irrespective of who’s posted”.
- The report largely attributed the significant reduction in biotic interference in the sanctuary to community support.
Incorrect
Many wildlife habitats in the Northeast are understaffed, without trained manpower and proper infrastructure, the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) report of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has said.
- The MEE has marked Meghalaya for fairly good management practices while the evaluated wildlife sanctuaries in Assam were found to have “extremely poor” infrastructure, thus adversely affecting their management.
- The best managed among the 16 evaluated protected areas in the region was found to be Meghalaya’s Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary because of the continuity of a management plan since 2001 “irrespective of who’s posted”.
- The report largely attributed the significant reduction in biotic interference in the sanctuary to community support.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Keibul Lamjao National Park” is often seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
The only floating national park of its kind in the world, Keibul Lamjao National Park is a singular wetland ecosystem located on the Loktak Lake.
Home to brow-antlered deer or sangai, the state animal of Manipur.
Incorrect
The only floating national park of its kind in the world, Keibul Lamjao National Park is a singular wetland ecosystem located on the Loktak Lake.
Home to brow-antlered deer or sangai, the state animal of Manipur.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Papikonda National Park (PNP)” is recently seen in news is related to which of the following state?
Correct
Papikonda National Park (PNP), with a dominant area covered with moist deciduous forest, has become home for the leopard cat (Prinailurus bengalensis) in the Eastern Ghats.
- The 1,012.86 sq km national park is on both sides of river Godavari in the northern Eastern Ghats.
- Of the 13 protected forests in Andhra Pradesh, the leopard cat has been sighted only in the PNP.
Incorrect
Papikonda National Park (PNP), with a dominant area covered with moist deciduous forest, has become home for the leopard cat (Prinailurus bengalensis) in the Eastern Ghats.
- The 1,012.86 sq km national park is on both sides of river Godavari in the northern Eastern Ghats.
- Of the 13 protected forests in Andhra Pradesh, the leopard cat has been sighted only in the PNP.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is NOT located in Western Ghats?
Correct
In Western the Ghats, over 100 leopard cats have been sighted in the four reserves — Bhadra Tiger Reserve, BRT Tiger Reserve, Nagarhole and Bandipur reserves.
Sunabeda Tiger Reserve is located in Odisha.
Incorrect
In Western the Ghats, over 100 leopard cats have been sighted in the four reserves — Bhadra Tiger Reserve, BRT Tiger Reserve, Nagarhole and Bandipur reserves.
Sunabeda Tiger Reserve is located in Odisha.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Nandankanan Zoological Park” is often seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a premier large zoo of India.
- Unlike other zoos in the country, Nandankanan is built right inside the forest and set in a completely natural environment.
- The animals are housed in enclosures with greenery with a feel of real forest and live with no fear or apprehension of becoming the hunter’s prey.
- Nandankanan is 15 kms from Odisha’s capital, Bhubaneswar.
- The Bhubaneswar railway station is at a distance of 18 kms and the Biju Patnaik International Airport is at a distance of 20 kms.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a premier large zoo of India.
- Unlike other zoos in the country, Nandankanan is built right inside the forest and set in a completely natural environment.
- The animals are housed in enclosures with greenery with a feel of real forest and live with no fear or apprehension of becoming the hunter’s prey.
- Nandankanan is 15 kms from Odisha’s capital, Bhubaneswar.
- The Bhubaneswar railway station is at a distance of 18 kms and the Biju Patnaik International Airport is at a distance of 20 kms.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the “Wildlife Protection Act, 1972”:
1. It has five schedules which give varying degrees of protection.
2. Cheetah falls in Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants; and for matters connected there with or ancillary or incidental thereto.
- It extends to the whole of India.
- It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection.
- The cheetah falls in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants; and for matters connected there with or ancillary or incidental thereto.
- It extends to the whole of India.
- It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection.
- The cheetah falls in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following place is known for “Salt water crocodile”?
Correct
Crocodiles are ambush hunters and apex predator of river systems of the India.
- There are three crocodilians’ species found in India, Mugger crocodile, the Gharial and the Saltwater Crocodile.
- Mugger crocodile and the gharial are found throughout the Indian subcontinent and they are ambush hunters, mostly prey on fish, reptiles, birds and mammals.
- Saltwater Crocodiles are the largest species of crocodilians family and largest of all living reptiles in the world.
- The apex predator found in saline and brackish mangrove swamp forest of Bhitarkanika and Sunderbans.
- Bhitarkanika National Park in Kendrapara district of Odisha is a separates swamp region and mangroves forest.
- The Park is home to largest Saltwater Crocodiles in India and many other species of reptiles such as White Crocodile, Indian Python and King Cobra.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Crocodiles are ambush hunters and apex predator of river systems of the India.
- There are three crocodilians’ species found in India, Mugger crocodile, the Gharial and the Saltwater Crocodile.
- Mugger crocodile and the gharial are found throughout the Indian subcontinent and they are ambush hunters, mostly prey on fish, reptiles, birds and mammals.
- Saltwater Crocodiles are the largest species of crocodilians family and largest of all living reptiles in the world.
- The apex predator found in saline and brackish mangrove swamp forest of Bhitarkanika and Sunderbans.
- Bhitarkanika National Park in Kendrapara district of Odisha is a separates swamp region and mangroves forest.
- The Park is home to largest Saltwater Crocodiles in India and many other species of reptiles such as White Crocodile, Indian Python and King Cobra.
Source: The Hindu
Protected areas– 2020 and Before that
Protected areas
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following conservation reserve(s) is/are correctly matched?
1. Sariska Tiger Reserve – Rajasthan
2. Pakke Tiger Reserve – Assam
3. Nameri National Park – Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correctly matched. Sariska Tiger Reserve is in the Alwar district, Rajasthan. It mainly comprises scrub-thorn arid forests, dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and rocky hills. This area was a hunting preserve of the Alwar state and was declared a wildlife reserve in 1955.
In 2004, it was reported that no tigers were sighted in the reserve. In July 2008, two tigers from Ranthambhore National Park were relocated to Sariska Tiger Reserve. Another female tiger was relocated in February 2009. By 2020, the tiger population in the reserve has risen to 20.
Option 2 is incorrectly matched. Pakke Tiger Reserve, also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve, in the Pakke Kessang district of Arunachal Pradesh. The habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest and Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Nameri National Park is in the eastern Himalayas in the Sonitpur District of Assam, Nameri shares its northern boundary with the Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary of Arunachal Pradesh.
The vegetation type of Nameri is of semi-evergreen, moist deciduous forests with cane and bamboo brakes and narrow strips of open grassland along rivers Jia- Bhoroli and Bor Dikorai.Incorrect
Option 1 is correctly matched. Sariska Tiger Reserve is in the Alwar district, Rajasthan. It mainly comprises scrub-thorn arid forests, dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and rocky hills. This area was a hunting preserve of the Alwar state and was declared a wildlife reserve in 1955.
In 2004, it was reported that no tigers were sighted in the reserve. In July 2008, two tigers from Ranthambhore National Park were relocated to Sariska Tiger Reserve. Another female tiger was relocated in February 2009. By 2020, the tiger population in the reserve has risen to 20.
Option 2 is incorrectly matched. Pakke Tiger Reserve, also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve, in the Pakke Kessang district of Arunachal Pradesh. The habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest and Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Nameri National Park is in the eastern Himalayas in the Sonitpur District of Assam, Nameri shares its northern boundary with the Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary of Arunachal Pradesh.
The vegetation type of Nameri is of semi-evergreen, moist deciduous forests with cane and bamboo brakes and narrow strips of open grassland along rivers Jia- Bhoroli and Bor Dikorai. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Forest Cover of India:
1. The area under Very Dense Forest (VDF) is more than that under the Open Forest.
2. Uttarakhand has the highest area under forest cover among the states through which
Ganga River flows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Area under Open Forest is much higher than under
Very Dense Forest (VDF) in India.Very Dense Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 70% and above.
–Moderately Dense Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 40% and more but less
than 70%.
–Open Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 10% and more but less than 40%.
–Scrub: Degraded forest lands with canopy density less than 10%.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ganga River passes through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, among which Uttarakhand has highest
area under forest cover.
.
Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as
percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal
Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%).
# Data Source: India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Area under Open Forest is much higher than under
Very Dense Forest (VDF) in India.Very Dense Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 70% and above.
–Moderately Dense Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 40% and more but less
than 70%.
–Open Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 10% and more but less than 40%.
–Scrub: Degraded forest lands with canopy density less than 10%.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ganga River passes through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, among which Uttarakhand has highest
area under forest cover.
.
Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as
percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal
Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%).
# Data Source: India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019.
- Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Tso Kar wetland:
1. It is north of the Pangong Tso.
2. It is an A1 Category Important Bird Area (IBA) as per Bird Life International.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Tso Kar Basin is a high-altitude wetland complex, consisting of two principal waterbodies, Startsapuk Tso, a freshwater lake of about 438 hectares to the south, and Tso Kar itself, a hypersaline lake of 1800 hectares to the north, situated in the Changthang region of Ladakh, India. It is called Tso Kar, meaning white lake, because of the white salt efflorescence found on the margins due to the evaporation of highly saline water.
It is southwest of the Pangong Tso lake.Statement 2 is correct. India has added Tso Kar Wetland Complex in Ladakh as its 42nd Ramsar site, which is a second one in the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh.
The Tso Kar Basin is an A1 Category Important Bird Area (IBA) as per Bird Life International and a key staging site in the Central Asian Flyway.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Tso Kar Basin is a high-altitude wetland complex, consisting of two principal waterbodies, Startsapuk Tso, a freshwater lake of about 438 hectares to the south, and Tso Kar itself, a hypersaline lake of 1800 hectares to the north, situated in the Changthang region of Ladakh, India. It is called Tso Kar, meaning white lake, because of the white salt efflorescence found on the margins due to the evaporation of highly saline water.
It is southwest of the Pangong Tso lake.Statement 2 is correct. India has added Tso Kar Wetland Complex in Ladakh as its 42nd Ramsar site, which is a second one in the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh.
The Tso Kar Basin is an A1 Category Important Bird Area (IBA) as per Bird Life International and a key staging site in the Central Asian Flyway.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following National Parks is/are located in Andaman and Nicobar
Islands?
1. Galathea Bay National Park
2. Rani Jhansi National Park
3. Indira Gandhi National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
National Parks in Andaman & Nicobar Islands
NOTE: Indira Gandhi (Annamalai) National Park located in Tamil Nadu.Incorrect
National Parks in Andaman & Nicobar Islands
NOTE: Indira Gandhi (Annamalai) National Park located in Tamil Nadu. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following National Parks in India from West to East:
1. Dinosaur Fossil National Park
2. Black Buck National Park
3. Guru Ghasidas National Park
4. Betla National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Black Buck National Park is located in Gujarat; Dinosaur Fossil National Park is located in
Madhya Pradesh, Guru Ghasidas National Park located in Chhattisgarh and Betla National
Park is located in Jharkhand.Incorrect
Black Buck National Park is located in Gujarat; Dinosaur Fossil National Park is located in
Madhya Pradesh, Guru Ghasidas National Park located in Chhattisgarh and Betla National
Park is located in Jharkhand. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following National Parks from North to South:
1. Indravati National Park
2. Kanger Ghati National Park
3. Guindy National Park
4. Silent Valley National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Indravati National Park is the most famous wildlife sanctuary of the state of
Chhattisgarh. It has several wildlife sanctuaries in secure areas such as Barnawapara
Wildlife Sanctuary, Tamor Pingla, Kanger Ghati National Park, Pamed, Sanjay National
Park, Semarsot, Sitanadi Wildlife Sanctuary, Udanti Wildlife Sanctuary, Achanakmar
Wildlife Sanctuary, Badalkhol, Bhairamgarh, Gomarda wildlife sanctuaries etc.
Guindy National Park is a 2.70 km2 (1.04 sq mi) protected area of Tamil Nadu, located in
Chennai, India, is the 8th-smallest National Park of India and one of the very few national
parks situated inside a city.
Silent Valley National Park is located at Palakkad district in Nilgiri Mountains of Kerala. It
is at the heart of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and consists of areas of South Western Ghats
rain forests and tropical wet evergreen jungle. River Kunthi passes through it.Incorrect
Indravati National Park is the most famous wildlife sanctuary of the state of
Chhattisgarh. It has several wildlife sanctuaries in secure areas such as Barnawapara
Wildlife Sanctuary, Tamor Pingla, Kanger Ghati National Park, Pamed, Sanjay National
Park, Semarsot, Sitanadi Wildlife Sanctuary, Udanti Wildlife Sanctuary, Achanakmar
Wildlife Sanctuary, Badalkhol, Bhairamgarh, Gomarda wildlife sanctuaries etc.
Guindy National Park is a 2.70 km2 (1.04 sq mi) protected area of Tamil Nadu, located in
Chennai, India, is the 8th-smallest National Park of India and one of the very few national
parks situated inside a city.
Silent Valley National Park is located at Palakkad district in Nilgiri Mountains of Kerala. It
is at the heart of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and consists of areas of South Western Ghats
rain forests and tropical wet evergreen jungle. River Kunthi passes through it. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyMadhav National Park is recently in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Madhav National park is situated near Shivpuri town in Madhya Pradesh. It
is a part of the upper Vindhyan hills.
•The Park was the hunting ground of Mughal emperors and Maharaja of Gwalior.
•It got the status of a National Park in 1958.
•The Park is a combination of dry deciduous & dry thorn forests that make home for
different varieties of antelopes like Nilgai, Chinkara and Deer.
•The park is home to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) like SahariaIncorrect
Madhav National park is situated near Shivpuri town in Madhya Pradesh. It
is a part of the upper Vindhyan hills.
•The Park was the hunting ground of Mughal emperors and Maharaja of Gwalior.
•It got the status of a National Park in 1958.
•The Park is a combination of dry deciduous & dry thorn forests that make home for
different varieties of antelopes like Nilgai, Chinkara and Deer.
•The park is home to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) like Saharia - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Bhavani wildlife sanctuary” is often seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
The Kerala State government is set to declare the 148-sq-km buffer zone of the Silent Valley National Park as Bhavani wildlife sanctuary.
• Encompassing parts of the Mannarkkad and Nilambur (South) forest divisions, the region will become the 25th protected area in the State.
• Home to abundant faunal and floral wealth, the Bhavani wildlife sanctuary is also known to be an emerging haven of dragonflies and damselflies.
• A recent faunal survey revealed the presence of several rare species of odonates here.
• There are currently five national parks, 18 wildlife sanctuaries, including two tiger reserves at Parambikulam and Periyar, and one community reserve in the State.
• The government had notified the Karimpuzha wildlife sanctuary in Malappuram in December last.Incorrect
The Kerala State government is set to declare the 148-sq-km buffer zone of the Silent Valley National Park as Bhavani wildlife sanctuary.
• Encompassing parts of the Mannarkkad and Nilambur (South) forest divisions, the region will become the 25th protected area in the State.
• Home to abundant faunal and floral wealth, the Bhavani wildlife sanctuary is also known to be an emerging haven of dragonflies and damselflies.
• A recent faunal survey revealed the presence of several rare species of odonates here.
• There are currently five national parks, 18 wildlife sanctuaries, including two tiger reserves at Parambikulam and Periyar, and one community reserve in the State.
• The government had notified the Karimpuzha wildlife sanctuary in Malappuram in December last. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following pair (s) is/are correctly matched?
Zoological Park : State
1. Nehru Zoological Park : Andhra Pradesh
2. Indira Gandhi Zoological Park : Telangana
3. Amirthi Zoological Park : Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Indira Gandhi Zoological Park is located amidst Kambalakonda Reserve Forest in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the third largest zoo in the country. The zoological park is named after the former Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi. It was declared open to the public on 19 May 1977.
Nehru Zoological Park is a zoo located near Mir Alam Tank in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
Amirthi Zoological Park is a zoo in Tiruvannamalai District in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was opened in 1967 and is about 25 kilometres from the Vellore city. The area of the park is 25 hectares and one can find beautiful waterfalls.Incorrect
Indira Gandhi Zoological Park is located amidst Kambalakonda Reserve Forest in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the third largest zoo in the country. The zoological park is named after the former Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi. It was declared open to the public on 19 May 1977.
Nehru Zoological Park is a zoo located near Mir Alam Tank in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
Amirthi Zoological Park is a zoo in Tiruvannamalai District in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was opened in 1967 and is about 25 kilometres from the Vellore city. The area of the park is 25 hectares and one can find beautiful waterfalls. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyKuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a hidden gem hiding amidst Vindhyan
Hills in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
•This wildlife sanctuary is a well kept secret and is a safe haven for a large number of
flora and fauna.
•Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Barkheda, Madhya Pradesh is underway to
become India’s second home for the Asiatic lion.
•The species, whose only refuge in the country has been Gujarat’s Gir forest,
numbered in 523 in 2015.
•To prevent decline—and possible extinction—in a single habitat due to natural
disasters, epidemics, decline in prey or retaliatory killings, an action plan is being
implemented to relocate a number of lions to Kuno, a former royal hunting ground.Incorrect
Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a hidden gem hiding amidst Vindhyan
Hills in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
•This wildlife sanctuary is a well kept secret and is a safe haven for a large number of
flora and fauna.
•Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Barkheda, Madhya Pradesh is underway to
become India’s second home for the Asiatic lion.
•The species, whose only refuge in the country has been Gujarat’s Gir forest,
numbered in 523 in 2015.
•To prevent decline—and possible extinction—in a single habitat due to natural
disasters, epidemics, decline in prey or retaliatory killings, an action plan is being
implemented to relocate a number of lions to Kuno, a former royal hunting ground. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyPhansad Wildlife Sanctuary is recently in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Wildlife researchers recently documented the presence of an Indian gaur in the Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary (PWS) in Roha and Murud talukas of Raigad district.
• According to the Maharashtra forest department, this is the first time a sighting of this species of bison has been reported or documented at the sanctuary.
• The Indian Gaur is listed as Schedule I species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and is tagged as ‘vulnerable’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.
• Gaurs are the world’s largest and tallest wild bovines, with 85% of their current population found in India.
• Male gaurs weigh 1,000-1,500kg, while females weigh 700-1,000kg. Their height ranges from 165-220cm (5 to 7ft).Incorrect
Wildlife researchers recently documented the presence of an Indian gaur in the Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary (PWS) in Roha and Murud talukas of Raigad district.
• According to the Maharashtra forest department, this is the first time a sighting of this species of bison has been reported or documented at the sanctuary.
• The Indian Gaur is listed as Schedule I species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and is tagged as ‘vulnerable’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.
• Gaurs are the world’s largest and tallest wild bovines, with 85% of their current population found in India.
• Male gaurs weigh 1,000-1,500kg, while females weigh 700-1,000kg. Their height ranges from 165-220cm (5 to 7ft). - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following Tiger reserves from west to east direction:
1. Buxa tiger reserve
2. Manas tiger reserve
3. Pakke tiger reserve
4. Kaziranga tiger reserve
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
Project Tiger was formally launched in India on 1st April 1973, with the goal of saving the tiger and its habitat in India.
• With an initial 9 Tiger Reserves, the Project went on to cover 50 Tiger Reserves across the country, incorporating an area of 71,027.10 sq. km.
• Although Project Tiger tackled various issues over the past 45 years, it was unable to keep pace with the rapid changes that affected the tiger landscape, including increased human pressures.
• In 2006, it was replaced by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).Incorrect
Project Tiger was formally launched in India on 1st April 1973, with the goal of saving the tiger and its habitat in India.
• With an initial 9 Tiger Reserves, the Project went on to cover 50 Tiger Reserves across the country, incorporating an area of 71,027.10 sq. km.
• Although Project Tiger tackled various issues over the past 45 years, it was unable to keep pace with the rapid changes that affected the tiger landscape, including increased human pressures.
• In 2006, it was replaced by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following national parks of Andaman & Nicobar Islands from north to south direction:
- Saddle Peak
- Mount Harriett
- North Button
- Mahatma Gandhi Marine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Incorrect
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology- Consider the following statements regarding the Kaziranga National Park:
- The park has elephant-grass meadows, swampy lagoons and dense forests.
- The park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by the BirdLife International.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Kaziranga National Park’s 430 square kilometer area in Assam is sprinkled with elephantgrass
meadows, swampy lagoons, and dense forests are home to more than 2200 Indian
one-horned rhinoceros. Along with the iconic Greater one-horned rhinoceros, the park is
the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.
The park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the
conservation of avifaunal species. Birds like lesser white-fronted goose, ferruginous duck,
Baer’s pochard duck and lesser adjutant, greater adjutant, black-necked stork, and Asian
Openbill stork specially migrate from the Central Asia during the winter season.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Kaziranga National Park’s 430 square kilometer area in Assam is sprinkled with elephantgrass
meadows, swampy lagoons, and dense forests are home to more than 2200 Indian
one-horned rhinoceros. Along with the iconic Greater one-horned rhinoceros, the park is
the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.
The park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the
conservation of avifaunal species. Birds like lesser white-fronted goose, ferruginous duck,
Baer’s pochard duck and lesser adjutant, greater adjutant, black-necked stork, and Asian
Openbill stork specially migrate from the Central Asia during the winter season.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Biorock or mineral accretion technology, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is attempting for the first time a process to restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral accretion technology.
A biorock structure was installed one nautical mile off the Mithapur coast in the Gulf of Kachchh.
Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source, in this case solar panels that float on the surface.
The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water.
- When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the sea floor, with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the structure (cathode).
This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.
Incorrect
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is attempting for the first time a process to restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral accretion technology.
A biorock structure was installed one nautical mile off the Mithapur coast in the Gulf of Kachchh.
Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source, in this case solar panels that float on the surface.
The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water.
- When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the sea floor, with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the structure (cathode).
This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently, world’s oldest fossil forest has discovered by scientists in which of the following area?
Correct
Scientists have discovered remnants of the world’s oldest fossil forest — an extensive network of trees around 386 million years old — in sandstone quarry in the U.S.
The fossil forest in Cairo would have spread from New York all the way into Pennsylvania and beyond, according to the researchers from Binghamton University, and New York State Museum in the U.S.
The forest is around 2 or 3 million years older than what was thought to be the world’s oldest forest at Gilboa, also in New York State and around 40 kilometres away from the Cairo site.
Incorrect
Scientists have discovered remnants of the world’s oldest fossil forest — an extensive network of trees around 386 million years old — in sandstone quarry in the U.S.
The fossil forest in Cairo would have spread from New York all the way into Pennsylvania and beyond, according to the researchers from Binghamton University, and New York State Museum in the U.S.
The forest is around 2 or 3 million years older than what was thought to be the world’s oldest forest at Gilboa, also in New York State and around 40 kilometres away from the Cairo site.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following Tiger reserves from South to North:
- Bhadra
- Bandhavgarh
- Bandipur
- Bor
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Incorrect
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Balukhand Wildlife Sanctuary and Chandaka Wildlife Sanctuary” is sometimes seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Severe Cyclone Fani rendered not only several thousand people homeless as it tore along India’s east coast last week, but also dealt a body blow to wildlife and forest resources in the region.
- The scenic stretch along the tree-lined Marine Drive that bisects the Balukhand Wildlife Sanctuary adjacent to the Bay of Bengal between Puri and Konark, is now a wasteland with hardly any tree left untouched.
“As many as 20% of the trees were uprooted, while the rest were found snapped and broken. The devastation has left around 400 spotted deer homeless”.
Apart from deer, the sanctuary, spread over an area of 87 sq km, was home to wild boar, jackals, striped hyenas, wolves and mongooses.
In Bhubaneswar, the cyclone had uprooted decades-old trees inside the Nandankanan Zoological Park.
Several animal enclosures too have been affected forcing authorities to shut down the zoo for an indefinite period.
The Chandaka Wildlife Sanctuary, which is close by, has also been impacted with thousands of trees uprooted. Authorities are attempting to assess the extent of damage.
As a result, hundreds of displaced monkeys have now entered residential colonies in the periphery of Bhubaneswar. Residents have reported cases of the simians attacking people after loss of habitat and food sources.
Incorrect
Severe Cyclone Fani rendered not only several thousand people homeless as it tore along India’s east coast last week, but also dealt a body blow to wildlife and forest resources in the region.
- The scenic stretch along the tree-lined Marine Drive that bisects the Balukhand Wildlife Sanctuary adjacent to the Bay of Bengal between Puri and Konark, is now a wasteland with hardly any tree left untouched.
“As many as 20% of the trees were uprooted, while the rest were found snapped and broken. The devastation has left around 400 spotted deer homeless”.
Apart from deer, the sanctuary, spread over an area of 87 sq km, was home to wild boar, jackals, striped hyenas, wolves and mongooses.
In Bhubaneswar, the cyclone had uprooted decades-old trees inside the Nandankanan Zoological Park.
Several animal enclosures too have been affected forcing authorities to shut down the zoo for an indefinite period.
The Chandaka Wildlife Sanctuary, which is close by, has also been impacted with thousands of trees uprooted. Authorities are attempting to assess the extent of damage.
As a result, hundreds of displaced monkeys have now entered residential colonies in the periphery of Bhubaneswar. Residents have reported cases of the simians attacking people after loss of habitat and food sources.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary” is recently in news is located at?
Correct
Changthang sanctuary is home to a diversity of flora and fauna and is spread over an area of 1,600 sq km.
It is located in the Ladakhi Changthang Plateau in the Leh district of Ladakh Union Territory.
It boasts of the highest lake on earth, Tso Moriri. Not just that it is also believed to include the world’s highest village, Korzok Village that draws tourists for the Korzok Monastery.
- From sighting the rare snow leopard, one can also spot a kiang or a wild ass, along with the dark-necked crane.
Other interesting species one can find are the Tibetan wolf, wild yak, bharal, brown bear and the mormot that seems to be present everywhere.
It also has a wide variety of avifauna and around 44 types of water birds and seasonal species of migratory birds are also found here.
Incorrect
Changthang sanctuary is home to a diversity of flora and fauna and is spread over an area of 1,600 sq km.
It is located in the Ladakhi Changthang Plateau in the Leh district of Ladakh Union Territory.
It boasts of the highest lake on earth, Tso Moriri. Not just that it is also believed to include the world’s highest village, Korzok Village that draws tourists for the Korzok Monastery.
- From sighting the rare snow leopard, one can also spot a kiang or a wild ass, along with the dark-necked crane.
Other interesting species one can find are the Tibetan wolf, wild yak, bharal, brown bear and the mormot that seems to be present everywhere.
It also has a wide variety of avifauna and around 44 types of water birds and seasonal species of migratory birds are also found here.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Nandankanan Zoological Park (NZP)” is sometimes seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
: The Nandankanan Zoological Park (NZP) (Odisha) has lost one of its beloved members — 41-year-old Orangutan, an extant species of great apes.
According to NZP, the Orangutan named ‘Bini’ died due to age-related complications.
He also suffered from respiratory tract infection.
Incorrect
: The Nandankanan Zoological Park (NZP) (Odisha) has lost one of its beloved members — 41-year-old Orangutan, an extant species of great apes.
According to NZP, the Orangutan named ‘Bini’ died due to age-related complications.
He also suffered from respiratory tract infection.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the ecologically sensitive zones (ESZs) notification 2019:
- It notifies that area within 10 km of protected areas comes under ESZs.
- They are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Environment (Protection) Rules 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Over 30% of India’s protected area has been covered under the final ecologically sensitive zone (ESZ) notification, the Environment Ministry informed the Lok Sabha.
As on June 25, 2019, final ESZ notifications covering 316 protected areas (PAs) and draft ESZ notification covering 199 protected areas have been published by the ministry.
According to the ministry, out of the 651 Protected Areas (PAs) in India, 316 have been covered under the final ESZ notification which provides for prohibition of mining, stone quarrying and crushing units located within one k.m. of such protected areas.
In the absence of the notification, an area of 10 k.m. around the PAs is considered ‘default ESZ’ according to the directions of the Supreme Court.
Out of the 316 areas covered in ESZ final notification, 100 PAs are in Andaman and Nicobar Islands followed by 29 in Maharashtra and 23 protected areas in Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
The ESZ notifications are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Environment (Protection) Rules 1986.
Incorrect
Over 30% of India’s protected area has been covered under the final ecologically sensitive zone (ESZ) notification, the Environment Ministry informed the Lok Sabha.
As on June 25, 2019, final ESZ notifications covering 316 protected areas (PAs) and draft ESZ notification covering 199 protected areas have been published by the ministry.
According to the ministry, out of the 651 Protected Areas (PAs) in India, 316 have been covered under the final ESZ notification which provides for prohibition of mining, stone quarrying and crushing units located within one k.m. of such protected areas.
In the absence of the notification, an area of 10 k.m. around the PAs is considered ‘default ESZ’ according to the directions of the Supreme Court.
Out of the 316 areas covered in ESZ final notification, 100 PAs are in Andaman and Nicobar Islands followed by 29 in Maharashtra and 23 protected areas in Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
The ESZ notifications are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Environment (Protection) Rules 1986.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following states prepared the Integrated Coastal Zone Management Plans with support from the World Bank?
- Andhra Pradesh
- Kerala
- West Bengal
- Odisha
- Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The objective of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project is to assist Government of India (GoI) in building national capacity for implementation of comprehensive coastal management approach in the country, and piloting the integrated coastal zone management approach in states of Gujarat, Orissa and West Bengal.
There are four components to the project, the first component being national ICZM capacity building. The national component will include mapping, delineation and demarcation of the hazard lines, and delineation of coastal sediment cells all along the mainland coast of India.
The second component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Gujarat. This component will support capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cell that includes the Gulf of Kachchh, and pilot investments.
The third component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Orissa. This component will include capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cells that include the stretches of Paradip-Dhamra and Gopalpur-Chilika, including a regional coastal process study, and pilot investments.
Finally, the fourth component is the piloting ICZM approaches in West Bengal.
Incorrect
The objective of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project is to assist Government of India (GoI) in building national capacity for implementation of comprehensive coastal management approach in the country, and piloting the integrated coastal zone management approach in states of Gujarat, Orissa and West Bengal.
There are four components to the project, the first component being national ICZM capacity building. The national component will include mapping, delineation and demarcation of the hazard lines, and delineation of coastal sediment cells all along the mainland coast of India.
The second component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Gujarat. This component will support capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cell that includes the Gulf of Kachchh, and pilot investments.
The third component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Orissa. This component will include capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cells that include the stretches of Paradip-Dhamra and Gopalpur-Chilika, including a regional coastal process study, and pilot investments.
Finally, the fourth component is the piloting ICZM approaches in West Bengal.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following are in “Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve”?
Correct
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain forest. The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley are the protected areas present within this reserve.
Incorrect
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain forest. The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley are the protected areas present within this reserve.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following state has the unique distinction of having three (3) biosphere reserves of UNESCO (MAB) programme?
Correct
Tamil Nadu has been a pioneer State in Protected Area management and development of forest resources and wildlife.
The total area under the protected area management is 7,072.95 sq. km. which comes to 30.92% of the State’s Forest area.
The Protected Areas in the State includes 5 National parks, 15 Wildlife sanctuaries, 15 bird sanctuaries and 2 conservation reserves besides 4 Tiger Reserves viz. Anamalai, Kalakkad – Mundanthurai, Mudumalai and Sathyamangalam
- These Protected Areas have been established under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Further Tamil Nadu also has the distinction of having 3 Biosphere Reserves viz. Nilgiris, Gulf of Mannar and Agasthiarmalai, which are internationally acclaimed for their rich and unique biodiversity.
Incorrect
Tamil Nadu has been a pioneer State in Protected Area management and development of forest resources and wildlife.
The total area under the protected area management is 7,072.95 sq. km. which comes to 30.92% of the State’s Forest area.
The Protected Areas in the State includes 5 National parks, 15 Wildlife sanctuaries, 15 bird sanctuaries and 2 conservation reserves besides 4 Tiger Reserves viz. Anamalai, Kalakkad – Mundanthurai, Mudumalai and Sathyamangalam
- These Protected Areas have been established under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Further Tamil Nadu also has the distinction of having 3 Biosphere Reserves viz. Nilgiris, Gulf of Mannar and Agasthiarmalai, which are internationally acclaimed for their rich and unique biodiversity.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following pair (s) is/are correctly matched?
Biological Park/Bird Sanctuary : State
- Machia Biological Park : Gujarat
- Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP) : Tamil Nadu
- Soor Sarovar Bird Sanctuary : Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Bannerghatta National Park (Karnataka): was declared a national park in 1974, with a portion of it being made into BBP in 2002. BBP has four divisions: the zoo, the safari, the butterfly park and the rescue centre.
Machia Biological Park (Jhodpur, Rajasthan): The primary aim of the Park is conservation and to supplement the efforts for in situ conservation of the flora and fauna of the Aravalli and desert ecosystem.
Soor Sarovar Bird Sanctuary is located at Agra (Uttar Pradesh).
Incorrect
Bannerghatta National Park (Karnataka): was declared a national park in 1974, with a portion of it being made into BBP in 2002. BBP has four divisions: the zoo, the safari, the butterfly park and the rescue centre.
Machia Biological Park (Jhodpur, Rajasthan): The primary aim of the Park is conservation and to supplement the efforts for in situ conservation of the flora and fauna of the Aravalli and desert ecosystem.
Soor Sarovar Bird Sanctuary is located at Agra (Uttar Pradesh).
Protected areas 2
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1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Tropical wet evergreen-type forest of the western ghats, extends to over 600 square kilometers and provides a habitat for three big carnivores- tiger, leopard, and wild dog- amongst several other species such as lion-tailed macaque. The place is also origin of three rivers- the nethravathi, the Tunga River and the Bhadra River”. The above description defines which of the following national park?
Correct
The Kudremukh National Park is located at a distance of 96 km from the district of Chikmagalur in the state of Karnataka in India.
• Nestled in the Western Ghats, the park is spread over an area of over 600 sq km at an altitude of 1,894 m above sea level.
• The Kudremukh National Park derives its name from a hill top that resembles the shape of the head of a horse.
• The park houses four ranges named Kudremukh, Kerekatte, Kalasa, and Shimoga. The entire park is covered by thick forests with various species of flora. It is also surrounded by tea and coffee plantations.
• The Kudremukh National Park falls under the Global Tiger Conservation Priority-I, under the format developed by the Wildlife Conservation Society (WCS) and World Wide Fund-USA.
• It is also the origin of three very well-known rivers – the Nethravathi, the Tunga and the Bhadra.•A statue of Lord Varaha at a height of six feet can be found inside an ancient cave and a temple of goddess Bhagavathi is also present here. These attract many tourists, mainly pilgrims, here.
• Kudremukh National Park is home to several species of flora and fauna. Eucalyptus, casuarinas, acacia auriculiformis and Grevillea Robusta are some of the species of flora found here.
• Together with a wide array of wildlife consisting of tigers, leopards, wild dogs, Malabar giant squirrels, common langurs, sloth bears, gaurs, porcupines, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, jackals, giant flying squirrels and mongoose found here.Incorrect
The Kudremukh National Park is located at a distance of 96 km from the district of Chikmagalur in the state of Karnataka in India.
• Nestled in the Western Ghats, the park is spread over an area of over 600 sq km at an altitude of 1,894 m above sea level.
• The Kudremukh National Park derives its name from a hill top that resembles the shape of the head of a horse.
• The park houses four ranges named Kudremukh, Kerekatte, Kalasa, and Shimoga. The entire park is covered by thick forests with various species of flora. It is also surrounded by tea and coffee plantations.
• The Kudremukh National Park falls under the Global Tiger Conservation Priority-I, under the format developed by the Wildlife Conservation Society (WCS) and World Wide Fund-USA.
• It is also the origin of three very well-known rivers – the Nethravathi, the Tunga and the Bhadra.•A statue of Lord Varaha at a height of six feet can be found inside an ancient cave and a temple of goddess Bhagavathi is also present here. These attract many tourists, mainly pilgrims, here.
• Kudremukh National Park is home to several species of flora and fauna. Eucalyptus, casuarinas, acacia auriculiformis and Grevillea Robusta are some of the species of flora found here.
• Together with a wide array of wildlife consisting of tigers, leopards, wild dogs, Malabar giant squirrels, common langurs, sloth bears, gaurs, porcupines, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, jackals, giant flying squirrels and mongoose found here.
Bio-Diversity and Conservation– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Bio-Diversity and Conservation– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 16 Apr, 2021
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Peoples’ Biodiversity Register (PBR)” is often seen in news is associated with which of the following?
Correct
The path breaking Biological Diversity Act, 2002 not only supports the conservation and the sustainable use of biological resources, it also promotes an equitable sharing of benefits that come from their use.
· This one law has the potential to revolutionalise the rights of communities over the natural resources they live with.
· The BDA has made it mandatory for every local self-governing institution in rural and urban areas to constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) within their area of jurisdiction.
· Once constituted, the BMC must prepare a Peoples’ Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local people.
· A PBR comprehensively documents traditional knowledge of local biological resources.
· The BMC is the custodian of these resources, and any industry that extracts biological resources from these areas has to share part of its revenue with the local community.
Incorrect
The path breaking Biological Diversity Act, 2002 not only supports the conservation and the sustainable use of biological resources, it also promotes an equitable sharing of benefits that come from their use.
· This one law has the potential to revolutionalise the rights of communities over the natural resources they live with.
· The BDA has made it mandatory for every local self-governing institution in rural and urban areas to constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) within their area of jurisdiction.
· Once constituted, the BMC must prepare a Peoples’ Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local people.
· A PBR comprehensively documents traditional knowledge of local biological resources.
· The BMC is the custodian of these resources, and any industry that extracts biological resources from these areas has to share part of its revenue with the local community.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Raikas” – The Nomadic Pastoralists is associated with which of the following state?
Correct
The Raika tribes are a nomadic people, occupying the western districts of Rajasthan and Gujurat, including the Thar Desert.
· One estimate put their number at about 500,000, though Raikas many are abandoning the pastoralist way of life in the face of social, economic and legal pressures.
· They are known for their Arabian camels, or dromedaries, but many Raika families raise sheep and goats.
Incorrect
The Raika tribes are a nomadic people, occupying the western districts of Rajasthan and Gujurat, including the Thar Desert.
· One estimate put their number at about 500,000, though Raikas many are abandoning the pastoralist way of life in the face of social, economic and legal pressures.
· They are known for their Arabian camels, or dromedaries, but many Raika families raise sheep and goats.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The Global Biodiversity Outlook” is published by which of the following?
Correct
The second meeting of the Conference of the Parties called for the preparation of a periodic report on biological diversity: the Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO).
· It suggested that the GBO should provide a summary of the status of biological diversity and an analysis of the steps being taken by the global community to ensure that biodiversity is conserved and used sustainably, and that benefits arising from the use of genetic resources are shared equitably. Five editions of the report have been prepared.
· The Global Biodiversity Outlook 5 (GBO-5), published by the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), offers an authoritative overview of the state of nature.
· It is a final report card on progress against the 20 global biodiversity targets agreed in 2010 with a 2020 deadline, and offers lessons learned and best practices for getting on track.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/pathways-to-diversity-the-hindu-editorial-on-un-biodiversity-summit/article32754839.ece & https://www.cbd.int/gbo/
Incorrect
The second meeting of the Conference of the Parties called for the preparation of a periodic report on biological diversity: the Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO).
· It suggested that the GBO should provide a summary of the status of biological diversity and an analysis of the steps being taken by the global community to ensure that biodiversity is conserved and used sustainably, and that benefits arising from the use of genetic resources are shared equitably. Five editions of the report have been prepared.
· The Global Biodiversity Outlook 5 (GBO-5), published by the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), offers an authoritative overview of the state of nature.
· It is a final report card on progress against the 20 global biodiversity targets agreed in 2010 with a 2020 deadline, and offers lessons learned and best practices for getting on track.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/pathways-to-diversity-the-hindu-editorial-on-un-biodiversity-summit/article32754839.ece & https://www.cbd.int/gbo/
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Sundaland” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Sundaland covers a small portion of southern Thailand (provinces of Pattani, Yala, and Narathiwat); nearly all of Malaysia (nearly all of Peninsular Malaysia and the East Malaysian states of Sarawak and Sabah in northern Borneo); Singapore at the tip of the Malay Peninsula; all of Brunei Darussalam; and all of the western half of the megadiversity country of Indonesia, including Kalimantan (the Indonesian portion of Borneo, Sumatra, Java, and Bali).
· The Nicobar Islands, which are under Indian jurisdiction, are also included. Sundaland is bordered by three hotspots.
· The boundary between the Sundaland Hotspot and the Indo-Burma Hotspot to the northwest is here taken as the Kangar-Pattani Line, which crosses the Thailand-Malaysia border.
· Wallacea lies immediately to the east of the Sundaland Hotspot, separated by the famous Wallace’s Line, while the 7,100 islands of the Philippines Hotspot lie immediately to the northeast.
Source: http://bsienvis.nic.in/files/Biodiversity%20Hotspots%20in%20India.pdf
Incorrect
Sundaland covers a small portion of southern Thailand (provinces of Pattani, Yala, and Narathiwat); nearly all of Malaysia (nearly all of Peninsular Malaysia and the East Malaysian states of Sarawak and Sabah in northern Borneo); Singapore at the tip of the Malay Peninsula; all of Brunei Darussalam; and all of the western half of the megadiversity country of Indonesia, including Kalimantan (the Indonesian portion of Borneo, Sumatra, Java, and Bali).
· The Nicobar Islands, which are under Indian jurisdiction, are also included. Sundaland is bordered by three hotspots.
· The boundary between the Sundaland Hotspot and the Indo-Burma Hotspot to the northwest is here taken as the Kangar-Pattani Line, which crosses the Thailand-Malaysia border.
· Wallacea lies immediately to the east of the Sundaland Hotspot, separated by the famous Wallace’s Line, while the 7,100 islands of the Philippines Hotspot lie immediately to the northeast.
Source: http://bsienvis.nic.in/files/Biodiversity%20Hotspots%20in%20India.pdf
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyGlobally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories. Which of the following is/are the category/categories?
1. Threatened biodiversity
2. Ecological Integrity
3. Environment Impact Assessment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems.
· Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological processes; and, irreplaceability.
· The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document “The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)” by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Source: http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/Key_Biodiversity_Areas_8647.aspx
Incorrect
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems.
· Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological processes; and, irreplaceability.
· The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document “The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)” by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Source: http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/Key_Biodiversity_Areas_8647.aspx
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Ramsar Convention” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of wetlands, recognizing the fundamental ecological functions of wetlands and their economic, cultural, scientific, and recreational value.
Source: http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ramsar_wetland_sites_8224.aspx
Incorrect
The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of wetlands, recognizing the fundamental ecological functions of wetlands and their economic, cultural, scientific, and recreational value.
Source: http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ramsar_wetland_sites_8224.aspx
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN):
1. It is the world’s oldest global environmental organization to promote nature conservation and the ecologically sustainable use of natural resources.
2. Every year, IUCN convenes the IUCN World Conservation Congress to set the global conservation agenda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The IUCN is the world’s oldest global environmental organization (both government and civil society organizations) to promote nature conservation and the ecologically sustainable use of natural resources.
· Every four years, IUCN convenes the IUCN World Conservation Congress to set the global conservation agenda.
· The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
The IUCN is the world’s oldest global environmental organization (both government and civil society organizations) to promote nature conservation and the ecologically sustainable use of natural resources.
· Every four years, IUCN convenes the IUCN World Conservation Congress to set the global conservation agenda.
· The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are declared by state as protected areas for their adequate ecological, geo-morphological and natural significance?
1. National Parks
2. Wetlands
3. Estuaries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain areas by the State Government as wildlife sanctuaries if the area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geo-morphological and natural significance.
The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife sanctuaries.
Source: Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Incorrect
The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain areas by the State Government as wildlife sanctuaries if the area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geo-morphological and natural significance.
The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife sanctuaries.
Source: Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Conservation Reserves”:
1. It is bought by amendment to Wild life protection act in 2003.
2. It is an area owned by the Central Government adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries for protecting the landscape, seascape and habitat of fauna and flora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Conservation Reserve and Community Reserves are the outcome of Amendments to the Wild life protection act in 2003.
· The Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the creation of a new type of protected area called a Conservation Reserve.
· It is an area owned by the State Government adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries for protecting the landscape, seascape and habitat of fauna and flora.
· It is managed through a Conservation Reserve Management Committee.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Conservation Reserve and Community Reserves are the outcome of Amendments to the Wild life protection act in 2003.
· The Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the creation of a new type of protected area called a Conservation Reserve.
· It is an area owned by the State Government adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries for protecting the landscape, seascape and habitat of fauna and flora.
· It is managed through a Conservation Reserve Management Committee.
Source: Shankar
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Appiko movement” is started in which of the following state?
Correct
The famous Chipko Andolan (Hug the Trees Movement) of Uttarakhand in the Himalayas inspired the villagers of the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka Province in southern India to launch a similar movement to save their forests.
· In September 1983, men, women and children of Salkani “hugged the trees” in Kalase forest. (The local term for “hugging” in Kannada is appiko.)
· Appiko Andolan gave birth to a new awareness all over southern India.
Source: NCERT
Incorrect
The famous Chipko Andolan (Hug the Trees Movement) of Uttarakhand in the Himalayas inspired the villagers of the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka Province in southern India to launch a similar movement to save their forests.
· In September 1983, men, women and children of Salkani “hugged the trees” in Kalase forest. (The local term for “hugging” in Kannada is appiko.)
· Appiko Andolan gave birth to a new awareness all over southern India.
Source: NCERT
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 23 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following international conventions/treaties is/are signed by India?
1. Ramsar Convention, 1971
2. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
3. Convention on Migratory Species, 1979
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
India is a member of all major international conservation treaties related to habitat, species and environment (like Ramsar Convention, 1971; Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, 1973; Convention on Migratory Species, 1979; Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992, among others).
Incorrect
India is a member of all major international conservation treaties related to habitat, species and environment (like Ramsar Convention, 1971; Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, 1973; Convention on Migratory Species, 1979; Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992, among others).
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyBuxa tiger reserve is often seen in news is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Once famous for dolomite mining, Buxa was declared a tiger reserve in 1983 and got the status of National Park in 1992.
- Located in the Assam-Bhutan border, Buxa has an area of 745 sq km, the largest forest in North Bengal.
- The Park holds the maximum number of elephants, Indian bison, leopard, many species of deer and many smaller mammals, innumerable species of birds and reptiles.
- Buxa is rich with biodiversity and has a great collection of rare orchids and medicinal plants.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Once famous for dolomite mining, Buxa was declared a tiger reserve in 1983 and got the status of National Park in 1992.
- Located in the Assam-Bhutan border, Buxa has an area of 745 sq km, the largest forest in North Bengal.
- The Park holds the maximum number of elephants, Indian bison, leopard, many species of deer and many smaller mammals, innumerable species of birds and reptiles.
- Buxa is rich with biodiversity and has a great collection of rare orchids and medicinal plants.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyIn which of the following states/union territories is/are snow leopard found?
1. Jammu & Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Snow leopard is the icon of high mountains of Asia.
- In India, they inhabit the higher Himalayan and Trans-Himalayan landscape in an altitudinal range between approximately 3,000 m to 5,400 m above MSL, spanning c. 100,000 km2 in the five states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
- This area contributes to about 5% of the global snow leopard range.
- Long term research and conservation efforts in India have made it one of the best researched snow leopard range countries in the world.
Source: http://164.100.117.97/WriteReadData/userfiles/SPAI.pdf
Incorrect
Snow leopard is the icon of high mountains of Asia.
- In India, they inhabit the higher Himalayan and Trans-Himalayan landscape in an altitudinal range between approximately 3,000 m to 5,400 m above MSL, spanning c. 100,000 km2 in the five states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
- This area contributes to about 5% of the global snow leopard range.
- Long term research and conservation efforts in India have made it one of the best researched snow leopard range countries in the world.
Source: http://164.100.117.97/WriteReadData/userfiles/SPAI.pdf
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It is found in Rajasthan and Gujarat only.
2. WWF-India, is undertaking initiatives towards conservation of GIB in and around Desert National Park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Historically, the great Indian bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan.
- Its stronghold was once the Thar Desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula.
- Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small population occurs in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
- WWF-India has provided inputs in developing the ‘Guidelines for the State Action Plan for Resident Bustard Recovery Programme’.
- It has played an important role in raising awareness about the declining populations and highlighting the importance of implementing a focused bustard conservation programme at the national level.
- WWF-India, is undertaking initiatives towards conservation of GIB in and around Desert National Park.
Source: https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/threatened_species/great_indian_bustard/
Incorrect
Historically, the great Indian bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan.
- Its stronghold was once the Thar Desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula.
- Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small population occurs in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
- WWF-India has provided inputs in developing the ‘Guidelines for the State Action Plan for Resident Bustard Recovery Programme’.
- It has played an important role in raising awareness about the declining populations and highlighting the importance of implementing a focused bustard conservation programme at the national level.
- WWF-India, is undertaking initiatives towards conservation of GIB in and around Desert National Park.
Source: https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/threatened_species/great_indian_bustard/
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Sangai Deer:
1. It is found in Keibul Lamjao National Park only.
2. It is a state animal of Manipur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The brow-antlered deer is found in Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur. It is largely seen over the floating biomass, locally called “phumdi” in the South Eastern part of Loktak Lake inside the park.
- The Park covers an area of 40 km² and the home range of the deer in the park is confined to 15–20 km².
- Phumdi is the most important and unique part of Sangai’s habitat. It is the floating mass of entangled vegetation formed by the accumulation of organic debris and biomass with soil.
- The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/manipurs-sangai-deer-needs-a-new-home/article9973347.ece
Incorrect
The brow-antlered deer is found in Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur. It is largely seen over the floating biomass, locally called “phumdi” in the South Eastern part of Loktak Lake inside the park.
- The Park covers an area of 40 km² and the home range of the deer in the park is confined to 15–20 km².
- Phumdi is the most important and unique part of Sangai’s habitat. It is the floating mass of entangled vegetation formed by the accumulation of organic debris and biomass with soil.
- The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/manipurs-sangai-deer-needs-a-new-home/article9973347.ece
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary” is part of crocodile conservation project is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Project Crocodile was introduced in 1975. The primary focus was on breeding and rearing in captivity.
- The initiative was taken by the Government of India in association with the Food and Agriculture Organization and United Nations Development Fund.
- Due to the implementation of this project, there is an increase in the population of crocodiles, which has saved them from extinction.
- The protected areas include National Chambal Sanctuary and Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.
- The Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the Upper Gangetic plain in Uttar Pradesh, India and covers an area of 400.6 km² in the Terai of the Bahraich district.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/top-5-conservation-projects-wildlife-india/
Incorrect
Project Crocodile was introduced in 1975. The primary focus was on breeding and rearing in captivity.
- The initiative was taken by the Government of India in association with the Food and Agriculture Organization and United Nations Development Fund.
- Due to the implementation of this project, there is an increase in the population of crocodiles, which has saved them from extinction.
- The protected areas include National Chambal Sanctuary and Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.
- The Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the Upper Gangetic plain in Uttar Pradesh, India and covers an area of 400.6 km² in the Terai of the Bahraich district.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/top-5-conservation-projects-wildlife-india/
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following initiatives are covered under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE)?
- Perform Achieve and Trade
- Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency
- Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEP)
- Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE), which seeks to strengthen the market for energy efficiency by creating conducive regulatory and policy regime.
- NMEEE has been envisaged to foster innovative and sustainable business models to the energy efficiency sector.
- The NMEEE seeks to create and sustain markets for energy efficiency in the entire country which will benefit the country and the consumers”.
Four New Initiatives to Enhance Energy Efficiency:
- Perform Achieve and Trade
- Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency
- Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEP)
- Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED)
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE), which seeks to strengthen the market for energy efficiency by creating conducive regulatory and policy regime.
- NMEEE has been envisaged to foster innovative and sustainable business models to the energy efficiency sector.
- The NMEEE seeks to create and sustain markets for energy efficiency in the entire country which will benefit the country and the consumers”.
Four New Initiatives to Enhance Energy Efficiency:
- Perform Achieve and Trade
- Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency
- Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEP)
- Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED)
Source: Shankar
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Global Animal Protection Index” is released by which of the following institute?
Correct
India is one of the better-performing countries in the global Animal Protection Index 2020, created by international animal welfare charity, World Animal Protection.
- The Animal Protection Index (API) aims to showcase where countries are doing well, and where they fall short on animal welfare policy and legislation, so they can take steps to improve.
- The index ranks countries from A (being the highest score) to G (being the weakest score) according to their policy and legislation.
- India has attained a C ranking in the index, along with countries like New Zealand, Mexico, France, and Spain.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
India is one of the better-performing countries in the global Animal Protection Index 2020, created by international animal welfare charity, World Animal Protection.
- The Animal Protection Index (API) aims to showcase where countries are doing well, and where they fall short on animal welfare policy and legislation, so they can take steps to improve.
- The index ranks countries from A (being the highest score) to G (being the weakest score) according to their policy and legislation.
- India has attained a C ranking in the index, along with countries like New Zealand, Mexico, France, and Spain.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are principal agents of Acid rain?
- Sulfuric Acid
- Carbon dioxide
- Nitric Acid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The term ‘acid rain’ refers to the deposition of wet or dry acidic materials from the atmosphere on the earth’s surface.
- Although most conspicuously associated with rainfall, the pollutants may fall on the earth’s surface either in the form of snow, sleet, hail or fog or in the dry form of gases or particulate matter.
- Sulphuric acid and nitric acid are considered as the principal agents responsible for acid rain. But the major culprits are human beings.
- Smokes emitted from the industries are the major source of sulphur dioxide whereas smokes emitted from the motor vehicle is the major source of nitrogen oxide.
- These emissions mixed with atmospheric moisture from the sulphuric acid and nitric acids which, sooner or later precipitate on earth in various form.
Source: NCERT
Incorrect
The term ‘acid rain’ refers to the deposition of wet or dry acidic materials from the atmosphere on the earth’s surface.
- Although most conspicuously associated with rainfall, the pollutants may fall on the earth’s surface either in the form of snow, sleet, hail or fog or in the dry form of gases or particulate matter.
- Sulphuric acid and nitric acid are considered as the principal agents responsible for acid rain. But the major culprits are human beings.
- Smokes emitted from the industries are the major source of sulphur dioxide whereas smokes emitted from the motor vehicle is the major source of nitrogen oxide.
- These emissions mixed with atmospheric moisture from the sulphuric acid and nitric acids which, sooner or later precipitate on earth in various form.
Source: NCERT
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich Article of Indian Constitution states that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country?
Correct
Article 48A (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution, it is stated that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Article 48A (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution, it is stated that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.
Source: The Hindu
Bio-Diversity and Conservation– 2020 and Before that
Bio-Diversity and Conservation
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- Review
- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Snow Leopard:
1. It is endemic to Indian Himalayas.
2. It is listed as a vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Snow Leopard occupies the high mountains of twelve countries extending from the Hindu Kush in eastern Afghanistan and the Syr Darya through the mountains of Pamir, Karakorum, Kunlun, and the Himalaya to southern Siberia, as well as the Russian Altai, Sayan and Tannu Ola Mountains.
Statement 2 is correct. Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List with decreasing population trend and Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
It has been reported that Uttarakhand is set to open the country’s first snow leopard conservation center at the entry point of Gangotri National Park.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Snow Leopard occupies the high mountains of twelve countries extending from the Hindu Kush in eastern Afghanistan and the Syr Darya through the mountains of Pamir, Karakorum, Kunlun, and the Himalaya to southern Siberia, as well as the Russian Altai, Sayan and Tannu Ola Mountains.
Statement 2 is correct. Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List with decreasing population trend and Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
It has been reported that Uttarakhand is set to open the country’s first snow leopard conservation center at the entry point of Gangotri National Park. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Leopards:
1. Leopards are extinct from India with last sighting about 50 years ago.
2. It is listed as Vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. In India, the leopard is found in all forest types, from tropical rainforests to temperate deciduous and alpine coniferous forests. It is also found in dry scrubs and grasslands, the only exception being desert and the mangroves of Sundarbans. It shares its territory with the tiger in various states.
Statement 2 is correct. Indian leopard or Common leopard (Panthera pardus) is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and included in Appendix I of CITES.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. In India, the leopard is found in all forest types, from tropical rainforests to temperate deciduous and alpine coniferous forests. It is also found in dry scrubs and grasslands, the only exception being desert and the mangroves of Sundarbans. It shares its territory with the tiger in various states.
Statement 2 is correct. Indian leopard or Common leopard (Panthera pardus) is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and included in Appendix I of CITES. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Dhole wild dog:
1. It is endemic to Asian continent.
2. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Dhole is the wild dog of Asia that was once found throughout much of the continent, but this species is now endangered and has a much restricted range.
It is an extant species in Bangladesh; Bhutan; Cambodia; China; India; Indonesia; Lao People’s Democratic Republic; Malaysia; Myanmar; Nepal and Thailand.
Dhole is listed as Endangered species in IUCN Red List of Threatened Species with decreasing population trend. It is also listed in CITES Appendix II.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Dhole is the wild dog of Asia that was once found throughout much of the continent, but this species is now endangered and has a much restricted range.
It is an extant species in Bangladesh; Bhutan; Cambodia; China; India; Indonesia; Lao People’s Democratic Republic; Malaysia; Myanmar; Nepal and Thailand.
Dhole is listed as Endangered species in IUCN Red List of Threatened Species with decreasing population trend. It is also listed in CITES Appendix II. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Asian elephant:
1.Female Asian Elephants don’t have tusks.
2.It is classified as Endangered species by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In Asian elephants, only males have tusks, both male and female African elephants are tusked.
The elephant is Earth’s largest land animal, although the Asian elephant is slightly smaller than its African cousin. Asian elephants can be identified by their smaller, rounded ears.
They live in forested regions of India and throughout Southeast Asia, including Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, and Laos. About a third of Asian elephants live in captivity.
Statement 2 is correct. The Asian elephant is classified as Endangered by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
The beta version of National Portal on human elephant conflict called “Surakhsya” for collection of real time information has been launched recently.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In Asian elephants, only males have tusks, both male and female African elephants are tusked.
The elephant is Earth’s largest land animal, although the Asian elephant is slightly smaller than its African cousin. Asian elephants can be identified by their smaller, rounded ears.
They live in forested regions of India and throughout Southeast Asia, including Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, and Laos. About a third of Asian elephants live in captivity.
Statement 2 is correct. The Asian elephant is classified as Endangered by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
The beta version of National Portal on human elephant conflict called “Surakhsya” for collection of real time information has been launched recently. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Great Hornbill:
1. In India, it is found only in the Eastern Himalayan region.
2. It is classified as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Hornbill (Buceros bicornis) also known as the great Indian hornbill or great pied hornbill, is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. It is found in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia.
In India, its habitat spreads over Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats.
Statement 2 is correct. Due to habitat loss and hunting in some areas, the great hornbill is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species (changed from near threatened in 2018) and in the Appendix I of CITES.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Hornbill (Buceros bicornis) also known as the great Indian hornbill or great pied hornbill, is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. It is found in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia.
In India, its habitat spreads over Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats.
Statement 2 is correct. Due to habitat loss and hunting in some areas, the great hornbill is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species (changed from near threatened in 2018) and in the Appendix I of CITES. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Cheetah:
1. It is the world’s fastest land mammal.
2. It has become extinct in wild in Indian subcontinent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The cheetah is the world’s fastest land mammal. A cheetah can go from 0 to 60 miles an hour in only three seconds. These big cats are quite nimble at high speed and can make quick and sudden turns in pursuit of prey.
Statement 2 is correct. The Asiatic cheetah, which once roamed parts of India, is now only found in Iran, where there are thought to be about 50 left.Studies show that at least 200 cheetahs were killed in India, largely by sheep and goat herders, during the colonial period. It is the only large mammal to become extinct after the country gained independence in 1947.
Recently Cheetahs from South Africa arrived at Mysuru zoo (not in wild).
The Supreme Court in January, 2020 said African cheetahs could be introduced to the wild in a “carefully chosen location” India.
Cheetahs are the only big cats that can’t roar.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The cheetah is the world’s fastest land mammal. A cheetah can go from 0 to 60 miles an hour in only three seconds. These big cats are quite nimble at high speed and can make quick and sudden turns in pursuit of prey.
Statement 2 is correct. The Asiatic cheetah, which once roamed parts of India, is now only found in Iran, where there are thought to be about 50 left.Studies show that at least 200 cheetahs were killed in India, largely by sheep and goat herders, during the colonial period. It is the only large mammal to become extinct after the country gained independence in 1947.
Recently Cheetahs from South Africa arrived at Mysuru zoo (not in wild).
The Supreme Court in January, 2020 said African cheetahs could be introduced to the wild in a “carefully chosen location” India.
Cheetahs are the only big cats that can’t roar. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Gangetic Dolphins:
1. It can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
2. It is classified as Endangered inn the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges.
The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
It is listed as Endangered species in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges.
The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
It is listed as Endangered species in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Seagrasses:
1. Seagrasses have leaves, roots and veins, and produce flowers and seeds.
2. Seaweeds are most common type of seagrasses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Seagrasses belong to a group of plants called monocotyledons that include grasses, lilies and palms. Seagrasses have leaves, roots and veins, and produce flowers and seeds.
Chloroplasts in their tissues use the sun’s energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into sugar and oxygen for growth through the process of photosynthesis.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Even though seagrasses and seaweeds look superficially similar, they are very different organisms.
Algae (Seaweed) on the seafloor have a holdfast and transport nutrients through the body by diffusion, while seagrasses are flowering vascular plants with roots and an internal transport system.
Seagrasses grow in salty and brackish (semi-salty) waters around the world, typically along gently sloping, protected coastlines. Because they depend on light for photosynthesis, they are most commonly found in shallow depths where light levels are high.
Seagrasses are one of the most productive ecosystems in the world. Seagrasses provide shelter and food to an incredibly diverse community of animals, from tiny invertebrates to large fish, crabs, turtles, marine mammals and birds.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Seagrasses belong to a group of plants called monocotyledons that include grasses, lilies and palms. Seagrasses have leaves, roots and veins, and produce flowers and seeds.
Chloroplasts in their tissues use the sun’s energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into sugar and oxygen for growth through the process of photosynthesis.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Even though seagrasses and seaweeds look superficially similar, they are very different organisms.
Algae (Seaweed) on the seafloor have a holdfast and transport nutrients through the body by diffusion, while seagrasses are flowering vascular plants with roots and an internal transport system.
Seagrasses grow in salty and brackish (semi-salty) waters around the world, typically along gently sloping, protected coastlines. Because they depend on light for photosynthesis, they are most commonly found in shallow depths where light levels are high.
Seagrasses are one of the most productive ecosystems in the world. Seagrasses provide shelter and food to an incredibly diverse community of animals, from tiny invertebrates to large fish, crabs, turtles, marine mammals and birds. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe ‘Somali Sengi’ has been in news recently, what is it?
Correct
The Somali elephant shrew or Somali sengi is a species of elephant shrew in the family Macroscelididae. These are neither elephants nor shrews, but related to aardvarks, elephants and manatees. The last scientific record of the “lost species” of elephant shrew was in the 1970s, despite local sightings.
A team of researchers from the United States and the Republic of Djibouti has rediscovered the elusive Somali sengi (Elephantulus revoilii) over 50 years after it was last recorded. While this species, also known as the Somali elephant-shrew, is historically documented as endemic to Somalia, the new records are from the neighboring Republic of Djibouti and thus expand the species’ known range in the Horn of Africa.
In 2017, the Global Wildlife Conservation identified it as a Top 25 Most Wanted animal in their Search for Lost Species initiative. It is currently listed as Data Deficient in IUCN Red List.Incorrect
The Somali elephant shrew or Somali sengi is a species of elephant shrew in the family Macroscelididae. These are neither elephants nor shrews, but related to aardvarks, elephants and manatees. The last scientific record of the “lost species” of elephant shrew was in the 1970s, despite local sightings.
A team of researchers from the United States and the Republic of Djibouti has rediscovered the elusive Somali sengi (Elephantulus revoilii) over 50 years after it was last recorded. While this species, also known as the Somali elephant-shrew, is historically documented as endemic to Somalia, the new records are from the neighboring Republic of Djibouti and thus expand the species’ known range in the Horn of Africa.
In 2017, the Global Wildlife Conservation identified it as a Top 25 Most Wanted animal in their Search for Lost Species initiative. It is currently listed as Data Deficient in IUCN Red List. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1. Brown bears are endemic to Himalayan range.
2. Himalayan brown bear is listed in the Schedule I of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Brown bears are not endemic to Himalaya, rather
various subspecies of the Brown bear are found in Europe, Russia, Himalaya and Alaska.
Statement 2 is correct. Himalayan Brown bear (Ursus Arctos) is listed in the Schedule I of
the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972. The Brown Bear (Ursus arctos) is listed as Least Concern
in the IUCN Red List.
# A recent study by Zoological Survey of India on the Himalayan brown bear (Ursus arctos
isabellinus) has predicted a significant reduction in suitable habitat and biological corridors of
the species in the climate change scenario.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Brown bears are not endemic to Himalaya, rather
various subspecies of the Brown bear are found in Europe, Russia, Himalaya and Alaska.
Statement 2 is correct. Himalayan Brown bear (Ursus Arctos) is listed in the Schedule I of
the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972. The Brown Bear (Ursus arctos) is listed as Least Concern
in the IUCN Red List.
# A recent study by Zoological Survey of India on the Himalayan brown bear (Ursus arctos
isabellinus) has predicted a significant reduction in suitable habitat and biological corridors of
the species in the climate change scenario. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following vulture species is/are listed as Critically Endangered under
IUCN Red List?
1. White-rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis)
2. Slender-billed vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)
3. Long-billed vulture (Gyps indicus)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Nine species of vultures are found in India. The species worst hit are Whiterumped,
Indian (Long billed), and Slender-billed Vultures. These are also listed as
Critically Endangered in the IUCN RED List.
The white-rumped vulture had previously numbered in the millions, and was possibly the
most abundant large bird of prey in the world. The long-billed vulture had also been very
common in India, while the slender-billed vulture had historically been less common.
Others are affected too, but not as badly, due to a number of factors, including their
migratory nature (such as Cinereous Vulture and Eurasian Griffon) or their habitats being
more remote and forested (such as Himalayan Griffon).Incorrect
Nine species of vultures are found in India. The species worst hit are Whiterumped,
Indian (Long billed), and Slender-billed Vultures. These are also listed as
Critically Endangered in the IUCN RED List.
The white-rumped vulture had previously numbered in the millions, and was possibly the
most abundant large bird of prey in the world. The long-billed vulture had also been very
common in India, while the slender-billed vulture had historically been less common.
Others are affected too, but not as badly, due to a number of factors, including their
migratory nature (such as Cinereous Vulture and Eurasian Griffon) or their habitats being
more remote and forested (such as Himalayan Griffon). - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1. Snow Leopard is listed as a Vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List.
2. India is party to the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP)
Programme.
3. Himal Sanrakshak is a community volunteer programme for protection of Snow
Leopards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Snow leopards are officially recognized as Vulnerable
on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Their general population trend is thought to be
decreasing. Localized extinctions are believed to have occurred in some areas of the former
Soviet Union, including Kyrgyzstan.
Statement 2 is correct. The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program
(GSLEP) seeks to address high-mountain development issues using the conservation of the charismatic and endangered snow leopard as a flagship. India is also party to the Global
Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Programme since 2013.
Statement 3 is correct. In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the
western Himalayas including the states and UTs of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
Recently, during a virtual meet, community volunteer programme “Himal Sanrakshak” was
launched by Minister of Environment for snow leopard conservation.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Snow leopards are officially recognized as Vulnerable
on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Their general population trend is thought to be
decreasing. Localized extinctions are believed to have occurred in some areas of the former
Soviet Union, including Kyrgyzstan.
Statement 2 is correct. The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program
(GSLEP) seeks to address high-mountain development issues using the conservation of the charismatic and endangered snow leopard as a flagship. India is also party to the Global
Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Programme since 2013.
Statement 3 is correct. In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the
western Himalayas including the states and UTs of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
Recently, during a virtual meet, community volunteer programme “Himal Sanrakshak” was
launched by Minister of Environment for snow leopard conservation. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Amur Falcons:
1. These migratory birds travel from Siberia to India before heading towards Africa in
winter.
2. It listed as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Every October, flocks of Amur falcons from Siberia
start landing in north east India (fame for Pangti village of Nagaland). Thousands of these
small raptors (Falco amurensis) frolic in the village for about two months before they head
for warmer climes in Kenya and South Africa in a non-stop flight over the Arabian Sea.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Falco amurensis is listed as Least Concern under IUCN Red List.
# Chuilon and Irang, the radio-tagged Amur Falcons, arrived in Manipur after completing one
migratory journey that covered 29,000 km in 361 days recently.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Every October, flocks of Amur falcons from Siberia
start landing in north east India (fame for Pangti village of Nagaland). Thousands of these
small raptors (Falco amurensis) frolic in the village for about two months before they head
for warmer climes in Kenya and South Africa in a non-stop flight over the Arabian Sea.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Falco amurensis is listed as Least Concern under IUCN Red List.
# Chuilon and Irang, the radio-tagged Amur Falcons, arrived in Manipur after completing one
migratory journey that covered 29,000 km in 361 days recently. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Brahma Kamal:
1. It is endemic to Western Ghats of India.
2. It is the State Flower of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
Brahma Kamal is native to the Himalayas, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, India,
Mongolian, northern Burma and southwest China. It is known to bloom after sunset and
just once a year.
It is also State Flower of Uttarakhand. The flower is highly valued in Tibetan medicine and
Ayurveda for its healing properties. It is extensively used by the local population to treat
cuts and bruises.
# State Flower of Maharashtra is Jarul.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
Brahma Kamal is native to the Himalayas, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, India,
Mongolian, northern Burma and southwest China. It is known to bloom after sunset and
just once a year.
It is also State Flower of Uttarakhand. The flower is highly valued in Tibetan medicine and
Ayurveda for its healing properties. It is extensively used by the local population to treat
cuts and bruises.
# State Flower of Maharashtra is Jarul. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Askot Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following State/UT?
Correct
The Askot Wildlife Sanctuary, with altitude range from 600m to 6,905m is
located in the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand. The term ‘Askot’ is derived from ‘Assi
Kot’ or Eighty Forts, many of which are located in Nepal.
The River Kali forms the international boundary and separates it from Nepal in the east and
to the west it is bounded by West Almora Forest Division, to the north by Tibet and the
south by Pithoragarh Forest Division.
Incorrect
The Askot Wildlife Sanctuary, with altitude range from 600m to 6,905m is
located in the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand. The term ‘Askot’ is derived from ‘Assi
Kot’ or Eighty Forts, many of which are located in Nepal.
The River Kali forms the international boundary and separates it from Nepal in the east and
to the west it is bounded by West Almora Forest Division, to the north by Tibet and the
south by Pithoragarh Forest Division.
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyKrishna Peacock, Indian Jezebel, and Orange Oakleaf have been in news
recently, what are they?
Correct
National Butterfly Campaign Consortium, a collective of 50 butterfly
experts and enthusiasts, conducted a citizen poll to identify the national butterfly
concluded with three species garnering the highest number of votes: Krishna Peacock
(Papilio krishna), Indian Jezebel (Delias eucharis), and Orange Oakleaf (Kallima inachus).
Krishna Peacock, a flagship species for biodiversity and conservation, is generally found in
large numbers in the Himalayas.
Orange Oakleaf is commonly known as ‘dead leaf’ for its ability to camouflage as a dry
autumn leaf is found in the moist forests of northern Western Ghats, central, northern and
northeast India.
Indian Jezebel is a common butterfly known to deter its predators with its flashy wing
colours, found in the non-arid regions of India.
Incorrect
National Butterfly Campaign Consortium, a collective of 50 butterfly
experts and enthusiasts, conducted a citizen poll to identify the national butterfly
concluded with three species garnering the highest number of votes: Krishna Peacock
(Papilio krishna), Indian Jezebel (Delias eucharis), and Orange Oakleaf (Kallima inachus).
Krishna Peacock, a flagship species for biodiversity and conservation, is generally found in
large numbers in the Himalayas.
Orange Oakleaf is commonly known as ‘dead leaf’ for its ability to camouflage as a dry
autumn leaf is found in the moist forests of northern Western Ghats, central, northern and
northeast India.
Indian Jezebel is a common butterfly known to deter its predators with its flashy wing
colours, found in the non-arid regions of India.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Fishing Cat:
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
- It is listed as Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fishing cat is a medium-sized wild cat of South
and Southeast Asia. It is resident species in Bangladesh; Cambodia; India; Myanmar;
Nepal; Pakistan; Sri Lanka; Thailand.
Statement 2 is correct. The Fishing Cat is listed as Vulnerable species with decreasing
population trend in IUCN Red List. It is also listed in the Schedule I of Indian Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.
# The Chilika Development Authority (CDA) designated the fishing cat as ambassador. The
fishing cat is the only wild cat species in India that is a wetland specialist, and it’s found all
around Chilika.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fishing cat is a medium-sized wild cat of South
and Southeast Asia. It is resident species in Bangladesh; Cambodia; India; Myanmar;
Nepal; Pakistan; Sri Lanka; Thailand.
Statement 2 is correct. The Fishing Cat is listed as Vulnerable species with decreasing
population trend in IUCN Red List. It is also listed in the Schedule I of Indian Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.
# The Chilika Development Authority (CDA) designated the fishing cat as ambassador. The
fishing cat is the only wild cat species in India that is a wetland specialist, and it’s found all
around Chilika.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following correctly defines the ‘Buldhana Pattern‘ of water
conservation that was in news recently?
Correct
The ‘Buldhana Pattern’ of water conservation has won national recognition
and the NITI Aayog is in the process of formulating National Policy on water conversation
based on it.
It refers to synchronization of national highway construction and water conservation
that was achieved for the first time in Buldhana district, by using soil from the water
bodies, nallas and rivers. This consequently led to the increase in capacity of water storage
across the water-bodies in Buldana district and it came to be known as ‘Buldhana Pattern’.
Incorrect
The ‘Buldhana Pattern’ of water conservation has won national recognition
and the NITI Aayog is in the process of formulating National Policy on water conversation
based on it.
It refers to synchronization of national highway construction and water conservation
that was achieved for the first time in Buldhana district, by using soil from the water
bodies, nallas and rivers. This consequently led to the increase in capacity of water storage
across the water-bodies in Buldana district and it came to be known as ‘Buldhana Pattern’.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Gangetic Dolphin:
- It is the national aquatic animal of India.
- They locate their prey by emitting ultrasonic sounds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Gangetic Dolphin was declared the national aquatic animal (2009).
Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-
Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most
of its early distribution ranges.
The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by
emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to
“see” an image in their mind.
Ganges River Dolphin is listed as Endangered in IUCN Red List.
# Recently the Prime Minister announced Project Dolphin on the lines of Project Tiger aimed at
conserving the riverine and oceanic dolphins.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Gangetic Dolphin was declared the national aquatic animal (2009).
Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-
Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most
of its early distribution ranges.
The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by
emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to
“see” an image in their mind.
Ganges River Dolphin is listed as Endangered in IUCN Red List.
# Recently the Prime Minister announced Project Dolphin on the lines of Project Tiger aimed at
conserving the riverine and oceanic dolphins.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Greater One-horned Rhinoceros:
- India is home to the largest number of Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros.
- It is listed as critically endangered species in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. On the occasion of World Rhino Day, Union Minister
for Environment has launched a National Conservation Strategy for Indian One-Horned
Rhino. India is home to the largest number of Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros in the world with
population in the range of 3000 animals in Assam, West Bengal and UP.
Earlier, the Indian rhino could be found all along the Indus-Ganges-Brahmaputra valley. It
occupied an area stretching from the borders of Myanmar in the east, across northern India
and southern Nepal, as far as the Indus Valley in Pakistan in the west.
It is now found in a few pockets of the Brahmaputra valley in Assam and in the Terai
grassland region of India and Nepal in the foothill of the Himalayas, the two main hubs
being India’s Kaziranga National Park and Nepal’s Chitwan National Park.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Greater One-horned Rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) is listed as
Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List.
One horned rhino was close to extinction with a population of less than 200 in the
beginning of the 20th century. It is the only large mammal species in Asia to be down-listed
from endangered to vulnerable in the International Union for Conservation of Nature,
IUCN Red list in 2008.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. On the occasion of World Rhino Day, Union Minister
for Environment has launched a National Conservation Strategy for Indian One-Horned
Rhino. India is home to the largest number of Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros in the world with
population in the range of 3000 animals in Assam, West Bengal and UP.
Earlier, the Indian rhino could be found all along the Indus-Ganges-Brahmaputra valley. It
occupied an area stretching from the borders of Myanmar in the east, across northern India
and southern Nepal, as far as the Indus Valley in Pakistan in the west.
It is now found in a few pockets of the Brahmaputra valley in Assam and in the Terai
grassland region of India and Nepal in the foothill of the Himalayas, the two main hubs
being India’s Kaziranga National Park and Nepal’s Chitwan National Park.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Greater One-horned Rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) is listed as
Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List.
One horned rhino was close to extinction with a population of less than 200 in the
beginning of the 20th century. It is the only large mammal species in Asia to be down-listed
from endangered to vulnerable in the International Union for Conservation of Nature,
IUCN Red list in 2008.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Indian Peacock Softshell Turtle:
- It is widespread in the northern and central parts of the Indian subcontinent.
- It is listed as vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Indian Peacock Softshell Turtle species is confined to India, Bangladesh and Pakistan. It is widespread in the northern and central parts of the Indian subcontinent. It is found in rivers, streams, lakes and ponds with mud or sand bottoms. It is omnivorous, juveniles observed feeding on mosquito larvae and fish, while adults consume snails, earthworms, prawns, fish, frogs, carrion, and vegetation.
It is listed as Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
–The species is heavily exploited for its meat and calipee (the outer cartilaginous rim of the shell).
–Threats in the River Ganga to the species are those generic for all large river turtles, including reduction of fish stock, as a result of overfishing, pollution, increase in river traffic, and sand-mining, among others.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Indian Peacock Softshell Turtle species is confined to India, Bangladesh and Pakistan. It is widespread in the northern and central parts of the Indian subcontinent. It is found in rivers, streams, lakes and ponds with mud or sand bottoms. It is omnivorous, juveniles observed feeding on mosquito larvae and fish, while adults consume snails, earthworms, prawns, fish, frogs, carrion, and vegetation.
It is listed as Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
–The species is heavily exploited for its meat and calipee (the outer cartilaginous rim of the shell).
–Threats in the River Ganga to the species are those generic for all large river turtles, including reduction of fish stock, as a result of overfishing, pollution, increase in river traffic, and sand-mining, among others.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Rajgir Zoo Safari – Bihar
- Shaheed Ashfaque Ullah Khan Prani Udyaan – Uttar Pradesh
- Nandankanan Zoological Park – Odisha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above are correctly matched.
At the 37th General Body meeting of Central Zoo Authority chaired by Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, two new zoos the Rajgir Zoo Safari in Nalanda, Bihar and Shaheed Ashfaque Ullah Khan Prani Udyaan in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh were granted recognition.
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a zoo and botanical garden in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. Established in 1960 it became the first zoo in India to join World Association of Zoos and Aquariums in 2009.
Incorrect
All of the above are correctly matched.
At the 37th General Body meeting of Central Zoo Authority chaired by Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, two new zoos the Rajgir Zoo Safari in Nalanda, Bihar and Shaheed Ashfaque Ullah Khan Prani Udyaan in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh were granted recognition.
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a zoo and botanical garden in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. Established in 1960 it became the first zoo in India to join World Association of Zoos and Aquariums in 2009.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Malayan giant squirrel:
- It is found in in the north eastern region of India.
- It is listed as a Critically Endangered species in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has projected that numbers of the Malayan Giant Squirrel could decline by 90% in India by 2050 and it could be extinct by then if urgent steps are not taken.
Statement 1 is correct. The black giant squirrel or Malayan giant squirrel is a large tree squirrel in the genus Ratufa native to the Indomalayan zootope. It is found in forests from northern Bangladesh, northeast India, eastern Nepal, Bhutan, southern China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Malaysia, Cambodia, Vietnam, and western Indonesia.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Black Giant Squirrel (Ratufa bicolor) is listed as ‘Near threatened’ species in the IUCN Red List.
Incorrect
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has projected that numbers of the Malayan Giant Squirrel could decline by 90% in India by 2050 and it could be extinct by then if urgent steps are not taken.
Statement 1 is correct. The black giant squirrel or Malayan giant squirrel is a large tree squirrel in the genus Ratufa native to the Indomalayan zootope. It is found in forests from northern Bangladesh, northeast India, eastern Nepal, Bhutan, southern China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Malaysia, Cambodia, Vietnam, and western Indonesia.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Black Giant Squirrel (Ratufa bicolor) is listed as ‘Near threatened’ species in the IUCN Red List.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are invasive species in the Shola forests of Nilgiris?
- Eucalyptus
- Acacia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Shola vegetation are tropical montane forests found in the Western Ghats separated by rolling grasslands in high altitudes.
Most species such as Eucalyptus, Wattle (Acacia), introduced from Australia, have become highly invasive. Introduced about four centuries ago to create tannin in the Nilgiris have colonised the grasslands extensively and encroached upon the adjoining shola forests.
Incorrect
The Shola vegetation are tropical montane forests found in the Western Ghats separated by rolling grasslands in high altitudes.
Most species such as Eucalyptus, Wattle (Acacia), introduced from Australia, have become highly invasive. Introduced about four centuries ago to create tannin in the Nilgiris have colonised the grasslands extensively and encroached upon the adjoining shola forests.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Himalayan Serow:
- It is an herbivore animal.
- Serows are protected under the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Himalayan serows (Capricornis sumatraensis thar) are herbivores, and are typically found at altitudes between 2,000 metres and 4,000 metres (6,500 to 13,000 feet). They are known to be found in eastern, central, and western Himalayas, but not in the Trans Himalayan region.
It was recently spotted by locals and wildlife officials at a riverside rocky wall near Hurling village in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct. Serow (Capricornis sumatraensis) is protected under the Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Capricornis sumatraensis is also listed as Vulnerable specie in the IUCN Red list.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Himalayan serows (Capricornis sumatraensis thar) are herbivores, and are typically found at altitudes between 2,000 metres and 4,000 metres (6,500 to 13,000 feet). They are known to be found in eastern, central, and western Himalayas, but not in the Trans Himalayan region.
It was recently spotted by locals and wildlife officials at a riverside rocky wall near Hurling village in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct. Serow (Capricornis sumatraensis) is protected under the Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Capricornis sumatraensis is also listed as Vulnerable specie in the IUCN Red list.
Bio-Diversity and Conservation 2
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Myristica swamp treefrog can be found in which geographic region of India?
Correct
Myristica swamp treefrog is a rare arboreal species endemic to the Western Ghats. It bears the scientific name Mercurana myristicapalustris and recently has been recorded for the first time north of the Shencottah gap in the Vazhachal Reserve Forest in Kerala’s Thrissur district.
The frog was first spotted in 2013 in the Myristica swamps of Arippa, near the Kulathupuzha Reserve Forest, in the western foothills of Agasthyamalai, in Kollam district. These frogs are rare and elusive for the reason that they are arboreal and active only for a few weeks during their breeding season.Incorrect
Myristica swamp treefrog is a rare arboreal species endemic to the Western Ghats. It bears the scientific name Mercurana myristicapalustris and recently has been recorded for the first time north of the Shencottah gap in the Vazhachal Reserve Forest in Kerala’s Thrissur district.
The frog was first spotted in 2013 in the Myristica swamps of Arippa, near the Kulathupuzha Reserve Forest, in the western foothills of Agasthyamalai, in Kollam district. These frogs are rare and elusive for the reason that they are arboreal and active only for a few weeks during their breeding season. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are correct regarding the conservation status of Leopard (Panthera pardus)?
1.Listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
2.Listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
3.Listed as Vulnerable under IUCN Red List
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Leopard (Panthera pardus) is the most widely distributed and adaptable member of the family Felidae. However, their current distribution and numbers have significantly decreased across the range due to habitat loss, prey depletion, conflict and poaching over the last century.
This have resulted in changing the species status from ‘Near Threatened’ to ‘Vulnerable’ by IUCN. It is also listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in India providing it with the highest level of protection.Incorrect
Leopard (Panthera pardus) is the most widely distributed and adaptable member of the family Felidae. However, their current distribution and numbers have significantly decreased across the range due to habitat loss, prey depletion, conflict and poaching over the last century.
This have resulted in changing the species status from ‘Near Threatened’ to ‘Vulnerable’ by IUCN. It is also listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in India providing it with the highest level of protection. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the ”Status of Leopards in India 2018”:
1.It has been released the Worldwide Fund for Nature-India.
2.The states of Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka have recorded an increase in Leopard population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Status of Leopards in India 2018 report was released recently by the Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Statement 2 is correct. India now has 12,852 leopards as compared to the previous estimate of 7910 conducted 2014. More than 60% increase in population has been recorded. The States of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra recorded the highest leopard estimates at 3,421, 1,783 and 1,690 respectively.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Status of Leopards in India 2018 report was released recently by the Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Statement 2 is correct. India now has 12,852 leopards as compared to the previous estimate of 7910 conducted 2014. More than 60% increase in population has been recorded. The States of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra recorded the highest leopard estimates at 3,421, 1,783 and 1,690 respectively. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard:
1.Hunting, high tension lines and habitat loss are the major threat to this species.
2.It is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Historically, the Great Indian Bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan. Its stronghold was once the Thar desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula. Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
The biggest threat to this species is hunting, which is still prevalent in Pakistan. This is followed by occasional poaching outside Protected Areas, collisions with high tension electric wires, fast moving vehicles and free-ranging dogs in villages. Other threats include habitat loss and alteration as a result of widespread agricultural expansion and mechanized farming.
Statement 2 is correct. Great Indian Bustard (Choriotis nigriceps) is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972 and as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Historically, the Great Indian Bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan. Its stronghold was once the Thar desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula. Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
The biggest threat to this species is hunting, which is still prevalent in Pakistan. This is followed by occasional poaching outside Protected Areas, collisions with high tension electric wires, fast moving vehicles and free-ranging dogs in villages. Other threats include habitat loss and alteration as a result of widespread agricultural expansion and mechanized farming.
Statement 2 is correct. Great Indian Bustard (Choriotis nigriceps) is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972 and as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are recognized as Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India?
1. Tso Kar Basin
2. Tso Moriri
3. Pangong Tso
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are recognized as Important Bird Areas (IBAs).
The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity.
The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-regional level. According to Birdlife International, designation of IBAs is based on standardized criteria, namely (i) hold significant numbers of one or more globally threatened bird species, (ii) be one of a set of sites that together hold a suite of restricted-range species or biome-restricted species and (iii) have exceptionally large numbers of migratory or congregatory birds.Incorrect
All of the above are recognized as Important Bird Areas (IBAs).
The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity.
The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-regional level. According to Birdlife International, designation of IBAs is based on standardized criteria, namely (i) hold significant numbers of one or more globally threatened bird species, (ii) be one of a set of sites that together hold a suite of restricted-range species or biome-restricted species and (iii) have exceptionally large numbers of migratory or congregatory birds. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following species can be found in the Tso Kar wetland?
1. Black-necked Crane (Grus nigricollis)
2. Great Crested Grebe (Podicepscristatus)
3. Bar-headed Geese (Anserindicus)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Tso Kar Basin is a high-altitude wetland complex, consisting of two principal waterbodies, Startsapuk Tso, a freshwater lake of about 438 hectares to the south, and Tso Kar itself, a hypersaline lake of 1800 hectares to the north, situated in the Changthang region of Ladakh.
The Tso Kar Basin is an A1 Category Important Bird Area (IBA) as per Bird Life International and a key staging site in the Central Asian Flyway.
The site is also one of the most important breeding areas of the Black-necked Crane (Grus nigricollis) in India. This IBA is also the major breeding area for Great Crested Grebe (Podicepscristatus), Bar-headed Geese (Anserindicus), Ruddy Shelduck (Tadornaferruginea), Brown-headed Gull (Larusbrunnicephalus), Lesser Sand-Plover (Charadriusmongolus) and many other species.Incorrect
The Tso Kar Basin is a high-altitude wetland complex, consisting of two principal waterbodies, Startsapuk Tso, a freshwater lake of about 438 hectares to the south, and Tso Kar itself, a hypersaline lake of 1800 hectares to the north, situated in the Changthang region of Ladakh.
The Tso Kar Basin is an A1 Category Important Bird Area (IBA) as per Bird Life International and a key staging site in the Central Asian Flyway.
The site is also one of the most important breeding areas of the Black-necked Crane (Grus nigricollis) in India. This IBA is also the major breeding area for Great Crested Grebe (Podicepscristatus), Bar-headed Geese (Anserindicus), Ruddy Shelduck (Tadornaferruginea), Brown-headed Gull (Larusbrunnicephalus), Lesser Sand-Plover (Charadriusmongolus) and many other species. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the “Indian Bullfrog”:
1. It is native to the Indian subcontinent and is the largest frog in India.
2. It is one of the invasive species on the islands of Andaman and Nicobar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Indian bullfrog Hoplobatrachus tigerinus (native to the Indian subcontinent) has rapidly invaded the Andaman Islands after it was introduced there in the early 2000s.
• In human-dominated areas, it now shares space with other native (and often endemic) frog species.
• The bullfrogs are prolific breeders: they have short breeding seasons, and each egg clutch can contain up to 5,750 eggs.
• Its tadpoles are carnivorous and eat other tadpoles (including their own species).
• It is native to the Indian subcontinent (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan) and is the largest frog in India.Incorrect
The Indian bullfrog Hoplobatrachus tigerinus (native to the Indian subcontinent) has rapidly invaded the Andaman Islands after it was introduced there in the early 2000s.
• In human-dominated areas, it now shares space with other native (and often endemic) frog species.
• The bullfrogs are prolific breeders: they have short breeding seasons, and each egg clutch can contain up to 5,750 eggs.
• Its tadpoles are carnivorous and eat other tadpoles (including their own species).
• It is native to the Indian subcontinent (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan) and is the largest frog in India. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Ophichthus kailashchandrai”, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
A new snake eel species residing in the Bay of Bengal has been discovered and documented this month (January) by the Estuarine Biology Regional Centre (EBRC) of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) at Gopalpur-on-sea in Odisha.
• This new marine species has been named Ophichthus kailashchandrai to honour the vast contributions of Dr. Kailash Chandra, Director of ZSI, to Indian animal taxonomy.
• Ophichthus kailashchandrai is the eighth species of the Ophichthus genus found on the Indian coast. It is the fifth new species discovered by the Gopalpur ZSI in the last two years.
• The eel family ‘Ophichthidae’ comprises two sub-families — Myrophinae (69 species) and Ophichthinae (276 species).
• The sub-family Ophichthinae is identified by its hard tail and other osteological (bone) features, and it has 17 genera and 24 species.
• Out of them, seven species from the Ophichthus genus were earlier identified in Indian waters. The recent discovery is the eighth species of this genus.
• The Ophichthus kailashchandrai lives at a depth of around 50 metres in the sea. According to the studied specimens, individuals of this species are around 420 mm to 462 mm in length.
• They are light brown in colour, with white fins. They have a well-developed pectoral fin and also have a dorsal fin.
• Their posterior nostril is a hole covered by a flap on the upper lip opening towards the mouth.
• There are 180-182 total vertebrae in this new species. Their teeth are moderately elongated, conical and sharp.Incorrect
A new snake eel species residing in the Bay of Bengal has been discovered and documented this month (January) by the Estuarine Biology Regional Centre (EBRC) of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) at Gopalpur-on-sea in Odisha.
• This new marine species has been named Ophichthus kailashchandrai to honour the vast contributions of Dr. Kailash Chandra, Director of ZSI, to Indian animal taxonomy.
• Ophichthus kailashchandrai is the eighth species of the Ophichthus genus found on the Indian coast. It is the fifth new species discovered by the Gopalpur ZSI in the last two years.
• The eel family ‘Ophichthidae’ comprises two sub-families — Myrophinae (69 species) and Ophichthinae (276 species).
• The sub-family Ophichthinae is identified by its hard tail and other osteological (bone) features, and it has 17 genera and 24 species.
• Out of them, seven species from the Ophichthus genus were earlier identified in Indian waters. The recent discovery is the eighth species of this genus.
• The Ophichthus kailashchandrai lives at a depth of around 50 metres in the sea. According to the studied specimens, individuals of this species are around 420 mm to 462 mm in length.
• They are light brown in colour, with white fins. They have a well-developed pectoral fin and also have a dorsal fin.
• Their posterior nostril is a hole covered by a flap on the upper lip opening towards the mouth.
• There are 180-182 total vertebrae in this new species. Their teeth are moderately elongated, conical and sharp. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are Old World Monkeys?
1. Tamarins
2. Macaques
3. Baboons
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The monkeys are divided into two main groups—Old World and New World
monkeys. The term “old world” refers to the areas (Europe, Africa, and Asia) known to the
Europeans prior to the discovery of the “new world” (the Americas).
•New World monkeys are members of five different primate families (Callitrichidae,
Cebidae, Aotidae, Pitheciidae, and Atelidae) and consist of almost exclusively
arboreal (tree-dwelling) species like marmosets, tamarins, capuchins, and spider
monkeys.
•Old World monkeys belong to the family Cercopithecidae and consist of
species such as macaques, baboons, and vervet monkeys.
•These monkeys spend much more of their time on the ground, but can be found in
habitats ranging from the rainforest to the savannah to the mountains.Incorrect
The monkeys are divided into two main groups—Old World and New World
monkeys. The term “old world” refers to the areas (Europe, Africa, and Asia) known to the
Europeans prior to the discovery of the “new world” (the Americas).
•New World monkeys are members of five different primate families (Callitrichidae,
Cebidae, Aotidae, Pitheciidae, and Atelidae) and consist of almost exclusively
arboreal (tree-dwelling) species like marmosets, tamarins, capuchins, and spider
monkeys.
•Old World monkeys belong to the family Cercopithecidae and consist of
species such as macaques, baboons, and vervet monkeys.
•These monkeys spend much more of their time on the ground, but can be found in
habitats ranging from the rainforest to the savannah to the mountains. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the drug diclofenac:
1. It is steroidal and anti-inflammatory drug administered to cattle.
2. Indian Vulture -Gyps Indicus feeds mostly from carcasses of dead animals and reached
up to the verge of extinction because of veterinary drug diclofenac.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
From millions, the population of the three Gyps species has been recently
estimated to be about 20,000, i.e., 12,000 long-billed, 6,000 white-rumped and the rarest
being the slender-billed vulture at 1,000.
•By 2000, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) declared all
these three species in its highest risk category – Critically Endangered.
•An avian population decline can be due to many factors – poaching, epidemics,
habitat destruction – but none explained the rapidity, scale and expanse of the
decline across South Asia.
•Initially, biologists reckoned that bioaccumulation of pesticides as a potential cause
for the loss of vultures, like DDT that had poisoned bald eagles in the US in the
1960s.
•Ultimately, it took the minds of many nations – an international team of over a
dozen scientists under the aegis of the Peregrin Fund, and tests on vulture
carcasses in Pakistan – to pin the culprit down to diclofenac, a non-steroidal antiinflammatory
drug (NSAID) administered to cattle.
•Vultures feeding on the carcasses of animals recently treated with drug
suffered renal failure that caused visceral gout and death.
•It is a fast-acting, effective painkiller and also soothes fevers. Plus, it’s cheap —
costing about Rs 20, or less than half-a dollar for a dose.Incorrect
From millions, the population of the three Gyps species has been recently
estimated to be about 20,000, i.e., 12,000 long-billed, 6,000 white-rumped and the rarest
being the slender-billed vulture at 1,000.
•By 2000, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) declared all
these three species in its highest risk category – Critically Endangered.
•An avian population decline can be due to many factors – poaching, epidemics,
habitat destruction – but none explained the rapidity, scale and expanse of the
decline across South Asia.
•Initially, biologists reckoned that bioaccumulation of pesticides as a potential cause
for the loss of vultures, like DDT that had poisoned bald eagles in the US in the
1960s.
•Ultimately, it took the minds of many nations – an international team of over a
dozen scientists under the aegis of the Peregrin Fund, and tests on vulture
carcasses in Pakistan – to pin the culprit down to diclofenac, a non-steroidal antiinflammatory
drug (NSAID) administered to cattle.
•Vultures feeding on the carcasses of animals recently treated with drug
suffered renal failure that caused visceral gout and death.
•It is a fast-acting, effective painkiller and also soothes fevers. Plus, it’s cheap —
costing about Rs 20, or less than half-a dollar for a dose. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Sponges:
1. Sponges are complex, many-celled organisms.
2. While most sponges are found in the ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh
water and estuaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Sponges have been around for a very long time, with certain species having a
fossil record that dates back approximately 600 million years to the earliest (Precambrian)
period of Earth’s history.
The approximately 8,550 living sponge species are scientifically classified in the
phylum Porifera, which is comprised of four distinct classes:
•the Demospongiae (the most diverse, containing 90 percent of all living sponges),
•Hexactinellida (the rare glass sponges),
•Calcarea (calcareous sponges), and
•Homoscleromorpha (the rarest and simplest class, only recently recognized, with
approximately 117 species).
While sponges, like corals, are immobile aquatic invertebrates, they are otherwise
completely different organisms with distinct anatomy, feeding methods, and reproductive
processes. The main differences are:
•Corals are complex, many-celled organisms. Sponges are very simple creatures
with no tissues.
•All corals require saltwater to survive. While most sponges are found in the
ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh water and estuaries.Incorrect
Sponges have been around for a very long time, with certain species having a
fossil record that dates back approximately 600 million years to the earliest (Precambrian)
period of Earth’s history.
The approximately 8,550 living sponge species are scientifically classified in the
phylum Porifera, which is comprised of four distinct classes:
•the Demospongiae (the most diverse, containing 90 percent of all living sponges),
•Hexactinellida (the rare glass sponges),
•Calcarea (calcareous sponges), and
•Homoscleromorpha (the rarest and simplest class, only recently recognized, with
approximately 117 species).
While sponges, like corals, are immobile aquatic invertebrates, they are otherwise
completely different organisms with distinct anatomy, feeding methods, and reproductive
processes. The main differences are:
•Corals are complex, many-celled organisms. Sponges are very simple creatures
with no tissues.
•All corals require saltwater to survive. While most sponges are found in the
ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh water and estuaries. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Indian pangolin:
1. It has sticky tongue, which is longer than its body, is specially adapted for reaching and
lapping up insects in deep crevices.
2. It is listed as vulnerable on IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Indian pangolin.
Statement 1 is correct: Of the eight extant species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin Manis
crassicaudata and Chinese Pangolin M. pentadactyla occur in India. Indian Pangolin is a
large anteater covered dorsally by 11-13 rows of scales.
•The adult male is about one-third larger than the female. A terminal scale is also
present on the ventral side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin, which is absent in the
Chinese Pangolin.
•Its sticky tongue, which is longer than its body, is specially adapted for reaching and
lapping up insects in deep crevices.
•To tear open the anthills or termite mounds, it uses the powerful forelimbs that are
armed with three disproportionately long claws. In sharp contrast, the hind legs
have tough soles and short, blunt nails on the five toes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and as
Endangered on IUCN Red List.Incorrect
Indian pangolin.
Statement 1 is correct: Of the eight extant species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin Manis
crassicaudata and Chinese Pangolin M. pentadactyla occur in India. Indian Pangolin is a
large anteater covered dorsally by 11-13 rows of scales.
•The adult male is about one-third larger than the female. A terminal scale is also
present on the ventral side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin, which is absent in the
Chinese Pangolin.
•Its sticky tongue, which is longer than its body, is specially adapted for reaching and
lapping up insects in deep crevices.
•To tear open the anthills or termite mounds, it uses the powerful forelimbs that are
armed with three disproportionately long claws. In sharp contrast, the hind legs
have tough soles and short, blunt nails on the five toes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and as
Endangered on IUCN Red List. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Tokay Gecko (Gekko gecko):
1. It is endemic to North-east region of India.
2. It is listed in Appendix – I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
(CITES).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Tokay Gecko (Gekko gecko).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Tokay Gecko (Gekko gecko) is one of the largest geckos in
the country and the world; at about 15 inches the males are gigantic. This is a nocturnal
arboreal gecko, ranging from northeast India, to Nepal and Bangladesh, throughout
Southeast Asia, Philippines to Indonesia and western New Guinea. They are very
colorful lizards too.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tokay gecko (Gekko gecko) was included for the first time
under Appendix II of CITES at the Conference of the Parties (CoP18) to the convention.
The gecko is used in Chinese traditional medicine and traded throughout south-east Asia in
dried form or preserved in alcohol.Incorrect
Tokay Gecko (Gekko gecko).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Tokay Gecko (Gekko gecko) is one of the largest geckos in
the country and the world; at about 15 inches the males are gigantic. This is a nocturnal
arboreal gecko, ranging from northeast India, to Nepal and Bangladesh, throughout
Southeast Asia, Philippines to Indonesia and western New Guinea. They are very
colorful lizards too.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tokay gecko (Gekko gecko) was included for the first time
under Appendix II of CITES at the Conference of the Parties (CoP18) to the convention.
The gecko is used in Chinese traditional medicine and traded throughout south-east Asia in
dried form or preserved in alcohol. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the seabuckthorn plant:
1. The plant is hard and it can withstand extreme temperatures from -43 degree Celsius to
+40 degree Celsius and it is considered to be drought tolerant.
2. Over 70% of the Seabuckthorn natural resource is in Ladakh.
3. Seabuckthorn berries are among the most nutritious of all fruits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Seabuckthorn (Hippophae spp. L.) is an ecologically and economically
important plant of trans-Himalayan Ladakh.
•The plant is hard and it can withstand extreme temperatures from -43ºC to
40ºC and it is considered to be drought tolerant.
•Seabuckthorn berries are among the most nutritious of all fruits.
•Seabuckthorn grows naturally in Ladakh without much of human interference.
•After the transfer of a Seabuckthorn-based technology by Defence Institute of High
Altitude Research (DIHAR) to a private firm in year 2001, collection of berry has
become an important income generating activity.
•Ladakh remains the major site for natural Seabuckthorn resource with over
70% of the total area (13,000 ha) under Seabuckthorn in the country.Incorrect
Seabuckthorn (Hippophae spp. L.) is an ecologically and economically
important plant of trans-Himalayan Ladakh.
•The plant is hard and it can withstand extreme temperatures from -43ºC to
40ºC and it is considered to be drought tolerant.
•Seabuckthorn berries are among the most nutritious of all fruits.
•Seabuckthorn grows naturally in Ladakh without much of human interference.
•After the transfer of a Seabuckthorn-based technology by Defence Institute of High
Altitude Research (DIHAR) to a private firm in year 2001, collection of berry has
become an important income generating activity.
•Ladakh remains the major site for natural Seabuckthorn resource with over
70% of the total area (13,000 ha) under Seabuckthorn in the country. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe term Poonam Avlokan is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Gujarat Forest Department has recently announced that the number
of Asiatic lions in the state has gone up till 674 from 523 that were reported in a Lion
Census done five years ago.
•What is interesting about this year’s announcement is that the number was not
estimated via Census but some observational method called Poonam Avlokan.
•The exercise is carried out monthly and in-house every full moon.
•On this day, all the officers and field staff members assess the number of lions for
24 hours across various areas within their respective jurisdictions.
•The exercise this time involved around 10 districts where lions have been spotted
over the years by 13 forest divisions.
•The exercise took place recently and the forest department announced the lion number announced based on this method.Incorrect
The Gujarat Forest Department has recently announced that the number
of Asiatic lions in the state has gone up till 674 from 523 that were reported in a Lion
Census done five years ago.
•What is interesting about this year’s announcement is that the number was not
estimated via Census but some observational method called Poonam Avlokan.
•The exercise is carried out monthly and in-house every full moon.
•On this day, all the officers and field staff members assess the number of lions for
24 hours across various areas within their respective jurisdictions.
•The exercise this time involved around 10 districts where lions have been spotted
over the years by 13 forest divisions.
•The exercise took place recently and the forest department announced the lion number announced based on this method. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Chinkara or Indian gazelles
(Gazella bennettii):
1. It is an endemic species of India.
2. It is classified as endangered in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Indian gazelles or chinkara (Gazella bennettii), are primarily found in the
northwestern region of India in the state of Rajasthan.
•Their distribution extends from south of the Krishia River, as far east as central
India, and into the north-central region of Iran (east of the Zagros Range and
south of the Alborz).
•Sixty to 70 percent of the global population of Indian gazelles is presently found in
western Rajasthan.
•Indian gazelles can thrive in a variety of habitats. They have been observed in dry
deciduous forests, open woodlands, and dry areas such as sand dunes, semi-arid
deserts, and arid valleys that have an annual rainfall of 150 to 750 mm.
•Indian gazelles are facultative drinkers and can withstand relatively long intervals
between visits to water points by conserving metabolic water and taking advantage
of water found in vegetation.
•According to the IUCN Red List, the total population size of Chinkara is around
50,000-70,000 mature individuals. There are also estimated populations of this
species in the following areas: in India (in 2011) there were more than 100,000
animals with 80,000 animals living in the Tahr Desert; in Iran – around 1,300
animals.
•Currently, Chinkara are classified as Least Concern (LC) on the IUCN Red List
but their numbers today are decreasing.Incorrect
Indian gazelles or chinkara (Gazella bennettii), are primarily found in the
northwestern region of India in the state of Rajasthan.
•Their distribution extends from south of the Krishia River, as far east as central
India, and into the north-central region of Iran (east of the Zagros Range and
south of the Alborz).
•Sixty to 70 percent of the global population of Indian gazelles is presently found in
western Rajasthan.
•Indian gazelles can thrive in a variety of habitats. They have been observed in dry
deciduous forests, open woodlands, and dry areas such as sand dunes, semi-arid
deserts, and arid valleys that have an annual rainfall of 150 to 750 mm.
•Indian gazelles are facultative drinkers and can withstand relatively long intervals
between visits to water points by conserving metabolic water and taking advantage
of water found in vegetation.
•According to the IUCN Red List, the total population size of Chinkara is around
50,000-70,000 mature individuals. There are also estimated populations of this
species in the following areas: in India (in 2011) there were more than 100,000
animals with 80,000 animals living in the Tahr Desert; in Iran – around 1,300
animals.
•Currently, Chinkara are classified as Least Concern (LC) on the IUCN Red List
but their numbers today are decreasing. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently the Supreme Court allowed the Centre to introduce the African cheetah to a
suitable habitat in India. From which of the following African country India is importing
the cheetah?Correct
The Supreme Court allowed the Centre to introduce the African cheetah to a
suitable habitat in India.
•With India’s own cheetahs vanishing, a plea for this had been filed by the National
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), seeking permission to introduce the African
cheetah from Namibia.
•Before Namibia, India had approached Iran for Asiatic cheetahs, but had been
refused.
•The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the
IUCN Red List, and is believed to survive only in Iran.
•In 1947, Maharaja Ramanuj Pratap Singh Deo of Koriya (now in Chhattisgarh)
reportedly killed the last known Asiatic cheetah in India.
•In 1952, the cheetah was officially declared extinct from India.Incorrect
The Supreme Court allowed the Centre to introduce the African cheetah to a
suitable habitat in India.
•With India’s own cheetahs vanishing, a plea for this had been filed by the National
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), seeking permission to introduce the African
cheetah from Namibia.
•Before Namibia, India had approached Iran for Asiatic cheetahs, but had been
refused.
•The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the
IUCN Red List, and is believed to survive only in Iran.
•In 1947, Maharaja Ramanuj Pratap Singh Deo of Koriya (now in Chhattisgarh)
reportedly killed the last known Asiatic cheetah in India.
•In 1952, the cheetah was officially declared extinct from India. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following specie (s) is/are considered to have gone extinct in India?
1. The cheetah
2. Sumatran rhinoceros
3. Pink-headed duck
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
Four species of fauna and 18 species of flora have gone extinct in India in the past few centuries, according to wildlife survey organisations.
• As per the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) 18 species of plants — four non-flowering and 14 flowering — have gone extinct.
• The notable among them are Lastreopsis wattii , a fern in Manipur discovered by George Watt in 1882 and three species from the genus Ophiorrhiza (Ophiorrhiza brunonis , Ophiorrhiza caudate and Ophiorrhiza radican ), all discovered from peninsular India.
• Corypha taliera Roxb, a palm species discovered in Myanmar and the Bengal region by William Roxburgh is also extinct.
• Among mammals, the cheetah (Acionyx jubatus) and the Sumatran rhinoceros (Dicerorhinus sumatrensisi) are considered extinct in India.
• The pink-headed duck (Rhodonessa caryophyllaceai) is feared extinct since 1950 and the Himalayan quail (Ophrysia supercililios) was last reported in 1876.NOTE: Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) said India is home to 11.5% of all flora in the world. According to the International Union for Conservation Of Nature (IUCN), a new study has shown that since 1750, more than double the number of plants have disappeared from the wild than birds, mammals and amphibians combined.
Incorrect
Four species of fauna and 18 species of flora have gone extinct in India in the past few centuries, according to wildlife survey organisations.
• As per the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) 18 species of plants — four non-flowering and 14 flowering — have gone extinct.
• The notable among them are Lastreopsis wattii , a fern in Manipur discovered by George Watt in 1882 and three species from the genus Ophiorrhiza (Ophiorrhiza brunonis , Ophiorrhiza caudate and Ophiorrhiza radican ), all discovered from peninsular India.
• Corypha taliera Roxb, a palm species discovered in Myanmar and the Bengal region by William Roxburgh is also extinct.
• Among mammals, the cheetah (Acionyx jubatus) and the Sumatran rhinoceros (Dicerorhinus sumatrensisi) are considered extinct in India.
• The pink-headed duck (Rhodonessa caryophyllaceai) is feared extinct since 1950 and the Himalayan quail (Ophrysia supercililios) was last reported in 1876.NOTE: Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) said India is home to 11.5% of all flora in the world. According to the International Union for Conservation Of Nature (IUCN), a new study has shown that since 1750, more than double the number of plants have disappeared from the wild than birds, mammals and amphibians combined.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri langur (s):
1. It is one of the New World Monkey.
2. It is endemic to Western Ghats in South India.
3. They are arboreal and diurnal in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Nilgiri langur, also known as the hooded leaf monkey, black leaf monkey, Indian hooded leaf monkey, John’s langur, Nilgiri black langur, and the Nilgiri leaf monkey, is a species of Old World monkey endemic to South India.
• It is found in the Western Ghats, particularly in the Nilgiri Hills from which it derives its name, but also in other hilly areas in that region.
• They prefer to live between 980 and 6,500 ft (300–2,000 m) above sea level, and typically settle in at around 4,600 ft (1,400 m).
• Since they are an arboreal species, they seek out habitat with trees, and are known to inhabit secondary moist deciduous forests and evergreen forests. Other considerations include proximity to water and distance from humans.
• This is a diurnal species, meaning they are active during the day. While active, they spend approximately half of their time eating and the other half resting.Incorrect
The Nilgiri langur, also known as the hooded leaf monkey, black leaf monkey, Indian hooded leaf monkey, John’s langur, Nilgiri black langur, and the Nilgiri leaf monkey, is a species of Old World monkey endemic to South India.
• It is found in the Western Ghats, particularly in the Nilgiri Hills from which it derives its name, but also in other hilly areas in that region.
• They prefer to live between 980 and 6,500 ft (300–2,000 m) above sea level, and typically settle in at around 4,600 ft (1,400 m).
• Since they are an arboreal species, they seek out habitat with trees, and are known to inhabit secondary moist deciduous forests and evergreen forests. Other considerations include proximity to water and distance from humans.
• This is a diurnal species, meaning they are active during the day. While active, they spend approximately half of their time eating and the other half resting. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Kaiser-i-Hind butterfly:
1. It is mostly found in the Eastern Himalayas.
2. It is protected under schedule II of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. It is an IUCN red-listed species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Kaiser-i-Hind (Teinopalpus imperialis) is one of the most elusive swallowtail butterflies, with a 90mm to 120mm wingspan.
• It occurs in Eastern Himalayan States like Bengal (Darjeeling), Sikkim, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, the Khasi hills of Meghalaya as well as outside India in Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, southern China, Vietnam and Laos.
• The butterfly keeps to the top of trees and is therefore difficult to capture. It was once plentiful in the Khasi hills, near Cherrapunjee.
• Kaiser-i-Hind is a rare and spectacular swallowtail butterfly species. It is protected by Indian law under schedule II of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• This butterfly is an IUCN red-listed species.
• It has a strong and fast flight. It usually flies at tree-top level but when there is strong morning sunlight it descends to sit on low vegetation.
• April to July is the period when it is in flight. Its eggs are laid on the underside of leaves and are pale purplish red in colour and smooth and spherical in shape.Incorrect
Kaiser-i-Hind (Teinopalpus imperialis) is one of the most elusive swallowtail butterflies, with a 90mm to 120mm wingspan.
• It occurs in Eastern Himalayan States like Bengal (Darjeeling), Sikkim, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, the Khasi hills of Meghalaya as well as outside India in Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, southern China, Vietnam and Laos.
• The butterfly keeps to the top of trees and is therefore difficult to capture. It was once plentiful in the Khasi hills, near Cherrapunjee.
• Kaiser-i-Hind is a rare and spectacular swallowtail butterfly species. It is protected by Indian law under schedule II of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• This butterfly is an IUCN red-listed species.
• It has a strong and fast flight. It usually flies at tree-top level but when there is strong morning sunlight it descends to sit on low vegetation.
• April to July is the period when it is in flight. Its eggs are laid on the underside of leaves and are pale purplish red in colour and smooth and spherical in shape. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Slender Loris species, sometimes seen in news is endemic to which of the following area?
Correct
Lorises are unique tiny creatures that live on trees. Endemic to the Eastern Ghats they are distributed in select pockets across Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala.
• The patch of deciduous shrub forest in Ayyalur, situated on the Dindigul-Tiruchi-Karur border has been identified as an international hotspot for the Grey Slender Loris by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature).•IUCN has listed them as Endangered, whereas they are listed under the Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972, according them the highest level of legal protection.
Incorrect
Lorises are unique tiny creatures that live on trees. Endemic to the Eastern Ghats they are distributed in select pockets across Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala.
• The patch of deciduous shrub forest in Ayyalur, situated on the Dindigul-Tiruchi-Karur border has been identified as an international hotspot for the Grey Slender Loris by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature).•IUCN has listed them as Endangered, whereas they are listed under the Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972, according them the highest level of legal protection.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Platypus (mammal):
1. It is found only in Australia.
2. It is one of the monotremes that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The platypus is a remarkable mammal found only in Australia. The platypus is a duck-billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed, egg-laying aquatic creature native to Australia.
• The platypus is the sole living representative of its family, and genus, though a number of related species appear in the fossil record.
• It is one of the five extant species of monotremes, the only mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young.Incorrect
The platypus is a remarkable mammal found only in Australia. The platypus is a duck-billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed, egg-laying aquatic creature native to Australia.
• The platypus is the sole living representative of its family, and genus, though a number of related species appear in the fossil record.
• It is one of the five extant species of monotremes, the only mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Operation Clean Art” is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
“Operation Clean Art” was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
• There are six species of mongoose found in India and we have mostly recovered [in the raids] grey mongoose [hair].
• An adult mongoose yields over 30-40 gm of long hair, from which only 20-25 gm of “brush-making hair” is recovered.
• Operation Clean Art was conceived by WCCB with the singular aim of ensuring that the mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.
• Describing the making of brushes with mongoose hair an “organised crime”, the official said most of these animals were poached by “hunting communities” across the country.
• The mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act and any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.Incorrect
“Operation Clean Art” was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
• There are six species of mongoose found in India and we have mostly recovered [in the raids] grey mongoose [hair].
• An adult mongoose yields over 30-40 gm of long hair, from which only 20-25 gm of “brush-making hair” is recovered.
• Operation Clean Art was conceived by WCCB with the singular aim of ensuring that the mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.
• Describing the making of brushes with mongoose hair an “organised crime”, the official said most of these animals were poached by “hunting communities” across the country.
• The mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act and any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently a team of herpetologists have described (found) a new species of reddish-brown pit viper in which of the following state?
Correct
India now has a fifth brown pit viper but with reddish tinge.
• A team of herpetologists have described a new species of reddish-brown pit viper — a venomous snake with a unique heat-sensing system — from a forest in West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The new species also makes Arunachal Pradesh the only Indian state to have a pit viper named after it.
• The other four — Malabar, horseshoe, hump-nosed and Himalayan — were discovered 70 years ago.Incorrect
India now has a fifth brown pit viper but with reddish tinge.
• A team of herpetologists have described a new species of reddish-brown pit viper — a venomous snake with a unique heat-sensing system — from a forest in West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The new species also makes Arunachal Pradesh the only Indian state to have a pit viper named after it.
• The other four — Malabar, horseshoe, hump-nosed and Himalayan — were discovered 70 years ago. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Porites solida, Montipora digitate and Acropora hyacinthus Species” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The National Centre for Coastal Research, an institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, in India, has a field research station in the Gulf of Mannar region, and researchers have found an alarming pattern of bleaching in the reefs in Mandapam, Keezhakkarai and Palk Bay.
• About 12% of coral species observed at depths between 0m and 2m such as Porites solida, Poritis lutea, Montipora digitate, Acropora hyacinthus were completely bleached.•About 5% of species observed at depths between 2m and 4m such as Acropora formosa, Acropora hyacinthus, Montipora digitata, Montipora foliosa, Pocillopora damicornis, Goniastrea retiformis, Platygyra sinensis, Dipsastrea favus, Dipsastrea speciosa were partially bleached.
• Porites species observed in Palk Bay region were completely bleached at depths from zero to 4 metres. Corals at depths over 5m did not face bleaching.
• In some sites the massive corals such as Porites species were completely bleached but branching corals such as Montipora digitata and Acropora species were not bleached.
• Coral reefs are important hotspots of biodiversity in the ocean. Corals are animals in the same class (Cnidaria) as jellyfish and anemones.
• They consist of individual polyps that get together and build reefs. Coral reefs support a wide range of species and maintain the quality of the coastal biosphere.
• Corals control the level of carbon dioxide in the water by converting it into a limestone shell.
• If this process does not take place, the amount of carbon dioxide in the ocean water would increase significantly and affect ecological niches.Incorrect
The National Centre for Coastal Research, an institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, in India, has a field research station in the Gulf of Mannar region, and researchers have found an alarming pattern of bleaching in the reefs in Mandapam, Keezhakkarai and Palk Bay.
• About 12% of coral species observed at depths between 0m and 2m such as Porites solida, Poritis lutea, Montipora digitate, Acropora hyacinthus were completely bleached.•About 5% of species observed at depths between 2m and 4m such as Acropora formosa, Acropora hyacinthus, Montipora digitata, Montipora foliosa, Pocillopora damicornis, Goniastrea retiformis, Platygyra sinensis, Dipsastrea favus, Dipsastrea speciosa were partially bleached.
• Porites species observed in Palk Bay region were completely bleached at depths from zero to 4 metres. Corals at depths over 5m did not face bleaching.
• In some sites the massive corals such as Porites species were completely bleached but branching corals such as Montipora digitata and Acropora species were not bleached.
• Coral reefs are important hotspots of biodiversity in the ocean. Corals are animals in the same class (Cnidaria) as jellyfish and anemones.
• They consist of individual polyps that get together and build reefs. Coral reefs support a wide range of species and maintain the quality of the coastal biosphere.
• Corals control the level of carbon dioxide in the water by converting it into a limestone shell.
• If this process does not take place, the amount of carbon dioxide in the ocean water would increase significantly and affect ecological niches.
Bio-Diversity and Conservation 3
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- Question 1 of 12
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Whale Shark:
1. It is majorly found in the Indian Ocean.
2. It is an endangered species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Indian Ocean is home to 75% of the world’s population of the whale shark, a slow-moving, filter-feeding carpet shark and the largest fish species on earth.
• The whale shark — an endangered species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• The Whale Shark also receives international protection due to its inclusion in Appendix II of the Convention in International Trade in Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES).Incorrect
The Indian Ocean is home to 75% of the world’s population of the whale shark, a slow-moving, filter-feeding carpet shark and the largest fish species on earth.
• The whale shark — an endangered species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• The Whale Shark also receives international protection due to its inclusion in Appendix II of the Convention in International Trade in Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES). - Question 2 of 12
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently a new species of dung beetle, which is relatively large size, distinct blue colour and distinguishing characteristic of the strong sexual dimorphism, is discovered in which of the following state?
Correct
A new species of dung beetle has been discovered in Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The species, Enoplotrupes tawangensis, is shining dark blue in colour and, measuring up to 27 mm, is relatively bigger than most of the dung beetles.
• Dung beetles belong to the super family scarabaeoidea, having clubbed antennae and pro-tibiae (pro-legs) modified for burrowing dung inside the soil.
• These groups of insects are considered beneficial to the environment as they help in nutrient cycling of the soil. Often referred to as little recyclers, these scavenger beetles require mammalian dung to survive.
• “Insects comprise almost 65% of all animal species on the planet. From India, approximately 65,000 species of insects are known, of them, more than 22,000 species are beetles.•Dung beetles are the one of the fascinating group of insects because of their ability to bury dung deep in the soil and are indicators of the ecological health of an ecosystem”.
• Other than the relatively large size and distinct blue colour, another important distinguishing characteristic of this species is the strong sexual dimorphism, with the fronto-clypeal horn shorter in females than males.Incorrect
A new species of dung beetle has been discovered in Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The species, Enoplotrupes tawangensis, is shining dark blue in colour and, measuring up to 27 mm, is relatively bigger than most of the dung beetles.
• Dung beetles belong to the super family scarabaeoidea, having clubbed antennae and pro-tibiae (pro-legs) modified for burrowing dung inside the soil.
• These groups of insects are considered beneficial to the environment as they help in nutrient cycling of the soil. Often referred to as little recyclers, these scavenger beetles require mammalian dung to survive.
• “Insects comprise almost 65% of all animal species on the planet. From India, approximately 65,000 species of insects are known, of them, more than 22,000 species are beetles.•Dung beetles are the one of the fascinating group of insects because of their ability to bury dung deep in the soil and are indicators of the ecological health of an ecosystem”.
• Other than the relatively large size and distinct blue colour, another important distinguishing characteristic of this species is the strong sexual dimorphism, with the fronto-clypeal horn shorter in females than males. - Question 3 of 12
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently, Indian scientists from the Zoological Society of London (ZSL), an international conservation charity, and University College London (UCL) have discovered six colour morphs of the golden cat (cinnamon, golden, gray, melanistic, ocelot and tightly rosetted) in one place in which of the following state?
Correct
Golden is no longer the only colour the elusive Asiatic golden cat can be associated with.
• Its coat comes in five other shades in Arunachal Pradesh, scientists have discovered.
• The Asiatic golden cat (Catopuma temminckii) is listed as near threatened on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of threatened species.
• It is found across eastern Nepal through north-eastern India to Indonesia.
• Indian scientists from the Zoological Society of London (ZSL), an international conservation charity, and University College London (UCL) have discovered six colour morphs of the golden cat in Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
• Scientists have found that its coat comes in six types: cinnamon, golden, gray, melanistic, ocelot and tightly rosettedIncorrect
Golden is no longer the only colour the elusive Asiatic golden cat can be associated with.
• Its coat comes in five other shades in Arunachal Pradesh, scientists have discovered.
• The Asiatic golden cat (Catopuma temminckii) is listed as near threatened on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of threatened species.
• It is found across eastern Nepal through north-eastern India to Indonesia.
• Indian scientists from the Zoological Society of London (ZSL), an international conservation charity, and University College London (UCL) have discovered six colour morphs of the golden cat in Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
• Scientists have found that its coat comes in six types: cinnamon, golden, gray, melanistic, ocelot and tightly rosetted - Question 4 of 12
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Rain loving snake (Ruahlawmrul)” is sometimes seen in news is found in which of the following state?
Correct
The new genus and species of the natricine — predominantly aquatic — that took a seven-member team of herpetologists 12 years to document, has been named Smithophis atemporalis after eminent British herpetologist Malcolm Arthur Smith for his immense contribution to Indian herpetology.
• Although new to science, the discovery is locally called Ruahlawmrul or rain-loving snake.
• The maximum recorded size of the new species is 655 mm and is commonly seen in human dominated landscapes after rains.
• The team led by Varad B. Giri of the Bengaluru-based National Centre for Biological Sciences and comprising two Mizoram zoologists — H.T. Lalremsanga and Samuel Lalronunga — had conducted molecular analyses to find that Ruahlawmrul and other species called bicoloured forest snake (Rhabdops bicolor), found primarily in Meghalaya, differed from the Olive forest snake (Rhabdops olivaceous) endemic to Western GhatsIncorrect
The new genus and species of the natricine — predominantly aquatic — that took a seven-member team of herpetologists 12 years to document, has been named Smithophis atemporalis after eminent British herpetologist Malcolm Arthur Smith for his immense contribution to Indian herpetology.
• Although new to science, the discovery is locally called Ruahlawmrul or rain-loving snake.
• The maximum recorded size of the new species is 655 mm and is commonly seen in human dominated landscapes after rains.
• The team led by Varad B. Giri of the Bengaluru-based National Centre for Biological Sciences and comprising two Mizoram zoologists — H.T. Lalremsanga and Samuel Lalronunga — had conducted molecular analyses to find that Ruahlawmrul and other species called bicoloured forest snake (Rhabdops bicolor), found primarily in Meghalaya, differed from the Olive forest snake (Rhabdops olivaceous) endemic to Western Ghats - Question 5 of 12
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently which state has opened its first specialized hydrotherapy treatment for elephants suffering from arthritis, joint pain and foot ailments?
Correct
India has opened its first specialised hydrotherapy treatment for elephants suffering from arthritis, joint pain and foot ailments near the Wildlife SOS’ Elephant Conservation and Care Centre (ECCC), which currently houses 20 rescued elephants and is run in collaboration with the Uttar Pradesh Forest Department and the NGO Wildlife SOS.
• Situated on the banks of the Yamuna in Mathura, the new hydrotherapy jumbo pool is 11-foot-deep and has 21 high pressure jet sprays that create water pressure that massage the elephants’ feet and body and help in increasing blood circulation.
• “The hospital started in 2018 already offers state-of-the-art modern facilities including wireless digital X-ray, laser treatment, dental X-ray, thermal imaging and ultra-sonography to treat injured, sick and geriatric elephants”.Incorrect
India has opened its first specialised hydrotherapy treatment for elephants suffering from arthritis, joint pain and foot ailments near the Wildlife SOS’ Elephant Conservation and Care Centre (ECCC), which currently houses 20 rescued elephants and is run in collaboration with the Uttar Pradesh Forest Department and the NGO Wildlife SOS.
• Situated on the banks of the Yamuna in Mathura, the new hydrotherapy jumbo pool is 11-foot-deep and has 21 high pressure jet sprays that create water pressure that massage the elephants’ feet and body and help in increasing blood circulation.
• “The hospital started in 2018 already offers state-of-the-art modern facilities including wireless digital X-ray, laser treatment, dental X-ray, thermal imaging and ultra-sonography to treat injured, sick and geriatric elephants”. - Question 6 of 12
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following species are critically endangered in India?
1. Northern River Terrapin
2. Nicobar Megapode
3. Arabian Sea Humpback Whale
4. Red Panda
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
There are 21 critically endangered species in India. Snow Leopard, Bustard (including Floricans), Dolphin, Hangul, Nilgiri Tahr, Marine Turtles, Dugongs, Edible Nest Swiftlet, Asian Wild Buffalo, Nicobar Megapode, Manipur Brow-antlered Deer, Vultures, Malabar Civet, Indian Rhinoceros, Asiatic Lion, Swamp Deer, Jerdon’s Courser, the Northern River Terrapin, Clouded Leopard, Arabian Sea Humpback Whale and Red Panda.
Incorrect
There are 21 critically endangered species in India. Snow Leopard, Bustard (including Floricans), Dolphin, Hangul, Nilgiri Tahr, Marine Turtles, Dugongs, Edible Nest Swiftlet, Asian Wild Buffalo, Nicobar Megapode, Manipur Brow-antlered Deer, Vultures, Malabar Civet, Indian Rhinoceros, Asiatic Lion, Swamp Deer, Jerdon’s Courser, the Northern River Terrapin, Clouded Leopard, Arabian Sea Humpback Whale and Red Panda.
- Question 7 of 12
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyAccording to the “Botanical Survey of India report – Orchids of India: A Pictorial Guide”, a publication detailing all the species of India, which of the following state has highest endemic species of orchids?
Correct
The Botanical Survey of India has come up with the first comprehensive census of orchids of India putting the total number of orchid species or taxa to 1,256.
• Orchids of India: A Pictorial Guide, a publication detailing all the species of India was unveiled earlier this month by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The 1,256 species or taxa of orchids belong to 155 genera and 388 species are endemic to India.
• A State-wise distribution of orchid species points out that the Himalayas, North-East parts of the country and Western Ghats are the hot-spots of the beautiful plant species.
• The highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh with 612 species, followed by Sikkim 560 species and West Bengal; Darjeeling Himalayas have also high species concentration, with 479 species.
• While north-east India rank at the top in species concentration, the Western Ghats have high endemism of orchids.
• There are 388 species of orchids, which are endemic to India of which about one-third (128) endemic species are found in Western Ghats. The publication point out that Kerala has 111 of these endemic species while Tamil Nadu has 92 of them.
• Another interesting factor is that the entire orchid family is listed under appendix II of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) and hence any trade of wild orchid is banned globally.
• “Some of the orchids like Dendrobium , Phalaenopsis, Oncidium and Cymbidium are quite popular in floriculture trade and have a demand both within and outside country”.NOTE: Orchids can be broadly categorised into three life forms:
•epiphytic (plants growing on another plants including those growing on rock boulders and often termed lithophyte),
• terrestrial (plants growing on land and climbers) and
• mycoheterotrophic (plants which derive nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi that are attached to the roots of a vascular plant).
About 60% of all orchids found in the country, which is 757 species, are epiphytic, 447 are terrestrial and 43 are mycoheterotrophic.Incorrect
The Botanical Survey of India has come up with the first comprehensive census of orchids of India putting the total number of orchid species or taxa to 1,256.
• Orchids of India: A Pictorial Guide, a publication detailing all the species of India was unveiled earlier this month by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The 1,256 species or taxa of orchids belong to 155 genera and 388 species are endemic to India.
• A State-wise distribution of orchid species points out that the Himalayas, North-East parts of the country and Western Ghats are the hot-spots of the beautiful plant species.
• The highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh with 612 species, followed by Sikkim 560 species and West Bengal; Darjeeling Himalayas have also high species concentration, with 479 species.
• While north-east India rank at the top in species concentration, the Western Ghats have high endemism of orchids.
• There are 388 species of orchids, which are endemic to India of which about one-third (128) endemic species are found in Western Ghats. The publication point out that Kerala has 111 of these endemic species while Tamil Nadu has 92 of them.
• Another interesting factor is that the entire orchid family is listed under appendix II of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) and hence any trade of wild orchid is banned globally.
• “Some of the orchids like Dendrobium , Phalaenopsis, Oncidium and Cymbidium are quite popular in floriculture trade and have a demand both within and outside country”.NOTE: Orchids can be broadly categorised into three life forms:
•epiphytic (plants growing on another plants including those growing on rock boulders and often termed lithophyte),
• terrestrial (plants growing on land and climbers) and
• mycoheterotrophic (plants which derive nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi that are attached to the roots of a vascular plant).
About 60% of all orchids found in the country, which is 757 species, are epiphytic, 447 are terrestrial and 43 are mycoheterotrophic. - Question 8 of 12
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyAccording to IUCN, which of the following vulture species is/are critically endangered?
1. White-backed vulture
2. Indian Griffon vulture
3. Bearded vulture
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
There has been a sharp decline in the population of vultures in the country which has come down from 40 million to 19,000 in a span of over three decades, the Environment Ministry told the Parliament.
• Responding to a query on the status of vultures in the country, Union Environment Minister said there are three species of critically endangered resident Gyps vultures – white-backed vulture, long-billed vulture and slender-billed vulture – whose population as per the latest figures is 6,000, 12,000 and 1,000, respectively.
• The Minister said nationwide vulture surveys are being carried out by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) every four years sponsored by the Ministry of Environment and Forest Departments of various States since 1990.
• The major cause of mortality of vultures was found to be the veterinary non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug ‘Diclofenac’, given to cattle in pain and inflammation.
• It said that for protection and conservation of vultures in the country, the government has also upgraded the status of White-backed, Long-billed and Slender-billed vultures from Schedule IV to Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.NOTE: Indian Griffon vulture – Least Concerned and Bearded vulture – Near Threatened.
Incorrect
There has been a sharp decline in the population of vultures in the country which has come down from 40 million to 19,000 in a span of over three decades, the Environment Ministry told the Parliament.
• Responding to a query on the status of vultures in the country, Union Environment Minister said there are three species of critically endangered resident Gyps vultures – white-backed vulture, long-billed vulture and slender-billed vulture – whose population as per the latest figures is 6,000, 12,000 and 1,000, respectively.
• The Minister said nationwide vulture surveys are being carried out by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) every four years sponsored by the Ministry of Environment and Forest Departments of various States since 1990.
• The major cause of mortality of vultures was found to be the veterinary non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug ‘Diclofenac’, given to cattle in pain and inflammation.
• It said that for protection and conservation of vultures in the country, the government has also upgraded the status of White-backed, Long-billed and Slender-billed vultures from Schedule IV to Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.NOTE: Indian Griffon vulture – Least Concerned and Bearded vulture – Near Threatened.
- Question 9 of 12
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently researchers have found a dragon tree species for the first time in which of the following state?
Correct
Assam has added to India’s botanical wealth a plant that yields dragon’s blood — a bright red resin used since ancient times as medicine, body oil, varnish, incense and dye.
• A trio of researchers led by Assam forest officials has discovered Dracaena cambodiana, a dragon tree species in the Dongka Sarpo area of West Karbi Anglong.•This is for the first time that a dragon tree species has been reported from India.
• Dracaena cambodiana is an important medicinal plant as well as an ornamental tree.
• It is a major source of dragon’s blood, a precious traditional medicine in China.
• Several antifungal and antibacterial compounds, antioxidants, flavonoids, etc., have been extracted from various parts of the plant.Incorrect
Assam has added to India’s botanical wealth a plant that yields dragon’s blood — a bright red resin used since ancient times as medicine, body oil, varnish, incense and dye.
• A trio of researchers led by Assam forest officials has discovered Dracaena cambodiana, a dragon tree species in the Dongka Sarpo area of West Karbi Anglong.•This is for the first time that a dragon tree species has been reported from India.
• Dracaena cambodiana is an important medicinal plant as well as an ornamental tree.
• It is a major source of dragon’s blood, a precious traditional medicine in China.
• Several antifungal and antibacterial compounds, antioxidants, flavonoids, etc., have been extracted from various parts of the plant. - Question 10 of 12
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the “tiger census” in India:
1. It is conducted for once in four years.
2. It was first conducted in 2002 by National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Tiger census is conducted for once in four years.
• Since 2006, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) — an Environment Ministry funded body — has been tasked with coordinating the exercise.
• That year, the once in four years exercise calculated that India had only 1,411 tigers.
• This rose to 1,706 in 2010 and 2,226 in 2014 on the back of improved conservation measures and new estimation methods.
• India accounts for most of the 3,500-odd tigers that are scattered among Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russian Federation, Thailand, and Vietnam.
• As part of an agreement in 2010 among these countries, there is a goal to double the global tiger count by 2022.Incorrect
Tiger census is conducted for once in four years.
• Since 2006, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) — an Environment Ministry funded body — has been tasked with coordinating the exercise.
• That year, the once in four years exercise calculated that India had only 1,411 tigers.
• This rose to 1,706 in 2010 and 2,226 in 2014 on the back of improved conservation measures and new estimation methods.
• India accounts for most of the 3,500-odd tigers that are scattered among Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russian Federation, Thailand, and Vietnam.
• As part of an agreement in 2010 among these countries, there is a goal to double the global tiger count by 2022. - Question 11 of 12
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1. Paedophryne Amauensis is a species of frog from Papua New Guinea, is considered the world’s smallest known vertebrate.
2. Coastal Redwood is the tallest tree in the world at 377 feet.
3. Amazon Water Lily is the largest aquatic plant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
From Wandering Albatross to Coastal Redwood, Google on April 22, 2019 celebrated Earth Day with a series of animations on six unique inhabitants on the Earth.
• While Wandering Albatross has the widest wingspan in the world, Coastal Redwood is the tallest tree in the world at 377 feet.
• Paedophryne Amauensis is a species of frog from Papua New Guinea. At 7.7 mm in length, it is considered the world’s smallest known vertebrate.
• Another animation is on Amazon Water Lily which is the largest aquatic plant.
• Then there is Coelacanth — a fish that was long considered a “living fossil”. It evolved into roughly its current form approximately 400 million years ago.
• Several recent studies have shown that Coelacanth body shapes are much more diverse than previously thought.
• The last animation is on “Deep Cave Springtail”, insects that live in total darkness in caves where they feed on fungi and decomposing organic matter.The theme of this year’s Earth Day was ‘Protect Our Species’ and intended to draw attention to the rapid global destruction and reduction of the world’s plant and wildlife populations.
Incorrect
From Wandering Albatross to Coastal Redwood, Google on April 22, 2019 celebrated Earth Day with a series of animations on six unique inhabitants on the Earth.
• While Wandering Albatross has the widest wingspan in the world, Coastal Redwood is the tallest tree in the world at 377 feet.
• Paedophryne Amauensis is a species of frog from Papua New Guinea. At 7.7 mm in length, it is considered the world’s smallest known vertebrate.
• Another animation is on Amazon Water Lily which is the largest aquatic plant.
• Then there is Coelacanth — a fish that was long considered a “living fossil”. It evolved into roughly its current form approximately 400 million years ago.
• Several recent studies have shown that Coelacanth body shapes are much more diverse than previously thought.
• The last animation is on “Deep Cave Springtail”, insects that live in total darkness in caves where they feed on fungi and decomposing organic matter.The theme of this year’s Earth Day was ‘Protect Our Species’ and intended to draw attention to the rapid global destruction and reduction of the world’s plant and wildlife populations.
- Question 12 of 12
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following tiger reserves from south to north direction:
1. Anaimalai
2. Bandipur
3. Bhadra
4. Mudumalai
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Incorrect
Legislations/initiatives– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Legislations/initiatives– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 17 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
1. It authorizes the central government to protect and improve environmental quality.
2. It lays down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 authorizes the central government to protect and improve environmental quality, control and reduce pollution from all sources, and prohibit or restrict the setting and /or operation of any industrial facility on environmental grounds.
- The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in 1986 with the objective of providing for the protection and improvement of the environment.
- It empowers the Central Government to establish authorities charged with the mandate of preventing environmental pollution in all its forms and to tackle specific environmental problems that are peculiar to different parts of the country. The Act was last amended in 1991.
- The Environment (Protection) Rules lay down procedures for setting standards of emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.
- The objective of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989 is to control the generation, collection, treatment, import, storage, and handling of hazardous waste.
- The Manufacture, Storage, and Import of Hazardous Rules define the terms used in this context, and sets up an authority to inspect, once a year, the industrial activity connected with hazardous chemicals and isolated storage facilities.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/forests/general-environmental-acts
Incorrect
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 authorizes the central government to protect and improve environmental quality, control and reduce pollution from all sources, and prohibit or restrict the setting and /or operation of any industrial facility on environmental grounds.
- The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in 1986 with the objective of providing for the protection and improvement of the environment.
- It empowers the Central Government to establish authorities charged with the mandate of preventing environmental pollution in all its forms and to tackle specific environmental problems that are peculiar to different parts of the country. The Act was last amended in 1991.
- The Environment (Protection) Rules lay down procedures for setting standards of emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.
- The objective of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989 is to control the generation, collection, treatment, import, storage, and handling of hazardous waste.
- The Manufacture, Storage, and Import of Hazardous Rules define the terms used in this context, and sets up an authority to inspect, once a year, the industrial activity connected with hazardous chemicals and isolated storage facilities.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/forests/general-environmental-acts
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits” is associated with which of the following act?
Correct
The Biological Diversity Act 2002 and Biological Diversity Rules provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge associated with it.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/forests/general-environmental-acts
Incorrect
The Biological Diversity Act 2002 and Biological Diversity Rules provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge associated with it.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/forests/general-environmental-acts
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal Act, 2010:
1. It was enacted for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
2. The Tribunal bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
- It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multidisciplinary issues.
- The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/forests/general-environmental-acts
Incorrect
Under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
- It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multidisciplinary issues.
- The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/forests/general-environmental-acts
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following article/articles of Indian constitution deals with conservation of the forests?
- Article 48A
- Article 51A
- Article 19
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
When the Constitution of India was adopted in 1950, the framers were not aware that in future the issues related to forest conservation may arise.
- This was realized later as the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 was made and Article 48A was added to the part of Directive Principles of State Policy and Article 51A as a fundamental duty of every citizen of India.
- As per Article 48A, the state shall make laws to protect and improve the environment to safeguard the forests of our country.
- According to Article 51A (g), it is the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including the forests of our country.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/need-know-forest-conservation-act-1980/
Incorrect
When the Constitution of India was adopted in 1950, the framers were not aware that in future the issues related to forest conservation may arise.
- This was realized later as the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 was made and Article 48A was added to the part of Directive Principles of State Policy and Article 51A as a fundamental duty of every citizen of India.
- As per Article 48A, the state shall make laws to protect and improve the environment to safeguard the forests of our country.
- According to Article 51A (g), it is the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including the forests of our country.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/need-know-forest-conservation-act-1980/
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Central Pollution Control Board was established according to which of the following act?
Correct
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
Incorrect
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following rights are covered under Forest Rights Act, 2006?
1. Title Rights
2. Use Rights
3. Relief & Development Rights
4. Forest Management Rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs.
The forest management policies, including the Acts, Rules and Forest Policies of Participatory Forest Management policies in both colonial and post-colonial India, did not, till the enactment of this Act, recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest as well as in their traditional wisdom regarding conservation of the forests.
The act identifies four types of rights:
- Title rights
- Use rights
- Relief and development rights
- Forest management rights
Source: https://tribal.nic.in/fra.aspx.
Incorrect
The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs.
The forest management policies, including the Acts, Rules and Forest Policies of Participatory Forest Management policies in both colonial and post-colonial India, did not, till the enactment of this Act, recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest as well as in their traditional wisdom regarding conservation of the forests.
The act identifies four types of rights:
- Title rights
- Use rights
- Relief and development rights
- Forest management rights
Source: https://tribal.nic.in/fra.aspx.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are objectives of “Wild Life Protection Act, 1972”?
- Protection and management of wildlife habitats
- Establishment of protected areas
- Prohibition of taxidermy
- Regulation and control of trade in parts and products derived from wildlife
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
India has been implementing various laws to save the wildlife and the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 is one of them. THE OBJECTIVES ARE AS FOLLOWS:
- Prohibition of hunting
- Protection and management of wildlife habitats
- Establishment of protected areas
- Regulation and control of trade in parts and products derived from wildlife
- Management of zoos
- WLPA is also against taxidermy, which is the preservation of a dead wild animal as a trophy, or in the form of rugs, preserved skins, antlers, horns, eggs, teeth, and nails.
Source: Indian Express
Incorrect
India has been implementing various laws to save the wildlife and the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 is one of them. THE OBJECTIVES ARE AS FOLLOWS:
- Prohibition of hunting
- Protection and management of wildlife habitats
- Establishment of protected areas
- Regulation and control of trade in parts and products derived from wildlife
- Management of zoos
- WLPA is also against taxidermy, which is the preservation of a dead wild animal as a trophy, or in the form of rugs, preserved skins, antlers, horns, eggs, teeth, and nails.
Source: Indian Express
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscape”?
- It is a multilateral fund supported by donor governments.
- It promotes reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
It promotes reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Source: UNCCD
Incorrect
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
It promotes reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Source: UNCCD
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following Acts have been enacted by India for “conservation of the coastal and marine environment”?
1. Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
2. Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
3. National Biodiversity Act, 2002.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Marine Protected Area Network is a tool for managing natural marine resources for biodiversity conservation and for the well-being of people dependent on the resources.
The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 1991, National Biodiversity Act, 2002 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 have been enacted by India for conservation of the coastal and marine environment along with the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, which also provides for establishment of wildlife protected areas (PAs) by state governments.
Source: Indian Express
Incorrect
The Marine Protected Area Network is a tool for managing natural marine resources for biodiversity conservation and for the well-being of people dependent on the resources.
The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 1991, National Biodiversity Act, 2002 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 have been enacted by India for conservation of the coastal and marine environment along with the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, which also provides for establishment of wildlife protected areas (PAs) by state governments.
Source: Indian Express
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Clean Seas Campaign” is often seen in news is launched by which of the following?
Correct
UN Environment (UNEP) launched Clean Seas (#CleanSeas on social media) in February 2017, with the aim of engaging governments, the general public and the private sector in the fight against marine plastic pollution.
- Over the next five years, we will address the root-cause of marine litter by targeting the production and consumption of non-recoverable and single-use plastic.
- To do this effectively, we need citizens to be aware, engaged and active in addressing the problem in their daily lives and beyond.
Source: UNEP
Incorrect
UN Environment (UNEP) launched Clean Seas (#CleanSeas on social media) in February 2017, with the aim of engaging governments, the general public and the private sector in the fight against marine plastic pollution.
- Over the next five years, we will address the root-cause of marine litter by targeting the production and consumption of non-recoverable and single-use plastic.
- To do this effectively, we need citizens to be aware, engaged and active in addressing the problem in their daily lives and beyond.
Source: UNEP
Legislations/initiatives– 2020 and Before that
Legislations/initiatives
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the National Transit Pass System:
1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
2. It aims to facilitate seamless movement of forest produce across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Transit Pass System (NTPS) has been launched recently by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Statement 2 is correct. It is an online system for issuing transit permits for timber, bamboo and other forest produce. It aims to make the process of getting permits faster and without physically going to forest department offices and the passes will be issued thorough mobile applications.
The pilot project will be functional in Madhya Pradesh and Telangana for now and is to be rolled out nationally in few months.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Transit Pass System (NTPS) has been launched recently by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Statement 2 is correct. It is an online system for issuing transit permits for timber, bamboo and other forest produce. It aims to make the process of getting permits faster and without physically going to forest department offices and the passes will be issued thorough mobile applications.
The pilot project will be functional in Madhya Pradesh and Telangana for now and is to be rolled out nationally in few months. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Green Growth Equity Fund (GGEF) is a joint initiative of India with which of the following country?
Correct
The Green Growth Equity Fund (GGEF) is a joint initiative of the United Kingdom and India to invest in renewable energy, clean transportation, water and waste management in India.
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund of India partnered with the Department for International Development (DFID), an arm of the UK government to launch the Green Growth Equity Fund (“GGEF”). Both have committed GBP 120 million each into the Fund. EverSource Capital, an equal joint venture between Everstone Group and Lightsource BP was selected as the fund manager for GGEF.Incorrect
The Green Growth Equity Fund (GGEF) is a joint initiative of the United Kingdom and India to invest in renewable energy, clean transportation, water and waste management in India.
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund of India partnered with the Department for International Development (DFID), an arm of the UK government to launch the Green Growth Equity Fund (“GGEF”). Both have committed GBP 120 million each into the Fund. EverSource Capital, an equal joint venture between Everstone Group and Lightsource BP was selected as the fund manager for GGEF. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following right(s) is/are provided for by the Scheduled Tribes (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
1.Right to own, use or dispose of minor forest produce.
2.Right of conversion of leases issued by any local authority or any state government on forest land to titles.
3.Rights of settlement and conversion of forest villages revenue villages.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 recognizes and vest forest rights in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDSTs), where they are scheduled, with respect to forest land and their habitat. Some of the rights are:
-living in the forest for habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood;
-right of ownership, access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce,
-rights of settlement and conversion of all forest villages, old habitation, un-surveyed villages and other villages in forests, whether recorded, notified or not into revenue villages;
-conversion of pattas or leases issued by any local authority or any state government on forest land to titles, and other traditional customary rights.
-customary rights exclude hunting, trapping or extracting body parts of any wild animal.Incorrect
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 recognizes and vest forest rights in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDSTs), where they are scheduled, with respect to forest land and their habitat. Some of the rights are:
-living in the forest for habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood;
-right of ownership, access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce,
-rights of settlement and conversion of all forest villages, old habitation, un-surveyed villages and other villages in forests, whether recorded, notified or not into revenue villages;
-conversion of pattas or leases issued by any local authority or any state government on forest land to titles, and other traditional customary rights.
-customary rights exclude hunting, trapping or extracting body parts of any wild animal. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1. Bamboo is classified as a tree under the Indian Forest Act.
2. Bamboo has potential for its use as a clean source of energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest Act 1927 says “forest produce” is what is found in or brought from a forest. This originally included bamboo as trees.
The Parliament amendment the act in 2017 to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
Statement 2 is correct. Bamboo pellets are considered reliable biomass energy sources in certain parts of the world. In terms of mass and energy density, pellets from bamboo have characteristics superior to other biomass products, such as woodchips and briquettes.
Such higher density allows for easy and cost-effective transportation and greater efficiency in energy generation with suitable properties for residential and industrial use.
# Minister of DONER at inauguration of Virtual Bamboo Exhibition stated that ‘Bamboo has great potential for its use as a clean source of energy and can also replace the single use plastic, thus promoting the environment and Climate cause in India’.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest Act 1927 says “forest produce” is what is found in or brought from a forest. This originally included bamboo as trees.
The Parliament amendment the act in 2017 to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
Statement 2 is correct. Bamboo pellets are considered reliable biomass energy sources in certain parts of the world. In terms of mass and energy density, pellets from bamboo have characteristics superior to other biomass products, such as woodchips and briquettes.
Such higher density allows for easy and cost-effective transportation and greater efficiency in energy generation with suitable properties for residential and industrial use.
# Minister of DONER at inauguration of Virtual Bamboo Exhibition stated that ‘Bamboo has great potential for its use as a clean source of energy and can also replace the single use plastic, thus promoting the environment and Climate cause in India’. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
1. It is a statutory body constituted under Environment Protection Act 1984.
2. The Prime Minister is the chairperson of the board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory
body constituted under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The functions of the board are also
enumerated under the act.
The WLPA mandates that without the approval/recommendation of the NBWL, construction
of tourist lodges, alteration of the boundaries of PAs, destruction or diversion of wildlife
habitat and de-notification of Tiger Reserves, cannot be done.
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime minister is the chairperson of the board while Minister
of Environment, Forests & Climate Change is the Vice-Chairperson.
# Action Plan for Vulture Conservation 2020-2025 has been approved by the National Board
for Wildlife (NBWL) recently.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory
body constituted under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The functions of the board are also
enumerated under the act.
The WLPA mandates that without the approval/recommendation of the NBWL, construction
of tourist lodges, alteration of the boundaries of PAs, destruction or diversion of wildlife
habitat and de-notification of Tiger Reserves, cannot be done.
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime minister is the chairperson of the board while Minister
of Environment, Forests & Climate Change is the Vice-Chairperson.
# Action Plan for Vulture Conservation 2020-2025 has been approved by the National Board
for Wildlife (NBWL) recently. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Central Zoo Authority (CZA):
1. It is a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. No zoo can be operated in India without being recognised by the CZA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Central Zoo Authority was established as a
statutory body under the Ministry of Environment & Forests by the Government of India in
the year 1992 by adding a separate chapter in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The
Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
Statement 2 is correct. Its functions include recognizing or derecognizing zoos and further
Section 38H(1) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides that ‘no zoo shall be operated
without being recognised by the CZA’Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Central Zoo Authority was established as a
statutory body under the Ministry of Environment & Forests by the Government of India in
the year 1992 by adding a separate chapter in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The
Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
Statement 2 is correct. Its functions include recognizing or derecognizing zoos and further
Section 38H(1) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides that ‘no zoo shall be operated
without being recognised by the CZA’ - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyOne can approach the National Green Tribunal for seeking relief and compensation
under which of the following legislations?
1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
2. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
3. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Any person seeking relief and compensation for environmental damage involving subjects in the legislations mentioned in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 may approach the Tribunal. The statutes in Schedule I are:
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.’Incorrect
Any person seeking relief and compensation for environmental damage involving subjects in the legislations mentioned in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 may approach the Tribunal. The statutes in Schedule I are:
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.’ - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
Act, 1960:
1. The Animal Welfare Board of India has been established under the act.
2. To kill any animal even if required by the religion of any community is a punishable
offence under the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory
advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country,
established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 11 of the act lists a series of offences, which vary from
abandoning an animal to kicking it, mutilating it or killing it, and prescribes the
punishment for all these offences.
Section 28 however states that ―nothing contained in this Act shall render it an offence to
kill any animal in a manner required by the religion of any community.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory
advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country,
established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 11 of the act lists a series of offences, which vary from
abandoning an animal to kicking it, mutilating it or killing it, and prescribes the
punishment for all these offences.
Section 28 however states that ―nothing contained in this Act shall render it an offence to
kill any animal in a manner required by the religion of any community. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following pillars constitutes the Namami Gange Programme?
1. Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure
2. Afforestation
3. Industrial Effluent Monitoring
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, a
‘Flagship Programme’ of the Union Government to accomplish the twin objectives of effective
abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
Main pillars of the Namami Gange Programme:
Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Front Development, River-Surface Cleaning, Bio-
Diversity, Afforestation, Public Awareness, Industrial Effluent Monitoring and Ganga Gram.
The implementation of the program is divided into entry-level activities (for immediate
visible impact), medium term activities (to be implemented within 5 years of time frame),
and, long-term activities (to be implemented within 10 years).
# Prime Minister recently inaugurated several development projects in Uttarakhand under the
Namami Gange MissionIncorrect
‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, a
‘Flagship Programme’ of the Union Government to accomplish the twin objectives of effective
abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
Main pillars of the Namami Gange Programme:
Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Front Development, River-Surface Cleaning, Bio-
Diversity, Afforestation, Public Awareness, Industrial Effluent Monitoring and Ganga Gram.
The implementation of the program is divided into entry-level activities (for immediate
visible impact), medium term activities (to be implemented within 5 years of time frame),
and, long-term activities (to be implemented within 10 years).
# Prime Minister recently inaugurated several development projects in Uttarakhand under the
Namami Gange Mission - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Green Charcoal Hackathon:
1.It is being organised by the NITI Aayog.
2.It aims to clean the air by eliminating farm fire and producing renewable energy out of the agri-residue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. To fast-track the carbon footprint reduction technology development, NTPC Vidyut Vyapar Nigam (NVVN) in partnership with EESL organises technology challenge named as Green Charcoal Hackathon.
Statement 2 is correct. The purpose of the event is to leverage the innovative Indian mind to bridge the technology gap, with the prime objective to clean the air by eliminating farm fire, producing renewable energy out of the agro residue, to promote local entrepreneurship, and to increase the income of the farmers.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. To fast-track the carbon footprint reduction technology development, NTPC Vidyut Vyapar Nigam (NVVN) in partnership with EESL organises technology challenge named as Green Charcoal Hackathon.
Statement 2 is correct. The purpose of the event is to leverage the innovative Indian mind to bridge the technology gap, with the prime objective to clean the air by eliminating farm fire, producing renewable energy out of the agro residue, to promote local entrepreneurship, and to increase the income of the farmers. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1.The National Biofuel Policy (NBP) 2018 has a target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol and 5% of bio-diesel by 2030.
2.A drop in fuel is one that can be utilized in vehicles without any modifications in the conventional engine systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The goal of the National Biofuel Policy (NBP) 2018 is to enable availability of biofuels in the market thereby increasing its blending percentage. An indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of biodiesel in diesel is proposed by 2030. This goal is to be achieved by:
-reinforcing ongoing ethanol/biodiesel supplies through increasing domestic production
-setting up Second Generation (2G) bio refineries
-development of new feedstock for biofuels
-creating suitable environment for biofuels and its integration with the main fuels.
Statement 2 is correct. A drop-in fuel is a synthetic and completely interchangeable substitute for conventional petroleum-derived hydrocarbons (gasoline, jet fuel, and diesel), meaning it does not require adaptation of the engine, fuel system or the fuel distribution network.
The NBP 2018 defines drop-in fuels as any liquid fuel produced from Biomass, agri-residues, wastes such as Municipal Solid Wastes (MSW), Plastic wastes, Industrial wastes etc. which meets the Indian standards for MS, HSD and Jet fuel, in pure or blended form, for its subsequent utilization in vehicles without any modifications in the engine systems and can utilize existing petroleum distribution system.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The goal of the National Biofuel Policy (NBP) 2018 is to enable availability of biofuels in the market thereby increasing its blending percentage. An indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of biodiesel in diesel is proposed by 2030. This goal is to be achieved by:
-reinforcing ongoing ethanol/biodiesel supplies through increasing domestic production
-setting up Second Generation (2G) bio refineries
-development of new feedstock for biofuels
-creating suitable environment for biofuels and its integration with the main fuels.
Statement 2 is correct. A drop-in fuel is a synthetic and completely interchangeable substitute for conventional petroleum-derived hydrocarbons (gasoline, jet fuel, and diesel), meaning it does not require adaptation of the engine, fuel system or the fuel distribution network.
The NBP 2018 defines drop-in fuels as any liquid fuel produced from Biomass, agri-residues, wastes such as Municipal Solid Wastes (MSW), Plastic wastes, Industrial wastes etc. which meets the Indian standards for MS, HSD and Jet fuel, in pure or blended form, for its subsequent utilization in vehicles without any modifications in the engine systems and can utilize existing petroleum distribution system. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Wildlife Crime Control
Bureau”?
1. The Bureau was constituted by amendment to the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. It advices the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national
and international ramifications.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bureau was constituted by amendment to the Wild Life
(Protection) Act, 1972. It has been envisaged as a multi – disciplinary statutory body that
will have officials from forests, police, customs and other similar agencies. The constitution
is specified in Section 38 (Y) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement 2 is correct: The powers and functions of the Bureau are specified under
Section 38(Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. It Advice the Government of India on
issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications and
suggest changes required in relevant policy and laws time to time.Incorrect
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bureau was constituted by amendment to the Wild Life
(Protection) Act, 1972. It has been envisaged as a multi – disciplinary statutory body that
will have officials from forests, police, customs and other similar agencies. The constitution
is specified in Section 38 (Y) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement 2 is correct: The powers and functions of the Bureau are specified under
Section 38(Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. It Advice the Government of India on
issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications and
suggest changes required in relevant policy and laws time to time. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following specie/species is/are covered under IUCN (Critically
Endangered) category, Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972?
1. Asian Elephant
2. Great Indian Bustard
3. Bengal Florican
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Asian Elephant: It is found in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and
Myanmar. IUCN status of Asian Elephant is Endangered. It is also listed in Appendix I of
the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES) and Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Great Indian Bustard: It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. Its largest
populations are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is state bird of Rajasthan. It is
listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. It is also listed in Appendix I of
CITES and Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Bengal Florican: In India it is found in Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. It
has been listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. The bird is listed under
Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India, 1972 and Appendix I of CITES.Incorrect
Asian Elephant: It is found in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and
Myanmar. IUCN status of Asian Elephant is Endangered. It is also listed in Appendix I of
the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES) and Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Great Indian Bustard: It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. Its largest
populations are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is state bird of Rajasthan. It is
listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. It is also listed in Appendix I of
CITES and Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Bengal Florican: In India it is found in Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. It
has been listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. The bird is listed under
Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India, 1972 and Appendix I of CITES. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the European Union Green Deal:
1. The EU will aim to reach net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
2. A new circular economy action plan will be tabled in March 2020, as part of a broader
EU industrial strategy.
3. Renovation rate of buildings at double or triple times.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen outlined the European
Green Deal on Wednesday, vowing to “leave no-one behind” in the race to achieve a climate
neutral economy by 2050. “This is Europe’s man on the moon moment,” she said in a video
statement. “Our goal is to reconcile the economy with our planet” and “to make it work for
our people,” she added, describing climate policy as Europe’s new growth strategy.
Here are the main points in the commission plan:
•‘Climate neutral’ Europe: This is the overarching objective of the European Green
Deal. The EU will aim to reach net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050, a goal
that will be enshrined in a ‘climate law’ to be presented in March 2020.
•Circular economy: A new circular economy action plan will be tabled in March
2020, as part of a broader EU industrial strategy. It will include a sustainable
product policy with “prescriptions on how we make things” in order to use less
materials, and ensure products can be reused and recycled.
•Building renovation: This is meant to be one of the flagship programmes of the
Green Deal. The key objective there is to “at least double or even triple” the
renovation rate of buildings, which currently stands at around 1%.
•Zero-pollution: Whether in air, soil or water, the objective is to reach a “pollutionfree
environment” by 2050. New initiatives there include a chemical strategy for a
“toxic-free environment”.
•Ecosystems & biodiversity: A new biodiversity strategy will be presented in March
2020, in the run-up to a UN biodiversity summit taking place in China in October.
“Europe wants to lead by example” with new measures to address the main drivers
of biodiversity loss. That includes measures to tackle soil and water pollution as well
as a new forest strategy.
•Farm to fork strategy: To be tabled in spring 2020, the new strategy will aim for a
“green and healthier agriculture” system. This includes plans to “significantly reduce
the use of chemical pesticides, fertilisers and antibiotics”.
•Transport: One year after the EU agreed new CO2 emission standards for cars, the
automotive sector is once again in the commission’s firing line. The current objective
is to reach 95gCO2/km by 2021.
•Money: To “leave no-one behind,” the commission proposes a ‘Just Transition
Mechanism’ to help regions most heavily dependent on fossil fuels. “We have the
ambition to mobilise €100 billion precisely targeted to the most vulnerable regions
and sectors”.Incorrect
European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen outlined the European
Green Deal on Wednesday, vowing to “leave no-one behind” in the race to achieve a climate
neutral economy by 2050. “This is Europe’s man on the moon moment,” she said in a video
statement. “Our goal is to reconcile the economy with our planet” and “to make it work for
our people,” she added, describing climate policy as Europe’s new growth strategy.
Here are the main points in the commission plan:
•‘Climate neutral’ Europe: This is the overarching objective of the European Green
Deal. The EU will aim to reach net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050, a goal
that will be enshrined in a ‘climate law’ to be presented in March 2020.
•Circular economy: A new circular economy action plan will be tabled in March
2020, as part of a broader EU industrial strategy. It will include a sustainable
product policy with “prescriptions on how we make things” in order to use less
materials, and ensure products can be reused and recycled.
•Building renovation: This is meant to be one of the flagship programmes of the
Green Deal. The key objective there is to “at least double or even triple” the
renovation rate of buildings, which currently stands at around 1%.
•Zero-pollution: Whether in air, soil or water, the objective is to reach a “pollutionfree
environment” by 2050. New initiatives there include a chemical strategy for a
“toxic-free environment”.
•Ecosystems & biodiversity: A new biodiversity strategy will be presented in March
2020, in the run-up to a UN biodiversity summit taking place in China in October.
“Europe wants to lead by example” with new measures to address the main drivers
of biodiversity loss. That includes measures to tackle soil and water pollution as well
as a new forest strategy.
•Farm to fork strategy: To be tabled in spring 2020, the new strategy will aim for a
“green and healthier agriculture” system. This includes plans to “significantly reduce
the use of chemical pesticides, fertilisers and antibiotics”.
•Transport: One year after the EU agreed new CO2 emission standards for cars, the
automotive sector is once again in the commission’s firing line. The current objective
is to reach 95gCO2/km by 2021.
•Money: To “leave no-one behind,” the commission proposes a ‘Just Transition
Mechanism’ to help regions most heavily dependent on fossil fuels. “We have the
ambition to mobilise €100 billion precisely targeted to the most vulnerable regions
and sectors”. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following benefits would accrue to the society while implementing the
India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP)?
1. Thermal comfort for all – provision for cooling for EWS and LIG housing.
2. Doubling Farmers Income.
3. Sustainable cooling – low GHG emissions related to cooling.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The India Cooling Action seeks to
•reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037-38,
•reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037-38,
•reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38,
•recognize “cooling and related areas” as a thrust area of research under national
S&T Programme,
•training and certification of 100,000 servicing sector technicians by 2022-23,
synergizing with Skill India Mission. These actions will have significant climate
benefits.
The following benefits would accrue to the society over and above the environmental
benefits:
•Thermal comfort for all – provision for cooling for EWS and LIG housing,
•Sustainable cooling – low GHG emissions related to cooling,
•Doubling Farmers Income – better cold chain infrastructure – better value of
produce to farmers, less wastage of produce,
•Skilled workforce for better livelihoods and environmental protection,
•Make in India – domestic manufacturing of air-conditioning and related cooling
equipment’s,
•Robust R&D on alternative cooling technologies – to provide push to innovation in
cooling sector.Incorrect
The India Cooling Action seeks to
•reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037-38,
•reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037-38,
•reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38,
•recognize “cooling and related areas” as a thrust area of research under national
S&T Programme,
•training and certification of 100,000 servicing sector technicians by 2022-23,
synergizing with Skill India Mission. These actions will have significant climate
benefits.
The following benefits would accrue to the society over and above the environmental
benefits:
•Thermal comfort for all – provision for cooling for EWS and LIG housing,
•Sustainable cooling – low GHG emissions related to cooling,
•Doubling Farmers Income – better cold chain infrastructure – better value of
produce to farmers, less wastage of produce,
•Skilled workforce for better livelihoods and environmental protection,
•Make in India – domestic manufacturing of air-conditioning and related cooling
equipment’s,
•Robust R&D on alternative cooling technologies – to provide push to innovation in
cooling sector. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Forest-PLUS 2.0:
1. It is a joint initiative of India and Germany.
2. It is a ten-year programme initiated in December 2018 that focuses on developing tools
and techniques to bolster ecosystem management and harnessing ecosystem services in
forest landscape management.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
Forest-PLUS 2.0.
Statement 1 is incorrect: US Agency for International Development (USAID) and India’s
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) have launched Forest-
PLUS 2.0.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Forest-PLUS 2.0 is a five-year programme initiated in
December 2018 that focuses on developing tools and techniques to bolster ecosystem
management and harnessing ecosystem services in forest landscape management.
•Forest-PLUS 2.0 comprises pilot project in three landscapes — Gaya in Bihar,
Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala and Medak in Telangana.
•The choice of these sites was driven by the contrast in their landscapes – Bihar is a
forest deficit area, Telangana is a relatively drier area where there is ample scope for
community livelihood enhancement and Kerala is rich in biodiversity.Incorrect
Forest-PLUS 2.0.
Statement 1 is incorrect: US Agency for International Development (USAID) and India’s
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) have launched Forest-
PLUS 2.0.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Forest-PLUS 2.0 is a five-year programme initiated in
December 2018 that focuses on developing tools and techniques to bolster ecosystem
management and harnessing ecosystem services in forest landscape management.
•Forest-PLUS 2.0 comprises pilot project in three landscapes — Gaya in Bihar,
Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala and Medak in Telangana.
•The choice of these sites was driven by the contrast in their landscapes – Bihar is a
forest deficit area, Telangana is a relatively drier area where there is ample scope for
community livelihood enhancement and Kerala is rich in biodiversity. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) Act:
1. The law establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public
Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public
Account of each state.
2. The National Fund will receive 20% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the
remaining 80%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority
(CAMPA) Act.
CAMPA Act:
•To compensate the loss of forest area and to maintain the sustainability, the
Government of India came up with a well-defined Act, known as CAMPA
(Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority).
•The law establishesthe National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the
Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under
the Public Account of each state.
•These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present
value of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific payments.
•The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will
receive the remaining 90%.
•According to the Act’s provision, a company diverting forest land must provide
alternative land to take up compensatory afforestation.
•For afforestation, the company should pay to plant new trees in the alternative land
provided to the state.
•The act also seeks to establish National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authorities to manage the funds.Incorrect
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority
(CAMPA) Act.
CAMPA Act:
•To compensate the loss of forest area and to maintain the sustainability, the
Government of India came up with a well-defined Act, known as CAMPA
(Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority).
•The law establishesthe National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the
Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under
the Public Account of each state.
•These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present
value of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific payments.
•The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will
receive the remaining 90%.
•According to the Act’s provision, a company diverting forest land must provide
alternative land to take up compensatory afforestation.
•For afforestation, the company should pay to plant new trees in the alternative land
provided to the state.
•The act also seeks to establish National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authorities to manage the funds. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the document titled Connecting Tiger
Populations for Long-term Conservation:
1. It is published by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India.
2. It has mapped out 50 major corridors across the country, management interventions for
which are operationalised through a Tiger Conservation Plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The National Tiger Conservation Authority in collaboration with the
Wildlife Institute of India has published a document titled “Connecting Tiger
Populations for Long-term Conservation”, which has mapped out 32 major corridors
across the country, management interventions for which are operationalised through a
Tiger Conservation Plan, mandated under section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.Incorrect
The National Tiger Conservation Authority in collaboration with the
Wildlife Institute of India has published a document titled “Connecting Tiger
Populations for Long-term Conservation”, which has mapped out 32 major corridors
across the country, management interventions for which are operationalised through a
Tiger Conservation Plan, mandated under section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Gandhi Solar Park:
1. It was inaugurated at United Nations headquarters by the Indian Prime Minister during
the commemorative event (Gandhi’s 150 birth anniversary).
2. It has 193 solar panels, each representing a member of United Nations.
3. It can generate 100 kilo-watt per hour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
In a first of its kind symbolic effort by India at the UN, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi inaugurated a 50KW ‘Gandhi Solar Park’, a gesture that highlights India’s
willingness to go beyond the talk on climate change
•At a contribution of about one million dollars, India has gifted solar panels that have
been installed on the roof of the UN Headquarters here, one panel each for every
193 UN Member State.
•Modi will remotely inaugurate the solar park at the UN Headquarters and the
‘Gandhi Peace Garden’ during a special commemorative event marking Gandhi’s
150th birth anniversary.Incorrect
In a first of its kind symbolic effort by India at the UN, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi inaugurated a 50KW ‘Gandhi Solar Park’, a gesture that highlights India’s
willingness to go beyond the talk on climate change
•At a contribution of about one million dollars, India has gifted solar panels that have
been installed on the roof of the UN Headquarters here, one panel each for every
193 UN Member State.
•Modi will remotely inaugurate the solar park at the UN Headquarters and the
‘Gandhi Peace Garden’ during a special commemorative event marking Gandhi’s
150th birth anniversary. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe ‘reverse bundling’ scheme is recently in news is related to which of the
following?Correct
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has proposed a draft policy for
the supply of round-the-clock power to distributors through a mix of renewable energy and
electricity generated in coal-based thermal power plants.
•Addressing issues of intermittency, limited hours of supply and low capacity
utilisation of transmission infrastructure, the draft power policy provides for
‘reverse bundling’—high-cost thermal power clubbed with cheaper renewable
energy.
•A power generating firm will have to supply electricity that consists of at least 51
percent of renewable energy and the rest drawn from thermal sources.
•The generator will supply renewable energy complemented with thermal power in
round-the-clock manner, keeping at least 80 percent availability on an annual basis,
the draft said.Incorrect
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has proposed a draft policy for
the supply of round-the-clock power to distributors through a mix of renewable energy and
electricity generated in coal-based thermal power plants.
•Addressing issues of intermittency, limited hours of supply and low capacity
utilisation of transmission infrastructure, the draft power policy provides for
‘reverse bundling’—high-cost thermal power clubbed with cheaper renewable
energy.
•A power generating firm will have to supply electricity that consists of at least 51
percent of renewable energy and the rest drawn from thermal sources.
•The generator will supply renewable energy complemented with thermal power in
round-the-clock manner, keeping at least 80 percent availability on an annual basis,
the draft said. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness
Index (SARAL):
1. It is designed and developed by Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI).
2. Rajasthan tops the Index followed by Gujarat and Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy launched the State Rooftop Solar
Attractiveness Index (SARAL).
•Karnataka has been given the first rank in the index, followed by Telangana,
Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
•SARAL has been designed by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(MNRE) in association with Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (SSEF),
Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) and
Ernst & Young (EY).
•The index captures five key aspects — robustness of policy framework,
implementation environment, investment climate, consumer experience and
business ecosystem.Incorrect
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy launched the State Rooftop Solar
Attractiveness Index (SARAL).
•Karnataka has been given the first rank in the index, followed by Telangana,
Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
•SARAL has been designed by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(MNRE) in association with Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (SSEF),
Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) and
Ernst & Young (EY).
•The index captures five key aspects — robustness of policy framework,
implementation environment, investment climate, consumer experience and
business ecosystem. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE):
1. It is an autonomous body under Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. The India Environment Portal is initiated and managed by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is an independent, public interest organization (not-for-profit), which uses knowledge for activism.
• The Centre was started in 1980, by India’s top environmentalist, Anil Agarwal and continues to work to push, prod and argue for environmental management in the country. It believes it can and must make a difference.
• The India Environment Portal is initiated and managed by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) promoted by the National Knowledge Commission (NKC), Government of India.Incorrect
The Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is an independent, public interest organization (not-for-profit), which uses knowledge for activism.
• The Centre was started in 1980, by India’s top environmentalist, Anil Agarwal and continues to work to push, prod and argue for environmental management in the country. It believes it can and must make a difference.
• The India Environment Portal is initiated and managed by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) promoted by the National Knowledge Commission (NKC), Government of India. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following Act mandates to create Local level Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC’s)?
Correct
The Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) has formed a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) as per the Bio Diversity Act of 2002, which mandates the establishment of BMCs at the local body level across the country.
• The committee will work towards conservation and promotion of biological diversity.
• The primary responsibility of the committee includes documentation of biological diversity, preservation of natural habitats, conservation of landrace, local and regional breeds of animals and plants.
• One of the important functions of the committee would be to prepare or help prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR), which will contain comprehensive information on local flora and fauna, traditional and scientific knowledge, and information associated with species.Incorrect
The Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) has formed a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) as per the Bio Diversity Act of 2002, which mandates the establishment of BMCs at the local body level across the country.
• The committee will work towards conservation and promotion of biological diversity.
• The primary responsibility of the committee includes documentation of biological diversity, preservation of natural habitats, conservation of landrace, local and regional breeds of animals and plants.
• One of the important functions of the committee would be to prepare or help prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR), which will contain comprehensive information on local flora and fauna, traditional and scientific knowledge, and information associated with species. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Centre for Biodiversity Policy and Law (CEBPOL):
1. It is established by Government of India in collaboration with the Norwegian Government.
2. It is a policy advocacy unit of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Government of India in collaboration with the Norwegian Government has established a “Centre for Biodiversity Policy and Law (CEBPOL)” in the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), Chennai, to develop professional expertise in biodiversity policies and laws and develop capacity building.
• The Centre for Biodiversity Policy and Law (CEBPOL), a policy advocacy unit of the National Biodiversity Authority, came out with recommendations to increase India’s agro-biodiversity in 2019.
• These include a comprehensive policy on ‘ecological agriculture’ to enhance native pest and pollinator population providing ecosystem services for the agricultural landscape.
• It suggested promotion of the bio-village concept of the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) for ecologically sensitive farming;
• conserving crop wild relatives of cereals, millets, oilseeds, fibres, forages, fruits and nuts, vegetables, spices etc. for crop genetic diversity healthier food;
• Providing incentives for farmers cultivating native landrace varieties and those conserving indigenous breeds of livestock and poultry varieties.Incorrect
Government of India in collaboration with the Norwegian Government has established a “Centre for Biodiversity Policy and Law (CEBPOL)” in the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), Chennai, to develop professional expertise in biodiversity policies and laws and develop capacity building.
• The Centre for Biodiversity Policy and Law (CEBPOL), a policy advocacy unit of the National Biodiversity Authority, came out with recommendations to increase India’s agro-biodiversity in 2019.
• These include a comprehensive policy on ‘ecological agriculture’ to enhance native pest and pollinator population providing ecosystem services for the agricultural landscape.
• It suggested promotion of the bio-village concept of the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) for ecologically sensitive farming;
• conserving crop wild relatives of cereals, millets, oilseeds, fibres, forages, fruits and nuts, vegetables, spices etc. for crop genetic diversity healthier food;
• Providing incentives for farmers cultivating native landrace varieties and those conserving indigenous breeds of livestock and poultry varieties. - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC):
1. It is an autonomous body of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It offers a wide array of services like developing new green building rating programmes, certification services and green building training programmes.
3. It organizes Green Building Congress, its annual flagship event on green buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Indian Green Building Council (IGBC), part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) was formed in the year 2001.
• The vision of the council is, “To enable a sustainable built environment for all and facilitate India to be one of the global leaders in the sustainable built environment by 2025”.•The council offers a wide array of services which include developing new green building rating programmes, certification services and green building training programmes.
• The council also organizes Green Building Congress, its annual flagship event on green buildings.
• The council is committee-based, member-driven and consensus-focused.
• All the stakeholders of construction industry comprising of architects, developers, product manufacturers, corporate, Government, academia and nodal agencies participate in the council activities through local chapters.
• The council also closely works with several State Governments, Central Government, World Green Building Council, bilateral multi-lateral agencies in promoting green building concepts in the country.Incorrect
The Indian Green Building Council (IGBC), part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) was formed in the year 2001.
• The vision of the council is, “To enable a sustainable built environment for all and facilitate India to be one of the global leaders in the sustainable built environment by 2025”.•The council offers a wide array of services which include developing new green building rating programmes, certification services and green building training programmes.
• The council also organizes Green Building Congress, its annual flagship event on green buildings.
• The council is committee-based, member-driven and consensus-focused.
• All the stakeholders of construction industry comprising of architects, developers, product manufacturers, corporate, Government, academia and nodal agencies participate in the council activities through local chapters.
• The council also closely works with several State Governments, Central Government, World Green Building Council, bilateral multi-lateral agencies in promoting green building concepts in the country.
Legislations/initiatives 2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Central Government provides financial support to the States for supporting conservation of wildlife and biodiversity. Which of the following scheme (s) is/are supported by central government?
1. Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries (DNPS).
2. National tiger conservation authority (Project tiger).
3. Project Elephant (PE).
Select the correct answer using the code given belowCorrect
The Central Government provides financial support to the States for supporting conservation of wildlife and biodiversity, through the following umbrella schemes:
1. Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries (DNPS);
2. Project Tiger (PT)
3. Project Elephant (PE)
4. Protection of Wildlife Outside Protected Areas (PWOPA).Incorrect
The Central Government provides financial support to the States for supporting conservation of wildlife and biodiversity, through the following umbrella schemes:
1. Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries (DNPS);
2. Project Tiger (PT)
3. Project Elephant (PE)
4. Protection of Wildlife Outside Protected Areas (PWOPA). - Question 2 of 7
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Central Zoo Authority (CZA):
1. It was established in 2002 under executive resolution.
2. It regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category listed under Schedule I and II of Wildlife protection act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) was created in February, 1992 under an Act of Parliament (Section 38A of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 as amended in 1991) to control mushrooming of ill-conceived/ ill planned zoos.
• And to monitor and evaluate the existing zoos and to suggest ways and means for the improvement of zoos in the country.
• So that they can be transformed into potent centres for the ex-situ conservation of endangered wild fauna.
• The Central Zoo Authority regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category listed under Schedule I and II of Wildlife protection act, 1972.Incorrect
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) was created in February, 1992 under an Act of Parliament (Section 38A of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 as amended in 1991) to control mushrooming of ill-conceived/ ill planned zoos.
• And to monitor and evaluate the existing zoos and to suggest ways and means for the improvement of zoos in the country.
• So that they can be transformed into potent centres for the ex-situ conservation of endangered wild fauna.
• The Central Zoo Authority regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category listed under Schedule I and II of Wildlife protection act, 1972. - Question 3 of 7
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) is related to which of the following?
Correct
As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002 and Rules 2004, it is necessary to constitute State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) and make them functional for documentation, conservation and sustainable utilization of Biodiversity.
Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) involving locals and BMCs and with guidance from SBBs and NBA is also stipulated in the Act and Rules.
The People’s Biodiversity Registers are the one way of documenting traditional knowledge and provide:
• information on availability of traditional knowledge of people relating to biological resources
• details of the access to biological resources and traditional knowledge granted,
• details of collection fee imposed and benefits derived, and
• Mode of sharing the benefits.Incorrect
As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002 and Rules 2004, it is necessary to constitute State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) and make them functional for documentation, conservation and sustainable utilization of Biodiversity.
Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) involving locals and BMCs and with guidance from SBBs and NBA is also stipulated in the Act and Rules.
The People’s Biodiversity Registers are the one way of documenting traditional knowledge and provide:
• information on availability of traditional knowledge of people relating to biological resources
• details of the access to biological resources and traditional knowledge granted,
• details of collection fee imposed and benefits derived, and
• Mode of sharing the benefits. - Question 4 of 7
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWith reference to the centrally sponsored scheme – Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (CSS-IDWH), which if the following are the components of the scheme?
1. Support to Protected Areas.
2. Protection of Wildlife outside Protected Areas.
3. Recovery programmes for saving critically endangered species and habitats.
4. Climate Change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats’ (IDWH) is an on-going centrally Sponsored Scheme which has been made operational by adding more components and activities to the erstwhile centrally Sponsored Scheme – “Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries” during the 11th Plan Period.
Under IDWH, the financial assistance is provided to State/UT Governments for protection and conservation of wildlife and its habitats in Protected Areas (PAs) as well as outside PAs and also for the recovery programmes of the critically endangered species.
Components of the scheme:
• Support to Protected Areas (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves).
• Protection of Wildlife outside Protected Areas.
• Recovery programmes for saving critically endangered species and habitats.Incorrect
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats’ (IDWH) is an on-going centrally Sponsored Scheme which has been made operational by adding more components and activities to the erstwhile centrally Sponsored Scheme – “Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries” during the 11th Plan Period.
Under IDWH, the financial assistance is provided to State/UT Governments for protection and conservation of wildlife and its habitats in Protected Areas (PAs) as well as outside PAs and also for the recovery programmes of the critically endangered species.
Components of the scheme:
• Support to Protected Areas (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves).
• Protection of Wildlife outside Protected Areas.
• Recovery programmes for saving critically endangered species and habitats. - Question 5 of 7
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the “Ganges River Dolphin”:
1. It can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
2. The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) is the only dolphin sanctuary in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Dolphins are one of the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles and sharks.
• The Ganges river dolphin was officially discovered in 1801.
• Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
• But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges.
• The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
• They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
• They are frequently found alone or in small groups, and generally a mother and calf travel together.
• Calves are chocolate brown at birth and then have grey-brown smooth, hairless skin as adults.
• Females are larger than males and give birth once every two to three years to only one calf.
• The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS), from Sultanganj to Kahalganj on the Ganga in Bihar is the only dolphin sanctuary in the country.Recent Measures: Restricting the speeds of vessels and blowing sirens and horns is how the Ministry of Shipping plans to safeguard the population of the Ganges River Dolphin, in the country’s one dolphin reserve through which National Waterway-1 connecting Haldia to Varanasi passes.
Incorrect
Dolphins are one of the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles and sharks.
• The Ganges river dolphin was officially discovered in 1801.
• Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
• But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges.
• The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
• They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
• They are frequently found alone or in small groups, and generally a mother and calf travel together.
• Calves are chocolate brown at birth and then have grey-brown smooth, hairless skin as adults.
• Females are larger than males and give birth once every two to three years to only one calf.
• The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS), from Sultanganj to Kahalganj on the Ganga in Bihar is the only dolphin sanctuary in the country.Recent Measures: Restricting the speeds of vessels and blowing sirens and horns is how the Ministry of Shipping plans to safeguard the population of the Ganges River Dolphin, in the country’s one dolphin reserve through which National Waterway-1 connecting Haldia to Varanasi passes.
- Question 6 of 7
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the “prescribed burning”:
1. It is the process of planning and applying fire to a predetermined area, under specific environmental conditions, to achieve a desired outcome.
2. Recently it was practiced in both Eravikulam National Park (ENP) and Parambikulam Tiger Reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Prescribed burning is the process of planning and applying fire to a predetermined area, under specific environmental conditions, to achieve a desired outcome.
• Prescribed, controlled and planned burns are the same thing.
• Prescribed burning was experimentally introduced in the Eravikulam National Park (ENP) and Parambikulam Tiger Reserve (PKMTR) recently.Incorrect
Prescribed burning is the process of planning and applying fire to a predetermined area, under specific environmental conditions, to achieve a desired outcome.
• Prescribed, controlled and planned burns are the same thing.
• Prescribed burning was experimentally introduced in the Eravikulam National Park (ENP) and Parambikulam Tiger Reserve (PKMTR) recently. - Question 7 of 7
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyUnder which of the following Act, the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) has got the statutory status?
Correct
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a process of evaluating the likely environmental impacts of a proposed project or development, taking into account inter-related socio-economic, cultural and human-health impacts, both beneficial and adverse.
• EIA is basically a tool used to assess the positive and negative environmental, economic and social impacts of a project. This is used to predict the environmental impacts of a project in the pre-planning stage itself so that decisions can be taken to reduce the adverse impacts.
• EIA started in India in 1976-77 when the Planning Commission directed the Department of Science & Technology to assess the river valley projects from the point of view of the environment.
• Then, in 1986, the government enacted the Environment (Protection) Act which made EIA statutory.
• The other main laws in this regard are the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act (1972), the Water Act (1974), the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (1981), and the Biological Diversity Act (2002).Incorrect
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a process of evaluating the likely environmental impacts of a proposed project or development, taking into account inter-related socio-economic, cultural and human-health impacts, both beneficial and adverse.
• EIA is basically a tool used to assess the positive and negative environmental, economic and social impacts of a project. This is used to predict the environmental impacts of a project in the pre-planning stage itself so that decisions can be taken to reduce the adverse impacts.
• EIA started in India in 1976-77 when the Planning Commission directed the Department of Science & Technology to assess the river valley projects from the point of view of the environment.
• Then, in 1986, the government enacted the Environment (Protection) Act which made EIA statutory.
• The other main laws in this regard are the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act (1972), the Water Act (1974), the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (1981), and the Biological Diversity Act (2002).
Climate Change– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 21 Apr, 2021
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are the sources of methane?
1. Wetlands
2. Livestock
3. Wildfires
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Methane (CH4) is emitted by natural sources such as wetlands, as well as human activities such as leakage from natural gas systems and the raising of livestock.
Smaller sources include termites, oceans, sediments, volcanoes, and wildfires.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Methane (CH4) is emitted by natural sources such as wetlands, as well as human activities such as leakage from natural gas systems and the raising of livestock.
Smaller sources include termites, oceans, sediments, volcanoes, and wildfires.
Source: Shankar
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “fluorinated gases”:
1. They have low global warming potentials (GWPs) relative to other greenhouse gases.
2. They are the most potent and longest lasting type of greenhouse gases emitted by human activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Fluorinated gases are emitted through a variety of industrial processes such as aluminum and semiconductor manufacturing & Substitution for Ozone-Depleting Substances.
· Many fluorinated gases have very high global warming potentials (GWPs) relative to other greenhouse gases. Fluorinated gases are well-mixed in the atmosphere, spreading around the world after they’re emitted.
· Fluorinated gases are removed from the atmosphere only when they are destroyed by sunlight in the far upper atmosphere. In general, fluorinated gases are the most potent and longest lasting type of greenhouse gases emitted by human activities.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Fluorinated gases are emitted through a variety of industrial processes such as aluminum and semiconductor manufacturing & Substitution for Ozone-Depleting Substances.
· Many fluorinated gases have very high global warming potentials (GWPs) relative to other greenhouse gases. Fluorinated gases are well-mixed in the atmosphere, spreading around the world after they’re emitted.
· Fluorinated gases are removed from the atmosphere only when they are destroyed by sunlight in the far upper atmosphere. In general, fluorinated gases are the most potent and longest lasting type of greenhouse gases emitted by human activities.
Source: Shankar
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statement is NOT correct about black carbon?
Correct
Black carbon (BC) is a solid particle or aerosol, (though not a gas) contributes to warming of the atmosphere.
· Black carbon, commonly known as soot, is a form of particulate air pollutant, produced from incomplete combustion.
· It consists of pure carbon in several linked forms. Black carbon stays in the atmosphere for only several days to weeks.
· Thus, the effects of BC on the atmospheric warming and glacier retreat disappear within months of reducing emissions.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Black carbon (BC) is a solid particle or aerosol, (though not a gas) contributes to warming of the atmosphere.
· Black carbon, commonly known as soot, is a form of particulate air pollutant, produced from incomplete combustion.
· It consists of pure carbon in several linked forms. Black carbon stays in the atmosphere for only several days to weeks.
· Thus, the effects of BC on the atmospheric warming and glacier retreat disappear within months of reducing emissions.
Source: Shankar
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyArrange the following greenhouse gases according to their global warming potential (GWP) in descending order:
1. Methane
2. Carbon Dioxide
3. Nitrous Oxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Incorrect
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Coastal waters are also affected by excess nutrient inputs, mostly nitrogen, from agriculture, fertilizers and sewage” – describes which of the following?
Correct
Coastal waters are also affected by excess nutrient inputs, mostly nitrogen, from agriculture, fertilizers and sewage.
The resulting eutrophication leads to large plankton blooms, and when these blooms collapse and sink to the sea bed the subsequent respiration of bacteria decomposing the algae leads to a decrease in sea water oxygen and an increase in CO2 (a decline in pH).
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Coastal waters are also affected by excess nutrient inputs, mostly nitrogen, from agriculture, fertilizers and sewage.
The resulting eutrophication leads to large plankton blooms, and when these blooms collapse and sink to the sea bed the subsequent respiration of bacteria decomposing the algae leads to a decrease in sea water oxygen and an increase in CO2 (a decline in pH).
Source: Shankar
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “upwelling zones”:
1. Surface Coastal regions periodically experience upwelling events where deeper ocean water circulates onto continental shelves and near-shore areas.
2. This exposes the productive upper ocean ecosystems to colder water containing more nutrients & more carbon dioxide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
UPWELLING: Surface Coastal regions periodically experience upwelling events where deeper ocean water circulates onto continental shelves and near-shore areas.
· This exposes the productive upper ocean ecosystems to colder water containing more nutrients & more CO2.
· As ocean acidification makes the upper oversaturated layer of sea water shallower each year, these natural upwelling events will more often cause under-saturated water to well up and flow to the shore.
· Coastal marine organisms that form shells are unaccustomed to such events, and periodic exposures to these significantly different conditions may affect these communities.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
UPWELLING: Surface Coastal regions periodically experience upwelling events where deeper ocean water circulates onto continental shelves and near-shore areas.
· This exposes the productive upper ocean ecosystems to colder water containing more nutrients & more CO2.
· As ocean acidification makes the upper oversaturated layer of sea water shallower each year, these natural upwelling events will more often cause under-saturated water to well up and flow to the shore.
· Coastal marine organisms that form shells are unaccustomed to such events, and periodic exposures to these significantly different conditions may affect these communities.
Source: Shankar
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Saturation Horizon” mechanism is related to which of the following?
Correct
Deep, cold ocean waters are naturally under saturated with carbonate ions causing the shells of most calcifying organisms to dissolve.
· Surface waters are over saturated with carbonate ions and do not readily dissolve shells of calcifying organisms.
· The saturation horizon is the level below which calcium carbonate minerals undergo dissolution.
· Those organisms that can survive below the saturation horizon do so due to special mechanisms to protect their calcium carbonate from dissolving.
· As ocean acidification causes this horizon to rise vertically in the water column so more and more calcifying organisms will be exposed to under saturated water and thus vulnerable to dissolution of their shells and skeletons.
· The saturation horizon of calcite occurs at a greater ocean depth than that for aragonite, but both horizons have moved closer to the surface presently when compared to the 1800s.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Deep, cold ocean waters are naturally under saturated with carbonate ions causing the shells of most calcifying organisms to dissolve.
· Surface waters are over saturated with carbonate ions and do not readily dissolve shells of calcifying organisms.
· The saturation horizon is the level below which calcium carbonate minerals undergo dissolution.
· Those organisms that can survive below the saturation horizon do so due to special mechanisms to protect their calcium carbonate from dissolving.
· As ocean acidification causes this horizon to rise vertically in the water column so more and more calcifying organisms will be exposed to under saturated water and thus vulnerable to dissolution of their shells and skeletons.
· The saturation horizon of calcite occurs at a greater ocean depth than that for aragonite, but both horizons have moved closer to the surface presently when compared to the 1800s.
Source: Shankar
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Ozone”:
1. It is a natural gas.
2. It is found in the stratosphere and troposphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ozone is a natural gas; it is an allotrope of oxygen consisting of three atoms of oxygen bound together in a non-linear fashion. The chemical symbol of ozone is O3.
· It is found in two different layers of the atmosphere. Ozone in the troposphere is “bad” because it dirties the air and helps to form smog, which is not good to breathe.
· Ozone in the stratosphere is “good” because it protects life on Earth by absorbing some of the sun’s harmful Ultra Violet (UV) rays.
· The ozone layer is very important because the configuration of the ozone molecule and its chemical properties are such that ozone efficiently absorbs ultraviolet light, thus acting like a sun-screen.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Ozone is a natural gas; it is an allotrope of oxygen consisting of three atoms of oxygen bound together in a non-linear fashion. The chemical symbol of ozone is O3.
· It is found in two different layers of the atmosphere. Ozone in the troposphere is “bad” because it dirties the air and helps to form smog, which is not good to breathe.
· Ozone in the stratosphere is “good” because it protects life on Earth by absorbing some of the sun’s harmful Ultra Violet (UV) rays.
· The ozone layer is very important because the configuration of the ozone molecule and its chemical properties are such that ozone efficiently absorbs ultraviolet light, thus acting like a sun-screen.
Source: Shankar
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyChloro-flouro-carbons (CFCs) are used in which of the following?
1. Refrigerators
2. Foaming agents
3. Aerosol sprays
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
CFCs molecules are made up of chlorine, fluorine and carbon. They are used as refrigerants, propellants in aerosol sprays, foaming agents in plastic manufacturing, fire extinguishing agents, solvents for cleaning electronic and metallic components, for freezing foods etc.
Two-thirds of CFC is used as refrigerants while one-third is used as blowing agents in foam insulation products.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
CFCs molecules are made up of chlorine, fluorine and carbon. They are used as refrigerants, propellants in aerosol sprays, foaming agents in plastic manufacturing, fire extinguishing agents, solvents for cleaning electronic and metallic components, for freezing foods etc.
Two-thirds of CFC is used as refrigerants while one-third is used as blowing agents in foam insulation products.
Source: Shankar
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The Umheher technique” is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Umheher technique is the most common measure of total ozone abundance is the Dobson unit (named after the pioneering atmospheric physical Gordon Dobson) which is the thickness of the ozone column (compressed at Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP)) in milli-centimeters.
At STP one Dobson unit is equal to 2.69×1020 molecules per square meter.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The Umheher technique is the most common measure of total ozone abundance is the Dobson unit (named after the pioneering atmospheric physical Gordon Dobson) which is the thickness of the ozone column (compressed at Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP)) in milli-centimeters.
At STP one Dobson unit is equal to 2.69×1020 molecules per square meter.
Source: Shankar
Climate Change– 2020 and Before that
Climate Change
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the REDD+:
1. It is a climate change mitigation solution developed by parties to United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. It incentivizes countries to keep their forest standing by offering result-based payments for reduced carbon emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 2 is correct. It creates a financial value for the carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development. Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 2 is correct. It creates a financial value for the carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development. Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements correctly defines Tarballs?
Correct
Tarballs are small light-absorbing, carbonaceous particles formed due to burning of biomass or fossil fuels that deposit on snow and ice. Tarballs are formed from brown carbon, emitted during the burning of fossil fuels.
They also form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.Incorrect
Tarballs are small light-absorbing, carbonaceous particles formed due to burning of biomass or fossil fuels that deposit on snow and ice. Tarballs are formed from brown carbon, emitted during the burning of fossil fuels.
They also form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Carbon Neutrality:
1. It means to have a balance between emitting carbon and absorbing carbon from the
atmosphere.
2. India’s Nationally Determined Contribution to Paris Agreement includes becoming
Climate Neutral by 2050.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Carbon neutrality means having a balance between
emitting carbon and absorbing carbon from the atmosphere in carbon sinks. Sometimes
entities fund the equivalent amount of carbon savings elsewhere in the world to achieve
neutrality.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs)
are:
— To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33%–35% by 2030 below 2005 levels;
— To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40% of installed electric
power capacity by 2030, with help of transfer of technology and low-cost international
finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF);
— To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Carbon neutrality means having a balance between
emitting carbon and absorbing carbon from the atmosphere in carbon sinks. Sometimes
entities fund the equivalent amount of carbon savings elsewhere in the world to achieve
neutrality.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs)
are:
— To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33%–35% by 2030 below 2005 levels;
— To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40% of installed electric
power capacity by 2030, with help of transfer of technology and low-cost international
finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF);
— To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Green Climate Fund (GCF):
1. It was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
2. The Fund aims for equal balance between mitigation and adaptation investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010.
Statement 2 is correct. GCF’s investments are aimed at achieving maximum impact in the
developing world, supporting paradigm shifts in both mitigation and adaptation. The Fund
aims for a 50:50 balance between mitigation and adaptation investments over time.
It also aims for a floor of 50 percent of the adaptation allocation for particularly vulnerable
countries, including Least Developed Countries (LDCs), Small Island Developing States
(SIDS), and African States.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010.
Statement 2 is correct. GCF’s investments are aimed at achieving maximum impact in the
developing world, supporting paradigm shifts in both mitigation and adaptation. The Fund
aims for a 50:50 balance between mitigation and adaptation investments over time.
It also aims for a floor of 50 percent of the adaptation allocation for particularly vulnerable
countries, including Least Developed Countries (LDCs), Small Island Developing States
(SIDS), and African States. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Accelerating CCS Technologies
(ACT) initiative:
1. It is an international initiative to facilitate research development in CO2 capture,
transport, utilization and storage.
2. India is member of the ACT initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Accelerating CCUS Technologies (ACT) is an
initiative to facilitate the emergence of CO2 Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS) via
transnational funding of projects aimed at accelerating and maturing CCUS technology
through targeted innovation and research activities.
ACT is an ERA NET Cofund, which is a tool established by the European Commission
under the Horizon 2020 programme for research and innovation.
Statement 2 is correct. The ACT members are funding agencies from: The Alberta province
in Canada, Denmark, France, Germany, Greece, India, Italy, the Netherlands, Norway, the
Nordic Region, Romania, Spain, Switzerland, Turkey, UK, and the USA.
# Department of Science & Technology (DST) recently invited proposals from Indian
researchers in the area of Carbon Capture, Utilisation & Storage (CCUS) under ACT initiativeIncorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Accelerating CCUS Technologies (ACT) is an
initiative to facilitate the emergence of CO2 Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS) via
transnational funding of projects aimed at accelerating and maturing CCUS technology
through targeted innovation and research activities.
ACT is an ERA NET Cofund, which is a tool established by the European Commission
under the Horizon 2020 programme for research and innovation.
Statement 2 is correct. The ACT members are funding agencies from: The Alberta province
in Canada, Denmark, France, Germany, Greece, India, Italy, the Netherlands, Norway, the
Nordic Region, Romania, Spain, Switzerland, Turkey, UK, and the USA.
# Department of Science & Technology (DST) recently invited proposals from Indian
researchers in the area of Carbon Capture, Utilisation & Storage (CCUS) under ACT initiative - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Climate & Clean Air Coalition
(CCAC):
1. It aims at protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
2. India is a state partner of the CCAC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition is a voluntary
partnership of governments, intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific
institutions and civil society organizations committed to improving air quality and
protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
Statement 2 is correct. In 2012, the governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico,
Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP), came together to initiate efforts to treat short-lived climate pollutants as an urgent
and collective challenge.
The coalition has 70 state partners. India announced it was joining the Climate & Clean Air
Coalition during on 2019 World Environment Day.
India works with Coalition partners to implement National Clean Air Programme,
leveraging the Coalition’s action-oriented partnership platform to help define priority
actions that reduce air pollution and achieve development and climate co-benefits.
The United Nations General Assembly adopted the resolution to hold an International Day of
Clean Air for blue skies in 2019. The first International Day of Clean Air for blue skies is being
observed on September 7, 2020.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition is a voluntary
partnership of governments, intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific
institutions and civil society organizations committed to improving air quality and
protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
Statement 2 is correct. In 2012, the governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico,
Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP), came together to initiate efforts to treat short-lived climate pollutants as an urgent
and collective challenge.
The coalition has 70 state partners. India announced it was joining the Climate & Clean Air
Coalition during on 2019 World Environment Day.
India works with Coalition partners to implement National Clean Air Programme,
leveraging the Coalition’s action-oriented partnership platform to help define priority
actions that reduce air pollution and achieve development and climate co-benefits.
The United Nations General Assembly adopted the resolution to hold an International Day of
Clean Air for blue skies in 2019. The first International Day of Clean Air for blue skies is being
observed on September 7, 2020. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the ClimateSMART Cities
Assessment Framework:
1. Its objective is to provide a roadmap for Indian cities to combat climate change while
planning their investments within the city.
2. NITI Aayog is implementing the ClimateSmart Cities Assessment Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The ClimateSmart Cities Assessment Framework is
a first-of-its-kind assessment framework on climate relevant parameters. Launched in 2019
by MoHUA, the objective is to provide a clear roadmap for Indian cities towards combating
climate change while planning their actions within the city including investments.
The framework has 28 indicators across five categories namely; (i) Energy and Green
Buildings, (ii) Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity, (iii) Mobility and Air Quality, (iv)
Water Management and (v) Waste Management.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) with support from
the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has established the Climate Centre
for Cities. The Centre is implementing the ClimateSmart Cities Assessment Framework 2.0
and aims to support cities in driving climate actions.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The ClimateSmart Cities Assessment Framework is
a first-of-its-kind assessment framework on climate relevant parameters. Launched in 2019
by MoHUA, the objective is to provide a clear roadmap for Indian cities towards combating
climate change while planning their actions within the city including investments.
The framework has 28 indicators across five categories namely; (i) Energy and Green
Buildings, (ii) Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity, (iii) Mobility and Air Quality, (iv)
Water Management and (v) Waste Management.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) with support from
the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has established the Climate Centre
for Cities. The Centre is implementing the ClimateSmart Cities Assessment Framework 2.0
and aims to support cities in driving climate actions. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following international conventions/protocols is/are related to the
Ozone layer depletion?
1. Montreal Protocol
2. Kyoto Protocol
3. Stockholm Convention
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. The principal aim of the Montreal Protocol is to protect
the ozone layer by taking measures to control total global production and consumption of
substances that deplete it, with the ultimate objective of their elimination on the basis of
developments in scientific knowledge and technological information.
Option 2 is incorrect. Kyoto Protocol operationalized the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change by committing industrialized countries and economies in
transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with
agreed individual targets.
Option 3 is incorrect. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants aims to
eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants.
# The scientific confirmation of the depletion of the ozone layer led to the Vienna Convention
for the Protection of the Ozone Layer, which was adopted and signed by 28 countries, on 22
March 1985. In September 1987, this led to the drafting of The Montreal Protocol on
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.
# On 16th September 2009, the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first
treaties in the history of the United Nations to achieve universal ratification.
# The Parties to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer reached
agreement at their 28th Meeting of the Parties on 15 October 2016 in Kigali, Rwanda to
phase-down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The principal aim of the Montreal Protocol is to protect
the ozone layer by taking measures to control total global production and consumption of
substances that deplete it, with the ultimate objective of their elimination on the basis of
developments in scientific knowledge and technological information.
Option 2 is incorrect. Kyoto Protocol operationalized the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change by committing industrialized countries and economies in
transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with
agreed individual targets.
Option 3 is incorrect. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants aims to
eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants.
# The scientific confirmation of the depletion of the ozone layer led to the Vienna Convention
for the Protection of the Ozone Layer, which was adopted and signed by 28 countries, on 22
March 1985. In September 1987, this led to the drafting of The Montreal Protocol on
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.
# On 16th September 2009, the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first
treaties in the history of the United Nations to achieve universal ratification.
# The Parties to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer reached
agreement at their 28th Meeting of the Parties on 15 October 2016 in Kigali, Rwanda to
phase-down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe ‘Global Initiative to reduce Land Degradation and Coral Reef’ program has
been launched under which of the following group/organisation?Correct
The Environment Ministerial Meeting (EMM) of the G20 countries took
place recently through video conferencing under the Presidency of Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. The Global Initiative to reduce Land Degradation and Coral Reef program under the
G20 aims to strengthen the implementation of existing frameworks to prevent, halt, and
reverse land degradation within G20 member states and globally, taking into account
possible implications on the achievement of other SDGs and adhering to the principle of
doing no harm.
The Global Coral Reef R&D Accelerator Platform is an innovative action-oriented
initiative aimed at creating a global research and development (R&D) program to advance
research, innovation and capacity building in all facets of coral reef conservation,
restoration, and adaptation, and strengthen ongoing efforts and commitments made to
enhance coral reefs conservation and their further degradation.Incorrect
The Environment Ministerial Meeting (EMM) of the G20 countries took
place recently through video conferencing under the Presidency of Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. The Global Initiative to reduce Land Degradation and Coral Reef program under the
G20 aims to strengthen the implementation of existing frameworks to prevent, halt, and
reverse land degradation within G20 member states and globally, taking into account
possible implications on the achievement of other SDGs and adhering to the principle of
doing no harm.
The Global Coral Reef R&D Accelerator Platform is an innovative action-oriented
initiative aimed at creating a global research and development (R&D) program to advance
research, innovation and capacity building in all facets of coral reef conservation,
restoration, and adaptation, and strengthen ongoing efforts and commitments made to
enhance coral reefs conservation and their further degradation. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) of
India under the Paris Agreement?
1. To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 below 2005 levels.
2. To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40 percent of installed
electric power capacity by 2030.
3. To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5–3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through
additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
All of the above are India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)
under Paris Agreement.
India’s national climate action plans, known in UN parlance as nationally determined
contributions (NDCs), under the Paris Agreement set three major goals—
-To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33%–35% by 2030 below 2005 levels.
-To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40% of installed electric
power capacity by 2030, with help of transfer of technology and low-cost international
finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF).
-To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030.Incorrect
All of the above are India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)
under Paris Agreement.
India’s national climate action plans, known in UN parlance as nationally determined
contributions (NDCs), under the Paris Agreement set three major goals—
-To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33%–35% by 2030 below 2005 levels.
-To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40% of installed electric
power capacity by 2030, with help of transfer of technology and low-cost international
finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF).
-To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding carbon neutrality:
1. It refers to having a balance between emitting carbon and absorbing carbon from the
atmosphere in carbon sinks.
2. India has declared being carbon neutral by 2060 as its Nationally Determined
Contribution under Paris Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Carbon neutrality means having a balance between
emitting carbon and absorbing carbon from the atmosphere in carbon sinks. Removing
carbon oxide from the atmosphere and then storing it is known as carbon sequestration. In
order to achieve net zero emissions, all worldwide greenhouse gas emissions will have to be
counterbalanced by carbon sequestration.
Carbon Neutral is also used to describe the state of an entity (such as a company, service,
product or event), where the carbon emissions caused by them have been balanced out by
funding an equivalent amount of carbon savings elsewhere in the world.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Carbon neutrality by 2060 is not one of India’s Intended
Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) under the Paris Agreement. India has pledged
following NDCs:
-To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33%–35% by 2030 below 2005 levels;
-To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40% of installed electric
power capacity by 2030, with help of transfer of technology and low-cost international
finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF);
-To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030.
# China has recently declared that it aims to have CO2 emissions peak before 2030 and
achieve carbon neutrality before 2060Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Carbon neutrality means having a balance between
emitting carbon and absorbing carbon from the atmosphere in carbon sinks. Removing
carbon oxide from the atmosphere and then storing it is known as carbon sequestration. In
order to achieve net zero emissions, all worldwide greenhouse gas emissions will have to be
counterbalanced by carbon sequestration.
Carbon Neutral is also used to describe the state of an entity (such as a company, service,
product or event), where the carbon emissions caused by them have been balanced out by
funding an equivalent amount of carbon savings elsewhere in the world.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Carbon neutrality by 2060 is not one of India’s Intended
Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) under the Paris Agreement. India has pledged
following NDCs:
-To reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33%–35% by 2030 below 2005 levels;
-To increase the share of non-fossil-based energy resources to 40% of installed electric
power capacity by 2030, with help of transfer of technology and low-cost international
finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF);
-To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030.
# China has recently declared that it aims to have CO2 emissions peak before 2030 and
achieve carbon neutrality before 2060 - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following institution has published the Global Climate Risk Index
2020?Correct
The Global Climate Risk Index 2020 published by Germanwatch analyses
to what extent countries and regions have been affected by impacts of weather-related loss
events (storms, floods, heatwaves etc.).
The Germanwatch Climate Risk Index 2020 is the 15th edition of this annual analysis.
The report mentions that India suffered from one of the longest ever recorded heatwaves in
2018, with hundreds of deaths, when temperatures climbed to up to 48°C. Prolonged
drought and resultant widespread crop failures, compounded by a water shortage, brought
about violent riots and increased migration.Incorrect
The Global Climate Risk Index 2020 published by Germanwatch analyses
to what extent countries and regions have been affected by impacts of weather-related loss
events (storms, floods, heatwaves etc.).
The Germanwatch Climate Risk Index 2020 is the 15th edition of this annual analysis.
The report mentions that India suffered from one of the longest ever recorded heatwaves in
2018, with hundreds of deaths, when temperatures climbed to up to 48°C. Prolonged
drought and resultant widespread crop failures, compounded by a water shortage, brought
about violent riots and increased migration. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following organization has published the State of Global Climate Report, 2020?
Correct
The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has released the annual State of Global Climate Report, 2020 to keep a track of global warming.
The global mean surface temperature for January-October was 1.2 degree Celsius higher than the pre-industrial baseline (1850-1900).
There was heavy rainfall and flooding in many parts of Asia and Africa leading to loss of human lives, property and livelihoods. The most affected were the Sahel and Greater Horn regions of Africa and China, India, Korea and Japan regions of Asia.
South America on the other hand experienced severe droughts with northern Argentina, Paraguay and western areas of Brazil being some of the worst affected. Brazil alone recorded agricultural losses of $3 billion.Incorrect
The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has released the annual State of Global Climate Report, 2020 to keep a track of global warming.
The global mean surface temperature for January-October was 1.2 degree Celsius higher than the pre-industrial baseline (1850-1900).
There was heavy rainfall and flooding in many parts of Asia and Africa leading to loss of human lives, property and livelihoods. The most affected were the Sahel and Greater Horn regions of Africa and China, India, Korea and Japan regions of Asia.
South America on the other hand experienced severe droughts with northern Argentina, Paraguay and western areas of Brazil being some of the worst affected. Brazil alone recorded agricultural losses of $3 billion. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following organisation has released the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2021?
Correct
The Climate Change Performance Index published by Germanwatch, CAN International and the NewClimate Institute evaluates and compares the climate protection performance of 57 countries and the EU.
Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) tracks countries’ efforts to combat climate change.
The latest Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2021 has placed India among the top 10 countries to have adopted substantial measures to mitigate climate change. The report has ranked India at the 10th position with 63.98 scores.
The index follows the directives led by the 2015 Paris Agreement, established with the goal to limit global warming to well below 2°C or even to 1.5°C. Therefore, CCPI assesses the countries on how much they have worked towards achieving this goal and how the countries are faring with respect to their 2030 targets.Incorrect
The Climate Change Performance Index published by Germanwatch, CAN International and the NewClimate Institute evaluates and compares the climate protection performance of 57 countries and the EU.
Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) tracks countries’ efforts to combat climate change.
The latest Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2021 has placed India among the top 10 countries to have adopted substantial measures to mitigate climate change. The report has ranked India at the 10th position with 63.98 scores.
The index follows the directives led by the 2015 Paris Agreement, established with the goal to limit global warming to well below 2°C or even to 1.5°C. Therefore, CCPI assesses the countries on how much they have worked towards achieving this goal and how the countries are faring with respect to their 2030 targets. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
1.Black carbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass.
2.Black carbon and dust have led to increased incidents of high rainfall events in the foothills of the Himalayan Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Black Carbon is produced both naturally and by human activities as a result of the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. Primary sources include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires.
Complete combustion would turn all carbon in the fuel into carbon dioxide (CO2), but combustion is never complete and CO2, carbon monoxide, volatile organic compounds, and organic carbon and black carbon particles are all formed in the process. The complex mixture of particulate matter resulting from incomplete combustion is often referred to as soot.
Statement 2 is correct. A team of researchers from National Institute of Technology Rourkela, Leipzig Institute for Meteorology (LIM), University of Leipzig, Germany, Indian Institute of Technology Madras, Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur supported by the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India under DST Climate Change program have highlighted the crucial role of the aerosol direct radiative effect on high precipitation events over the Himalayan region.
Scientists have found that aerosols like black carbon and dust, which makes the Indo-Gangetic Plain one of the most polluted regions of the world, have led to increased incidents of high rainfall events in the foothills of the Himalayan Region. [Source: PIB]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Black Carbon is produced both naturally and by human activities as a result of the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. Primary sources include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires.
Complete combustion would turn all carbon in the fuel into carbon dioxide (CO2), but combustion is never complete and CO2, carbon monoxide, volatile organic compounds, and organic carbon and black carbon particles are all formed in the process. The complex mixture of particulate matter resulting from incomplete combustion is often referred to as soot.
Statement 2 is correct. A team of researchers from National Institute of Technology Rourkela, Leipzig Institute for Meteorology (LIM), University of Leipzig, Germany, Indian Institute of Technology Madras, Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur supported by the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India under DST Climate Change program have highlighted the crucial role of the aerosol direct radiative effect on high precipitation events over the Himalayan region.
Scientists have found that aerosols like black carbon and dust, which makes the Indo-Gangetic Plain one of the most polluted regions of the world, have led to increased incidents of high rainfall events in the foothills of the Himalayan Region. [Source: PIB] - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following country/organisation hosted the Climate Ambition Summit 2020?
Correct
The United Nations, United Kingdom and France are co-hosting the Climate Ambition Summit 2020, in partnership with Chile and Italy.
The Summit is a major step on the road to the next UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26), which will be hosted by the UK next November in Glasgow. The Summit provided leaders with a global platform to showcase commitments to tackle climate change which will be under the three pillars of the Paris Agreement: mitigation, adaptation and finance commitments.
India’s Prime Minister stated that India is not only on track to achieve its Paris Agreement targets, but to exceed them beyond expectations. India has reduced its emission intensity by 21% over 2005 levels. Our solar capacity has grown from 2.63 GigaWatts in 2014 to 36 GigaWatts in 2020. Our renewable energy capacity is the fourth largest in the world.
It will reach 175 GigaWatts before 2022. And, India has an even more ambitious target now – 450 GigaWatts of renewable energy capacity by 2030.Incorrect
The United Nations, United Kingdom and France are co-hosting the Climate Ambition Summit 2020, in partnership with Chile and Italy.
The Summit is a major step on the road to the next UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26), which will be hosted by the UK next November in Glasgow. The Summit provided leaders with a global platform to showcase commitments to tackle climate change which will be under the three pillars of the Paris Agreement: mitigation, adaptation and finance commitments.
India’s Prime Minister stated that India is not only on track to achieve its Paris Agreement targets, but to exceed them beyond expectations. India has reduced its emission intensity by 21% over 2005 levels. Our solar capacity has grown from 2.63 GigaWatts in 2014 to 36 GigaWatts in 2020. Our renewable energy capacity is the fourth largest in the world.
It will reach 175 GigaWatts before 2022. And, India has an even more ambitious target now – 450 GigaWatts of renewable energy capacity by 2030. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following institution has released the Emission Gap Report 2020?
Correct
The UNEP Emissions Gap Report provides a yearly review of the difference between where greenhouse emissions are predicted to be in 2030 and where they should be to avoid the worst impacts of climate change.
–despite a brief dip in carbon dioxide emissions caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, the world is still heading for a temperature rise in excess of 3°C this century – far beyond the Paris Agreement goals of limiting global warming to well below 2°C and pursuing 1.5°C.
–a low-carbon pandemic recovery could cut 25 per cent off the greenhouse emissions expected in 2030, based on policies in place before COVID-19. Such a recovery would far outstrip savings foreseen with the implementation of unconditional Nationally Determined Contributions under the Paris Agreement, and put the world close to the 2°C pathway.
Incorrect
The UNEP Emissions Gap Report provides a yearly review of the difference between where greenhouse emissions are predicted to be in 2030 and where they should be to avoid the worst impacts of climate change.
–despite a brief dip in carbon dioxide emissions caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, the world is still heading for a temperature rise in excess of 3°C this century – far beyond the Paris Agreement goals of limiting global warming to well below 2°C and pursuing 1.5°C.
–a low-carbon pandemic recovery could cut 25 per cent off the greenhouse emissions expected in 2030, based on policies in place before COVID-19. Such a recovery would far outstrip savings foreseen with the implementation of unconditional Nationally Determined Contributions under the Paris Agreement, and put the world close to the 2°C pathway.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe concept of “common but differentiated responsibility (CBDR)” is enshrined in
which of the following?
Correct
The concept of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) was
enshrined as Principle 7 of the Rio Declaration at the first Rio Earth Summit in 1992.
The declaration states:
- “In view of the different contributions to global environmental degradation, States
have common but differentiated responsibilities.
- The developed countries acknowledge the responsibility that they bear in the
international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their
societies place on the global environment and of the technologies and financial
resources they command.”
Incorrect
The concept of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) was
enshrined as Principle 7 of the Rio Declaration at the first Rio Earth Summit in 1992.
The declaration states:
- “In view of the different contributions to global environmental degradation, States
have common but differentiated responsibilities.
- The developed countries acknowledge the responsibility that they bear in the
international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their
societies place on the global environment and of the technologies and financial
resources they command.”
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following Greenhouse Gases are covered under Kyoto Protocol?
- Carbon Dioxide
- Methane
- Water Vapour
- Particulate matter
- Sulphur hexafluoride
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover
emissions of the six main greenhouse gases, namely:
- Carbon dioxide (CO2)
- Methane (CH4)
- Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
- Hydro-fluorocarbons (HFCs)
- Per-fluorocarbons (PFCs) and
- Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).
Incorrect
The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover
emissions of the six main greenhouse gases, namely:
- Carbon dioxide (CO2)
- Methane (CH4)
- Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
- Hydro-fluorocarbons (HFCs)
- Per-fluorocarbons (PFCs) and
- Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The Future We Want” document is the outcome document of which of the
following?
Correct
The General Assembly, Recalling its resolution 64/236 of 24 December 2009,
in which it decided to organize the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
at the highest possible level in 2012, as well as its resolution 66/197 of 22 December 2011.
- Expresses its profound gratitude to the Government and the people of Brazil for
hosting the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de
Janeiro (RIO+20 summit) from 20 to 22 June 2012, and for providing all the
necessary support.
- Endorses the outcome document of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development, entitled “The future we want“, annexed to the present resolution.
Incorrect
The General Assembly, Recalling its resolution 64/236 of 24 December 2009,
in which it decided to organize the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
at the highest possible level in 2012, as well as its resolution 66/197 of 22 December 2011.
- Expresses its profound gratitude to the Government and the people of Brazil for
hosting the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de
Janeiro (RIO+20 summit) from 20 to 22 June 2012, and for providing all the
necessary support.
- Endorses the outcome document of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development, entitled “The future we want“, annexed to the present resolution.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has categorized Land Use,
Land Use Change and Forestry (LULUCF) into six land use classes to estimating Green
House Gases (GHGs). Which of the following are land use classes?
- Forest Land
- Crop Land
- Grass Land
- Wetlands
- Settlements
- Other Lands
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Incorrect
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the #FridaysforFuture movement:
- It is an initiative of United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP)
- It demands first Friday in a month to use renewable energy appliances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
#FridaysForFuture is a movement that began in August 2018, after 15-
year-old Greta Thunberg and other young activists sat in front of the Swedish
parliament every school day for three weeks, to protest against the lack of action on the
climate crisis.
- ‘Thunberg’ called for a strike every Friday until the Swedish parliament revised its
policies towards climate change.
- Gradually, students and adults from across the world started mobilising and
demonstrating in front of parliaments and local city halls in their respective
countries.
Incorrect
#FridaysForFuture is a movement that began in August 2018, after 15-
year-old Greta Thunberg and other young activists sat in front of the Swedish
parliament every school day for three weeks, to protest against the lack of action on the
climate crisis.
- ‘Thunberg’ called for a strike every Friday until the Swedish parliament revised its
policies towards climate change.
- Gradually, students and adults from across the world started mobilising and
demonstrating in front of parliaments and local city halls in their respective
countries.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Prerana MyTree, an eco-initiative by students is started in which of the following state?
Correct
In the wake of 16-year-old Greta Thunberg’s call for standing up for climate action, students all over the world are heeding her clarion call.
- On Children’s Day, students in Bengaluru and Karnataka are doing their bit for the environment by planting trees.
Prerana MyTree, an eco-initiative by students from 48,000 government schools across Karnataka will plant about 2.5 lakh trees across the state.
Prerana MyTree is supported by the state government, the NGO Sikshana Foundation, Dell and Bengaluru-based startup, Eyeris Media.
Incorrect
In the wake of 16-year-old Greta Thunberg’s call for standing up for climate action, students all over the world are heeding her clarion call.
- On Children’s Day, students in Bengaluru and Karnataka are doing their bit for the environment by planting trees.
Prerana MyTree, an eco-initiative by students from 48,000 government schools across Karnataka will plant about 2.5 lakh trees across the state.
Prerana MyTree is supported by the state government, the NGO Sikshana Foundation, Dell and Bengaluru-based startup, Eyeris Media.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently which of the following country was passed the Zero-Carbon Act?
Correct
New Zealand’s Parliament passed The Zero-Carbon Act, which will commit
New Zealand to zero carbon emissions by 2050 or sooner, as part of the country’s attempts
to meet its Paris climate accord commitments.
- The Act is not a separate legislation but is an amendment to the existing Climate
Change Responses Act, 2002.
- According to the New Zealand government, this is the first legislation in the world to
make a legally binding commitment to living within 1.5 degrees Celsius of global
warming.
Incorrect
New Zealand’s Parliament passed The Zero-Carbon Act, which will commit
New Zealand to zero carbon emissions by 2050 or sooner, as part of the country’s attempts
to meet its Paris climate accord commitments.
- The Act is not a separate legislation but is an amendment to the existing Climate
Change Responses Act, 2002.
- According to the New Zealand government, this is the first legislation in the world to
make a legally binding commitment to living within 1.5 degrees Celsius of global
warming.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Adaptation Fund (AF):
- It was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
- AF-funded projects are implemented around the world through accredited National Implementing Entities, Multilateral Implementing Entities and Regional Implementing Entities.
- NABARD is the National Implementing Entity of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Adaptation Fund (AF) was established to finance concrete adaptation projects and programmes in developing countries that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
It was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, and since 2010 has committed funds for localized climate adaptation and resilience activities. Initiatives are based on country needs and priorities.
AF-funded projects are implemented around the world through accredited National Implementing Entities, Multilateral Implementing Entities and Regional Implementing Entities.
The original primary source of revenue for the Fund – the sale of Certified Emission Reduction credits through a 2% levy on UN Clean Development Mechanism projects that help meet Kyoto’s emission reduction targets – has drastically diminished due to market forces.
NABARD has been accredited as National Implementing Entity (NIE) for Adaptation Fund in July 2012 and is the only NIE for India.
The NIEs are those national legal entities nominated by Parties (to the Kyoto Protocol) that are recognized by the Board as meeting the fiduciary standards established by the Board.
The NIEs bear full responsibility for the overall management of the projects and programmes financed by the Adaptation Fund and have all financial, monitoring, and reporting responsibilities.
Incorrect
The Adaptation Fund (AF) was established to finance concrete adaptation projects and programmes in developing countries that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
It was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, and since 2010 has committed funds for localized climate adaptation and resilience activities. Initiatives are based on country needs and priorities.
AF-funded projects are implemented around the world through accredited National Implementing Entities, Multilateral Implementing Entities and Regional Implementing Entities.
The original primary source of revenue for the Fund – the sale of Certified Emission Reduction credits through a 2% levy on UN Clean Development Mechanism projects that help meet Kyoto’s emission reduction targets – has drastically diminished due to market forces.
NABARD has been accredited as National Implementing Entity (NIE) for Adaptation Fund in July 2012 and is the only NIE for India.
The NIEs are those national legal entities nominated by Parties (to the Kyoto Protocol) that are recognized by the Board as meeting the fiduciary standards established by the Board.
The NIEs bear full responsibility for the overall management of the projects and programmes financed by the Adaptation Fund and have all financial, monitoring, and reporting responsibilities.
Climate Change 2
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- Question 1 of 14
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyAccording to the International Labour Organization (ILO) report, Working on a warmer planet: The impact of heat stress on labour productivity and decent work, which of the following sector is the most affected?
Correct
According to the International Labour Organization (ILO) report, Working on a warmer planet: The impact of heat stress on labour productivity and decent work, Globally two sectors projected to be hit worst are agriculture and construction, with agriculture worse affected.
The ILO says 940 million people around the world work in the agricultural sector, which is projected to account for 60% of working hours lost due to heat stress by 2030.
In construction, an estimated 19% of global working hours are likely to be lost.
Incorrect
According to the International Labour Organization (ILO) report, Working on a warmer planet: The impact of heat stress on labour productivity and decent work, Globally two sectors projected to be hit worst are agriculture and construction, with agriculture worse affected.
The ILO says 940 million people around the world work in the agricultural sector, which is projected to account for 60% of working hours lost due to heat stress by 2030.
In construction, an estimated 19% of global working hours are likely to be lost.
- Question 2 of 14
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) ranks individual countries based on four categories. Which of the following are the categories of CCPI?
1. Green House Gas (GHG) Emissions
2. Renewable Energy
3. Climate Policy
4. Energy Use
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The CCPI (released by Germanwatch) is an independent monitoring tool of countries’ climate protection performance.
It aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables the comparability of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
The ranking results are defined by a country’s aggregated performance in 14 indicators within the four categories “GHG Emissions”, “Renewable Energy” and “Energy Use”, as well as on “Climate Policy”, in a globally unique policy section of the index.
Incorrect
The CCPI (released by Germanwatch) is an independent monitoring tool of countries’ climate protection performance.
It aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables the comparability of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
The ranking results are defined by a country’s aggregated performance in 14 indicators within the four categories “GHG Emissions”, “Renewable Energy” and “Energy Use”, as well as on “Climate Policy”, in a globally unique policy section of the index.
- Question 3 of 14
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “4 per 1000” initiative, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The international initiative “4 per 1000”, launched by France on 1 December 2015 at the COP 21, consists of federating all voluntary stakeholders of the public and private sectors (national governments, local and regional governments, companies, trade organizations, NGOs, research facilities, etc.) under the framework of the Lima-Paris Action Plan (LPAP).
The aim of the initiative is to demonstrate that agriculture, and in particular agricultural soils can play a crucial role where food security and climate change are concerned.
An annual growth rate of 0.4% in the soil carbon stocks, or 4‰ per year, in the first 30-40 cm of soil, would significantly reduce the CO2 concentration in the atmosphere related to human activities.
This growth rate is not a normative target for each country, but is intended to show that even a small increase in the soil carbon stock (agricultural soils, notably grasslands and pastures, and forest soils) is crucial to improve soil fertility and agricultural production and to contribute to achieving the long-term objective of limiting the temperature increase to the +2°C threshold, beyond which the IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) indicates that the effects of climate change are significant.
The “4 per 1000” initiative is intended to complement those necessary efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, globally and generally in the economy as a whole. It is voluntary; it is up to each member to define how they want to contribute to the goals.
Incorrect
The international initiative “4 per 1000”, launched by France on 1 December 2015 at the COP 21, consists of federating all voluntary stakeholders of the public and private sectors (national governments, local and regional governments, companies, trade organizations, NGOs, research facilities, etc.) under the framework of the Lima-Paris Action Plan (LPAP).
The aim of the initiative is to demonstrate that agriculture, and in particular agricultural soils can play a crucial role where food security and climate change are concerned.
An annual growth rate of 0.4% in the soil carbon stocks, or 4‰ per year, in the first 30-40 cm of soil, would significantly reduce the CO2 concentration in the atmosphere related to human activities.
This growth rate is not a normative target for each country, but is intended to show that even a small increase in the soil carbon stock (agricultural soils, notably grasslands and pastures, and forest soils) is crucial to improve soil fertility and agricultural production and to contribute to achieving the long-term objective of limiting the temperature increase to the +2°C threshold, beyond which the IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) indicates that the effects of climate change are significant.
The “4 per 1000” initiative is intended to complement those necessary efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, globally and generally in the economy as a whole. It is voluntary; it is up to each member to define how they want to contribute to the goals.
- Question 4 of 14
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Mission 175” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Mission 175 is a global platform to explore strategies for development and deployment of renewables.
It is hosted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the event showcases India‘s renewable energy potential and the Government‘s efforts to scale up capacity to meet the national energy requirement in a socially, economically and ecologically sustainable manner.
In the year 2015, the Government of India announced a target for 175 GW cumulative renewable power installed capacity by the year 2022.
Incorrect
Mission 175 is a global platform to explore strategies for development and deployment of renewables.
It is hosted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the event showcases India‘s renewable energy potential and the Government‘s efforts to scale up capacity to meet the national energy requirement in a socially, economically and ecologically sustainable manner.
In the year 2015, the Government of India announced a target for 175 GW cumulative renewable power installed capacity by the year 2022.
- Question 5 of 14
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyAccording to Greenpeace, which of the following country is the largest emitter of sulphur dioxide in the world?
Correct
India is the world’s largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide, which is produced from coal burning, and greatly contributes to air pollution, a study claimed on August 19.
According to an analysis of a National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) data released by environmental NGO Greenpeace on August 2019, India has more than 15% of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument) satellite.
- The major SO2 emission hotspots in India are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Kutch in Gujarat, Ramagundam in Telangana and Chandrapur and Koradi in Maharashtra.
The vast majority of plants in India lack flue-gas desulfurization technology to reduce their air pollution.
The NASA data also highlights other hotspots across the globe, with the Norilsk smelter complex in Russia being the largest SO2 emission hotspot in the world, followed by Kriel in Mpumalanga province in South Africa and Zagroz in Iran.
However, as per country-wise world rankings, India was found at the top position in emitting SO2 as it has the maximum hotspots
.
Incorrect
India is the world’s largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide, which is produced from coal burning, and greatly contributes to air pollution, a study claimed on August 19.
According to an analysis of a National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) data released by environmental NGO Greenpeace on August 2019, India has more than 15% of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument) satellite.
- The major SO2 emission hotspots in India are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Kutch in Gujarat, Ramagundam in Telangana and Chandrapur and Koradi in Maharashtra.
The vast majority of plants in India lack flue-gas desulfurization technology to reduce their air pollution.
The NASA data also highlights other hotspots across the globe, with the Norilsk smelter complex in Russia being the largest SO2 emission hotspot in the world, followed by Kriel in Mpumalanga province in South Africa and Zagroz in Iran.
However, as per country-wise world rankings, India was found at the top position in emitting SO2 as it has the maximum hotspots
.
- Question 6 of 14
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Global Carbon Project (GCP):
1. It is a global research project of United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The goal of the project is to develop a complete picture of the global carbon cycle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Global Carbon Project is a Global Research Project of Future Earth and a research partner of the World Climate Research Programme.
It was formed to work with the international science community to establish a common and mutually agreed knowledge base to support policy debate and action to slow down and ultimately stop the increase of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
The overwhelming realization that anthropogenic climate change is a reality has focused the attention of the scientific community, policymakers and the general public
on the rising atmospheric concentrations of the main greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O).
The GCP has approached this challenge by focusing comprehensively on the global biogeochemical cycles which govern these three greenhouse gases, including their natural and human drivers, and opportunities for low carbon pathways.
The scientific goal of the Global Carbon Project is to develop a complete picture of the global carbon cycle, including both its biophysical and human dimensions together with the interactions and feedbacks between them.
Incorrect
The Global Carbon Project is a Global Research Project of Future Earth and a research partner of the World Climate Research Programme.
It was formed to work with the international science community to establish a common and mutually agreed knowledge base to support policy debate and action to slow down and ultimately stop the increase of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
The overwhelming realization that anthropogenic climate change is a reality has focused the attention of the scientific community, policymakers and the general public
on the rising atmospheric concentrations of the main greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O).
The GCP has approached this challenge by focusing comprehensively on the global biogeochemical cycles which govern these three greenhouse gases, including their natural and human drivers, and opportunities for low carbon pathways.
The scientific goal of the Global Carbon Project is to develop a complete picture of the global carbon cycle, including both its biophysical and human dimensions together with the interactions and feedbacks between them.
- Question 7 of 14
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Non-state Actor Zone for Climate Action (NAZCA)” is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Global Climate Action portal (NAZCA) is an online platform where actors from around the globe – countries, regions, cities, companies, investors and other organizations – can display their commitments to act on climate change.
Launched by UN Climate Change (UNFCCC), Peru and France in 2014, the portal was born of the realization that addressing climate change will take ambitious, broad-based action from all segments of society, public and private.
Incorrect
The Global Climate Action portal (NAZCA) is an online platform where actors from around the globe – countries, regions, cities, companies, investors and other organizations – can display their commitments to act on climate change.
Launched by UN Climate Change (UNFCCC), Peru and France in 2014, the portal was born of the realization that addressing climate change will take ambitious, broad-based action from all segments of society, public and private.
- Question 8 of 14
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Race To Zero Campaign” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Race To Zero is a global campaign to rally; leadership and support from businesses, cities, regions, investors for a healthy, resilient, zero carbon recovery that prevents future threats, creates decent jobs, and unlocks inclusive, sustainable growth.
It mobilizes a coalition of leading net zero initiatives, representing 449 cities, 21 regions, 995 businesses, 38 of the biggest investors, and 505 universities.
These ‘real economy’ actors join 120 countries in the largest ever alliance committed to achieving net zero carbon emissions by 2050 at the latest.
Collectively these actors now cover nearly 25% global CO2 emissions and over 50% GDP.
Led by the High-Level Climate Champions for Climate Action – Nigel Topping and Gonzalo Muñoz– Race To Zero mobilizes actors outside of national governments to join the Climate Ambition Alliance, which was launched at the UNSG’s Climate Action Summit 2019 by the President of Chile, Sebastián Piñera.
The objective is to build momentum around the shift to a decarbonized economy ahead of COP26 (UNFCCC), where governments must strengthen their contributions to the Paris Agreement.
This will send governments a resounding signal that business, cities, regions and investors are united in meeting the Paris goals and creating a more inclusive and resilient economy.
Incorrect
Race To Zero is a global campaign to rally; leadership and support from businesses, cities, regions, investors for a healthy, resilient, zero carbon recovery that prevents future threats, creates decent jobs, and unlocks inclusive, sustainable growth.
It mobilizes a coalition of leading net zero initiatives, representing 449 cities, 21 regions, 995 businesses, 38 of the biggest investors, and 505 universities.
These ‘real economy’ actors join 120 countries in the largest ever alliance committed to achieving net zero carbon emissions by 2050 at the latest.
Collectively these actors now cover nearly 25% global CO2 emissions and over 50% GDP.
Led by the High-Level Climate Champions for Climate Action – Nigel Topping and Gonzalo Muñoz– Race To Zero mobilizes actors outside of national governments to join the Climate Ambition Alliance, which was launched at the UNSG’s Climate Action Summit 2019 by the President of Chile, Sebastián Piñera.
The objective is to build momentum around the shift to a decarbonized economy ahead of COP26 (UNFCCC), where governments must strengthen their contributions to the Paris Agreement.
This will send governments a resounding signal that business, cities, regions and investors are united in meeting the Paris goals and creating a more inclusive and resilient economy.
- Question 9 of 14
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Carbon Credit:
1. The holder of the credit has the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent of another greenhouse gas.
2. The Paris Agreement validates the application of carbon credits to reduce emissions of the greenhouse gases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A carbon credit is a tradable permit or certificate that provides the holder of the credit the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent of another greenhouse gas.
The main goal for the creation of carbon credits is the reduction of emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases from industrial activities to reduce the effects of global warming.
Carbon credits are market mechanisms of the minimization of greenhouse gases emission. The introduction of carbon credit was ratified in the Kyoto Protocol.
The Paris Agreement validates the application of carbon credits to reduce emissions of the greenhouse gases and sets the provisions for the further facilitation of the carbon credits markets.
Types of Carbon Credits
There are two types of the carbon credits:
Voluntary emissions reduction (VER): A carbon offset that is exchanged in the over-the-counter or voluntary market for credits.
Certified emissions reduction (CER): Emission units (or Carbon credits) created through a regulatory framework with the purpose of offsetting a project’s emission. The main difference between the two is that there is a third party certifying body that regulates the CER as opposed to the VER.
Incorrect
A carbon credit is a tradable permit or certificate that provides the holder of the credit the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent of another greenhouse gas.
The main goal for the creation of carbon credits is the reduction of emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases from industrial activities to reduce the effects of global warming.
Carbon credits are market mechanisms of the minimization of greenhouse gases emission. The introduction of carbon credit was ratified in the Kyoto Protocol.
The Paris Agreement validates the application of carbon credits to reduce emissions of the greenhouse gases and sets the provisions for the further facilitation of the carbon credits markets.
Types of Carbon Credits
There are two types of the carbon credits:
Voluntary emissions reduction (VER): A carbon offset that is exchanged in the over-the-counter or voluntary market for credits.
Certified emissions reduction (CER): Emission units (or Carbon credits) created through a regulatory framework with the purpose of offsetting a project’s emission. The main difference between the two is that there is a third party certifying body that regulates the CER as opposed to the VER.
- Question 10 of 14
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following transport industry releases highest CO2 emitted per km travelled by a passenger?
Correct
In recent months, climate activists have stepped up efforts to convince travellers to boycott air travel, with Swedish schoolgirl and campaigner Greta Thunberg spearheading the trains-over-planes movement and making “flygskam”, or flight shame, a buzzword in the Scandinavian country.
The industry has been under fire over its carbon emissions, which at 285 g of CO2 emitted per km travelled by a passenger far exceed all other modes of transport. Road transportation follows at 158 and rail travel is at 14, according to European Environment Agency figures.
The International Civil Aviation Organization estimates that air transport is responsible for 2% of global CO2 emissions.
- But aircraft also emit particles such as nitrogen oxides, which can trap heat at high altitude, meaning the industry is responsible for 5% of warming, according to the Climate Action Network.
The industry has committed to improving fuel efficiency by 1.5% per year from 2009 to 2020 and stabilising its CO2 emissions in preparation for a 50% reduction by 2050 compared to 2005.
Incorrect
In recent months, climate activists have stepped up efforts to convince travellers to boycott air travel, with Swedish schoolgirl and campaigner Greta Thunberg spearheading the trains-over-planes movement and making “flygskam”, or flight shame, a buzzword in the Scandinavian country.
The industry has been under fire over its carbon emissions, which at 285 g of CO2 emitted per km travelled by a passenger far exceed all other modes of transport. Road transportation follows at 158 and rail travel is at 14, according to European Environment Agency figures.
The International Civil Aviation Organization estimates that air transport is responsible for 2% of global CO2 emissions.
- But aircraft also emit particles such as nitrogen oxides, which can trap heat at high altitude, meaning the industry is responsible for 5% of warming, according to the Climate Action Network.
The industry has committed to improving fuel efficiency by 1.5% per year from 2009 to 2020 and stabilising its CO2 emissions in preparation for a 50% reduction by 2050 compared to 2005.
- Question 11 of 14
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following mining’s is/are source of Carbon Dioxide emissions (CO2)?
- Copper mining
- Bitcoin mining
- Bauxite mining
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The use of Bitcoin — a popular virtual currency — emits over 22 megatonnes of carbon dioxide annually, comparable to the total emissions of cities such as Las Vegas and Vienna, a study has found.
Researchers from Technical University of Munich (TUM) in Germany carried out a detailed calculation of the carbon footprint of the Bitcoin system.
For a Bitcoin transfer to be executed and validated, a mathematical puzzle must be solved by an arbitrary computer in the global Bitcoin network. The network, which anyone can join, rewards the puzzle solvers in Bitcoin.
The computing capacity used in this process — known as Bitcoin mining — has increased rapidly in recent years. Statistics show that it quadrupled in 2018 alone.
- Consequently, the Bitcoin boom raises the question of whether the cryptocurrency is imposing an additional burden on the climate.
The Bitcoin system has a carbon footprint of between 22 and 22.9 megatonnes per year. That is comparable to the footprint of such cities as Hamburg, Vienna or Las Vegas.
Incorrect
The use of Bitcoin — a popular virtual currency — emits over 22 megatonnes of carbon dioxide annually, comparable to the total emissions of cities such as Las Vegas and Vienna, a study has found.
Researchers from Technical University of Munich (TUM) in Germany carried out a detailed calculation of the carbon footprint of the Bitcoin system.
For a Bitcoin transfer to be executed and validated, a mathematical puzzle must be solved by an arbitrary computer in the global Bitcoin network. The network, which anyone can join, rewards the puzzle solvers in Bitcoin.
The computing capacity used in this process — known as Bitcoin mining — has increased rapidly in recent years. Statistics show that it quadrupled in 2018 alone.
- Consequently, the Bitcoin boom raises the question of whether the cryptocurrency is imposing an additional burden on the climate.
The Bitcoin system has a carbon footprint of between 22 and 22.9 megatonnes per year. That is comparable to the footprint of such cities as Hamburg, Vienna or Las Vegas.
- Question 12 of 14
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently European Union set a target of zero net greenhouse gas emissions (Climate Neutrality) by?
Correct
EU leaders will this week discuss setting a target of zero net greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
European Union leaders met in Brussels to debate the 2050 target of “climate neutrality” that the environmental group WWF says now has the support of 16 of the EU’s 28 countries.
“We urgently need to step up our action to manage this existential threat,” a draft of the EU’s strategic agenda for the next six years says.
“The EU must lead the way, by engaging in an in-depth transformation of its own economy and society to achieve climate neutrality,” according to the draft.
The draft contained a footnote, saying the wording may be adjusted to reflect the results of the summit debate, which an EU source said would focus on the 2050 target.
The source said that a number of EU countries want more debate on financing the shift from an economy running on fossil fuels, especially those in eastern Europe, to one driven by clean energy.
Incorrect
EU leaders will this week discuss setting a target of zero net greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
European Union leaders met in Brussels to debate the 2050 target of “climate neutrality” that the environmental group WWF says now has the support of 16 of the EU’s 28 countries.
“We urgently need to step up our action to manage this existential threat,” a draft of the EU’s strategic agenda for the next six years says.
“The EU must lead the way, by engaging in an in-depth transformation of its own economy and society to achieve climate neutrality,” according to the draft.
The draft contained a footnote, saying the wording may be adjusted to reflect the results of the summit debate, which an EU source said would focus on the 2050 target.
The source said that a number of EU countries want more debate on financing the shift from an economy running on fossil fuels, especially those in eastern Europe, to one driven by clean energy.
- Question 13 of 14
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe term “Day Zero” often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The day when a city’s taps dry out and people have to stand in line to collect a daily quota of water.
Through most of June, this has been the situation in Chennai, one of India’s major cities facing an acute, unprecedented water shortage.
Many other big cities, including the national capital Delhi, are likely to run out of groundwater by next year, according to India’s policy making body NITI Aayog’s recent assessment.
In all, 600 million people are facing the worst water crisis in the history of India.
Adding to the woes is the gloomy prediction that by 2030, the overall demand for water in India will double. “Forty per cent of the population would have no access to drinking water by 2030,” the report warns.
Incorrect
The day when a city’s taps dry out and people have to stand in line to collect a daily quota of water.
Through most of June, this has been the situation in Chennai, one of India’s major cities facing an acute, unprecedented water shortage.
Many other big cities, including the national capital Delhi, are likely to run out of groundwater by next year, according to India’s policy making body NITI Aayog’s recent assessment.
In all, 600 million people are facing the worst water crisis in the history of India.
Adding to the woes is the gloomy prediction that by 2030, the overall demand for water in India will double. “Forty per cent of the population would have no access to drinking water by 2030,” the report warns.
- Question 14 of 14
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Task Force on Climate-Related Financial Disclosures (TCFD)” is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Task Force on Climate-Related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) was created in 2015 by the Financial Stability Board (FSB) to develop consistent climate-related financial risk disclosures for use by companies, banks, and investors in providing information to stakeholders.
Increasing the amount of reliable information on financial institutions’ exposure to climate-related risks and opportunities will strengthen the stability of the financial system, contribute to greater understanding of climate risks and facilitate financing the transition to a more stable and sustainable economy.
Following the publication of the final recommendations by FSB’s TCFD in June 2017, UNEP FI began a series of ‘TCFD Pilot Projects’ for banks, investors, and insurers. Participants in these pilots have worked to pioneer practical approaches for the assessment and disclosure of climate risks and opportunities.
NOTE: United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative (UNEP FI) is a partnership between UNEP and the global financial sector to mobilize private sector finance for sustainable development.
UNEP FI works with more than 300 members – banks, insurers, and investors – and over 100 supporting institutions – to help create a financial sector that serves people and planet while delivering positive impacts.
We aim to inspire, inform and enable financial institutions to improve people’s quality of life without compromising that of future generations. By leveraging the UN’s role, UNEP FI accelerates sustainable finance.
Incorrect
The Task Force on Climate-Related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) was created in 2015 by the Financial Stability Board (FSB) to develop consistent climate-related financial risk disclosures for use by companies, banks, and investors in providing information to stakeholders.
Increasing the amount of reliable information on financial institutions’ exposure to climate-related risks and opportunities will strengthen the stability of the financial system, contribute to greater understanding of climate risks and facilitate financing the transition to a more stable and sustainable economy.
Following the publication of the final recommendations by FSB’s TCFD in June 2017, UNEP FI began a series of ‘TCFD Pilot Projects’ for banks, investors, and insurers. Participants in these pilots have worked to pioneer practical approaches for the assessment and disclosure of climate risks and opportunities.
NOTE: United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative (UNEP FI) is a partnership between UNEP and the global financial sector to mobilize private sector finance for sustainable development.
UNEP FI works with more than 300 members – banks, insurers, and investors – and over 100 supporting institutions – to help create a financial sector that serves people and planet while delivering positive impacts.
We aim to inspire, inform and enable financial institutions to improve people’s quality of life without compromising that of future generations. By leveraging the UN’s role, UNEP FI accelerates sustainable finance.
Organisations conventions and related– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66
Organisations conventions and related– 2021
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 19 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyCPCB has an automatic monitoring station at ITO Intersection in New Delhi. Which of the following is/are monitored at this station?
1. Resirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM)
2. Carbon Dioxide
3. Benzene
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
CPCB has an automatic monitoring station at ITO Intersection in New Delhi.
At this station Resirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) and Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) are being monitored regularly.
This information on Air Quality at ITO is updated every week.
Incorrect
CPCB has an automatic monitoring station at ITO Intersection in New Delhi.
At this station Resirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) and Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) are being monitored regularly.
This information on Air Quality at ITO is updated every week.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI):
1. It was founded by Indira Gandhi.
2. It acts as a knowledge center to cultivate action-oriented research in areas of climate change, environment, energy, and sustainable development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Founded in 1974 by Mr Darbari S Seth & Dr R K Pachauri, TERI began as a knowledge center to cultivate action-oriented research in areas of climate change, environment, energy, and sustainable development.
- Over the last 40 years, the organization has worked with the government to create policies for energy conservation.
- On the other hand, it has worked at the grassroots, developing energy efficiency solutions for India’s small and medium businesses.
- TERI has also worked intensively towards developing lighting and cooking solutions that have impacted over 4.5 million people in India and Africa.
- It has pioneered the use of biotechnology in the petroleum and agriculture sectors in India.
- It is globally distinguished for hosting the World Sustainable Development Conference, one of the largest international summits dedicated to accelerating the pursuit of sustainable development.
Source: https://www.teriin.org/history
Incorrect
Founded in 1974 by Mr Darbari S Seth & Dr R K Pachauri, TERI began as a knowledge center to cultivate action-oriented research in areas of climate change, environment, energy, and sustainable development.
- Over the last 40 years, the organization has worked with the government to create policies for energy conservation.
- On the other hand, it has worked at the grassroots, developing energy efficiency solutions for India’s small and medium businesses.
- TERI has also worked intensively towards developing lighting and cooking solutions that have impacted over 4.5 million people in India and Africa.
- It has pioneered the use of biotechnology in the petroleum and agriculture sectors in India.
- It is globally distinguished for hosting the World Sustainable Development Conference, one of the largest international summits dedicated to accelerating the pursuit of sustainable development.
Source: https://www.teriin.org/history
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Forest Survey of India (FSI):
1. It was established after enacting the Forest Act, 1927.
2. It is a premier national organization under Ministry of Agriculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Forest Survey of India (FSI), is a premier national organization under the union Ministry of Environment and Forests, responsible for assessment and monitoring of the forest resources of the country regularly.
- In addition, it is also engaged in providing the services of training, research and extension.
- Established on June 1 – 1981, the Forest Survey of India succeeded the “Preinvestment Survey of Forest Resources” (PISFR), a project initiated in 1965 by Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.
- The main objective of PISFR was to ascertain the availability of raw material for establishment of wood-based industries in selected areas of the country.
- In its report in 1976, the National Commission on Agriculture (NCA) recommended for the creation of a National Forest Survey Organization for a regular, periodic and comprehensive forest resources survey of the country leading to creation of FSI.
- After a critical review of activities undertaken by FSI, Government of India redefined the mandate of FSI in 1986 in order to make it more relevant to the rapidly changing needs and aspirations of the country.
Source: https://fsi.nic.in/brief-history
Incorrect
Forest Survey of India (FSI), is a premier national organization under the union Ministry of Environment and Forests, responsible for assessment and monitoring of the forest resources of the country regularly.
- In addition, it is also engaged in providing the services of training, research and extension.
- Established on June 1 – 1981, the Forest Survey of India succeeded the “Preinvestment Survey of Forest Resources” (PISFR), a project initiated in 1965 by Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and UNDP.
- The main objective of PISFR was to ascertain the availability of raw material for establishment of wood-based industries in selected areas of the country.
- In its report in 1976, the National Commission on Agriculture (NCA) recommended for the creation of a National Forest Survey Organization for a regular, periodic and comprehensive forest resources survey of the country leading to creation of FSI.
- After a critical review of activities undertaken by FSI, Government of India redefined the mandate of FSI in 1986 in order to make it more relevant to the rapidly changing needs and aspirations of the country.
Source: https://fsi.nic.in/brief-history
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA):
1. It was established in 2003 by the Central Government to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
2. Its headquarters is located in Chennai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 by the Central Government to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
- The NBA is a statutory body and that performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory function for Government of India on issue of Conservation, sustainable use of biological resource and fair equitable sharing of benefits of use.
- The NBA with its Headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India delivers its mandate through a structure that comprises of the Authority, secretariat, SBBs, BMCs and Expert Committees.
- Since its establishment, NBA has supported creation of SBBs in 28 States, facilitated establishment of around 2, 05,794 BMCs, and advised notification.
Source: http://nbaindia.org/content/16/14/1/introduction.html
Incorrect
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 by the Central Government to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
- The NBA is a statutory body and that performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory function for Government of India on issue of Conservation, sustainable use of biological resource and fair equitable sharing of benefits of use.
- The NBA with its Headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India delivers its mandate through a structure that comprises of the Authority, secretariat, SBBs, BMCs and Expert Committees.
- Since its establishment, NBA has supported creation of SBBs in 28 States, facilitated establishment of around 2, 05,794 BMCs, and advised notification.
Source: http://nbaindia.org/content/16/14/1/introduction.html
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
1. It has been constituted under Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
2. It is headed by Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has been constituted under section 38 L (1) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Further, as per the section 38 L, sub section 2 of the said Act, the authority consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-Chairperson), three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other members.
- The authority derives its power from section 38 O (1) of WLPA, 1972 and functions under the guidance of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and members.
Incorrect
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has been constituted under section 38 L (1) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Further, as per the section 38 L, sub section 2 of the said Act, the authority consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-Chairperson), three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other members.
- The authority derives its power from section 38 O (1) of WLPA, 1972 and functions under the guidance of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and members.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA):
- It was constituted under the provisions of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) acted as implementation arm of NGRBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
- It acted as implementation arm of National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986.
- NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect from the 7th October 2016, consequent to constitution of National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga (referred as National Ganga Council) vide notification no. S.O. 3187(E) dated 7th October 2016 under EPA 1986. >> (Amendment) Order, 2nd September 2019
Incorrect
National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
- It acted as implementation arm of National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986.
- NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect from the 7th October 2016, consequent to constitution of National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga (referred as National Ganga Council) vide notification no. S.O. 3187(E) dated 7th October 2016 under EPA 1986. >> (Amendment) Order, 2nd September 2019
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Animal Welfare Board of India:
- It was established at the time of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
- It was established through executive resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
- Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
- From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
- The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
Source: http://www.awbi.in/about.html
Incorrect
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
- Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
- From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
- The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
Source: http://www.awbi.in/about.html
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Central Zoo Authority” was established under which of the following Act?
Correct
The Central Zoo Authority has been constituted under the section 38A of Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972.
- The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
- The main objective of the authority is to complement the national effort in conservation of wild life.
Incorrect
The Central Zoo Authority has been constituted under the section 38A of Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972.
- The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
- The main objective of the authority is to complement the national effort in conservation of wild life.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding India Biodiversity Awards:
- It was launched in 2012 to recognize excellence in biodiversity governance across the country.
- It was launched by Ministry of Environment with the help of World Bank.
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
India is one of the mega-diverse countries in the world and home to nearly eight percent of the world’s total recorded species of plants and animals.
- Across the country, people, communities and governments have played an outstanding and innovative role in conserving India’s rich heritage.
- Government of India, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in association with UNDP India, therefore, started the India Biodiversity Awards in 2012, to recognize excellence in biodiversity governance across the country.
- The first round of Awards was launched in 2012 during India’s Presidency of the Eleventh Meeting of Conference of Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
- The award selection process is conducted in partnership with the National Biodiversity Authority of India.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
India is one of the mega-diverse countries in the world and home to nearly eight percent of the world’s total recorded species of plants and animals.
- Across the country, people, communities and governments have played an outstanding and innovative role in conserving India’s rich heritage.
- Government of India, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in association with UNDP India, therefore, started the India Biodiversity Awards in 2012, to recognize excellence in biodiversity governance across the country.
- The first round of Awards was launched in 2012 during India’s Presidency of the Eleventh Meeting of Conference of Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
- The award selection process is conducted in partnership with the National Biodiversity Authority of India.
Source: The Hindu
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following institution (s) is/are collaborated to establish UN – REDD programme?
- UNEP
- IUCN
- GEF
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Three UN Agencies – United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) – have collaborated in the establishment of the UN-REDD programme, a multi-donor trust fund that allows donors to pool resources and provide funding with the aim of significantly reducing global emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Three UN Agencies – United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) – have collaborated in the establishment of the UN-REDD programme, a multi-donor trust fund that allows donors to pool resources and provide funding with the aim of significantly reducing global emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries.
Source: Shankar
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 20 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “The Indian Network on Climate Change Assessment (INCCA)”:
1. It was launched at CoP – 21 of UNFCCC in 2019.
2. It was launched to assist the developing countries who are willing to join International Solar Alliance (ISA).
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The Indian Network on Climate Change Assessment (INCCA) was launched in October 2009 by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) in an effort to promote domestic research on climate change, and build on the country’s climate change expertise.
· INCCA is a network-based programme of the MoEF, which consists of over 120 institutions and over 250 scientist’s country wide is aimed at bringing in more science-based policy-making, based on measurements, monitoring and modeling.
· Reports prepared by the INCCA will form a part of India’s National Communication (Nat Com) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The Indian Network on Climate Change Assessment (INCCA) was launched in October 2009 by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) in an effort to promote domestic research on climate change, and build on the country’s climate change expertise.
· INCCA is a network-based programme of the MoEF, which consists of over 120 institutions and over 250 scientist’s country wide is aimed at bringing in more science-based policy-making, based on measurements, monitoring and modeling.
· Reports prepared by the INCCA will form a part of India’s National Communication (Nat Com) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Source: Shankar
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyIndian government created National Communications (NATCOM) to implement the provisions of which of the following?
Correct
In pursuance of the implementation of the provisions of the Convention, India’s Initial National Communication (NATCOM) to the UNFCCC has been initiated in 2002 funded by the Global Environment Facility under its enabling activities programme through the United Nations Development Programme, New Delhi.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
In pursuance of the implementation of the provisions of the Convention, India’s Initial National Communication (NATCOM) to the UNFCCC has been initiated in 2002 funded by the Global Environment Facility under its enabling activities programme through the United Nations Development Programme, New Delhi.
Source: Shankar
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Emission Trading and Clean Development Mechanism” are often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Kyoto Protocol is made up of essential architecture that has been built and shaped over almost two decades of experience, hard work and political will. The beating heart of KP is made up of:
1. Reporting and verification procedures;
2. Flexible market-based mechanisms, which in turn have their own governance procedures; and
3. A compliance system.
The Kyoto Flexible Market Protocol mechanisms:
• Joint Implementation (JI)
• The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
• Emission Trading
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The Kyoto Protocol is made up of essential architecture that has been built and shaped over almost two decades of experience, hard work and political will. The beating heart of KP is made up of:
1. Reporting and verification procedures;
2. Flexible market-based mechanisms, which in turn have their own governance procedures; and
3. A compliance system.
The Kyoto Flexible Market Protocol mechanisms:
• Joint Implementation (JI)
• The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
• Emission Trading
Source: Shankar
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Global Environment Facility (GEF)”:
1. It was established to provide funding to protect the global environment.
2. It was established by World Bank in consultation with UNFCCC and UNCBD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The GEF was established in 1991 by the World Bank in consultation with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), to provide funding to protect the global environment.
Source: GEF
Incorrect
The GEF was established in 1991 by the World Bank in consultation with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), to provide funding to protect the global environment.
Source: GEF
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following famous organization logo is a Giant Panda?
Correct
The inspiration came from Chi-Chi: a giant panda that had arrived at the London Zoo in the year 1961, when WWF was being created.
Aware of the need for a strong, recognizable symbol that would overcome all language barriers, WWF’s founders agreed that the big, furry animal with her appealing, black-patched eyes would make an excellent logo.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The inspiration came from Chi-Chi: a giant panda that had arrived at the London Zoo in the year 1961, when WWF was being created.
Aware of the need for a strong, recognizable symbol that would overcome all language barriers, WWF’s founders agreed that the big, furry animal with her appealing, black-patched eyes would make an excellent logo.
Source: Shankar
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following are the focal areas of Global Environment Facility (GEF) for climate finance?
1. Biological diversity
2. Climate change
3. ozone layer depletion
4. Land degradation
5. Desertification
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The GEF’s governance, operational, financial and administrative oversight procedures are set out in the Instrument for the Establishment of the Restructured Global Environment Facility, which was adopted in 1994 and subsequently amended in 2002 (GEF Instrument). The GEF now has six focal areas:
· biological diversity;
· climate change;
· international waters;
· land degradation, primarily desertification and deforestation;
· ozone layer depletion; and
· persistent organic pollutants.
Source: GEF
Incorrect
The GEF’s governance, operational, financial and administrative oversight procedures are set out in the Instrument for the Establishment of the Restructured Global Environment Facility, which was adopted in 1994 and subsequently amended in 2002 (GEF Instrument). The GEF now has six focal areas:
· biological diversity;
· climate change;
· international waters;
· land degradation, primarily desertification and deforestation;
· ozone layer depletion; and
· persistent organic pollutants.
Source: GEF
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyMARPOL Convention is related to which of the following?
Correct
The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes.
· The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at IMO. The Protocol of 1978 was adopted in response to a spate of tanker accidents in 1976-1977.
· As the 1973 MARPOL Convention had not yet entered into force, the 1978 MARPOL Protocol absorbed the parent Convention. The combined instrument entered into force on 2 October 1983.
· In 1997, a Protocol was adopted to amend the Convention and a new Annex VI was added which entered into force on 19 May 2005. MARPOL has been updated by amendments through the years.
· The Convention includes regulations aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution from ships – both accidental pollution and that from routine operations – and currently includes six technical Annexes.
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes.
· The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at IMO. The Protocol of 1978 was adopted in response to a spate of tanker accidents in 1976-1977.
· As the 1973 MARPOL Convention had not yet entered into force, the 1978 MARPOL Protocol absorbed the parent Convention. The combined instrument entered into force on 2 October 1983.
· In 1997, a Protocol was adopted to amend the Convention and a new Annex VI was added which entered into force on 19 May 2005. MARPOL has been updated by amendments through the years.
· The Convention includes regulations aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution from ships – both accidental pollution and that from routine operations – and currently includes six technical Annexes.
Source: Shankar
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following activities carried out by Wildlife Institute of India (WII)?
1. Training
2. Research
3. Employment
4. Consultancy services
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Build up scientific knowledge on wildlife resources. Train personnel at various levels for conservation and management of wildlife.
· Carry out research relevant to management including the development of techniques appropriate to Indian conditions.
· Provide information and advice on specific wildlife management problems.
· Collaborate with international organizations on wildlife research, management and training.
· Develop as a regional centre of international importance on wildlife and natural resource conservation.
· Publicity and consultancy services
Source: Shankar
Incorrect
Build up scientific knowledge on wildlife resources. Train personnel at various levels for conservation and management of wildlife.
· Carry out research relevant to management including the development of techniques appropriate to Indian conditions.
· Provide information and advice on specific wildlife management problems.
· Collaborate with international organizations on wildlife research, management and training.
· Develop as a regional centre of international importance on wildlife and natural resource conservation.
· Publicity and consultancy services
Source: Shankar
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following convention is related to Persistent Organic Pollutants?
Correct
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have harmful impacts on human health or on the environment.
· Exposure to Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) can lead to serious health effects including certain cancers, birth defects, dysfunctional immune and reproductive systems, greater susceptibility to disease and damages to the central and peripheral nervous systems.
· Given their long-range transport, no one government acting alone can protect its citizens or its environment from POPs.
· In response to this global problem, the Stockholm Convention, which was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004, requires its parties to take measures to eliminate or reduce the release of POPs into the environment.
Source: Stockholm Convention
Incorrect
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have harmful impacts on human health or on the environment.
· Exposure to Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) can lead to serious health effects including certain cancers, birth defects, dysfunctional immune and reproductive systems, greater susceptibility to disease and damages to the central and peripheral nervous systems.
· Given their long-range transport, no one government acting alone can protect its citizens or its environment from POPs.
· In response to this global problem, the Stockholm Convention, which was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004, requires its parties to take measures to eliminate or reduce the release of POPs into the environment.
Source: Stockholm Convention
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich state in India deployed artificial reefs to protect the Islands?
Correct
Sinking islands may become a reality with sea level rise and climate change in decades to come.
· Tamil Nadu has hit upon a novel idea to protect such islands on its coast – deployment of artificial reefs near vulnerable islands.
· Artificial reefs, made of concrete, have been found to be capable of preventing further erosion of ecologically sensitive islands and also regenerate coral biodiversity in the Gulf of Mannar region.
· Vaan is one of the 21 islands in the Gulf of Mannar, which was declared marine biodiversity park in 1986.
· Indiscriminate mining of coral and use of destructive fishing practices in the past few decades have fully submerged two of the islands while Vaan was on the verge of submergence when the project began in 2015.
· Its area had been reduced from 16 hectares in 1986 to 2 hectares in 2014.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Sinking islands may become a reality with sea level rise and climate change in decades to come.
· Tamil Nadu has hit upon a novel idea to protect such islands on its coast – deployment of artificial reefs near vulnerable islands.
· Artificial reefs, made of concrete, have been found to be capable of preventing further erosion of ecologically sensitive islands and also regenerate coral biodiversity in the Gulf of Mannar region.
· Vaan is one of the 21 islands in the Gulf of Mannar, which was declared marine biodiversity park in 1986.
· Indiscriminate mining of coral and use of destructive fishing practices in the past few decades have fully submerged two of the islands while Vaan was on the verge of submergence when the project began in 2015.
· Its area had been reduced from 16 hectares in 1986 to 2 hectares in 2014.
Source: The Hindu
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 27 Apr, 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The Ban Amendment” is associated with which of the following?
Correct
The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia ratified it on September 6, 2019.
- Croatia became the 97th country to ratify the ban, which was adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995, to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes, according to Basel Action Network (BAN).
- BAN is a Unites States-based charity organisation and is one among the organisations and countries, which created the Basel Ban Amendment — hailed as a landmark agreement for global environmental justice.
- The Ban Amendment had been stalled for all these years due to uncertainty over how to interpret the Convention.
- It will become a new Article in the Convention and will enter into force in the 97 countries after 90 days.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/basel-ban-amendment-becomes-law-66651
Incorrect
The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia ratified it on September 6, 2019.
- Croatia became the 97th country to ratify the ban, which was adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995, to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes, according to Basel Action Network (BAN).
- BAN is a Unites States-based charity organisation and is one among the organisations and countries, which created the Basel Ban Amendment — hailed as a landmark agreement for global environmental justice.
- The Ban Amendment had been stalled for all these years due to uncertainty over how to interpret the Convention.
- It will become a new Article in the Convention and will enter into force in the 97 countries after 90 days.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/basel-ban-amendment-becomes-law-66651
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following waste/wastes is/are prohibited under Basel Convention?
1. Toxic factory waste
2. Old computers waste
3. Obsolete ships
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Ban Amendment, adopted in 1994, effectively bans, as of 1 January, 1998, all forms of hazardous waste exports from the 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
- But the Ban Amendment had been stalled for all these years due to uncertainty over how to interpret the Convention.
- The Ban Amendment ensures that developing countries are not convenient dumping grounds for toxic factory waste, obsolete ships containing asbestos or old computers coming from affluent countries.
Incorrect
The Ban Amendment, adopted in 1994, effectively bans, as of 1 January, 1998, all forms of hazardous waste exports from the 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
- But the Ban Amendment had been stalled for all these years due to uncertainty over how to interpret the Convention.
- The Ban Amendment ensures that developing countries are not convenient dumping grounds for toxic factory waste, obsolete ships containing asbestos or old computers coming from affluent countries.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following protocol/protocols is/are comes under Convention on Biological Diversity?
1. Kyoto protocol
2. Cartagena protocol
3. Nagoya protocol
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Convention on Biological Diversity Protocols is:
- The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing
- The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety
- The Nagoya – Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol on Liability and Redress to the Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety
Incorrect
Convention on Biological Diversity Protocols is:
- The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing
- The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety
- The Nagoya – Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol on Liability and Redress to the Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Espoo Convention” is recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Delhi high court has extended the period of public consultation on the draft of the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) notification 2020, released by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, until August 11, 2020.
- The extension reiterates the established principles of public participation in environmental governance.
- The EIA Notification 2020, which will supersede 2006 notification, has come under severe criticism from environmentalists who have demanded its early withdrawal.
- Indeed, the draft notification’s regression and dilution of environmental criteria conflict with the established principles of international law.
- The public participation and modalities in EIA have been elaborated at the international level in the Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Trans-boundary Context (“Espoo Convention”).
Source: https://thewire.in/environment/draft-environment-impact-assessment-notification-international-law
Incorrect
The Delhi high court has extended the period of public consultation on the draft of the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) notification 2020, released by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, until August 11, 2020.
- The extension reiterates the established principles of public participation in environmental governance.
- The EIA Notification 2020, which will supersede 2006 notification, has come under severe criticism from environmentalists who have demanded its early withdrawal.
- Indeed, the draft notification’s regression and dilution of environmental criteria conflict with the established principles of international law.
- The public participation and modalities in EIA have been elaborated at the international level in the Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Trans-boundary Context (“Espoo Convention”).
Source: https://thewire.in/environment/draft-environment-impact-assessment-notification-international-law
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES):
- It places full responsibility on producer Party for managing wildlife trade sustainably and preventing illegal trade.
- It contains five lists of species with respect to degree of trade & protection.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
Concerned about the overexploitation of many vulnerable species as a result of unregulated international trade, governments adopted the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973.
- The treaty entered into force in 1975 and now has 183 Parties. The Convention places a joint responsibility on producer and consumer Parties for managing wildlife trade sustainably and preventing illegal trade.
- CITES regulates international trade in over 36,000 species of plants and animals, including their products and derivatives, ensuring their survival in the wild with benefits for the livelihoods of local people and the global environment.
- The animals and plants protected by CITES are known as CITES-listed species because they are included on three lists approved by the Parties called CITES Appendices.
- CITES protects these species from being excessively traded and exploited illegally and unsustainably in the wild as their extinction would have irreversible ecological consequences and negative economic and social effects.
- The CITES permit system seeks to ensure that international trade in listed species is sustainable, legal and traceable.
Incorrect
Concerned about the overexploitation of many vulnerable species as a result of unregulated international trade, governments adopted the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973.
- The treaty entered into force in 1975 and now has 183 Parties. The Convention places a joint responsibility on producer and consumer Parties for managing wildlife trade sustainably and preventing illegal trade.
- CITES regulates international trade in over 36,000 species of plants and animals, including their products and derivatives, ensuring their survival in the wild with benefits for the livelihoods of local people and the global environment.
- The animals and plants protected by CITES are known as CITES-listed species because they are included on three lists approved by the Parties called CITES Appendices.
- CITES protects these species from being excessively traded and exploited illegally and unsustainably in the wild as their extinction would have irreversible ecological consequences and negative economic and social effects.
- The CITES permit system seeks to ensure that international trade in listed species is sustainable, legal and traceable.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are migratory animal/animals found in India?
- Asian Elephant
- Great Indian Bustard
- Bengal florican
- Smooth hammerhead shark
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
With new additions to the wildlife list put out by the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS), scientists say that the total number of migratory faunas from India comes to 457 species. Birds comprise 83% (380 species) of this figure.
- The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) had for the first time compiled the list of migratory species of India under the CMS before the Conference of Parties (COP 13) held in Gujarat recently.
- It had put the number at 451. Six species were added later. They are the Asian elephant, great Indian bustard, Bengal florican, oceanic white-tip shark, urial and smooth hammerhead shark.
- “We had compiled a list of the 451 species of migratory animals found in India. With the addition of new species to the CMS Appendices, the number is now 457,” said Kailash Chandra, ZSI director.
- Globally, more than 650 species are listed under the CMS appendices and India, with over 450 species, plays a very important role in their conservation.
Incorrect
With new additions to the wildlife list put out by the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS), scientists say that the total number of migratory faunas from India comes to 457 species. Birds comprise 83% (380 species) of this figure.
- The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) had for the first time compiled the list of migratory species of India under the CMS before the Conference of Parties (COP 13) held in Gujarat recently.
- It had put the number at 451. Six species were added later. They are the Asian elephant, great Indian bustard, Bengal florican, oceanic white-tip shark, urial and smooth hammerhead shark.
- “We had compiled a list of the 451 species of migratory animals found in India. With the addition of new species to the CMS Appendices, the number is now 457,” said Kailash Chandra, ZSI director.
- Globally, more than 650 species are listed under the CMS appendices and India, with over 450 species, plays a very important role in their conservation.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Minamata Convention” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Union cabinet approved on February 2018, a proposal for ratification of the Minamata Convention, a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of mercury.
- After joining the Convention, it will now be easier for India to get technological or financial assistance to address issues related to mercury.
- “The approval entails ratification of the Minamata Convention on mercury along with flexibility for continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compound up to 2025,” an official statement said.
- The government stressed that the convention will “urge enterprises to move to mercury-free alternatives in products and non-mercury technologies in manufacturing processes” and will “drive research and development, and promote innovation”.
- “The convention will be implemented in the context of sustainable development with the objective to protect human health and environment from the anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds,” the statement added.
- Till now, the convention has 88 ratifications and 144 signatories including India, which signed it on 30 September 2014. India had actively participated in the negotiating process, making significant contributions in finalizing the treaty text but had not ratified it till now.
- India’s neighbors – Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan – are also signatories to the convention. But only Sri Lanka has ratified it.
- In October 2013, at a conference in Kumamoto (Japan), the convention was formally adopted. The major highlights of the convention include a ban on new mercury mines, the phase-out of existing ones, the phase-out and phase-down of mercury use in a number of products and processes.
- It also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, and sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues.
- Mercury is considered by experts to be one of the most toxic metals known.
- Once released into the environment, mercury bio-accumulates and bio-magnifies in the food chain, and easily enters the human body and impacts the nervous system.
- The treaty aims at protecting human health and the environment from its adverse effects.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Union-cabinet-approves-ratification-of-Minamata-Convention.html
Incorrect
The Union cabinet approved on February 2018, a proposal for ratification of the Minamata Convention, a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of mercury.
- After joining the Convention, it will now be easier for India to get technological or financial assistance to address issues related to mercury.
- “The approval entails ratification of the Minamata Convention on mercury along with flexibility for continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compound up to 2025,” an official statement said.
- The government stressed that the convention will “urge enterprises to move to mercury-free alternatives in products and non-mercury technologies in manufacturing processes” and will “drive research and development, and promote innovation”.
- “The convention will be implemented in the context of sustainable development with the objective to protect human health and environment from the anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds,” the statement added.
- Till now, the convention has 88 ratifications and 144 signatories including India, which signed it on 30 September 2014. India had actively participated in the negotiating process, making significant contributions in finalizing the treaty text but had not ratified it till now.
- India’s neighbors – Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan – are also signatories to the convention. But only Sri Lanka has ratified it.
- In October 2013, at a conference in Kumamoto (Japan), the convention was formally adopted. The major highlights of the convention include a ban on new mercury mines, the phase-out of existing ones, the phase-out and phase-down of mercury use in a number of products and processes.
- It also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, and sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues.
- Mercury is considered by experts to be one of the most toxic metals known.
- Once released into the environment, mercury bio-accumulates and bio-magnifies in the food chain, and easily enters the human body and impacts the nervous system.
- The treaty aims at protecting human health and the environment from its adverse effects.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Union-cabinet-approves-ratification-of-Minamata-Convention.html
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Waterfowl Habitat” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat 1971.
Incorrect
Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat 1971.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are outcome of earth summit?
- Agenda 21.
- Forest principles.
- Nagoya protocol.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents:
- Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
- Agenda 21
- Forest Principles
Source: Shankar page no: 325
Incorrect
The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents:
- Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
- Agenda 21
- Forest Principles
Source: Shankar page no: 325
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following are priority areas of International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?
- Biodiversity
- Climate change
- Sustainable energy
- Ocean acidification
- Agriculture conservation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
IUCN was founded in October 1948 as the International Union for the Protection of Nature (or IUPN) following an international conference in Fontainebleau, France.
The organization changed its name to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources in 1956 with the acronym IUCN (or UICN) with its headquarters in Gland, Switzerland.
Priority Areas of IUCN:
- Biodiversity
- Climate change
- Sustainable energy
- Human well-being
- Green economy
Source: Shankar page no: 335
Incorrect
IUCN was founded in October 1948 as the International Union for the Protection of Nature (or IUPN) following an international conference in Fontainebleau, France.
The organization changed its name to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources in 1956 with the acronym IUCN (or UICN) with its headquarters in Gland, Switzerland.
Priority Areas of IUCN:
- Biodiversity
- Climate change
- Sustainable energy
- Human well-being
- Green economy
Source: Shankar page no: 335
Quiz: Daily Quiz: 28 Apr, 2021
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Botanical Survey of India:
- It was established after the Non-Cooperation Movement.
- It was established with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of the country and identifying plant species with economic virtue.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) was established in 1890 with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of the country and identifying plant species with economic virtue.
- In 1954, the Government reorganized the BSI with the objectives of (1) undertaking intensive floristic surveys and collecting accurate and detailed information on the occurrence, distribution, ecology and economic utility of plants in the country;
- (2) collecting, identifying and distributing materials that may be of use to educational and research institutions;
- and (3) acting as the custodian of authentic collections in well planned herbaria and documenting plant resources in the form of local, district, state and national flora.
Incorrect
The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) was established in 1890 with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of the country and identifying plant species with economic virtue.
- In 1954, the Government reorganized the BSI with the objectives of (1) undertaking intensive floristic surveys and collecting accurate and detailed information on the occurrence, distribution, ecology and economic utility of plants in the country;
- (2) collecting, identifying and distributing materials that may be of use to educational and research institutions;
- and (3) acting as the custodian of authentic collections in well planned herbaria and documenting plant resources in the form of local, district, state and national flora.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE):
1. It as an umbrella organization for taking care of forestry research, education and extension needs of the country.
2. It is an autonomous Council under the then Ministry of Environment and Forests and registered as a Society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
The journey of ICFRE was initiated way back towards the end of the nineteenth century with the advent of scientific forestry in India and the establishment of the Forest School in Dehradun in 1878.
- It was on 5th June 1906 subsequently that the Imperial Forest Research Institute was founded by Government of India for taking forward forestry research in the country.
- In 1986 the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education or ICFRE was formed as an umbrella organisation for taking care of forestry research, education and extension needs of the country.
- Finally on 1st June 1991, the ICFRE was declared an autonomous Council under the then Ministry of Environment and Forests and registered as a Society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
- Presently, ICFRE with its Headquarters at Dehradun is an apex body in the national forestry research system that promotes and undertakes need based forestry research extension.
Source: https://www.icfre.org/history
Incorrect
The journey of ICFRE was initiated way back towards the end of the nineteenth century with the advent of scientific forestry in India and the establishment of the Forest School in Dehradun in 1878.
- It was on 5th June 1906 subsequently that the Imperial Forest Research Institute was founded by Government of India for taking forward forestry research in the country.
- In 1986 the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education or ICFRE was formed as an umbrella organisation for taking care of forestry research, education and extension needs of the country.
- Finally on 1st June 1991, the ICFRE was declared an autonomous Council under the then Ministry of Environment and Forests and registered as a Society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
- Presently, ICFRE with its Headquarters at Dehradun is an apex body in the national forestry research system that promotes and undertakes need based forestry research extension.
Source: https://www.icfre.org/history
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following famous personality is one of the founders of Bombay Natural History of Science (BNHS)?
Correct
In 1883, eight nature-loving residents of Bombay decided to exchange notes and exhibit interesting specimens of natural history.
They came together at Bombay’s Victoria and Albert Museum on September 15 and constituted the Bombay Natural History Society. Of them, two were Indians.
Incorrect
In 1883, eight nature-loving residents of Bombay decided to exchange notes and exhibit interesting specimens of natural history.
They came together at Bombay’s Victoria and Albert Museum on September 15 and constituted the Bombay Natural History Society. Of them, two were Indians.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding Zoological Survey of India:
1. It was established at the time period of Lord Curzon.
2. It was established to promote survey, exploration and research leading to the advancement in our knowledge of various aspects of exceptionally rich life.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
Correct
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established on 1st July, 1916 to promote survey, exploration and research leading to the advancement in our knowledge of various aspects of exceptionally rich life of the erstwhile British Indian Empire.
- The survey has its genesis in the establishment of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum at Calcutta in 1875.
- By gradually strengthening its staff and expanding its research program, the Survey has met the challenge of the past and is on its way to meet the demands of the future. It has maintained its primary objectives unchanged from its inception…
- Initially, the Survey acquired the Zoological collections of more than a century old from former Museum (1814 -1875) of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and Zoological Section of the Indian Museum (1875-1916) in Calcutta.
- With the increasing interest in the life sciences and with the advent of country´s Five Year Plans, the expansion programme of the survey was initiated.
- The Survey has established so far 16 Regional and Field Stations, and has developed into a major National Institution.
- It functions as the guardian of the National Zoological Collections, containing over a million identified specimens from all animal groups ranging from Protozoa to Mammals.
- Extensive and intensive field explorations are undertaken by the Survey in different parts of the country for the studies of fauna, systematic zoology, animal ecology, wildlife and zoogeography, animal behavior, animal population and also marine fauna and the results of the explorations and research are published in its own journals as well as National and International periodicals of repute regularly.
Incorrect
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established on 1st July, 1916 to promote survey, exploration and research leading to the advancement in our knowledge of various aspects of exceptionally rich life of the erstwhile British Indian Empire.
- The survey has its genesis in the establishment of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum at Calcutta in 1875.
- By gradually strengthening its staff and expanding its research program, the Survey has met the challenge of the past and is on its way to meet the demands of the future. It has maintained its primary objectives unchanged from its inception…
- Initially, the Survey acquired the Zoological collections of more than a century old from former Museum (1814 -1875) of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and Zoological Section of the Indian Museum (1875-1916) in Calcutta.
- With the increasing interest in the life sciences and with the advent of country´s Five Year Plans, the expansion programme of the survey was initiated.
- The Survey has established so far 16 Regional and Field Stations, and has developed into a major National Institution.
- It functions as the guardian of the National Zoological Collections, containing over a million identified specimens from all animal groups ranging from Protozoa to Mammals.
- Extensive and intensive field explorations are undertaken by the Survey in different parts of the country for the studies of fauna, systematic zoology, animal ecology, wildlife and zoogeography, animal behavior, animal population and also marine fauna and the results of the explorations and research are published in its own journals as well as National and International periodicals of repute regularly.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986”:
1. The genesis of the Act lies in Article 48A and Article 51A (g) of the Indian Constitution.
2. It has relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi” and a common citizen can approach the Court with respect to environment protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
As compared to all other previous laws on environment protection, the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is a more effective and bold measure to fight the problem of pollution.
- The genesis of the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986, thus, is in Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy) and Article 51A (g) (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi” and because of such relaxation even a common citizen can approach the Court provided he has given a notice of sixty days of the alleged offence and his intention to make a complaint to the Central Government or any other competent authority.
Source: Shankar page no: 298
Incorrect
As compared to all other previous laws on environment protection, the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is a more effective and bold measure to fight the problem of pollution.
- The genesis of the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986, thus, is in Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy) and Article 51A (g) (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi” and because of such relaxation even a common citizen can approach the Court provided he has given a notice of sixty days of the alleged offence and his intention to make a complaint to the Central Government or any other competent authority.
Source: Shankar page no: 298
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“The state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife of the country” is describes which of the following article of Indian constitution?
Correct
The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution were made within four years of Stockholm Conference, in 1976, though the 42nd amendment as follows:
- Article-48-A of the constitution provides: “The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife of the country.”
- Article 51-A (g) Provides: It shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.”
Source: Shankar page no: 297
Incorrect
The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution were made within four years of Stockholm Conference, in 1976, though the 42nd amendment as follows:
- Article-48-A of the constitution provides: “The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife of the country.”
- Article 51-A (g) Provides: It shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.”
Source: Shankar page no: 297
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “National Green Tribunal”:
- It was created for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
- It is mandated to dispose the cases within six months of their respective appeals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Preamble of the act provides for the establishment of a National Green Tribunal for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto (The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010).
NGT is mandated to dispose the cases within six months of their respective appeals.
Source: Shankar page no: 310
Incorrect
The Preamble of the act provides for the establishment of a National Green Tribunal for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto (The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010).
NGT is mandated to dispose the cases within six months of their respective appeals.
Source: Shankar page no: 310
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP)”:
1. It was created by the provisions of the wildlife protection act, 1972.
2. The first National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) was adopted in 1983.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The first National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) was adopted in 1983, based upon the decision taken in the XV meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held in 1982.
The plan had outlined the strategies and action points for wildlife conservation which are still relevant.
Source: Shankar page no: 313
Incorrect
The first National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) was adopted in 1983, based upon the decision taken in the XV meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held in 1982.
The plan had outlined the strategies and action points for wildlife conservation which are still relevant.
Source: Shankar page no: 313
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding “Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)”:
- It was created under the provisions of the forest conservation act, 1980.
- Resources realized from diverting forest resources to commercial purpose should be used for afforestation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
While according prior approval under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 for diversion of forest land for non-forest purpose, Central Government stipulates conditions that amounts shall be realised from the user agencies to undertake compensatory afforestation and such other activities related to conservation and development of forests, to mitigate impact of diversion of forest land.
Source: Shankar page no: 314
Incorrect
While according prior approval under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 for diversion of forest land for non-forest purpose, Central Government stipulates conditions that amounts shall be realised from the user agencies to undertake compensatory afforestation and such other activities related to conservation and development of forests, to mitigate impact of diversion of forest land.
Source: Shankar page no: 314
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Cartagena Protocol” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety is an additional agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
- The Protocol establishes procedures for regulating the import and export of LMOs from one country to another.
- The Protocol also requires Parties to ensure that LMOs being shipped from one country to another are handled, packaged and transported in a safe manner.
Source: Shankar page no: 327
Incorrect
The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety is an additional agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
- The Protocol establishes procedures for regulating the import and export of LMOs from one country to another.
- The Protocol also requires Parties to ensure that LMOs being shipped from one country to another are handled, packaged and transported in a safe manner.
Source: Shankar page no: 327
Organisations conventions and related– 2020 and Before that
Organisations conventions and related
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWho among the following has released the EnviStats India 2020 report?
Correct
EnviStats – India 2020 has been released by the National Statistical Office, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation.
The report contains statistical information about the condition of the environment – climate, water and wetlands, geology and geography, soil and land, forests and biodiversity, and air and water quality. It also provides data about the availability and use of minerals, energy, land, crops, livestock and water as well as air and water pollution and solid waste management.Incorrect
EnviStats – India 2020 has been released by the National Statistical Office, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation.
The report contains statistical information about the condition of the environment – climate, water and wetlands, geology and geography, soil and land, forests and biodiversity, and air and water quality. It also provides data about the availability and use of minerals, energy, land, crops, livestock and water as well as air and water pollution and solid waste management. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWho among the following has recently released the “Elephants, Not commodities” Report?
Correct
The third edition of the report, ‘Elephants. Not commodities’, was released on World Elephant Day (12 Aug) by World Animal Protection, an international non-profit animal welfare organization. It compares research spanning a decade into elephant tourism, assessing venues across Thailand, India, Laos, Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Malaysia.
According to the report, India is home to the second highest number, after Thailand, of elephants used in tourism in Asia, and of the 21 venues housing 509 elephants, the report found 45% (225) of the elephants were kept in severely inadequate conditions.Incorrect
The third edition of the report, ‘Elephants. Not commodities’, was released on World Elephant Day (12 Aug) by World Animal Protection, an international non-profit animal welfare organization. It compares research spanning a decade into elephant tourism, assessing venues across Thailand, India, Laos, Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Malaysia.
According to the report, India is home to the second highest number, after Thailand, of elephants used in tourism in Asia, and of the 21 venues housing 509 elephants, the report found 45% (225) of the elephants were kept in severely inadequate conditions. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA):
1.It is an initiative of United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) being implemented in India by the NITI Aayog.
2.Its objective is to work on long-term, multi-stakeholder, integrated sectoral strategies to decarbonise transport in Countries in Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA) Project description:
Commissioned by: German Federal Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety (BMU)
Financier: International Climate Initiative (IKI)
Countries: Regional Programme with country components in China, India and Vietnam as well as a regional/global component.
Lead executing agency: China: Ministry of Ecology and Environment, Department of Atmospheric Environment, India: National Institute for Transforming India (NITI Aayog), Vietnam: Ministry of Transport, Department for Environment
Overall term: 2019 to 2024
The programme will be jointly implemented by GIZ, the World Resources Institute (WRI), the International Council on Clean Transportation (ICCT), the International Transport Forum (ITF), Partnership on Sustainable Low Carbon Transport (SLOCAT), Agora Verkehrswende and the Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century (REN21).
The India Component is be implemented by six consortium organizations, all except SLoCaT, it has been launched recently by NITI Aayog.
Statement 2 is correct. In each of the partner countries, the consortium supports the design and information of stakeholder processes and the development of selected climate protection measures.
Its objective is to decarbonise transport through long-term, multi-stakeholder, integrated sectoral strategies in Countries in Asia.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA) Project description:
Commissioned by: German Federal Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety (BMU)
Financier: International Climate Initiative (IKI)
Countries: Regional Programme with country components in China, India and Vietnam as well as a regional/global component.
Lead executing agency: China: Ministry of Ecology and Environment, Department of Atmospheric Environment, India: National Institute for Transforming India (NITI Aayog), Vietnam: Ministry of Transport, Department for Environment
Overall term: 2019 to 2024
The programme will be jointly implemented by GIZ, the World Resources Institute (WRI), the International Council on Clean Transportation (ICCT), the International Transport Forum (ITF), Partnership on Sustainable Low Carbon Transport (SLOCAT), Agora Verkehrswende and the Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century (REN21).
The India Component is be implemented by six consortium organizations, all except SLoCaT, it has been launched recently by NITI Aayog.
Statement 2 is correct. In each of the partner countries, the consortium supports the design and information of stakeholder processes and the development of selected climate protection measures.
Its objective is to decarbonise transport through long-term, multi-stakeholder, integrated sectoral strategies in Countries in Asia. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund is a $150 million multi-donor trust fund (2013-2021) administered by Asian Development Bank under the Urban Financing Partnership Facility.
• It aims to support fast-growing cities in Asia to reduce the risks poor and vulnerable people face from floods, storms or droughts, by helping to better plan and design infrastructure to invest against these impacts.•Recently grant of $5 million from the multi-donor Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund (UCCRTF) will be provided to build climate change resilient infrastructure in Visakhapatnam.
Incorrect
The Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund is a $150 million multi-donor trust fund (2013-2021) administered by Asian Development Bank under the Urban Financing Partnership Facility.
• It aims to support fast-growing cities in Asia to reduce the risks poor and vulnerable people face from floods, storms or droughts, by helping to better plan and design infrastructure to invest against these impacts.•Recently grant of $5 million from the multi-donor Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund (UCCRTF) will be provided to build climate change resilient infrastructure in Visakhapatnam.
- Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Solar Risk Mitigation Initiative (SRMI)” is recently seen in news is launched by which of the following?
Correct
The World Bank has operationalised a Solar Risk Mitigation Initiative (SRMI) with $333 million for 22 African countries.
• The idea was incubated as the Common Risk Mitigation Mechanism by the International Solar Alliance.
• Essentially, the scheme reduces the cost of capital through credit enhancement mechanisms.
• SRMI has given a big push to solar projects in countries like Maldives to start with.
• SRMI is trying to enhance the mechanism both vertically and horizontally.
• Many island countries now want to be covered under the SRMI.
• This unique approach offers technical assistance to help countries develop evidence-based solar targets, implement a sustainable solar program, and maintain robust procurement processes with transaction advisors.Incorrect
The World Bank has operationalised a Solar Risk Mitigation Initiative (SRMI) with $333 million for 22 African countries.
• The idea was incubated as the Common Risk Mitigation Mechanism by the International Solar Alliance.
• Essentially, the scheme reduces the cost of capital through credit enhancement mechanisms.
• SRMI has given a big push to solar projects in countries like Maldives to start with.
• SRMI is trying to enhance the mechanism both vertically and horizontally.
• Many island countries now want to be covered under the SRMI.
• This unique approach offers technical assistance to help countries develop evidence-based solar targets, implement a sustainable solar program, and maintain robust procurement processes with transaction advisors. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding BASIC group:
1.The member countries of the group consist of India, Brazil, South Korea and China.
2. The main objective of the group is to promote industrialization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
BASIC group.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The BASIC group was formed as the result of an agreement signed by the four countries on November 28, 2009. They are a bloc of four large newly industrialized countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and China.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The main objective of the BASIC group is to have a broadly common position on reducing greenhouse gas emissions and raising the massive funds
that are needed to fight climate change.Incorrect
BASIC group.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The BASIC group was formed as the result of an agreement signed by the four countries on November 28, 2009. They are a bloc of four large newly industrialized countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and China.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The main objective of the BASIC group is to have a broadly common position on reducing greenhouse gas emissions and raising the massive funds
that are needed to fight climate change. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD):
1. The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic
resources is one of the objectives of CBD.
2. The countries under CBD had agreed to achieve the Aichi Biodiversity Targets by 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Convention on Biological Diversity is an
international treaty agreed to at the UN Earth Summit in Brazil in 1992.
It has three goals: the conservation of biological diversity; the sustainable use of nature;
and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic science.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the CBD, countries in 2010 agreed to the Aichi Biodiversity
Targets – a group of 20 goals to conserve biodiversity that range from preserving species, to
reducing deforestation by 2020.
Countries had until 2020 to reach the targets, and then move on to create a post-2020
global biodiversity framework. But despite some progress, the targets – which range from
stopping species from extinction to cutting pollution and preserving forests – were not
achieved.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Convention on Biological Diversity is an
international treaty agreed to at the UN Earth Summit in Brazil in 1992.
It has three goals: the conservation of biological diversity; the sustainable use of nature;
and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic science.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the CBD, countries in 2010 agreed to the Aichi Biodiversity
Targets – a group of 20 goals to conserve biodiversity that range from preserving species, to
reducing deforestation by 2020.
Countries had until 2020 to reach the targets, and then move on to create a post-2020
global biodiversity framework. But despite some progress, the targets – which range from
stopping species from extinction to cutting pollution and preserving forests – were not
achieved. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are strategic goal(s) of Aichi Biodiversity Targets?
1. Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming biodiversity across
government and society.
2. Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.
3. To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic
diversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Aichi Biodiversity targets were included in the Strategic Plan for
Biodiversity for the 2011-2020 period adopted by the 10th meeting of the Conference of the
Parties of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The Strategic Plan for Biodiversity includes 20 time-bound, measurable targets to be met
by the year 2020 (Aichi Biodiversity Targets). These targets are classified into five strategic
goals:
Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming
biodiversity across government and society
Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use
Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species
and genetic diversity
Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services
Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge
management and capacity building.Incorrect
The Aichi Biodiversity targets were included in the Strategic Plan for
Biodiversity for the 2011-2020 period adopted by the 10th meeting of the Conference of the
Parties of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The Strategic Plan for Biodiversity includes 20 time-bound, measurable targets to be met
by the year 2020 (Aichi Biodiversity Targets). These targets are classified into five strategic
goals:
Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming
biodiversity across government and society
Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use
Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species
and genetic diversity
Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services
Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge
management and capacity building. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is a flagship publication of which of the
following convention/protocol?Correct
Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
It is a periodic report that summarizes the latest data on the status and trends of
biodiversity and draws conclusions relevant to the further implementation of the
Convention.
GBO-5 released recently provides global summary of progress towards the Aichi
Biodiversity Targets and is based on a range of indicators, research studies and
assessments (in particular the IPBES Global Assessment on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services), as well as the national reports provided by countries on their implementation of
the CBD.
# The fifth edition of Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO-5) is the final report card on progress
against the 20 global biodiversity targets agreed in 2010 with a 2020 deadline, and offers
lessons learned and best practices for getting on track.
# None of the 20 ‘Aichi Biodiversity Targets’ agreed on by national governments through the
United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) have been fully met.Incorrect
Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
It is a periodic report that summarizes the latest data on the status and trends of
biodiversity and draws conclusions relevant to the further implementation of the
Convention.
GBO-5 released recently provides global summary of progress towards the Aichi
Biodiversity Targets and is based on a range of indicators, research studies and
assessments (in particular the IPBES Global Assessment on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services), as well as the national reports provided by countries on their implementation of
the CBD.
# The fifth edition of Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO-5) is the final report card on progress
against the 20 global biodiversity targets agreed in 2010 with a 2020 deadline, and offers
lessons learned and best practices for getting on track.
# None of the 20 ‘Aichi Biodiversity Targets’ agreed on by national governments through the
United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) have been fully met. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Stockholm Convention on
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs):
1. India has ratified the Stockholm Convention but new amendments in various Annexes of the convention cannot be enforced on it unless further ratified by India.
2. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has powers to ratify chemicals under the Convention in respect of domestically regulated POPs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. India had ratified the Stockholm Convention on January 13, 2006 as per Article 25(4), which enabled it to keep itself in a default “opt-out” position such that amendments in various Annexes of the convention cannot be enforced on it unless an instrument of ratification/ acceptance/ approval or accession is explicitly deposited with UN depositary.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Union Cabinet recently delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to Union Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations thereby streamlining the procedure.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. India had ratified the Stockholm Convention on January 13, 2006 as per Article 25(4), which enabled it to keep itself in a default “opt-out” position such that amendments in various Annexes of the convention cannot be enforced on it unless an instrument of ratification/ acceptance/ approval or accession is explicitly deposited with UN depositary.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Union Cabinet recently delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to Union Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations thereby streamlining the procedure. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following organisation has released the ‘State of Climate Services
2020’ report?Correct
World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has recently released the report
titled State of Climate Services 2020 Report: Move from Early Warnings to Early
Action.
As per the report, globally over the past 50 years, some 11,000 disasters, attributed to
weather, climate and water-related hazards, claimed over 2 million lives and cost the world
economy $3.6 trillion.
It also mentions that after Cyclone Pawan made landfall in early December 2019, flooding in
the Horn of Africa created highly favorable breeding conditions for the desert locust. The
region is facing the worst desert locust crisis in over 25 years, and the most serious in 70
years for Kenya. Desert locust swarms are also moving across India, Pakistan and the
Islamic Republic of Iran.
This report highlights progress made in early warning systems (EWS) capacity – and
identifies where and how governments can invest in effective EWS to strengthen countries’
resilience to multiple weather, water and climate-related hazards.Incorrect
World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has recently released the report
titled State of Climate Services 2020 Report: Move from Early Warnings to Early
Action.
As per the report, globally over the past 50 years, some 11,000 disasters, attributed to
weather, climate and water-related hazards, claimed over 2 million lives and cost the world
economy $3.6 trillion.
It also mentions that after Cyclone Pawan made landfall in early December 2019, flooding in
the Horn of Africa created highly favorable breeding conditions for the desert locust. The
region is facing the worst desert locust crisis in over 25 years, and the most serious in 70
years for Kenya. Desert locust swarms are also moving across India, Pakistan and the
Islamic Republic of Iran.
This report highlights progress made in early warning systems (EWS) capacity – and
identifies where and how governments can invest in effective EWS to strengthen countries’
resilience to multiple weather, water and climate-related hazards. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the beach(s) of India have received the Blue flag certification?
1. Rushikonda
2. Golden Beach
3. Radhanagar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Foundation for Environmental Education, Denmark, Blue Flag is an iconic voluntary award for beaches, marinas and sustainable boating tourism operators which is awarded to those that meet and maintain the criterias of a series of stringent environmental, educational, safety and accessibility.
Eight of India’s beaches: Shivrajpur (Dwarka Gujarat), Ghoghla (Diu), Kasarkod and
Padubidri (Karnataka), Kappad (Kerala), Rushikonda (AP), Golden Beach (Odisha) and
Radhanagar (A&N Islands) have been awarded with the eco-label.Incorrect
Foundation for Environmental Education, Denmark, Blue Flag is an iconic voluntary award for beaches, marinas and sustainable boating tourism operators which is awarded to those that meet and maintain the criterias of a series of stringent environmental, educational, safety and accessibility.
Eight of India’s beaches: Shivrajpur (Dwarka Gujarat), Ghoghla (Diu), Kasarkod and
Padubidri (Karnataka), Kappad (Kerala), Rushikonda (AP), Golden Beach (Odisha) and
Radhanagar (A&N Islands) have been awarded with the eco-label. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyIndia is party to which of the following convention/agreement?
1. African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbird Agreement
2. Convention on Migratory Species
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is incorrect. India is neither a party nor a range country of African
Eurasian Migratory Waterbird Agreement.The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA) is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
Developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), AEWA brings together countries and the wider international conservation community in an effort to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range.
Option 2 is correct. India is party to the Convention on Migratory Species. As an environmental treaty of the United Nations, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention.
# World Migratory Bird Day was celebrated by people across the world on Saturday, 10 October with the theme “Birds Connect Our World”.
Incorrect
Option 1 is incorrect. India is neither a party nor a range country of African
Eurasian Migratory Waterbird Agreement.The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA) is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
Developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), AEWA brings together countries and the wider international conservation community in an effort to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range.
Option 2 is correct. India is party to the Convention on Migratory Species. As an environmental treaty of the United Nations, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention.
# World Migratory Bird Day was celebrated by people across the world on Saturday, 10 October with the theme “Birds Connect Our World”.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the State of Global Air 2020 (SOGA
2020) report:
1. It has been published by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
2. India saw an increase in ozone exposure over last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The State of Global Air is collaboration between the
Health Effects Institute and the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation’s Global
Burden of Disease projectStatement 2 is correct. As per the report, Global levels of ozone exposure have been slowly but steadily increasing over the past decade. On average, global exposure to ozone increased from about 47.3 ppb in 2010 to 49.5 ppb in 2019.
Countries in South Asia saw the steepest increase, while some countries in the High- Income, Central Europe, Eastern Europe, Central Asia and East Asia Regions experienced modest declines.
India, for example, experienced an increase of about 17% — from 56.5 ppb (95% UI: 56.3 to 56.6) in 2010 to 66.2 ppb (95% UI: 66.0 to 66.3) in 2019.
# India had third highest ozone exposures globally in 2019 after Qatar and Nepal.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The State of Global Air is collaboration between the
Health Effects Institute and the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation’s Global
Burden of Disease projectStatement 2 is correct. As per the report, Global levels of ozone exposure have been slowly but steadily increasing over the past decade. On average, global exposure to ozone increased from about 47.3 ppb in 2010 to 49.5 ppb in 2019.
Countries in South Asia saw the steepest increase, while some countries in the High- Income, Central Europe, Eastern Europe, Central Asia and East Asia Regions experienced modest declines.
India, for example, experienced an increase of about 17% — from 56.5 ppb (95% UI: 56.3 to 56.6) in 2010 to 66.2 ppb (95% UI: 66.0 to 66.3) in 2019.
# India had third highest ozone exposures globally in 2019 after Qatar and Nepal.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Champions of the Earth award is an initiative of which of the following organisation?
Correct
The UN Environment Programme’s Champions of the Earth award is the UN’s highest environmental honor that recognizes outstanding leaders from government, civil society and the private sector whose actions have a transformative impact on the environment.
Since 2005, Champions of the Earth has recognized 93 laureates, ranging from world leaders to technology inventors. They include 22 world leaders, 57 individuals and 14 groups or organizations.
# The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) recently named seven young scientists, engineers, entrepreneurs and activists from across the globe as its 2020 Young Champions of the Earth.
# The Young Champions of the Earth prize is awarded every year to seven entrepreneurs under the age of 30 with bold ideas for sustainable environmental change.Incorrect
The UN Environment Programme’s Champions of the Earth award is the UN’s highest environmental honor that recognizes outstanding leaders from government, civil society and the private sector whose actions have a transformative impact on the environment.
Since 2005, Champions of the Earth has recognized 93 laureates, ranging from world leaders to technology inventors. They include 22 world leaders, 57 individuals and 14 groups or organizations.
# The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) recently named seven young scientists, engineers, entrepreneurs and activists from across the globe as its 2020 Young Champions of the Earth.
# The Young Champions of the Earth prize is awarded every year to seven entrepreneurs under the age of 30 with bold ideas for sustainable environmental change. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct about “Environmental Performance
Index (EPI)”?
1. It is a joint project of the Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy and The Center for
International Earth Science Information Network (CIESIN).
2. The EPI is released biennially in even-numbered years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Environmental Performance Index.
Statement 1 is correct: The Environmental Performance Index is a joint project of
the Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy and The Center for International
Earth Science Information Network (CIESIN) at Columbia University’s Earth Institute.
The EPI is produced in collaboration with the World Economic Forum (WEF).
Statement 2 is correct: The EPI is released biennially in even-numbered years.Incorrect
Environmental Performance Index.
Statement 1 is correct: The Environmental Performance Index is a joint project of
the Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy and The Center for International
Earth Science Information Network (CIESIN) at Columbia University’s Earth Institute.
The EPI is produced in collaboration with the World Economic Forum (WEF).
Statement 2 is correct: The EPI is released biennially in even-numbered years. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and Ecology“Canberra Convention” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Canberra Convention.
•The Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources is
an international treaty that was adopted at the Conference on the
Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources which met at Canberra,
Australia, 7–20 May 1980.
•It is a multilateral response to concerns that unregulated increases in krill catches
in the Southern Ocean could be detrimental for Antarctic marine ecosystems
particularly for seabirds, seals, whales and fish that depend on krill for food.Incorrect
Canberra Convention.
•The Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources is
an international treaty that was adopted at the Conference on the
Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources which met at Canberra,
Australia, 7–20 May 1980.
•It is a multilateral response to concerns that unregulated increases in krill catches
in the Southern Ocean could be detrimental for Antarctic marine ecosystems
particularly for seabirds, seals, whales and fish that depend on krill for food. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently India, with the help of Bangladesh and Nepal, is engaged in a tough battle
with CITES forum to delist which of the following from the list of threatened
varieties?Correct
India, with the help of Bangladesh and Nepal, is engaged in a tough battle at
the forum for international trade for endangered species to de-list ‘Dalbergia sisoo’,
commonly known as rosewood or sheesham, from the list of threatened varieties in order
to protect the livelihood of handicraft manufacturers and farmers in the Sub-continent.
•The Ministry has submitted a proposal to CITES based on Non Detrimental Finding
(NDF) study carried out by Botanical Survey of India, which shows that Dalbergia
sissoo does not fall into any threatened category and is available in abundance both
in wild and cultivated populations.
•Moreover, the species grows at a very fast rate and has the capacity to become
naturalized outside its native range.Incorrect
India, with the help of Bangladesh and Nepal, is engaged in a tough battle at
the forum for international trade for endangered species to de-list ‘Dalbergia sisoo’,
commonly known as rosewood or sheesham, from the list of threatened varieties in order
to protect the livelihood of handicraft manufacturers and farmers in the Sub-continent.
•The Ministry has submitted a proposal to CITES based on Non Detrimental Finding
(NDF) study carried out by Botanical Survey of India, which shows that Dalbergia
sissoo does not fall into any threatened category and is available in abundance both
in wild and cultivated populations.
•Moreover, the species grows at a very fast rate and has the capacity to become
naturalized outside its native range. - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Shannon-Weiner Index” is related to which of the following?
Correct
Shannon-Wiener index of diversity (information index) a measure derived
from information theories developed by Claude E. Shannon and Norbert Wiener and
published in 1949 by Shannon and Warren Weaver, which is used by ecologists when a
system contains too many individuals for each to be identified and examinedIncorrect
Shannon-Wiener index of diversity (information index) a measure derived
from information theories developed by Claude E. Shannon and Norbert Wiener and
published in 1949 by Shannon and Warren Weaver, which is used by ecologists when a
system contains too many individuals for each to be identified and examined - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the United Nations Environment
Assembly:
1. It is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment, with a universal
membership of all 193 Member States.
2. It meets annually in Nairobi, Kenya, to set priorities for global environmental policies
and develop international environmental law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The United Nations Environment Assembly is the world’s highest-level
decision-making body on the environment, with a universal membership of all 193
Member States.
•The Assembly meets biennially in Nairobi, Kenya, to set priorities for global
environmental policies and develop international environmental law.
•Through its ministerial declaration and resolutions, the Assembly provides
leadership, catalyzes intergovernmental action on the environment, and contributes
to the implementation of the UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
•The UN Environment Assembly is also the governing body of the UN Environment
Programme.Incorrect
The United Nations Environment Assembly is the world’s highest-level
decision-making body on the environment, with a universal membership of all 193
Member States.
•The Assembly meets biennially in Nairobi, Kenya, to set priorities for global
environmental policies and develop international environmental law.
•Through its ministerial declaration and resolutions, the Assembly provides
leadership, catalyzes intergovernmental action on the environment, and contributes
to the implementation of the UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
•The UN Environment Assembly is also the governing body of the UN Environment
Programme. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Earth First!:
- It is a non-profit organization to promote environmental conservation.
- United Nations Environmental Programme, Global environmental Facility and World
Economic Forum are members of Earth First!.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Earth First! was named in 1979 in response to a lethargic, compromising,
and increasingly corporate environmental community.
- Earth First! takes a decidedly different tracks towards environmental issues. We
believe in using all the tools in the tool box, ranging from grassroots organizing and
involvement in the legal process to civil disobedience.
- Earth First! is different from other environmental groups.
- Here are some things to keep in mind about Earth First! and some suggestions for
being an active and effective Earth First!er: First of all, Earth First! is not an
organization, but a movement.
- There are no “members” of Earth First!, only Earth First!ers. It is a belief in
biocentrism, that life of the Earth comes first, and a practice of putting our beliefs
into action.
- While there is broad diversity within Earth First! from animal rights vegans to
wilderness hunting guides, from shrill voices to careful followers of Gandhi, from
whiskey-drinking backwoods riffraff to thoughtful philosophers, from misanthropes
to humanists there is agreement on one thing, the need for action
Incorrect
Earth First! was named in 1979 in response to a lethargic, compromising,
and increasingly corporate environmental community.
- Earth First! takes a decidedly different tracks towards environmental issues. We
believe in using all the tools in the tool box, ranging from grassroots organizing and
involvement in the legal process to civil disobedience.
- Earth First! is different from other environmental groups.
- Here are some things to keep in mind about Earth First! and some suggestions for
being an active and effective Earth First!er: First of all, Earth First! is not an
organization, but a movement.
- There are no “members” of Earth First!, only Earth First!ers. It is a belief in
biocentrism, that life of the Earth comes first, and a practice of putting our beliefs
into action.
- While there is broad diversity within Earth First! from animal rights vegans to
wilderness hunting guides, from shrill voices to careful followers of Gandhi, from
whiskey-drinking backwoods riffraff to thoughtful philosophers, from misanthropes
to humanists there is agreement on one thing, the need for action
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as the financial mechanism for which of the following conventions?
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- Montreal Protocol of Ozone Depleting Substances
- Minamata Convention on Mercury
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Global Environment Facility was established in October 1991 as a $1 billion pilot program in the World Bank to assist in the protection of the global environment and to promote environmental sustainable development.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) unites 183 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while supporting national sustainable development initiatives.
The GEF also serves as the financial mechanism for the following conventions:
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Minamata Convention on Mercury
Incorrect
The Global Environment Facility was established in October 1991 as a $1 billion pilot program in the World Bank to assist in the protection of the global environment and to promote environmental sustainable development.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) unites 183 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while supporting national sustainable development initiatives.
The GEF also serves as the financial mechanism for the following conventions:
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Minamata Convention on Mercury
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the drought forecasting tool box:
1. It was unveiled at 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) of the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
2. It aims to track, assess and deliver relevant information concerning climatic, hydrologic and water supply trends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
‘Drought-forecasting toolbox’ was unveiled at UNCCD COP14 event. The 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) of the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was held in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
It aims to track, assess and deliver relevant information concerning climatic, hydrologic and water supply trends.
It is developed through the close partnership among, UNCCD, World Meteorological Organization (WMO), Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and global bodies.
Incorrect
‘Drought-forecasting toolbox’ was unveiled at UNCCD COP14 event. The 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) of the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was held in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
It aims to track, assess and deliver relevant information concerning climatic, hydrologic and water supply trends.
It is developed through the close partnership among, UNCCD, World Meteorological Organization (WMO), Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and global bodies.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the 1995 Basel Ban Amendment:
1. It is a global waste dumping prohibition.
2. It was ratified by India.
3. It prohibits all hazardous exports from 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia ratified it on September 6, 2019.
Croatia became the 97th country to ratify the ban, which was adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995, to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes, according to Basel Action Network (BAN).
The Ban Amendment prohibits all export of hazardous wastes, including electronic wastes and obsolete ships from 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
However, countries like the US, Canada, Japan, Australia, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, India, Brazil, and Mexico are yet to ratify the ban.
Incorrect
The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia ratified it on September 6, 2019.
Croatia became the 97th country to ratify the ban, which was adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995, to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes, according to Basel Action Network (BAN).
The Ban Amendment prohibits all export of hazardous wastes, including electronic wastes and obsolete ships from 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
However, countries like the US, Canada, Japan, Australia, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, India, Brazil, and Mexico are yet to ratify the ban.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe Biodiversity Finance Initiative – BIOFIN was launched by which of the following institution?
Correct
Available evidence and the decisions adopted by Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) indicate that a significant gap remains in finance for biodiversity management, for countries to drastically scale up their efforts and achieve the 20 Aichi Targets defined in the CBD’s Strategic Plan for 2011-2020.
- A preliminary assessment conducted under the auspices of the High Level Panel on Global Assessment of Resources for Implementing the CBD Strategic Plan for 2011-2020, estimated that the global investment required amounts to between 130 and 440 billion US$ annually.
In this context, UNDP in October 2012 launched the Biodiversity Finance Initiative – BIOFIN, as a new global partnership seeking to address the biodiversity finance challenge in a comprehensive manner – building a sound business case for increased investment in the management of ecosystems and biodiversity, with a particular focus on the needs and transformational opportunities at the national level.
BIOFIN aims to develop a methodology for quantifying the biodiversity finance gap at national level, for improving cost-effectiveness through mainstreaming of biodiversity into national development and sectoral planning, and for developing comprehensive national resource mobilizing strategies.
India’s Vice President Shri Venkaiah Naidu launched India’s Biodiversity Finance Plan on 24th May 2019, during celebrations in Chennai for International Day of Biological Diversity.
Incorrect
Available evidence and the decisions adopted by Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) indicate that a significant gap remains in finance for biodiversity management, for countries to drastically scale up their efforts and achieve the 20 Aichi Targets defined in the CBD’s Strategic Plan for 2011-2020.
- A preliminary assessment conducted under the auspices of the High Level Panel on Global Assessment of Resources for Implementing the CBD Strategic Plan for 2011-2020, estimated that the global investment required amounts to between 130 and 440 billion US$ annually.
In this context, UNDP in October 2012 launched the Biodiversity Finance Initiative – BIOFIN, as a new global partnership seeking to address the biodiversity finance challenge in a comprehensive manner – building a sound business case for increased investment in the management of ecosystems and biodiversity, with a particular focus on the needs and transformational opportunities at the national level.
BIOFIN aims to develop a methodology for quantifying the biodiversity finance gap at national level, for improving cost-effectiveness through mainstreaming of biodiversity into national development and sectoral planning, and for developing comprehensive national resource mobilizing strategies.
India’s Vice President Shri Venkaiah Naidu launched India’s Biodiversity Finance Plan on 24th May 2019, during celebrations in Chennai for International Day of Biological Diversity.
Organisations conventions and related 2
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- Question 1 of 9
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Tropical Forest Alliance:
1. It is global public-private partnership action to realize opportunities based on reduced deforestation and sustainable land use management in tropical forest countries.
2. It is funded and hosted by United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Protecting forests is critical to averting the most dangerous climate change and achieving the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Climate Agreement.
• Avoiding further deforestation could reduce carbon dioxide emissions by three to four billion metric tons per year – the equivalent of taking half the world’s cars off the road.
• Natural climate solutions represent more than 30% of cost effective emissions reductions.
• The Tropical Forest Alliance is a global public-private partnership dedicated to collaborative action to realize sustainable rural development and better growth opportunities based on reduced deforestation and sustainable land use management in tropical forest countries.
• The Alliance includes more than 150 partners representing the private sector, governments, civil society organizations, indigenous peoples groups and multilateral organizations who are committed to reducing tropical deforestation associated with the production of palm oil, soy, beef and pulp and paper.
• TFA is funded by the governments of Norway, the United Kingdom and the Netherlands, Germany, and the Gordon and Betty more Foundation and hosted at the World Economic Forum.Incorrect
Protecting forests is critical to averting the most dangerous climate change and achieving the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Climate Agreement.
• Avoiding further deforestation could reduce carbon dioxide emissions by three to four billion metric tons per year – the equivalent of taking half the world’s cars off the road.
• Natural climate solutions represent more than 30% of cost effective emissions reductions.
• The Tropical Forest Alliance is a global public-private partnership dedicated to collaborative action to realize sustainable rural development and better growth opportunities based on reduced deforestation and sustainable land use management in tropical forest countries.
• The Alliance includes more than 150 partners representing the private sector, governments, civil society organizations, indigenous peoples groups and multilateral organizations who are committed to reducing tropical deforestation associated with the production of palm oil, soy, beef and pulp and paper.
• TFA is funded by the governments of Norway, the United Kingdom and the Netherlands, Germany, and the Gordon and Betty more Foundation and hosted at the World Economic Forum. - Question 2 of 9
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Ramsar sites in India:
1. Ramsar classification of wetlands includes Coastal and Inland wetlands only.
2. All coastal states of India have Ramsar sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct?Correct
The Ramsar Convention signed on February 2, 1971, is one of the oldest inter-governmental accord signed by members countries to preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international importance.
The aim of the Ramsar list is to develop and maintain an international network of wetlands, which are important for the conservation of global biological diversity and for sustaining human life through the maintenance of their ecosystem components, processes and benefits.
The Ramsar Convention has adopted a Ramsar Classification of Wetland Type which includes 42 types, grouped into three categories:
1. Marine and Coastal Wetlands,
2. Inland Wetlands,
3. Human-made Wetlands.
Except Goa and Karnataka all coastal states have Ramsar sites.Incorrect
The Ramsar Convention signed on February 2, 1971, is one of the oldest inter-governmental accord signed by members countries to preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international importance.
The aim of the Ramsar list is to develop and maintain an international network of wetlands, which are important for the conservation of global biological diversity and for sustaining human life through the maintenance of their ecosystem components, processes and benefits.
The Ramsar Convention has adopted a Ramsar Classification of Wetland Type which includes 42 types, grouped into three categories:
1. Marine and Coastal Wetlands,
2. Inland Wetlands,
3. Human-made Wetlands.
Except Goa and Karnataka all coastal states have Ramsar sites. - Question 3 of 9
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES):
1. It is an independent intergovernmental body.
2. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
3. According to the recent IPBES report that around 1 million animal and plant species are now threatened with extinction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
• It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body.
• However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.•A landmark new report from the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the summary of which was approved at the 7th session of the IPBES Plenary, meeting last week (29 April – 4 May) in Paris.
• The Report finds that around 1 million animal and plant species are now threatened with extinction, many within decades, more than ever before in human history.
• To increase the policy-relevance of the Report, the assessment’s authors have ranked, for the first time at this scale and based on a thorough analysis of the available evidence, the five direct drivers of change in nature with the largest relative global impacts so far. These culprits are, in descending order: (1) changes in land and sea use; (2) direct exploitation of organisms; (3) climate change; (4) pollution and (5) invasive alien species.Incorrect
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
• It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body.
• However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.•A landmark new report from the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the summary of which was approved at the 7th session of the IPBES Plenary, meeting last week (29 April – 4 May) in Paris.
• The Report finds that around 1 million animal and plant species are now threatened with extinction, many within decades, more than ever before in human history.
• To increase the policy-relevance of the Report, the assessment’s authors have ranked, for the first time at this scale and based on a thorough analysis of the available evidence, the five direct drivers of change in nature with the largest relative global impacts so far. These culprits are, in descending order: (1) changes in land and sea use; (2) direct exploitation of organisms; (3) climate change; (4) pollution and (5) invasive alien species. - Question 4 of 9
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Sand and Sustainability: Finding new solutions for environmental governance of global sand resources” report is recently in news is released by which of the following?
Correct
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released (May 2019) a report, Sand and Sustainability: Finding new solutions for environmental governance of global sand resources, that highlights a problem that has largely stayed under the radar: sand consumption globally has been increasing and we are extracting it at rates exceeding natural replenishment rates.
• Sand and gravel, the report says, are the second largest natural resources extracted and traded by volume after water, but among the least regulated.
• The report notes that China and India head the list of critical hotspots for sand extraction impacts in rivers, lakes and on coastlines.
• The report suggests better spatial planning and reducing unnecessary construction — including speculative projects or those being done mainly for prestige — thereby making more efficient use of aggregates, investing in in infrastructure maintenance and retrofitting rather than the demolish and rebuild cycle, embracing alternative design and construction methods, even avoiding use of cement and concrete where possible, and using green infrastructure.Incorrect
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released (May 2019) a report, Sand and Sustainability: Finding new solutions for environmental governance of global sand resources, that highlights a problem that has largely stayed under the radar: sand consumption globally has been increasing and we are extracting it at rates exceeding natural replenishment rates.
• Sand and gravel, the report says, are the second largest natural resources extracted and traded by volume after water, but among the least regulated.
• The report notes that China and India head the list of critical hotspots for sand extraction impacts in rivers, lakes and on coastlines.
• The report suggests better spatial planning and reducing unnecessary construction — including speculative projects or those being done mainly for prestige — thereby making more efficient use of aggregates, investing in in infrastructure maintenance and retrofitting rather than the demolish and rebuild cycle, embracing alternative design and construction methods, even avoiding use of cement and concrete where possible, and using green infrastructure. - Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyRecently the “Bangkok declaration” is in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
With Southeast Asia awash in rubbish, from plastic-choked whales to trash-clogged canals, leaders are planning to push through a deal to fight maritime debris at a regional meeting in June 2019.
• Just five Asian countries — China, Indonesia, the Philippines, Vietnam and Thailand — dump more than half of the eight million tonnes of plastic waste that end up in oceans every year, according to a 2017 Ocean Conservancy report.
• The region has come under fire for not doing enough to tackle its mounting trash troubles, with single-use plastic and sub-par waste management adding to the problem.
• Leaders at a weekend meeting of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) are expected to sign a “Bangkok Declaration” on fighting maritime waste — a first of its kind — which promises to “prevent and significantly reduce marine debris”.Incorrect
With Southeast Asia awash in rubbish, from plastic-choked whales to trash-clogged canals, leaders are planning to push through a deal to fight maritime debris at a regional meeting in June 2019.
• Just five Asian countries — China, Indonesia, the Philippines, Vietnam and Thailand — dump more than half of the eight million tonnes of plastic waste that end up in oceans every year, according to a 2017 Ocean Conservancy report.
• The region has come under fire for not doing enough to tackle its mounting trash troubles, with single-use plastic and sub-par waste management adding to the problem.
• Leaders at a weekend meeting of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) are expected to sign a “Bangkok Declaration” on fighting maritime waste — a first of its kind — which promises to “prevent and significantly reduce marine debris”. - Question 6 of 9
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Living Planet Report” is published by which among the following organization?
Correct
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961, working in the field of wilderness preservation, and the reduction of human impact on the environment.
• It was formerly named the World Wildlife Fund, which remains its official name in Canada and the United States.
• WWF aims to “stop the degradation of the planet’s natural environment and to build a future in which humans live in harmony with nature.”
• The Living Planet Report is published every two years by WWF since 1998; it is based on a Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculation.
• In addition, WWF has launched several notable worldwide campaigns including Earth Hour and Debt-for-Nature Swap, and its current work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests, and oceans.Incorrect
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961, working in the field of wilderness preservation, and the reduction of human impact on the environment.
• It was formerly named the World Wildlife Fund, which remains its official name in Canada and the United States.
• WWF aims to “stop the degradation of the planet’s natural environment and to build a future in which humans live in harmony with nature.”
• The Living Planet Report is published every two years by WWF since 1998; it is based on a Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculation.
• In addition, WWF has launched several notable worldwide campaigns including Earth Hour and Debt-for-Nature Swap, and its current work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests, and oceans. - Question 7 of 9
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Prior Informed Consent (PIC)” procedure is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure is followed by Rotterdam Convention and Basel Convention.
The Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure is the mechanism for formally obtaining and disseminating the decisions of importing Parties, as to whether they wish to receive future shipments of those chemicals listed in Annex III of the Convention and for ensuring compliance with these decisions by exporting Parties.
The chemicals listed in Annex III include pesticides and industrial chemicals that have been banned or severely restricted for health or environmental reasons by two or more Parties and which the Conference of the Parties has decided to subject to the PIC procedure.
Incorrect
Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure is followed by Rotterdam Convention and Basel Convention.
The Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure is the mechanism for formally obtaining and disseminating the decisions of importing Parties, as to whether they wish to receive future shipments of those chemicals listed in Annex III of the Convention and for ensuring compliance with these decisions by exporting Parties.
The chemicals listed in Annex III include pesticides and industrial chemicals that have been banned or severely restricted for health or environmental reasons by two or more Parties and which the Conference of the Parties has decided to subject to the PIC procedure.
- Question 8 of 9
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe “Global Deal for Nature (GDN)” is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
In 2017, 49 scientists authored a landmark paper, “An Ecoregion-Based Approach to Protecting Half the Terrestrial Realm” that called for a Global Deal for Nature (GDN) — a companion to the Paris Climate Agreement — to promote increased habitat protection and restoration, national and regional conservation strategies, and the empowerment of indigenous peoples to protect their sovereign lands.
The goal of such a deal would be to protect half the terrestrial realm to halt the extinction crisis while sustaining human livelihoods.
A key concept in the paper is that each of the world’s 846 terrestrial eco-regions needs its own plan shared by the countries whose boundaries overlap its geophysical extent.
In April 2019, many of these scientists published a new paper called “A Global Deal for Nature: Guiding Principles, Milestones, and Targets” that explains why protecting half the Earth is needed, and presents a science-driven plan to save the diversity and abundance of life on Earth.
It builds upon many scientific proposals for protecting key biodiversity areas and the latest climate science, calling for a milestone of at least 30% of lands protected by 2030 with an additional 20% in climate stabilization areas. It is also the first to include land, freshwater, and marine eco-regions in one global plan.
Incorrect
In 2017, 49 scientists authored a landmark paper, “An Ecoregion-Based Approach to Protecting Half the Terrestrial Realm” that called for a Global Deal for Nature (GDN) — a companion to the Paris Climate Agreement — to promote increased habitat protection and restoration, national and regional conservation strategies, and the empowerment of indigenous peoples to protect their sovereign lands.
The goal of such a deal would be to protect half the terrestrial realm to halt the extinction crisis while sustaining human livelihoods.
A key concept in the paper is that each of the world’s 846 terrestrial eco-regions needs its own plan shared by the countries whose boundaries overlap its geophysical extent.
In April 2019, many of these scientists published a new paper called “A Global Deal for Nature: Guiding Principles, Milestones, and Targets” that explains why protecting half the Earth is needed, and presents a science-driven plan to save the diversity and abundance of life on Earth.
It builds upon many scientific proposals for protecting key biodiversity areas and the latest climate science, calling for a milestone of at least 30% of lands protected by 2030 with an additional 20% in climate stabilization areas. It is also the first to include land, freshwater, and marine eco-regions in one global plan.
- Question 9 of 9
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThe logo of which of the following famous organizations is a Giant Panda?
Correct
The inspiration came from Chi-Chi: a giant panda that had arrived at the London Zoo in the year 1961, when WWF was being created.
Aware of the need for a strong, recognizable symbol that would overcome all language barriers, WWF’s founders agreed that the big, furry animal with her appealing, black-patched eyes would make an excellent logo.
Incorrect
The inspiration came from Chi-Chi: a giant panda that had arrived at the London Zoo in the year 1961, when WWF was being created.
Aware of the need for a strong, recognizable symbol that would overcome all language barriers, WWF’s founders agreed that the big, furry animal with her appealing, black-patched eyes would make an excellent logo.