UPPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 and Paper Analysis: GS Paper 1 and Paper 2

Dear Aspirants,

We are pleased to provide you the UPPSC PCS Prelims 2025, question papers and answer keys. The exam was held in two shifts: GS Paper 1 and GS Paper 2 (CSAT).

You can either download the PDF or scroll below to check your answers and score.

UPPSC Prelims 2025 Overview:

Note: For each wrong answer, 1/3 marks will be deducted. Paper 2 (CSAT) is of a qualifying nature, with a minimum requirement of 33% marks.

Check GS Paper I Answers and Detailed Explanation below  :

Q.1) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert and semi-desert

Reason (R): Northern Australia is situated in the temperate zone.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: The interior of Australia, often called the “Outback,” is mostly covered by deserts and semi-arid plains such as the Great Victoria Desert, Great Sandy Desert, Gibson Desert, and Simpson Desert. This is because the interior lies far from the sea, receives very little rainfall (less than 250 mm annually), and is affected by descending dry air of the subtropical high-pressure belt.

Reason (R) is false: Northern Australia actually lies in the tropical zone, not the temperate zone. It experiences a tropical monsoon climate, influenced by the monsoon winds coming from the Timor and Arafura Seas. The temperate zone lies in southern Australia (including parts of New South Wales, Victoria, and Tasmania).

Hence, the correct answer is: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Source:https://www.weatherzone.com.au/news/desert-climate-in-australia-australias-unique-arid-ecosystems/1659374

https://www.oneearth.org/bioregions/greater-australian-interior-desert-shrublands-au7/

Q.2) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India is the second largest mobile gaming market in the world.

Reason (R): There are more than 950 million internet users in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: India is in fact the second largest gaming market in the world.

Reason (R) is true: As of March 2024, India had approximately 954 million internet subscribers, marking a dramatic rise from around 251 million in 2014. This growth reflects a compound annual growth rate of over 14%, driven by nationwide digital initiatives and infrastructure expansion.

Reason (R) does not explain the assertion (A): More than 950 million mobile internet users does not directly explain India being the second largest gaming market in the world. The gaming market depends upon various other factors.

Therefore, the correct answer is:  Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/66-of-gamers-in-india-are-from-non-metro-cities-lumikai-annual-report/article68856986.ece

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2064942

https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/top-10-listing/top-10-gaming-countries-2025-by-revenue-india-rank-10218791/

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2040566

Q.3) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki.

Reason (R): Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: Babur wrote his autobiography Tuzuk-i-Baburi (also known as Baburnama) in Chagatai Turkish, his mother tongue and the literary language of the Timurids.

Reason (R) is false: The official language of the Mughal court was Persian, not Turki. Persian continued to be the administrative and cultural language throughout most of the Mughal Empire.

Hence, (A) is true, but (R) is false

 Source:https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/social-science/tuzuk-i-babari/

https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20284/1/Unit-31.pdf

Tamil Nadu Old SCERT, Class XI, Chapter: 20 – The Mughal Empire, Page: 222.

https://archive.org/details/BabarNama

Q.4) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer by using the code given below the lists.

Code:

    A B C D

a) 4 1 2 3

b) 1 4 3 2

c) 1 4 2 3

d) 4 1 3 2

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

4. Appalachian — 4. United States of America

The Appalachian coalfield is one of the oldest and richest coal-producing regions in the world. It stretches from Pennsylvania in the north to Alabama in the south. This region has high-quality bituminous coal and played a major role in powering the industrial growth of the United States.

1. Lancashire — 1. England

The Lancashire coalfield is located in northwestern England. It was extremely important during the Industrial Revolution, supplying coal to factories, railways, and homes in cities like Manchester and Liverpool.

2. Ruhr — 2. Germany

The Ruhr coalfield lies in western Germany and is one of Europe’s most industrialized regions. It has abundant coal and iron deposits, which led to the development of major steel, chemical, and engineering industries in the area

3. Kuzbass (Kuznetsk Basin) — 3. Russia

The Kuzbass coalfield is situated in southwestern Siberia. It is the largest coal-producing region in Russia and a major center for heavy industries such as steel and power generation.

Hence, the Correct Code is: (a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

 Source:

Fundamentals of Human Geography, Class XII, Chapter: 6 Secondary Activities, Page: 51, 52.

https://nmrs.org.uk/mines-map/coal-mining-in-the-british-isles/lancashire-coalfield/

https://thecoalhub.com/coal-production-in-kuzbass-down-6-1-in-jan-jun-2025.html

Q.5) With reference to ‘Ecosystem’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Green plants in, terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves.
2. Around 10% of organic matter reaches to the next higher level of consumers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Green plants (producers) in terrestrial ecosystems capture roughly 1% of the incident solar energy that falls on their leaves through photosynthesis. This energy is converted into chemical energy (biomass).

Statement 2 is correct: According to the 10% law of energy transfer proposed by Raymond Lindeman, only about 10% of the energy (or organic matter) from one trophic level is transferred to the next higher level. The rest is lost as heat, used in metabolic processes, or remains unconsumed.

 Source: Class X Scient Ncert, Chapter: 15 Our Environment, Page: 259.

https://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/energy-flow-and-10-percent-rule/5th-grade/

https://bepclots.bihar.gov.in/ptyrdimu/2021/04/Class-12-Biology-NCERT-Chapter-14.pdf

(https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=13-16)

Q.6) Which of the following events took place in the year 1911?

1. Partition of Bengal revoked
2. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
3. Lucknow pact between Congress and Muslim League

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct: Partition of Bengal revoked – 1911

• The Partition of Bengal was carried out by Lord Curzon in 1905, dividing Bengal into two parts — Eastern Bengal and Assam, and Western Bengal — supposedly for administrative convenience.
• However, the move was seen by Indian nationalists as an attempt to divide Bengal on religious lines (Hindus and Muslims) and weaken the growing national movement.
• The decision led to widespread protests, the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908), and strong public resentment.
• In response to sustained opposition, King George V announced the revocation of Bengal’s partition in 1911 during the Delhi Durbar.

Option 2 is correct:Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi – 1911

During the Delhi Durbar held in December 1911, attended by King George V and Queen Mary, it was also declared that the capital of British India would be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.

Option 3 is incorrect: Lucknow Pact between Congress and Muslim League – 1916

• The Lucknow Pact was concluded in 1916 at the joint session of the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League held in Lucknow.
• The session was presided over by C Mazumdar.
• Under this pact, both organizations agreed to jointly demand constitutional reforms and to work together for Indian self-government.

Hence, the correct answer is: (a) 1 and 2

Source: A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 12, Era of Militant Nationalism (1905–1909), Page: 285, Chapter: 12, First World War and Nationalist Response, Page: 317.

https://www.indiatoday.in/india/photo/delhi-turns-366644-2011-11-15

https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/delhi-capital-british-india

http://indianculture.gov.in/node/2816101

https://www.thehindu.com/features/kids/the-state-and-people-were-divided-to-weaken-the-nationalist-movement-but-it-wasnt-to-be-so/article7765842.ece

http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf (PDF PAGE NO. 345)

Q.7) Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Poona Pact
2. End of Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
4. Second Round Table Conference

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 3, 4, 2, 1

b) 4, 3, 1, 2

c) 4, 3, 2, 1

d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Correct chronological order of the events:

1. Gandhi–Irwin Pact (March 1931):

This pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, leading to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement and Gandhi’s participation in the Second Round Table Conference.

2. Second Round Table Conference (September–December 1931):

Gandhi attended this conference in London as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress, but it ended without any substantial agreement.

3. Poona Pact (September 1932):

Signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, this pact provided for a single Hindu electorate with reserved seats for the Depressed Classes instead of separate electorates as announced earlier in the Communal Award.

4. End of Civil Disobedience Movement (April 1934):

After intermittent phases, Gandhi formally called off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1934 due to lack of mass enthusiasm and government repression.

Hence, the correct order is: 3. Gandhi–Irwin Pact → 4. Second Round Table Conference → 1. Poona Pact → 2. End of Civil Disobedience Movement

 Source:

A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 19, Civil Disobedience Movement and Round Table Conferences, Page: 385

https://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/gandhi-irwin-pact-and-krishna-district

https://indianculture.gov.in/node/2835330

http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf

https://www.indianculture.gov.in/indian-round-table-conference-second-session-7th-september-1931-1st-december-1931-proceedings

http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf (End of Civil Disobedience Movement PDF PAGE 421)

Q.8) As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest over more than 20% of their total area?

1. Bahraich
2. Chandauli
3. Shravasti

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, district-wise forest cover data for Uttar Pradesh shows:

• Bahraich → Forest cover: 10.15% of its total geographical area
• Chandauli → Forest cover: 21.63% of its total geographical area
• Shravasti → Forest cover: 20.95% of its total geographical area

Hence, both Chandauli and Shravasti have forest cover exceeding 20% of their total area.

Therefore, the Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3

 Source: https://fsi.nic.in/uploads/isfr2023/isfr_book_eng-vol-2_2023.pdf  Page: 299.

Q.9) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 2, 3 and 4

c) Only 1, 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is incorrect: Maolong – Meghalaya (not Arunachal Pradesh)

The Maolong coalfield is not in Arunachal Pradesh; it is located in Meghalaya, specifically in the Jaintia Hills region. Meghalaya is known for its small-scale coal mining areas such as Maolong, Ladrymbai, and Cherrapunjee.

 Pair 2 is correct: Raniganj – West Bengal

The Raniganj coalfield is located in the Asansol-Durgapur region of West Bengal. It is the oldest coalfield in India, where mining began in 1774. It forms part of the Damodar Valley coal belt.

 Pair 3 is correct: Ramgarh – Jharkhand

The Ramgarh coalfield lies in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand. It is one of the important coal mining areas of the Damodar Valley region, contributing significantly to Jharkhand’s coal production.

 Pair 4 is correct: Talcher – Odisha

The Talcher coalfield is located in Angul district of Odisha. It is one of the largest coalfields in India, containing large reserves of both thermal and metallurgical coal.

Hence, the correct answer is: (b) Only 2, 3 and 4

 Source:https://coal.gov.in/sites/default/files/2020-01/allocated161211.pdf

https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=175390

https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/316courseE/ch23.pdf (Pair 2 and 4)

https://www.newsonair.gov.in/4-dead-in-abandoned-coal-mine-collapse-in-jharkhands-ramgarh-district/ (pair 3)

https://mlsu.ac.in/econtents/1895_Distribution%20of%20Coal%20&%20Petroleum%20in%20India.pdf (Pair 1)

Q.10) With reference to Delhi Government’s Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into manure.
2. The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

The ‘Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme’ is an initiative of the Delhi Government aimed at tackling the problem of stubble (paddy residue) burning in and around Delhi by promoting an eco-friendly solution developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) — the ‘Pusa Bio-decomposer’.

Statement 1 is correct: Under the Delhi government’s programme, the Bio-decomposer solution is sprayed free of cost on farmlands to help farmers manage stubble in-situ without burning it. The Delhi government bears the entire cost of preparation and spraying, so that farmers face no financial burden.

 Statement 2 is correct: The Pusa Bio-decomposer is a microbial consortium of seven fungal species developed by IARI, New Delhi. These fungi produce enzymes such as cellulase, ligninase, and pectinase, which help break down the tough lignin and cellulose present in paddy straw.

 Source:https://sdgknowledgehub.undp.org.in/wp-content/uploads/2023/04/ENVIRONMENT_DELHI_AGRICULTURE-UNIT_BIODECOMPOSER-SOLUTION.pdf

https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/delhi-govt-to-give-free-bio-decomposer-spray-to-combat-stubble-burning-124091101142_1.html

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/bio-decomposer-to-be-sprayed-over-farms-to-prevent-bad-air/article68631422.ece

Q.11) With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of a new All India Service.
2. The resolution for creation of a new All India Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-third majority of the total members of the house.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 312(1) of the Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha declares by resolution, supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more new All India Services, Parliament may by law create such services.

 Statement 2 is incorrect: The resolution in Rajya Sabha does not require a two-thirds majority of the total membership; it requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

 Source:

Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS, Chapter: 13, FEDERAL STRUCTURE OF INDIAN POLITY, Page: 211

https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (Article 312)

Q.12) Match List – I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

   A B C D

a) 3 2 4 1

b) 3 2 1 4

c) 2 3 4 1

d) 2 3 1 4

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

2. Kabir — 2. Swami Ramananda

Kabir was a prominent Bhakti saint of the 15th century.

He was a disciple of Swami Ramananda, a Vaishnava saint of the Ramanuja tradition.

Ramananda’s teachings of devotion to one God influenced Kabir’s philosophy of nirguna bhakti (devotion to the formless God).

3. Amir Khusrau — 3. Nizamuddin Auliya

Amir Khusrau was a great poet, musician, and scholar of the Delhi Sultanate period.

He was the most beloved disciple of the Sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti order.

Khusrau’s poetry and music reflected the spiritual teachings of his Pir (master) and deep devotion to him.

4. Surdas — 4. Vallabhacharya

Surdas, a 16th-century poet-saint, is best known for his devotional songs dedicated to Lord Krishna.

He was a disciple of Vallabhacharya, who founded the Pushti Marg (Path of Grace) sect of Vaishnavism.

Under Vallabhacharya’s guidance, Surdas composed the famous Sursag

1. Mardana — 1. Guru Nanak Dev

Bhai Mardana was a Muslim musician and a close disciple and companion of Guru Nanak Dev, the founder of Sikhism.

He accompanied Guru Nanak on his travels (Udasis) and played the rabab (string instrument) while Guru Nanak sang hymns.

Hence, the correct answer is: (c) 2 3 4 1

 Source: Tamil Nadu New SCERT, Class XI, Unit- 13- Cultural Syncretism: Bhakti Movement in India, Page: 193.

https://scroll.in/article/903140/in-the-story-of-guru-nanak-and-bhai-mardan-lies-the-essential-message-of-sikhism

https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/life-sant-kabir-das

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/brahmin-bhakt-of-14th-century-sufi-mystic-poet-calls-himself-khusro/articleshow/96490537.cms

Q.13) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields returns in the future.

Reason (R): Education and health make people more productive.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: Human capital refers to the skills, knowledge, and health possessed by individuals. Investing in education, training, and healthcare enhances these attributes, leading to better job prospects, higher income, and economic growth over time.

 Reason (R) is true: Educated individuals tend to be more skilled and efficient, while healthy individuals can work more consistently and effectively. Together, these factors directly improve productivity.

Link between A and R:

The reason clearly explains the assertion. Productivity gains from education and health are the returns on human capital investment.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?keec1=4-10

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec318NEW/318_Economics_Eng/318_Economics_Eng_Lesson3.pdf (page 33)

https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/ncert-books/class-11/economics/indian-economic-development/chapter-04-human-capital-formation-in-india/

Q.14) Match List – I with List – II and choose the N correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

   A B C D

a) 4 2 3 1

b) 2 4 1 3

c) 2 4 3 1

d) 4 2 1 3

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

2. Nayara Refinery – 2. Gujarat

Nayara Energy (formerly Essar Oil) operates one of India’s largest private sector refineries at Vadinar in Jamnagar district, Gujarat.
It has a refining capacity of about 20 million tonnes per annum (MTPA).

4. Manali Refinery – 4. Tamil Nadu

The Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited (CPCL) operates the Manali Refinery located near Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
It has a capacity of around 10.5 MTPA and mainly caters to the southern region’s fuel requirements.

1. Numaligarh Refinery – 1. Assam

• The Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL), often called the “Assam Accord Refinery”, is located in Golaghat district, Assam.
• It was set up to promote industrial and economic development in the Northeast and has a capacity of 3 MTPA (being expanded to 9 MTPA).

3. Tatipaka Refinery – 3. Andhra Pradesh

• Operated by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), the Tatipaka Refinery is a small refinery located in East Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh.
• It has a capacity of 066 MTPA, mainly meeting local petroleum needs.

Hence, the correct answer is: (b) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

 Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/ongcs-tatipaka-refinery-begins-naphtha-export/article23092517.ece

https://www.nrl.co.in/Profile

https://www.cpcl.co.in/business/refinery/manali-refinery/

https://www.nayaraenergy.com/vadinar-refinery

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2096817

Q.15) Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security?

1. Availability
2. Accessibility
3. Affordability
4. Accountability

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 4

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The four dimensions of food security as recognized by global institutions like FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization) are:

1. Availability – Sufficient quantities of food available on a consistent basis
2. Accessibility – Having adequate resources to obtain appropriate foods for a nutritious diet
3. Utilization – Proper biological use of food, requiring a diet with sufficient energy and nutrients, clean water, sanitation, and healthcare
4. Stability – Having access to adequate food at all times, without risk of losing access due to shocks

Affordability is actually considered part of the “Accessibility” dimension (economic access to food).

Accountability is not a dimension of food security – it relates to governance and institutional frameworks.

Hence, “Accountability” is not a dimension of food security.

 Source: https://www.fao.org/4/al936e/al936e00.pdf

https://www.worldbank.org/en/topic/agriculture/brief/food-security-update/what-is-food-security

Q.16) With reference to ‘Silver articles’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air.
2. It happens due to the coating of silver sulphide.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Silver articles do turn black over time when exposed to air. This is a common observation due to a chemical reaction with atmospheric substances.

 Statement 2 is correct: The black coating forms because silver reacts with hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) present in the air, forming silver sulphide (Ag₂S). This compound is black in color and causes the tarnishing of silver.

This process is known as silver tarnishing, and it’s a classic example of a chemical reaction between a metal and atmospheric gases.

Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/22426/1/Unit-14.pdf

https://www.canada.ca/en/conservation-institute/services/preventive-conservation/guidelines-collections/metal-objects/understanding-silver-tarnish.html

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec313NEW/313labmanualnew.pdf

Q.17) Match List – 1 with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:

   A B C D

a) 1 3 4 2

b) 3 1 2 4

c) 3 1 4 2

d) 1 3 2 4

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

1. Chandrayaan-3 → 14 July 2023

• Launch Vehicle: LVM3-M4
• Launched From: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
• Objective: To demonstrate soft landing capability on the lunar surface and rover mobility.
• Significance:
  Made India the first country to land near the Moon’s south pole.
  India became the fourth nation (after the US, USSR, and China) to achieve a soft landing on the Moon.

1. Aditya-L1 → 02 September 2023

• Launch Vehicle: PSLV-C57
• Launched From: Satish Dhawan Space Centre
• Objective: India’s first solar mission — to study the Sun’s corona, chromosphere, and solar wind from the Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million km from Earth.

1. INSAT-3DS → 17 February 2024

• Launch Vehicle: GSLV F14
• Launched From: Sriharikota
• Objective: To provide advanced meteorological observations, data relay, and search and rescue services.

1. RLV-LEX-01 (Reusable Launch Vehicle – Landing Experiment) → 02 April 2023

• Location: Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga, Karnataka
• Objective: To demonstrate the autonomous landing capability of a reusable space vehicle, a key step toward building cost-effective, reusable space launch systems.

Hence, the correct answer is: (b) 3 1 2 4

 Source:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1945483

https://www.isro.gov.in/Aditya_L1_Mission_Completion_of_First_Halo_Orbit.html#:~:text=The%20Aditya%2DL1%20mission%20is,orbit%20on%20January%206%2C%202024.

https://www.isro.gov.in/GSLV-F14_INSAT-3DS_mission.html

https://www.isro.gov.in/Reusable_launch_vehicle_autonomous_landing_mission.html?timeline=timeline

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/chandrayaan-3-launch-scheduled-for-july-14-at-235-pm/article67049236.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isros-aditya-l1-successfully-placed-in-a-halo-orbit-around-l1-point/article67712914.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isros-aditya-l1-successfully-placed-in-a-halo-orbit-around-l1-point/article67712914.ece

https://www.isro.gov.in/INSAT-3DS_imaging_Earth.html

https://www.isro.gov.in/Reusable_launch_vehicle_autonomous_landing_mission.html?timeline=timeline

Q.18) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

  A B C D

a) 2 1 3 4

b) 2 4 3 1

c) 1 2 4 3

d) 3 4 1 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

 The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House of Parliament, representing the states and Union Territories of India.
The total strength is 245 members, of which:

• 233 are elected by the Legislative Assemblies of states and UTs using proportional representation by single transferable vote, and
• 12 are nominated by the President for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social service.

The allocation of seats to each state is based on its population, ensuring proportional representation — larger states like Uttar Pradesh (31 seats) have more members, while smaller states like Sikkim (1 seat) have fewer.

1. Maharashtra – 19 seats

Maharashtra, being one of India’s most populous and industrially advanced states, has 19 representatives in the Rajya Sabha.

1. Karnataka – 12 seats
   Karnataka has 12 seats in the Rajya Sabha.
2. Bihar – 16 seats

Bihar, a densely populated state in eastern India, has 16 members in the Rajya Sabha.

1. Tamil Nadu – 18 seats
   Tamil Nadu, a major southern state with a large population and strong political presence, has 18 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

Hence, the Correct code is: (d) 3 4 1 2

Source: https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (Fourth Schedule page no. 273-274)

https://www.eci.gov.in/term-of-the-houses

Q.19) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time and countries.

Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary across regions and overtime.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) iş not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: The poverty line is not a fixed universal standard. It varies depending on the economic conditions, cost of living, and societal norms of different countries and changes over time due to inflation, development, and policy shifts.

Reason (R) is true: What constitutes “basic needs” (food, shelter, clothing, education, healthcare) is context-dependent. For example, access to internet or sanitation may be considered essential in one region but not in another.

Link between A and R:

The variation in basic needs directly influences how poverty is defined and measured. Hence, R correctly explains A.

 Therefore, the correct answer is: d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?iess2=3-4

(NCERT CLASS IX ECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge)

https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/ncert-books/class-09/social-science/economics/chapter-03-poverty-as-a-challenge/

Q.20) With reference to Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Yuva Puraskar was announced in 23 Indian languages. 2
2. There is no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri this year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The Sahitya Akademi announced the Yuva Puraskar 2025 for 23 Indian languages. The award honours young writers under the age of 35 for their outstanding literary contributions. Each award carries a cash prize of ₹50,000 and a copper plaque. Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 2 is correct: In 2025, the Sahitya Akademi did not confer the Yuva Puraskar in the Dogri language category, as mentioned in the official award list released by the Akademi.

 Source: https://sahitya-akademi.gov.in/pdf/Pressrelease_YP-2025.pdf

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sahitya-akademi-yuva-puraskar-announced-for-23-writers-and-bal-puraskar-for-24-authors/article69709654.ece

Q.21) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In the Himalayan mountains different types of vegetation are found.

Reason (R): In the Himalayas, there are variations in climate with change in altitude.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: The Himalayas show a great diversity of vegetation types ranging from tropical forests at the foothills, temperate forests at middle altitudes, coniferous forests at higher altitudes, and alpine grasslands and tundra near the snow line. Thus, vegetation changes distinctly as we move upward through the mountain slopes.

 Reason (R) is true: In the Himalayas, temperature decreases and precipitation patterns change with altitude. For example, lower altitudes experience a warm and humid tropical climate, while higher altitudes have cold and dry conditions. These variations in temperature, rainfall, and soil types result in distinct climatic zones.

Link between A and R:

The difference in vegetation at various heights is a direct outcome of climatic variations with altitude. As altitude increases, the climate becomes cooler and less hospitable, causing a gradual shift in plant types suited to those conditions.

Therefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).

Hence, the correct answer is (d).

Source:

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy105.pdf  Page: 45.

Q.22) With reference to ‘Carrying Capacity of Environment’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation.
2. Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of the environment.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: For environmental sustainability, the rate of resource extraction must remain below the rate of resource regeneration (for renewable resources like forests, groundwater, etc.).

If extraction exceeds regeneration, resources deplete and become unsustainable.

Statement 2 is correct: The environment can naturally absorb and neutralize a certain amount of waste through processes like decomposition, dilution, and recycling.

If waste generation exceeds this capacity, pollution and environmental degradation occur.

Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keec107.pdf

https://cuet.iitk.ac.in/sathee-cuet/student-corner/ncert-books/class-11/economics/indian-economic-development/chapter-07-environment-and-sustainable-development/

Q.23) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) Only 1, 2 and 3

b) Only 4

c) Only 3 and 4

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct: Bushman — Kalahari Desert

The Bushmen, also known as the San people, are one of the oldest tribal groups in the world. They inhabit the Kalahari Desert region, which extends across Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa. They are known for their hunting and gathering lifestyle and deep knowledge of desert ecology.

Pair 2 is correct: Eskimo — Northern Canada

The Eskimos, more accurately called the Inuit, live in the Arctic regions of Northern Canada, Alaska, and Greenland. They have adapted to extremely cold climates and traditionally live by hunting seals, whales, and fish.

 Pair 3 is correct: Pygmy — Congo Basin

The Pygmies are indigenous forest-dwelling people who live in the Congo Basin of Central Africa, mainly in countries like the Democratic Republic of Congo, Cameroon, and the Central African Republic. They are known for their short stature and deep dependence on the forest ecosystem.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Masai — East Africa (not West Africa)

The Masai tribe actually inhabits East Africa, not West Africa. They are found mainly in Kenya and northern Tanzania. The Masai are semi-nomadic pastoralists, famous for their cattle herding, traditional red attire (shuka), and distinctive customs.

 Source: https://www.survivalinternational.org/tribes/bushmen

https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/who-are-the-eskimo-people-where-do-they-live.html

https://www.fao.org/4/w1033e/w1033e03.htm

https://www.masaimara.travel/maasai-tribe-facts.php

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/Kalahari-bushmens-legal-victory/article15539838.ece

https://gacbe.ac.in/pdf/ematerial/18BGE43C-U2.pdf

https://www.siyabona.com/maasai-tribe-east-africa.html

Q.24) Which of the following pairs of Part of Indian Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctly matched?

1. Part IV A – Fundamental Duties
2. Part VI – The States
3. Part XI – The Municipalities

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct: Part IV-A – Fundamental Duties

• Introduced by: 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• Articles Covered: Article 51A.
• Content: Lists 11 Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens, inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR.
• Purpose: To remind citizens of their moral obligations to help promote the spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.

Pair 2 is correct:Part VI – The States

• Articles Covered: Articles 152 to 237.
• Content: Deals with the governance structure of the States, including the Governor, State Legislature, High Courts, and State Public Service Commission.
• Purpose: Provides a framework for the working of the State Governments within the federal structure of India.

 Pair 3 is incorrect: Part XI – Relation between Union and States

• Articles Covered: Articles 245 to 263.
• Content: Actually deals with the Relations between the Union and the States — legislative, administrative, and executive relations.
• Municipalities are not covered here; they are covered under Part IX-A (Articles 243P to 243ZG), which was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Hence, this pair is not correctly matched.

 Source: https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf

 Q.25) Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Pabna
2. Indigo
3. Kuka
4. Sanyasi

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 4, 3, 2, 1

b) 3, 4, 1, 2

c) 3, 4, 2, 1

d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

1. Sanyasi Rebellion (c. 1763–1800):

• Region: Bengal.
• Nature: Revolt by Hindu Sanyasis and Muslim Fakirs against the East India Company’s oppressive taxation and restrictions on pilgrimage after the Battle of Buxar (1764).
• Significance: Considered one of the earliest resistance movements against British colonial rule.

2. Kuka (Namdhari) Movement (1872):

• Region:
• Leader: Bhagat Jawahar Mal and Baba Ram Singh.

3. Indigo Revolt (1859–1860):

• Region: Bengal (especially Nadia district).
• Cause: Peasants protested against coercive practices of European indigo planters who forced them to cultivate indigo at low rates.
  Outcome: The revolt spread widely and gained support from Indian intelligentsia, forcing planters to retreat from indigo cultivation.

4. Pabna Revolt (1873–1876):

• Region: Pabna district, Bengal (now in Bangladesh).
• Cause: Agrarian unrest due to high rents, illegal cesses, and eviction threats by zamindars.
• Nature: Non-violent and organized movement, forming peasant unions and demanding tenant rights.
• Outcome: Influenced the Bengal Tenancy Act, 1885, which improved tenant protections.

Hence, the Correct Chronological Order is: Sanyasi (1763–1800) → Indigo (1859–60) →Kuka (1872)  →Pabna (1873–76)

Therefore, the Correct Answer is: (d) 4, 2, 3, 1

 Source: A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 6, People’s Resistance Against British Before 1857, Page: 137 and Chapter: 31, Peasant Movements 1857–1947 , Page: 611

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess203.pdf

http://indianculture.gov.in/museum-paintings/sanyasi-rebellion-1763-1800

https://www.govtgirlsekbalpur.com/Study_Materials/History/PAPER1_DSE-A1_SEM-5_MOD6_Note-3.pdf

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/what-is-the-history-of-the-kuka-martyrs-day-9784916/

Q.26) Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. First Anglo-Mysore War
2. Second Anglo-French War
3. First Anglo-Sikh War
4. First Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 1, 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 2, 4, 3

(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Option 2: The Anglo- French rivalry in India took the form of three Carnatic Wars.The Second Anglo-French War or the Second Carnatic War was fought from 1749 to 1754. It was the outcome of the diplomatic efforts of Dupleix, the French Governor-General in India. It came to an end with the Treaty of Pondicherry.

Option 1: The First Anglo-Mysore War began in 1767. The War was fought from 1767 to 1769. It was fought between the ruler of Mysore Hyder Ali and the British East India Company. The War concluded with the Treaty of Madras that was signed between Haidar Ali and the British on April 4, 1769.

Option 4: The First Anglo-Afghan War was fought from 1839-1842. It was fought between the British East India Company (EIC) and the Emirate of Afghanistan. The campaign ended with Britain withdrawing from Afghanistan.

Option 3: The First Anglo-Sikh war was fought between the Sikhs and the British from 1845 to 1846. The First Anglo Sikh War began with the Battle of Mudki on December 18, 1845. The conflict ended with the British taking partial control of the Sikh territories. The War forced the Sikhs to sign a humiliating Treaty of Lahore on March 8, 1846.

So, the correct sequence is 2-1-4-3.

Source:

A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir Spectrum Publication – Page 45, 96, 116, 130

https://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/beginnings-first-anglo-mysore-war-1767

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?hess2=2-10

https://www.thehindu.com/features/kids/When-Multan-fell/article14012149.ece

http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf

Q.27) The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries ?

1. Mongolia
2. China
3. Russia
4. Kazakhstan

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1, 2 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

The Gobi Desert spans across China and Mongolia. It is Asia’s largest desert and is spread over nearly 1,300,000 square kilometres. The desert is spread over Northern China and Southern Mongolia.

 Source:

World Atlas

Certificate Physical and Human Geography by GC Leong- Page 134

https://www.thehindu.com/life-and-style/travel/crossing-the-gobi-desert-in-six-days/article29101674.ece

https://geographical.co.uk/science-environment/geo-explainer-the-gobi-desert

Q.28) Which of the following two are the major constituents of Bio-gas ?

1. Methane
2. Butane
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing predominantly methane) produced by microbial activity. It is a renewable and sustainable form of energy derived from the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter. Biogas is a mixture primarily composed of methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). The main components of biogas are methane (about 50-70%) and carbon dioxide (30-40%). Other minor components include hydrogen sulfide (H₂S), water vapor, and trace amounts of other gases.

Bio-gas is produced through a bio-chemical process in which certain types of bacteria convert the biological wastes into useful bio-gas.

Source:

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo108.pdf

https://energy.vikaspedia.in/viewcontent/energy/energy-production/bio-energy/biogas?lgn=en

https://biogas.mnre.gov.in/public/faqs

Q.29) ‘Adi Karmyogi Beta Version – A Responsive Governance Initiative’ was launched by which of the following ministries in June 2025 ?

1. Ministry of AYUSH
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Select the correct answer from the code

given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 4.

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

“Adi Karmyogi Beta Version – A Responsive Governance Initiative” was launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs in June 2025.

It was launched at a two-day conference of the Ministry. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs successfully organized a two-day National Conference titled “Adi Anveshan” on 26th and 27th June 2025, at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi.

Adi Karmyogi Beta Version is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Adi Karmyogi Beta Version is aimed at building a cadre of highly motivated officers and change makers dedicated to grassroots transformation. The programme seeks to bring a fundamental shift in the attitude and motivation of field-level officials, emphasizing citizen-centric ideation and delivery. Adi Karmyogi Beta version will enable capacity building of nearly 20 lakh stakeholders through a robust framework of more than 180 State Master Trainers, 3,000 District Trainers, and 15,000 Block Trainers.

Adi Karmyogi  Beta version marks a strategic move toward creating a governance ecosystem that listens, responds, and uplifts.

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140309

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-announces-adi-karmyogi-programme-for-nationwide-capacity-building-in-tribal-scheme-implementation/article69745966.ece

Q.30) Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Ranthambore
2. Jaisalmer
3. Warangal
4. Chittor

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

(c) 2, 1, 3, 4

(d) 1, 2, 4, 3

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Alauddin Khalji was the second ruler of the Khalji Dynasty of Delhi Sultanate. He ruled from 1296 to 1316.

Alauddin’s campaigns into Devagiri (1296, 1307, 1314), Gujarat (1299–1300), Ranthambhor (1301), Chittor (1303) and Malwa (1305) were meant to proclaim his political and military power as well as to collect loot from the defeated kingdoms.

Option 2: Jaisalmer Fort was captured by Alauddin Khalji in 1299 CE.

Option 1: In 1301, Alauddin marched against Ranthambore and after a three month’s siege it fell.

Option 4: After Ranthambore, Alauddin turned towards Chittor. It was the powerful state in Rajasthan. The siege lasted for several months. In 1303 Alauddin stormed the Chittor fort.

Option 3: Prataparudradeva, the Kakatiya ruler of Warangal in the Telangana region, was defeated by Alauddin’s forces under Malik Kafur in 1309.

So, the correct order of conquests of Alauddin Khalji is Jaisalmer – Ranthambore-Chittor- Warangal i.e. 2-1-4-3

Source:

Tamil Nadu New SCERT Class 11th History: Page 143

Tamil Nadu Old SCERT Class 11th History: Page 180, 181

Satish Chandra Old NCERT Chapter 7

https://magadhmahilacollege.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/09/Expeditions-of-Allauddin-Khilji.pdf

https://www.jaisalmerfort.in/Rani.html

The khilji (khalji) dynasty (1290 – 1320)

Q.31) With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
2. Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the Himalayas situated to their North lies in boundary of Nepal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region. With its abundant water bodies and ideal topography to utilize the resource for electricity generation, the Himalayan region is regarded as the powerhouse of India. The Government estimates show that the Himalayas, with an installed capacity of 46,850 MW, have a potential to generate 115,550 MW.

To tap this potential, hydropower projects are mushrooming in the Himalayan arc—till November 2022, the 10 states and two Union territories in the region, barring West Bengal, had 81 large hydropower projects (above 25 MW) and 26 projects under construction, and another 320 large projects in the pipeline, according to the Central Electricity Authority under the Union Ministry of Power.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It is an extreme statement to say that Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the Himalayas situated to their North lie in the boundary of Nepal because the rivers flow from that region of Himalayas into the eastern part of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar and there are several hydroelectric power projects on these rivers.

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/urbanisation/himalayan-plunder-how-hydropower-projects-in-the-hills-have-increased-disasters-there-87660

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1909276

Q.32) Which of the following districts is/are part of the Devipatan Division in Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Basti
2. Bahraich
3. Balrampur

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Devipatan Mandal is situated between 81.30 degree to 32.40 degree longitude and 26.48 degree north latitude in the north direction in the state’s Purvanchal. The northern boundary of the division is adjacent to Nepal. In the west of the division, Lakhimpur and Sitapur, in the south, Faizabad and Barabanki and in the east, Basti and Siddharth Nagar districts are located. The entire area of ​​Devipatan division is known as Terai region.

Option 1 is incorrect. Basti district is a part of Basti Division.

Options 2 and 3 are correct. Devipatan Mandal of Uttar Pradesh is located in the eastern part of the state. This mandal is made up of four districts: Gonda, Bahraich, Balrampur and Shravasti.

Source:https://devipatanmandal.nic.in/about-department/introduction/

https://basti.nic.in/about-district/

Q.33) Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last.

1. Punjab
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Nagaland
4. Sikkim

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3, 2, 4, 1

(b) 3, 4, 1, 2

(c) 3, 1, 4, 2

(d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Option 3: Nagaland became a State in 1963. In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of the Governor of Assam in 1961.

Option 1: The Constitution of India, that came into force in 1950, contained a four-fold classification of the States and territories of the Indian Union – Part A, Part B and Part C and Part D. Punjab was one of the Part A states. Later, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 merged the Patiala and East Punjab States Union (Pepsu) into that of Punjab State. In 1966, on the recommendation of the Shah Commission, the Punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh.

Option 4: Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Indian Union in 1975. Till 1947, Sikkim was an Indian princely state ruled by Chogyal. In 1947, after the lapse of British paramountcy, Sikkim became a ‘protectorate’ of India. Later, the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act (1974) made Sikkim an ‘associate state’ of the Indian Union. Consequently, the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) was enacted to make Sikkim a full-fledged State of the Indian Union (the 22nd state).

Option 2: In 1987, Arunachal Pradesh became the 24th State of the Indian Union. Earlier, it was made a Union Territory in 1972.

So, the correct chronological order of the formation of the given States from earliest to latest is:

Nagaland  – Punjab – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh.

Source:

Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition Chapter 5

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-at-75-how-were-the-states-formed-and-how-has-the-indian-map-changed-since-1947/article65761062.ece

Q.34) With reference to ‘Uttar Pradesh’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in the country.
2. Government of India has approved for establishment of South Asia Regional Centre of International Potato Centre at Aligarh.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh is the leader of potato production in India, with a staggering output of 15.89 million tonnes. The State’s fertile plains and conducive climate serve as the perfect canvas for potato farming. The districts of Agra, Farrukhabad, and Meerut are particularly renowned for their high yields, making UP a central pillar in India’s potato supply.

West Bengal comes second and Bihar comes third.

India is the second largest producer of potato in the world, after China.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Union Cabinet has approved a proposal to establish the International Potato Centre (CIP)’s South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) at Agra, Uttar Pradesh. International Potato Centre (CIP) ‘s South Asia Regional Centre is being established at Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh.

Source:

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/top-10-potato-producing-states-in-india/photostory/111180023.cms

https://nhb.gov.in/statistics/Reports/Potato-for-October-2019.pdf

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/top-10-potato-producing-states-in-india/photostory/111180023.cms?picid=111180029

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/hot-potato-in-odisha-why-tubers-high-price-has-hit-the-state-hard-9709110/

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2139496

https://sansad.in/getFile/annex/268/AU1455_2tTbJU.pdf?source=pqars

Q.35) Arrange the following States of India in the ascending order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Haryana
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Punjab
4. Uttarakhand

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4

(b) 3, 1, 4, 2

(c) 3, 1, 2, 4

(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

There are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. India covers an area of 32,87,263 sq. km.

Option 1: Haryana has an area of 44,212 sq. km.

Option 3: Punjab has a total area of 50,362 sq km.

Option 4: Uttarakhand has a total area of 53, 483 sq. km

Option 2: Himachal Pradesh has an area of 55,673 sq km.

So, the ascending order of given States on the basis of their area is: Haryana < Punjab < Uttarakhand < Himachal Pradesh.

Source: https://fsi.nic.in/uploads/isfr2023/isfr_book_eng-vol-1_2023.pdf (page no. 8)

https://punjab.gov.in/

https://himachal.gov.in/en-IN/

https://haryanaforest.gov.in/about-department/introduction/#:~:text=With%20a%20geographical%20area%20of,strong%20commitment%20to%20ecological%20conservation

https://sbb.uk.gov.in/about-department/about-uttarakhand/

Q.36) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Generally an alloy of lead and tin is used as a material of the fuse wire.

Reason (R): Alloy of lead and tin has a higher melting point than copper and aluminium.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Electric fuse is an important component of all domestic circuits. A fuse in a circuit prevents damage to the appliances and the circuit due to overloading. It protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.

The assertion is correct. Fuse wire consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point. A piece of wire made of lead and tin alloy is used in making a fuse. It has its melting point lower and higher resistance than that of electrical wire. Due to this, if current in a circuit increases above a particular point the fuse wire gets heated and burns out.

The reason is incorrect. The alloy of lead and tin has a lower melting point than copper and aluminium.

Melting point of copper: 1084 °C / 1983 °F

Melting point of Aluminum: 660.37°C/1220.66°F

Melting point of lead and tin alloy: about 183 °C/361 °F

A fuse wire is made of an alloy which has a low melting point. The fuse is placed in series with the device. If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the temperature of the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and breaks the circuit.

Source:

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=11-16

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secscicour/English/Chapter-17.pdf

Q.37) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

Code:

  A  B  C  D

(a) 2  3  1  4

(b) 3 2  4  1

(c) 3 2  1  4

(d) 2 3 4  1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Pair A:2. Doddabetta (2,623 mts) is the highest mountain peak in Tamilnadu. It is in the Nilgiri hills.

Pair B:3. Guru Shikhar ((1722 mts) is the highest peak of the entire Aravali Range in Rajasthan.

Pair C:4. The highest peak of Nagaland is Mount Saramati, which stands at 3,840 meters.

Pair D:1. Dhoopgarh (at 1,352 meters above sea level) is the highest peak of Madhya Pradesh.

Source:

Indian Physical Geography NCERT Class 11th

https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/316courseE/ch16.pdf

https://nilgiris.nic.in/tourist-place/doddabetta-ooty/

https://kiphire.nic.in/adventure-tourism/

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy1=2-7

https://www.tourism.rajasthan.gov.in/travel-diaries/nishansthan.html

https://environment.rajasthan.gov.in/content/environment/en/rsbb/about-rajasthan/physiography-of-rajasthan.html

https://forest.mponline.gov.in/eBrochure/eBrochureDetails.aspx?parkid=PCMR

https://kiphire.nic.in/tourist-place/mount-saramati/

Q.38) Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries ?

1. Bangladesh
2. Myanmar
3. Sri Lanka
4. Malaysia

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 2 and 4

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

India launched Operation Brahma to provide necessary support, humanitarian aid, disaster relief and medical assistance in Myanmar. Being the First Responder in times of crisis in the Neighbourhood, Operation Brahma is a whole-of-government endeavour by India to respond to widespread destruction in Myanmar. It followed the devastating earthquake that struck Myanmar on 28th March 2025.

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2116801

https://www.mea.gov.in/press-releases.htm?dtl/39317/Press_Brief_on_Operation_Brahma_2000_Hrs_April_01_2025

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/operaton-brahma-india-sends-relief-materials-to-earthquake-hit-myanmar/article69390029.ece

Q.39) With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The eligible age to be a member of a municipality is 25 years.
2. One-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

The Constitution (Seventy Forth Amendment) Act, 1992 has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age to be qualified as a member of Municipality is 21 years.

Article 243V says that “no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age, if he has attained the age of twenty-one years”.

Statement 2 is correct. The Act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women. For women, the seats shall be reserved to the extent of not less than one-third of the total number of seats. This includes seats reserved for women belonging to SC/ST. These reservations will apply for direct elections only.

Source: https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (page no. 130 and 131)

Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition Chapter 39

https://secforuts.mha.gov.in/74th-amendment-and-municipalities-in-india/

Q.40) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1  2

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 2 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Pair A:4. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie. Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General from 1848 to 1856.

Pair B:3.The Governor-General who partitioned Bengal was Lord Curzon.  The partition of Bengal was announced by Lord Curzon. He was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905. The partition of the Bengal province came into effect during his viceroyalty on 16th October 1905.

Pair C:2. On 4 December 1829, Lord William Bentinck issued Regulation XVII declaring Sati to be illegal and punishable in criminal courts. Lord William Bentinck was the Governor- General from 1828 to 1835.

Pair D:1. Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793. Lord Cornwallis was the Governor-General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced. Lord Cornwallis was Governor-General from 1786 to 1793.

Source: http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf

http://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/lord-curzons-declaration-bengal-partition-1905

https://www.bbc.com/news/world-asia-india-65311042

http://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/doctrine-lapse-case-jhansi

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess203.pdf

A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir Spectrum Publication – Page 816-819

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module3.pdf

Q.41) Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Cripps Mission
2. Cabinet Mission
3. Shimla Conference
4. Wavell Plan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 4, 1, 2, 3

(c) 4, 1, 3, 2

(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Option 1: Cripps Mission came to India in March 1942. It was a mission headed by Stafford Cripps. It was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support in the world war.

Option 4: Wavell Plan was introduced by Lord Wavell on 14th June 1945. The idea was to reconstruct the Governor-General’s executive council pending the preparation of a new constitution. For this purpose, a conference was convened by Lord Wavell at Shimla in June 1945.

Option 3: Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell on 25th June 1945. It was held for reconstituting the Executive Council in consultation with Indian leaders. It was held to discuss the Wavell Plan.

Option 2: The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on March 24, 1946. It was a high-powered mission of three British cabinet members (Pethick Lawrence; Stafford Cripps; and A.V. Alexander) to India to find out ways and means for a negotiated, peaceful transfer of power to India.

Source: http://indianculture.gov.in/node/2834412

http://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/karni-singhs-summary-cabinet-mission-1946-princely

http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf

 A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir Spectrum Publication – Page 442, 455. 470

Q.42) With reference to the Public Accounts Committee, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha.
2. The Public Accounts Committee consists of 15 members from Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the speaker of the Lok Sabha. It is a Parliamentary Committee. Parliamentary Committee means a committee which is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker and which works under the direction of the Speaker and presents its report to the House or to the Speaker and the Secretariat for which is provided by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Source:

Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition Chapter 23

https://sansad.in/ls/committee/introduction

https://sansad.in/getFile/LSSCOMMITTEE/Public%20Accounts/Introduction/Introduction_of_PAC_Home_Page_2022-2023.pdf?source=loksabhadocs

Q.43) Which of the following gases is/are lighter than air?

1. Hydrogen chloride
2. Sulfur dioxide
3. Helium

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Option 1 is incorrect. At room temperature, hydrogen chloride is heavier than air.

Option 2 is incorrect. Sulfur dioxide is heavier than air.

Option 3 is correct. Helium is quite lighter than air. It is the second-lightest element in nature.

Source:

https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/article/chemistry/chemistry-helium/

Q.44) With reference to ‘Atal Tunnel’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This tunnel is the world’s longest highway tunnel.
2. This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Atal Tunnel is a 9.02 km-long tunnel. It is the longest in the world over an altitude of 10,000 feet. Atal Tunnel is the longest highway tunnel in the

World. Atal Tunnel has officially been certified by the World Book of Records, as the ‘World’s Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet.’ It has cut down the road distance between Manali and Leh by 46 km, and reduced the travel time by around five hours.

The tunnel was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on October 3, 2020.

The world’s longest road tunnel in general is Connecting the towns of Lærdal and Aurland in Norway, which is a 24.5-kilometre tunnel.

Statement 2 is correct. The Atal Tunnel has been built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas. It was constructed on the Manali – Leh

Highway in the state of Himachal Pradesh.

Source:

https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificdocs/documents/2022/mar/doc202232428801.pdf

https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/credit-lahaul-spiti-bjp-congress-candidates-fight-atal-tunnel-8254851/

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1796961

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/indias-atal-tunnel-is-now-the-worlds-longest-highway-tunnel-above-10000-ft/articleshow/89506635.cms

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/top-5-longest-road-tunnels-in-the-world/photostory/121006259.cms?picid=121006295

https://marvels.bro.gov.in/AtalTunnel

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1796961

Q.45) With reference to ‘ozone layer’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from the ultra-violet radiations from the sun.
2. Ozone depletion has been linked to the chlorofluorocarbons.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. In the stratosphere, ozone molecules play an important role by absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun and shielding Earth. Ozone layer depletion will allow more UV rays to enter the troposphere and will cause a series of harmful effects.

Statement 2 is correct. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are used as refrigerants, and various kinds of sprays or sols (e.g. perfumes, air freshener, etc.). CFCs cause ozone holes in the ozone layer. Ozone holes refer to depletion of ozone molecules in the ozone layer due to the reaction of CFCs.

When chlorine and bromine atoms come into contact with ozone in the stratosphere, they destroy ozone molecules. One chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules before it is removed from the stratosphere. Some compounds release chlorine or bromine when they are exposed to intense UV light in the stratosphere. These compounds contribute to ozone depletion, and are called ozone-depleting substances (ODS). ODS that release chlorine include chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform. ODS that release bromine include halons and methyl bromide.

Source:https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/313courseE/L33.pdf

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/333courseE/LG/eng/EVS_333_E_LG_14.pdf

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec313NEW/313_Chemistry_Eng/313_Chemistry_Eng_Lesson32.pdf

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec313NEW/313_Chemistry_Eng/313_Chemistry_Eng_Lesson32.pdf

Q.46) Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council?

1. Bahrain
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Qatar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option  is the correct answer.

Gulf Cooperation Council is an economic and political union comprising all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf except Iraq. The GCC was formed in 1981 by an agreement that was concluded in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

The current six members of the GCC are Saudi Arabia (absolute monarchy), Qatar (constitutional monarchy), Oman (absolute monarchy), UAE (federal monarchy), Bahrain, and Kuwait (constitutional monarchies).

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/upsc-essentials-one-word-a-day-gulf-cooperation-council-7960663/

https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/upsc-essentials-one-word-a-day-gulf-cooperation-council-7960663/

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/eam-jaishankar-saudi-arabia-gcc-meet-september-8/article68617913.ece

https://www.gcc-sg.org/en/AboutUs/MemberStates/Pages/default.aspx

https://www.mea.gov.in/Portal/ForeignRelation/Gulf_Cooperation_Council_MEA_Website.pdf

Q.47) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law.

Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access to Justice to socially and economically weaker sections.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

The assertion is correct. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has an important role in facilitating justice. The Supreme Court in the early 1980s devised a mechanism of Public Interest Litigation or PIL to increase access to justice. It allowed any individual or organisation to file a PIL in the High Court or the Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights were being violated. The legal process was greatly simplified and even a letter or telegram addressed to the Supreme Court or the High Court could be treated as a PIL. In the early years, PIL was used to secure justice on a large number of issues such as rescuing bonded labourers from inhuman work conditions; and securing the release of prisoners in Bihar who had been kept in jail even after their punishment term was complete. Thus, Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law.

The reason is correct. A Public Interest Litigation or PIL is a form of litigation that is filed in a court to safeguard or enforce public interest. Under the PIL, any public-spirited citizen or a social organisation can move the court for the enforcement of the rights of any person or group of persons who because of their poverty or ignorance or socially or economically disadvantaged position are themselves unable to approach the court for the remedies.

Source:

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess304.pdf

Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition Chapter 29

https://blog.ipleaders.in/philosophical-basis-public-interest-india-concept-scope-locus-standi/

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/17195/1/Unit-3.pdf

Q.48) Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidas ?

1. Meghduta
2. Raghuvamsam
3. Shringar Shatak

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Option 1 is incorrect. Meghaduta was written by Kalidasa.

Option 2 is incorrect. Raghuvamsam (the dynasty of the Raghus) was also written by Kalidasa.

Option 3 is correct. Shringar Shatak is a collection of Sanskrit verses composed by the great poet-philosopher Bhartrihari.

Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secichcour/english/ch.06.pdf

https://archive.org/details/in.ernet.dli.2015.263835

Indian Art and Culture by Nitin Singhania Chapter 15

Q.49) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Buland Darwaja was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar.

Reason (R): Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his son Jahangir.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Assertion is correct. Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by the Mughal emperor, Akbar in 1575. It is a 40 metre red sandstone structure.

Reason is incorrect. Buland Darwaza was built to commemorate his victory over Gujarat.

Source:

Indian Art and Culture by Nitin Singhania Chapter 1

https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/255/

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secichcour/english/ch.13.pdf

Q.50) Match List – I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3  2 4

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 1 3 4 2

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair A:3 Paradeep Port is one of the Major Ports of India. It is the only Major Port in the State of Odisha situated 210 nautical miles south of Kolkata and 260 nautical miles north of Visakhapatnam. It is on the east coast on the shore of Bay of Bengal.

Pair B:1. Tuticorin or V.O.Chidambaranar Port is one of the 12 major ports in India. It was declared to be a major port on 11 July 1974. It is the second-largest port in Tamil Nadu and fourth-largest container terminal in India.

Pair C:4. Kakinada Port is an all weather deep water port. The Kakinada port is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Pair D:2. The Alappuzha port is located in the state of Kerala.

Source:

https://www.paradipport.gov.in/

https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=kakinada_port_wtp1150

Indian Human Geography NCERT Class12th

https://www.vocport.gov.in/

https://apcustoms.gov.in/div_history.php

https://kmb.kerala.gov.in/en/ports/alappuzha-port

 Q.51) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Reason (R) : Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Assertion A is correct: Sustainable development aims to promote economic growth and human well-being without causing environmental degradation. It emphasizes that current development efforts must not compromise the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Reason R is incorrect. Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action adopted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, not 1995. It aimed to promote sustainable development globally.

Source: CLass 11 NCERT- Indian Economy- Chapter 9- ENVIRONMENT AND

SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT- Page 171,172

https://sustainabledevelopment.un.org/outcomedocuments/agenda21

https://www.un.org/sustainabledevelopment/blog/2023/08/what-is-sustainable-development/

Q.52) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

    A B C D

a) 3 4 2 1

b) 4 3 1 2

c) 4 3 2 1

d) 3 4 1 2

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair A – 4 is correct. Percival Everett won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize in Fiction for his novel James (a reimagining of Adventures of Huckleberry Finn).

Pair B – 3 is correct. Susie Ibarra received the Pulitzer Prize in Music for her work Sky Islands, a work about ecosystems and biodiversity.

Pair C – 1 is correct. Jason Roberts won in the Biography category for his book Every Living Thing: The Great and Deadly Race to Know All Life. It is a beautifully written double biography of Carl Linnaeus and Georges-Louis de Buffon, 18th century contemporaries who devoted their lives to identifying and describing nature’s secrets.

Pair D – 2 is correct. Branden Jacobs Jenkins won the Pulitzer in Drama for his play Purpose, which received widespread critical acclaim. ‘Purpose’ is a play about the complex dynamics and legacy of an upper middle class African-American family whose patriarch was a key figure in the Civil Rights Movement.

 Source: https://www.pulitzer.org/prize-winners-by-year/2025

Q.53) Which of the following enzymes is/are released in the stomach for protein digestion ?

1. Chymotrypsin
2. Trypsin
3. Pepsin

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code :

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) Only 2 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine, not the stomach.

Statement 2 is incorrect.Trypsin is secreted by the pancreas as trypsinogen, and activated in the small intestine

Statement 3 is correct. Pepsin is the proteolytic enzyme in the stomach, secreted by gastric glands in its inactive form pepsinogen. In the presence of HCl, pepsinogen converts into active pepsin, which breaks down proteins into peptones and proteases.

Source: https://icar.iitk.ac.in/sathee-icar/student-corner/ncert-books/class-11/nb-bio-11/bio-11-chapter-16-digestion-and-absorption/

Q.54) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : India has a Parliamentary system of Government.

Reason (R) : In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

1. a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2. b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
3. c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion A is correct. India follows the British model of parliamentary democracy, where the executive (Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister) is drawn from and responsible to the legislature.

Reason R is correct. In the parliamentary system the executive is responsible to the Legislature. This is provided by the constitution under Article 75 ( the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha). The legislature can remove the executive through a no-confidence motion.

Source:page 83 of  https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps204.pdf

Page 80  fo https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps204.pdf

Q.55) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 2, 3 and 4

c) Only 1, 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is incorrect. Lipulekh Pass is a mountain pass, situated in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, India. It serves as a vital link between India and Tibet (China) and is a significant part of the trade and pilgrimage route.

Pair 2 is correct. Nathu-La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in Sikkim state.It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.

Pair 3 is correct. Bom Di La pass is situated at an altitude of 4331 m near the western boundary of Bhutan in Arunachal Pradesh, this pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa.

Pair 4 is correct. Shipki La is located at the Indo-China border in Himachal Pradesh. It is located at an altitude of over 6000 m and provides a road connection between Himachal Pradesh and Tibet.

Source: https://bharatrannbhoomidarshan.gov.in/destinations/details/8/lipulekh-pass

https://indiacinehub.gov.in/location/nathu-la-pass

Khullar – Indian geography – Page 70 – 72

Q.56) Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42^nd Constitution Amendment ?

1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Sovereign
4. Republic

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 and 4

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity.

 Source:

Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, chapter: 4- (Preamble of the Constitution)

https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-forty-second-amendment-act-1976

Q.57) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code :

   A B C D

a) 4 3 2 1

b) 3 4 1 2

c) 3 4 2 1

d) 4 3 1 2

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Pair A – 4 is correct. Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was buried in Kabul (Afghanistan) in the Bagh-e-Babur (Garden of Babur).

Pair B – 3 is correct. Humayun’s tomb is located in Delhi, near the Yamuna River.

Pair C – 2 is correct. Jahangir’s tomb is situated in Shahdara Bagh, Lahore (present-day Pakistan).

Pair D – 1 is correct. Shah Jahan’s tomb is inside the Taj Mahal in Agra, which he himself built for Mumtaz Mahal.

Source:https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5469/

https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/232/

https://www.wmf.org/monuments/tomb-of-jahangir

https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/252/

Q.58) Which of the following Ramsar wetland sites is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Sarsai Nawar Jheel
2. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary
3. Rudrasagar Lake
4. Sultanpur National Park

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 and 4

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct. Sarsai Nawar Jheel is located in Etawah district (Uttar Pradesh), this freshwater jheel is an important habitat for the Sarus crane and other migratory waterbirds. It was designated as a Ramsar site to protect its bird-rich marshes.

Option 2 is correct. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary is situated near Rae Bareli  (Uttar Pradesh). Samaspur is a mosaic of shallow wetlands attracting large numbers of wintering ducks, storks and herons. Its Ramsar status recognizes its role in sustaining avifaunal diversity

Option 3 is incorrect. Rudrasagar is in Tripura and not in Uttar Pradesh. It is a lake–wetland system fed by small rivulets and is a key waterbird site of the Northeast.

Option 4 is incorrect. Sultanpur National Park lies in Haryana (near Gurugram). It’s a shallow wetland famed for winter migrants like geese, ducks and waders, and is listed as a Ramsar site.

Source: https://moef.gov.in/uploads/pdf-uploads/pdf_683d78bed6ae93.65077128.pdf

https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/2411

https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/2415

https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/1572

https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/2457

Q.59) Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by which of the following organizations?

1. International Labour Organisation
2. World Bank
3. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

The Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by the International Labour Organisation. It provides a detailed look at wage trends around the world and in different regions, highlighting changes in wage inequality and real wage growth. It explores key challenges workers face globally and sheds light on patterns of income differences between and within countries.

Source: https://www.ilo.org/publications/flagship-reports/global-wage-report-2024-25-wage-inequality-decreasing-globally

Q.60) The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following?

1. International Monetary Fund
2. World Economic Forum
3. World Bank

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

The Global Financial Stability Report is released by the International Monetary Fund. It provides an assessment of the global financial system and markets, and addresses emerging market financing in a global context.

Source: https://www.imf.org/en/Publications/GFSR

Q.61) With reference to lichens, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Lichens are very good indicators of pollution.
2. Lichens grow well in polluted areas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. A lichen is a peculiar combination of an alga and a fungus– the two live deriving mutual benefit. Lichens serve as good bio-indicators for air pollution, especially sulphur dioxide (SO₂) pollution.

Statement 2 is incorrect.  Most lichens are very sensitive to air pollution and so won’t grow if there are high levels of pollutants

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/lichens-are-reliable-monitors-of-air-pollution-30207

https://websites.rbge.org.uk/lichen/urban_air_pollution/FAQs.pdf

Q.62) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 3

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct. The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, observed every year on 16 September to mark the 1987 Montreal Protocol.

Pair 2 is correct. World Environment Day is celebrated on 5 June annually, with a rotating host country and theme.

Pair 3 is incorrect. World Wildlife Day is observed on 3 March, commemorating the adoption of CITES.

Source:

https://www.un.org/en/observances/list-days-weeks

https://www.un.org/en/observances/ozone-day

https://www.un.org/en/observances/environment-day

https://www.un.org/en/observances/world-wildlife-day

Q.63) With reference to ‘Brazil’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called ‘Selvas’.
2. The dark black colour fertile land here is called ‘Terra Roxa’.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. In South American geography, the dense equatorial evergreen forests of Amazon basin (Brazil ) are commonly referred to as Selvas.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The expression Terra Roxa soil is used in the Brazilian states of São Paulo, Paraná, Minas Gerais, and others to designate soils of basic origin, of high

fertility, red color, violet tonal quality, and almost always of a clayey texture.

Source: G. C. Leong – Page 118

https://www.alice.cnptia.embrapa.br/alice/bitstream/doc/395110/1/Soils-of-the-Brazilian-Amazon.pdf

https://files.isric.org/public/documents/isric_report_1991_05.pdf

Q.64) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code :

   A B C D

a) 3 1 4 2

b) 2 3 4 1

c) 3 2 1 4

d) 1 3 2 4

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Pair A- 3 is correct.The 11th Finance Commission (constituted in 1998, award period 2000–05) was chaired by Prof. A. M. Khusro.

Pair B- 1 is correct.The 12th Finance Commission (constituted in 2002, award period 2005–10) was headed by Dr. C. Rangarajan.

Pair C- 4 is correct.The 13th Finance Commission (constituted in 2007, award period 2010–15) was chaired by Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar.

Pair D- 2 is correct.The 14th Finance Commission (constituted in 2013, award period 2015–20) was chaired by Dr. Y. V. Reddy.

 Source:https://fincomindia.nic.in/commission-reports

Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, Table:45.1 (Finance Commission)

Q.65) Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of poverty ?

1. Illiteracy
2. Safe drinking water
3. Job opportunities
4. Size of the house

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 4

c) 3 and 4

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Usually the indicators used for poverty relate to the levels of income and consumption. But now poverty is looked at through other social indicators like illiteracy level, lack of general resistance due to malnutrition, lack of access to healthcare, lack of job opportunities, lack of access to safe drinking water, sanitation etc.

Source:https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/ncert-books/class-09/social-science/economics/chapter-03-poverty-as-a-challenge/

https://www.un.org/esa/socdev/unyin/documents/ydiDavidGordon_poverty.pdf

Q.66) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

    A B C D

a) 2 4 3 1

b) 4 2 3 1

c) 3 2 4 1

d) 2 3 4 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Pair A- 2 is correct. The 11th Lok Sabha (1996 – 1997) was formed after the 1996 general elections. During this term, Purno Agitok Sangma (P. A. Sangma) was elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Pair B- 4 is correct.The 12th Lok Sabha (1998 – 1999) was formed after the 1998 general elections. G. M. C. Balayogi was elected as the Speaker.

Pair C- 3 is correct.The 14th Lok Sabha (2004 – 2009) had Somnath Chatterjee as its Speaker.

Pair D- 1 is correct.The 17th Lok Sabha from 2019-2024 had Om Birla, a BJP MP from Kota, Rajasthan, as the Speaker.

Source: https://sansad.in/ls/about/speaker?1

Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, Table:22.8 (Speakers of the Lok Sabha)

Q.67) With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The first Carnatic war ended.
2. Madras was returned to the British.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp)Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The First Carnatic War ended in 1748 when the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle was signed bringing the Austrian War of Succession to a conclusion.

Statement 2 is correct.  Under the terms of the treaty of Aix-La Chapelle, Madras was handed back to the English, and the French, in turn, got their territories in North America.

Source:

Book: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir , 23rd Edition 2017, page number 4

Q.68) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) Only 1, 2 and 3

b) Only 3 and 4

c) Only 2, 3 and 4

d) Only 1 and 2

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct. Budapest, the capital of Hungary, is famously situated on the banks of the River Danube, Europe’s second-longest river after the Volga.

Pair 2 is correct. Cologne is located in western Germany on the River Rhine. The Rhine is one of Europe’s most important rivers, supporting trade, transport, and tourism.

Pair 3 is incorrect. New Orleans, in the U.S. state of Louisiana, is located on the Mississippi River, not the Missouri. The Mississippi is one of North America’s longest rivers

Pair 4 is incorrect. Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, is located on the banks of the Musi River, a tributary of the Krishna River.

Source:https://archiv.budapest.hu/sites/english/Lapok/General-informations-about-Budapest.aspx

https://eurocities.eu/cities/cologne/

https://musi.telangana.gov.in/aboutmrdcl.aspx

https://www.newindianexpress.com/lifestyle/travel/2013/Sep/29/history-thrives-by-the-blue-danube-519418.html

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/cologne-starts-its-biggest-evacuation-since-1945-to-defuse-wwii-bombs/articleshow/121618193.cms

https://indianexpress.com/article/world/new-orleans-residents-atlantic-hurricane-tropical-storm-barry-5827804/

Q.69) With reference to ‘Baking Soda’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. It is sodium hydrogen carbonate.
2. It is used in fire extinguishers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp)Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. “Baking soda” is the common name for sodium hydrogen carbonate (also called sodium bicarbonate), with the formula NaHCO₃.

Statement 2 is correct.Sodium bicarbonate is used in certain fire extinguishers. In classic soda–acid extinguishers, an aqueous NaHCO₃ solution reacts with acid to generate CO₂, which smothers the fire.

Source:https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc104.pdf

https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/iiser-scientist-devises-kitchen-hack-for-firefighting-using-vinegar-baking-soda-7349923/

https://indianexpress.com/article/world/new-orleans-residents-atlantic-hurricane-tropical-storm-barry-5827804/

Q.70) Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 ?

1. Central Pollution Control Board
2. Central Water Commission
3. Central Groundwater Board

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 was prepared by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), which functions under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India.The Annual Groundwater Quality Report provides data on key parameters such as pH, EC, Nitrate, Fluoride, Arsenic, Iron, and other contaminants.

Source:https://cgwb.gov.in/cgwbpnm/public/uploads/documents/17363272771910393216file.pdf

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2089040

Q.71) Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission?

1. K. T. Shah
2. K. M. Panikkar
3. P. Sitaramaiah
4. H. N. Kunjaru

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 4

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The Fazl Ali Commission was appointed by the Government of India in 1953 to examine the demand for the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis. Headed by Fazl Ali, with H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar as members, the Commission submitted its report in 1955. It rejected the idea of linguistic states as the sole criterion

Source:

Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, chapter: 5th (Union and its Territory)

https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-08/State%2520Reorganisation%2520Commisison%2520Report%2520of%25201955_270614%5B1%5D.pdf

Q.72) Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order.

1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
3. Jal Jeevan Mission
4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 2, 4, 1, 3

b) 4, 2, 1, 3

c) 2, 4, 3, 1

d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched on 25th June 2015 in 500 cities and towns across the country. The Mission focuses on development of basic infrastructure, in the selected cities and towns, in the sectors of water supply; sewerage and septage management; storm water drainage; green spaces and parks; and non-motorized urban transport.

Statement 2.Government of India launched the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) including sub-component namely Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT) and Urban Infrastructure and Governance (UIG) in December, 2005 for a period of 7 years i.e., up to 31stMarch, 2012.

Statement 3.Government of India had launched Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), a centrally sponsored scheme in August 2019, aiming at providing Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024.

Statement 4.The National Urban  Housing & Habitat Policy was launched in 2007. It   seeks  to promote  various types of public-private partnerships for realizing the goal of “ Affordable Housing For All’  with special emphasis on the urban poor. Source:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1885837

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1910166

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2149208

https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=33884

Q.73) With reference to ‘earthworms’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Earthworms improve soil fertility and are known as farmer’s friends.
2. Earthworms have two pairs of hearts.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) Only 2

b) Neither 1 nor 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Earthworms make the soil loose, mix nutrients, and increase its fertility. Their waste (called worm castings) is full of nutrients that help plants grow. Because they naturally improve the soil, they are called “farmers’ friends.”

Statement 2 is incorrect.Earthworms lack a true heart like birds; instead, they have a tubular, muscular structure known as the aortic arch running along the dorsal side of their body. The aortic arch functions like a pump, or pseudo heart. “Earthworms possess five pairs of pseudo-hearts, running along the length of their body.

Source:https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/nsqf/Vermicomposting-621-english-revised.pdf

https://www.timesnownews.com/technology-science/explainers/interesting-fact-behind-why-earthworms-have-5-pairs-of-heart-article-106884234

 Q.74) Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Nanak
2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
3. Namdev
4. Kabir

Code :

a) 3, 4, 2, 1

b) 4, 3, 1, 2

c) 3, 4, 1, 2

d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1.Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism and the first of the ten Sikh Gurus. He lived between 1469-1539 AD. He preached equality, devotion to one God, and service to humanity. His teachings combined elements of Bhakti and Sufi traditions.

Statement 2.Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a 15th–16th century (1486-1534 AD) saint from Bengal, known for popularizing the Bhakti movement through ecstatic devotion to Lord Krishna. He led mass congregational chanting (sankirtan) and inspired the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition.

Statement 3.Namdev was a Bhakti saint from Maharashtra who lived during the 1270 to 1340 AD. He was a devotee of Lord Vitthal (a form of Krishna) and composed devotional songs in Marathi and Hindi.

Statement 4. Kabir was a 15th-century (exact year is not known) mystic poet and saint from Varanasi. He criticized religious orthodoxy and emphasized a direct connection with the divine through love and devotion. His dohas (couplets) are widely known for their simplicity and spiritual depth.

Source: Nitin Singhania – 3rd edition- Appendix 2 – Bhakti and Sufi movement-page- 738-740

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/35237/1/Unit-3.pdf

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/71537/1/Unit-10.pdf

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/73314/1/Unit-14.pdf

Q.75) Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current ?

1. Agulhas current
2. Brazil current
3. Humboldt current
4. California current

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 and 4

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Option 1 is incorrect. The Agulhas Current is a warm current. It flows along the southeast coast of Africa and carries warm water from the Indian Ocean toward the Cape of Good Hope.

Option 2 is incorrect. The Brazil Current is a warm current. It flows southward along the east coast of South America and brings warm tropical water into temperate regions

Option 3 is correct.The Humboldt Current (also called the Peru Current) flows northward along the west coast of South America. It is a cold current because it brings cold, nutrient-rich water up from the deep sea supporting rich marine life.

Option 4 is correct.California Current flows southward along the western coast of North America and is a cold current.

Source: Class 11 NCERT- Fundamentals of Physical geography- Chapter 14-MOVEMENTS OF OCEAN WATER- page 119- 120

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/316-New/Book-1/Ch-5.pdf

 Q.76) With reference to ‘Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was developed and introduced in 2010.
2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) option d is the correct answer.

In recent years, poverty has come to be understood not just as a lack of income, but also as a deprivation of basic capabilities like education, health, sanitation, and a decent standard of living. That is why institutions like the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the UNDP Human Development Report Office developed a more comprehensive measure of poverty – the MPI. This index helps identify how people are poor, not just how many are poor.

Statement 1 is correct. The MPI was first introduced in the year 2010 as part of the Human Development Report published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The methodology was designed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster at OPHI, which works in collaboration with UNDP. It was brought in to replace the Human Poverty Index, which was based mainly on income and did not capture the broader aspects of deprivation.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The MPI is not based on a monetary threshold such as “less than one dollar per day.” Instead, it measures acute multidimensional deprivation in health, education, and standard of living. It is a non‑monetary measure that complements, rather than replaces, income‑based measures of extreme poverty.

Source: https://ophi.org.uk/global-mpi-faqs

https://www.undp.org/india/national-multidimensional-poverty-index-progress-review-2023

Q.77) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

(Acid)                                  (Acid found in)

1. Lactic acid – Curd
2. Tartaric acid – Grapes
3. Acetic acid – Potato

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) option b is the correct answer.

Several naturally occurring acids are present in the food we eat. These acids contribute to the taste, preservation, and digestive benefits of various items. For example, tamarind’s tanginess, curd’s sourness, or vinegar’s sharpness – all come from organic acids.

Pair 1 is correct. Lactic acid is produced when lactose (milk sugar) undergoes fermentation by lactic acid bacteria. This is the same process that turns milk into curd or yoghurt. Lactic acid gives curd its sour taste and also helps preserve it naturally.

Pair 2 is correct. Tartaric acid is a naturally occurring organic acid found predominantly in grapes, as well as in tamarind and bananas. It gives grapes their tangy taste and is also used in baking powders

Pair 3 is incorrect. Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar, and it is not found in potatoes. Potatoes primarily contain starch and trace elements of other acids, but not acetic acid. Acetic acid is more commonly associated with fermented foods like vinegar and pickles.

Source: https://pmfme.mofpi.gov.in/pmfme/newsletters/enewsnovember6.html; https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc104.pdf Page 39

 https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo108.pdf

 Q.78) With reference to the Indian Ocean’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. It was called by the Ancient Greeks as Erythraean Sea.
2. It is spread on the either side of equator.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

The Indian Ocean has not only played a major role in trade and civilisation contact but also holds importance due to its strategic geographical position. From ancient mariners to modern geopolitics, this ocean has always been in focus. Its historical naming and location with respect to the equator are both facts rooted in classical texts and geographical data.

Statement 1 is correct. Ancient Greek and Roman texts, including the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, referred to the north-western part of the Indian Ocean (including the Arabian Sea and Red Sea) as the Erythraean Sea. The term “Erythraean” is believed to have come from a king named Erythras or from the Greek word “erythros,” meaning red. This shows that Greek traders were aware of and actively navigated parts of the Indian Ocean centuries before the Common Era.

Statement 2 is correct. The Indian Ocean spans both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. The equator runs through it, roughly bisecting it. The ocean stretches northwards to the Indian subcontinent and Arabian Peninsula, and southwards beyond Madagascar towards the Southern Ocean. So, the Indian Ocean is indeed located on either side of the equator, making it unique among the three major oceans.

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/why-is-the-indian-ocean-the-only-one-named-after-a-modern-country-in-the-world/articleshow/122084276.cms ; https://www.downtoearth.org.in/pollution/erythraean-sea-why-rubymar-s-sinking-in-the-southern-red-could-be-an-environmental-catastrophe-94828

Q.79) Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Battle of Kannauj
2. Battle of Daurah
3. Battle of Samugarh
4. Battle of Chausa

Code:

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1

(b) 4, 2, 1, 3

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Ans) d

Exp) option d is the correct answer.

There were major battles fought during the mid-16th to 17th century involving Sher Shah Suri, Humayun, and the sons of Shah Jahan. These battles were not just military engagements, but turning points that shaped the Mughal Empire’s rise, fall, and re-emergence.

Option 1. Battle of Kannauj (1540 CE) also known as the Battle of Bilgram, this was Humayun’s final defeat at the hands of Sher Shah. After this battle, Humayun lost the Mughal throne completely and had to flee to Persia, leaving the Sur Empire in control of North India.

Option 2. Battle of Daurah (1532 CE) occurred earlier when Sher Khan was still building his power. Humayun defeated the Afghans at Daurah, then laid siege to the fort of Chunar. Sher Khan promised loyalty, leading Humayun to lift the siege, a strategic blunder. This allowed Sher Khan to regroup and later defeat Humayun at Chausa and Kannauj.

Option 3. Battle of Samugarh (1658 CE) was a decisive battle of succession between the sons of Shah Jahan. Aurangzeb defeated Dara Shikoh near Agra and went on to imprison his father and claim the Mughal throne. This battle marked the beginning of Aurangzeb’s reign and a shift in Mughal politics

Option 4. Battle of Chausa (1539 CE) was the first major defeat of Humayun at the hands of Sher Shah Suri. It took place near Buxar in Bihar, where Humayun was caught off-guard and forced to flee. Sher Shah took the title of Sher Shah Suri after this victory and laid the foundation of the Sur Empire.

Hence the correct chronological order is:

2. Daurah – 1532 (early victory)
3. Chausa – 1539 (first major defeat)
4. Kannauj – 1540 (final loss of throne)
5. Samugarh – 1658 (Aurangzeb’s rise)

Source: Tamilnadu Class 11 History New Book Part 2  – The Mughal Empire  – Page 32; NCERT Medieval – History of Medieval India (Satish Chandra) – Struggle for Empire in North India—II Mughals and Afghans (1525–1555) – Page 227 and Page 232; Climax and Disintegration of the Mughal Empire—I – Page 346;

 NCERT Medieval – History of Medieval India (Satish Chandra)

Q.80) Which of the following statements with reference to ‘blood’ is/are correct?

1. Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells.
2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

Blood is one of the most important fluids in our body. It flows continuously through blood vessels, ensuring that oxygen, nutrients, and waste products are properly transported. It connects every organ and tissue, acting as the body’s internal delivery and cleaning system.

Statement 1 is correct. Blood consists of a fluid part called plasma, in which various types of cells are suspended. Plasma helps in carrying digested food, hormones, and waste materials throughout the body. The cellular components include red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. Each of these performs a special function — RBCs carry oxygen, WBCs defend the body against infections, and platelets help in clotting when a cut or injury occurs.

Statement 2 is correct. Red blood cells contain a pigment called haemoglobin, which has the special ability to bind with oxygen and transport it to all parts of the body. Without haemoglobin, oxygen supply to cells would not be efficient. The presence of haemoglobin gives blood its red colour, making it one of the most visible signs of life.

Source: https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc107.pdf – Page 70 and 71

 Q.81) Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists is/are part of the five member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize?

1. Natasha Brown
2. Kiran Desai
3. Nilanjana S. Roy
4. Rajni Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

The International Booker Prize announced its 2026 judging panel, which includes a selection of authors, critics, translators, and literary figures from around the world. Among the five judges, the Indian representation is held by Nilanjana S. Roy, a prominent novelist, journalist and columnist.

The full jury panel, chaired by English author Natasha Brown, was announced on June 24, 2025. It consists of the following members:

• Natasha Brown: English novelist and chair of the jury
• Marcus du Sautoy: Oxford University professor of mathematics
• Sophie Hughes: Literary translator
• Troy Onyango: Kenyan writer and editor
• Nilanjana S. Roy: Indian novelist, journalist, and literary critic

Option 1.  Natasha Brown is not Indian; she is a British novelist and chairs the 2026 jury.

Option 2. Kiran Desai is a well-known Indian novelist but is not part of this 2026 jury.

Option 3. Nilanjana S. Roy is the correct choice: she has been officially named as a jury member for the 2026 International Booker Prize.

Option 4. Rajni Chauhan is not mentioned in the official list of jury members for 2026.

Source: https://thebookerprizes.com/the-booker-library/prize-years/international/2026

Q.82) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

     A        B            C            D

(a) 2       1            3            4

(b) 1       4            3            2

(c) 4       1            3            2

(d) 1       2            3            4

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

The Constituent Assembly of India had several important committees to deliberate on different aspects of the Constitution.

Option A. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru (Option 4)
 The Union Constitution Committee was headed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. It dealt with matters related to the structure of the Union — including federalism, division of powers, and the overall framework of the Indian Union.

Option B. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Option 1)
 Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who was also the President of the Constituent Assembly, chaired the Rules of Procedure Committee. Its main role was to frame the rules that governed the functioning and conduct of the Assembly sessions.

Option C. Drafting Committee – Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (Option 3)
 The Drafting Committee, arguably the most famous of all, was chaired by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. It was responsible for preparing the final draft of the Indian Constitution based on the reports of various other committees.

Option D. Fundamental Rights Sub-committee – J. B. Kripalani (Option 2)
 Fundamental Rights Sub-committee was led by J. B. Kripalani, and it worked specifically on defining and detailing the Fundamental Rights to be guaranteed to Indian citizens.

Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth – Making of the Constitution – Committees of the Constituent Assembly

Q.83) Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
2. Development of women and children in Rural Areas
3. Integrated Rural Development Programme
4. National Rural Employment Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(c) 4, 3, 1, 2

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Ans) d

Exp) option d is the correct answer.

India’s approach to rural development has evolved over the decades, with each programme introduced to meet a pressing socio-economic need. These schemes have built the foundation of rural employment, poverty reduction, and women empowerment.

Option 1. The Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY) was launched on 1st April 1989, by merging the NREP and RLEGP (Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme). It focused on creating wage employment for the rural poor and building rural infrastructure. It was the largest rural employment scheme of its time.

Option 2. The Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA) programme began in 1982 as a sub-component of IRDP. Its goal was to empower rural women through income-generating activities, support for childcare, and nutritional assistance. It focused on forming self-help groups and building confidence among rural women.

Option 3. The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched in 1978 and rolled out nationwide by 1980. It was India’s first major anti-poverty programme that sought to provide asset-based self-employment to rural poor households. It targeted small farmers, labourers, artisans, and marginalised groups.

Option 4. The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was launched in 1980 as a centrally sponsored scheme. It aimed to generate wage employment in rural areas through public works and asset creation. It also marked the beginning of serious government efforts to guarantee rural work opportunities.

Source: Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh – Planning in India – Sixth Plan ; Seventh Plan; https://www.tnrd.tn.gov.in/Central_Schemes/linkfiles/defunct_schemes_jry_pg587.pdf ; https://www.tnrd.tn.gov.in/Central_Schemes/linkfiles/defunct_scheme_dwcra_pg581.pdf ; https://dspmuranchi.ac.in/pdf/Blog/irdp.pdf ; https://dspmuranchi.ac.in/pdf/Blog/nrep%2001.pdf

 Q.84) Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh?

1. Lalitpur
2. Saharanpur
3. SonbhadraSelect the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) All 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct. Lalitpur shares a border with only Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh. Lalitpur appears as a southern exclave of Uttar Pradesh. It is almost surrounded by Madhya Pradesh and has a clear and narrow connection only with Jhansi district to its north.

Option 2 is incorrect. Saharanpur shares a border with Muzaffarnagar and Shamli districts of Uttar Pradesh besides touching Uttarakhand and Haryana. Therefore, it shares boundary with more than one Uttar Pradesh district

Option 3 is incorrect. Located in the southeastern corner of UP, Sonbhadra borders Mirzapur, Chandauli, and also touches Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh. Despite its extensive inter-state boundaries, it still shares borders with at least two UP districts (Mirzapur and Chandauli)

Source: https://www.mapsofindia.com/maps/uttarpradesh/uttar-pradesh-district.htm

 Q.85) With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years.
2. In Panchayati Raj Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribе.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) option d is the correct answer.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj system in India. It laid out detailed provisions regarding structure, tenure, reservation and powers of these grassroots-level institutions.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 243E of the Indian Constitution clearly mentions that the term of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of its first meeting. Elections must be held before the expiry of this period, or within six months in case of early dissolution. This ensures continuity and democratic accountability in rural governance.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 243D, not 1/4th but 1/3rd of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women. This one-third reservation includes women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes as well. The language used in the Constitution does not specify a separate 1/4th quota for SC/ST women; it is part of the broader 1/3rd reservation for all women

Source: Indian polity by M Laxmikant – Panchayati Raj – 73^rd Amendment Act of 1992

Q.86) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A        B           C           D

(a) 3       4            1            2

(b) 4       3            2            1

(c) 4       3            1            2

(d) 3       4            2            1

Ans) a

Exp) option a is the correct answer.

Option A. Trivikram Bhatta – Nal Champu (3)
 Trivikram Bhatta is known for his literary composition Nal Champu, a Sanskrit poem that belongs to the “Champu” style — a poetic form combining prose and verse. This style was quite popular during the classical period of Indian literature.

Option B. Somdev – Katha Sarit Sagar (4)
 Somadeva (also known as Somdev) is the renowned author of the Katha Sarit Sagar, one of the largest collections of stories in Sanskrit literature. It is an 11th-century adaptation of the Brihatkatha, and is deeply rooted in Indian storytelling tradition.

Option C. Jaidev – Gita Govinda (1)
 This is one of the most celebrated pairings. Jaidev’s Gita Govinda is a devotional lyrical poem that focuses on the divine love of Krishna and Radha. It played a significant role in shaping Bhakti movement literature and classical dance traditions.

Option D. Kshemendra – Brihatkathamanjari (2)
 Kshemendra was a prolific 11th-century Sanskrit poet and writer. He composed the Brihatkathamanjari, a condensed version of the original Brihatkatha, which was lost but survives through such abridged versions.

Source: Indian Art & Culture Nitin Singhania – Indian Literature – Sanskrit Poetry – Page 503 and Page 505; https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/84531/1/Block-4.pdf ; https://www.indianculture.gov.in/rarebooks/ocean-story-somadeva-katha-sarit-sagara-or-ocean-streams-story ; https://lucknowdigitallibrary.com/publications/brahtkthajri-by-kchemendrvirchita

 Q.87) Which of the following archaeological sites related to Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Mandi
2. Rakhigarhi
3. Hulas

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

While the Indus Valley is usually associated with Pakistan and western India, many lesser-known but significant sites have also been found in Uttar Pradesh.

Option 1 is correct. The archaeological site of Mandi (not to be confused with Mandi in Himachal Pradesh) is one of the lesser-known Indus Valley sites situated in western Uttar Pradesh. Excavations have uncovered typical features of the Late Harappan phase like pottery, tools, and structures.

Option 2 is incorrect. Rakhigarhi is one of the most significant and largest known sites of the Indus Valley Civilization. However, it is situated in Hisar district of Haryana, not Uttar Pradesh.Option 3 is correct. Hulas is a confirmed Late Harappan site located in Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. Excavations here revealed evidence of agricultural practices, storage pits, and mud houses, suggesting a well-settled rural Harappan culture.

Source: Ancient history by R S Sharma – The Harappan Civilization https://rabindramahavidyalaya.ac.in/images/uploads/Indus%20Vally%20Civilization.pdf

Q.88) Consider the following sources of world water supply and arrange them in descending order.

1. Oceans
2. Rivers
3. Polar ice and Glaciers
4. Ground water

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2

(b) 1, 2, 4, 3

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 1, 4, 3, 2

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Water is distributed across various reservoirs on Earth, but their quantities vary drastically.

Option 1. Oceans account for about 97.25% of all Earth’s water, making them by far the largest single source of water on the planet. However, this water is saline and not directly usable for drinking or irrigation without desalination.

Option 2. Rivers contribute less than 0.01% to the total water on Earth. Despite being the most visible and accessible source of freshwater, they are minuscule in quantity compared to oceans, ice caps, and even groundwater.

Option 3. Around 2.05% of Earth’s total water is locked up in polar ice caps and glaciers. While not as accessible as groundwater or river water, they form the largest store of freshwater on the Earth. Thus, they come next after oceans in the global water hierarchy.

Option 4. Groundwater constitutes about 0.68% of the Earth’s water, but what makes it important is that it forms a major source of freshwater for human use, especially in agriculture and drinking.

Hence the correct descending order is:
1. Oceans

3. Polar Ice and Glaciers
4. Groundwater
5. Rivers.

Source: Fundamental of Physical Geography – Water (Oceans) – Water on the Earth’s surface

Q.89) Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India?

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimate Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) All 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) option b is the correct answer.

The Indian Parliament functions through various standing committees, one of the most important categories of which is the Financial Committees. These committees ensure fiscal accountability, transparency, and scrutiny of public expenditure and executive functioning.

Option 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee is a classic example of a financial oversight mechanism in a parliamentary system. It examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) and ensures that public money is spent legally and effectively. This committee holds the executive accountable to Parliament and is a permanent fixture in the financial committee set-up.

Option 2 is correct. The Estimates Committee analyses how money is allocated and whether it is being used efficiently. It suggests alternative policies to bring about economy and efficiency in expenditure. This committee deals with the estimates of expenditure and tries to ensure that the money voted by Parliament is well-spent.

Option 3 is correct. The Committee on Public Undertakings reviews the performance of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and checks whether they are functioning in line with sound business principles and as per parliamentary approval. It is a vital link between fiscal oversight and accountability of government-owned enterprises.

Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikant – Parliamentary Committees – Financial Committees

Q.90) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given belowthe lists.

Code:

A        B            C            D

(a) 4       2            3            1

(b) 2       4            1            3

(c) 2       4            3            1

(d) 4       2            1            3

Ans) d

Exp) option d is the correct answer.

India is home to a rich biodiversity, safeguarded in various national parks and wildlife sanctuaries across different states. Knowing their geographical locations not only helps in exams but also enhances one’s appreciation for India’s ecological diversity.

Option A. Dachigam – 4. Jammu and Kashmir
 Dachigam National Park is located in Jammu and Kashmir, near Srinagar. It is famous for being the last home of the Hangul or Kashmir stag, which is critically endangered.

Optiion B. Keoladeo – 2. Rajasthan
 Keoladeo National Park, also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is located in Rajasthan. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, known for its large population of migratory birds like the Siberian crane.

Option C. Kanha – 1. Madhya Pradesh
 Kanha National Park is situated in Madhya Pradesh and is one of the most well-maintained national parks in India. It served as the inspiration for Rudyard Kipling’s “The Jungle Book”, and is known for its tiger population and barasingha (swamp deer)

Option D. Periyar – 3. Kerala
 Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala, around Thekkady. It is famous for its elephant and tiger reserves, and the Periyar Lake formed by the Mullaperiyar Dam.

Source: https://srinagar.nic.in/tourist-place/dachigam-national-park/ ; https://www.tourism.rajasthan.gov.in/keoladeo-ghana-national-park.html ; https://www.kanha-national-park.com/ ; https://www.incredibleindia.gov.in/en/kerala/munnar/periyar-national-park

 Q.91) Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Co-operation (BIMSTEC)’?

1. Thailand
2. Nepal
3. Bhutan
4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) Only 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) option b is the correct answer.

The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising countries from South Asia and Southeast Asia. It was established to promote regional cooperation in areas such as trade, technology, energy, transportation, and tourism among nations dependent on or located near the Bay of Bengal.

Option 1 is correct. Thailand is a founding member of BIMSTEC. It plays a key role in representing Southeast Asia in this organization and has actively contributed to regional economic and security dialogues under BIMSTEC.

Option 2 is correct. Nepal became a full member of BIMSTEC in 2004. Despite being a landlocked country and not directly located on the Bay of Bengal, Nepal’s membership aligns with the group’s broader focus on South Asian regional integration.

Option 3 is correct. Bhutan is also a member of BIMSTEC. It joined in 2004 along with Nepal. The inclusion of Bhutan and Nepal demonstrates BIMSTEC’s strategic aim to enhance connectivity and cooperation in the extended Bay of Bengal region.

Option 4 is incorrect. Indonesia, despite being located in Southeast Asia, is not a member of BIMSTEC. It is, however, a key member of ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations), but it does not participate in the BIMSTEC framework.

Source: https://bimstec.org/member-states

Q.92) Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched ?

(Dam)                                 (River)

1. Baglihar Dam – Chenab
2. Pandoh Dam – Ravi
3. Srisailam Dam – Tungabhadra

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct. The Baglihar Dam is located on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a run-of-the-river project aimed at hydroelectric power generation and plays a critical role in the Indus Water Treaty discussions between India and Pakistan.

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Pandoh Dam is actually built on the Beas River, not the Ravi. It is situated in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh and is an important component of the Beas Project, which diverts water to the Satluj River for hydroelectricity and irrigation.

Pair 3 is incorrect. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River, not the Tungabhadra. Located in the Nallamala Hills of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, it is the second-largest hydroelectric project in the country. The Tungabhadra River, on the other hand, is a tributary of the Krishna.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-opens-one-gate-at-baglihar-dam-built-on-the-chenab-river-in-ramban-to-regulate-rising-water-levels/articleshow/121073842.cms?from=mdr ; https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/chenab-swells-as-india-throws-open-2-gates-of-baglihar-dam/articleshow/121067297.cms ; https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/himachal-pradesh-heavy-rain-bbmb-spillway-gates-pandoh-dam-9861154/ ; https://manalitourism.co.in/pandoh-dam-manali ; https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=srisailam_dam_wtp967 ; https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ndsa-flags-concerns-over-stability-of-srisailam-dam-101747507175336.html

Q.93) With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. It was initiated in 2019.
2. It aims to restore Mangrove forests.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) option a is the correct answer.

The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI) scheme was announced as part of India’s evolving climate resilience strategy and focuses on ecological restoration with a people-centric approach.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The MISHTI initiative was launched in the Union Budget 2023–24 (and not in 2019) by the Finance Minister of India. It is a recent effort aimed at addressing climate change adaptation and sustainable livelihoods.

Statement 2 is correct. The core objective of the MISHTI programme is to restore and promote the expansion of mangrove forests along India’s coastline. The scheme envisions collaboration with coastal states and other stakeholders for regenerating degraded mangrove habitats, which serve as natural buffers against storms, rising sea levels, and erosion. Moreover, mangroves support fisheries and provide sustainable income to coastal communities.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002625

Q.94) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as

Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Himalayas form source of several large perennial rivers.

Reason (R): The higher ranges of imalayas are snow covered throughout the year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) option d is the correct answer.

Statement A is correct. Major river systems such as the Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra, and Indus originate in the Himalayan mountain ranges. These rivers are referred to as perennial because they flow throughout the year, unlike rivers dependent only on monsoon rainfall.

Statement R is correct. The higher altitudes of the Himalayas, particularly those above 4,500 metres, remain snow-covered throughout the year. These permanent snowfields and glaciers, such as the Gangotri and Yamunotri glaciers, continuously release water, which sustains the flow of rivers even during dry seasons.

Statement R is the correct explanation of Statement A. The snow-covered higher reaches of the Himalayas, especially the glaciers and permanent snowfields, act as natural reservoirs of freshwater. This snow gradually melts throughout the year, even in non-monsoon months, ensuring a continuous and stable flow of water into the river systems that originate from the Himalayas.

This phenomenon is exactly what makes these rivers perennial, meaning they have water flowing all year round. Without this constant supply from melting snow, these rivers would not maintain such sustained discharge levels outside the rainy season.

Source: https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy104.pdf – Page 33

Q.95) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts – the Khalsa and the Jagirs.

Reason (R) : The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the State.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

The terms Khalsa and Jagir represent a broad territorial classification used for revenue and governance purposes under the Sultanate.

Statement A is correct.  During the Sultanate and subsequent Mughal period, the empire’s land was primarily divided into categories like Khalsa (crown land whose revenue went directly to the Sultan/Emperor’s treasury) and lands granted as Jagirs (revenue assignments to nobles and officials in lieu of cash salary).

Statement R is incorrect. The Jagirs were not lands under the direct control of the state. Instead, they were assigned to nobles or mansabdars, who collected revenue from them for their services. The Khalsa lands were the ones directly controlled by the state.

Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module2.pdf Page 201

Q.96) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

      A       B            C            D

(a) 3       2            1            4

(b) 2       3            4            1

(c) 2       3            1            4

(d) 3       2            4            1

Ans) b

Exp) option b is the correct answer.

The Padma Awards are among the highest civilian honours in India, instituted in 1954 to recognise distinguished contributions in various disciplines.

The awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day and are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. They span a wide array of fields such as Art, Literature, Science, Social Work, Public Affairs, Trade & Industry, Civil Services, Sports, and Medicine.

Option A. Trade and Industry – 2. Shri Osamu Suzuki
 Shri Osamu Suzuki, a well-known Japanese industrialist and longtime chairman of Suzuki Motor Corporation, was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in Trade and Industry for his exceptional contribution to India’s automobile sector through Maruti Suzuki.

Option B. Literature and Education – 3. Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair
 An eminent Malayalam writer, Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair was posthumously conferred the Padma Vibhushan in Literature and Education. He is known for his literary masterpieces and screenwriting excellence in Indian cinema.

Option C. Medicine – 4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy

Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy, a world‑renowned gastroenterologist from Hyderabad, was recognised for his exceptional contributions in medical science. He has pioneered several endoscopy innovations and established advanced medical research in India.

Option D. Art – 1. Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam

Celebrated violin maestro Dr. L. Subramaniam was honoured for his distinguished contribution to the field of art, especially Indian classical music. Known as the “Paganini of Indian Classical Music”, he has blended Indian and Western traditions globally.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2096285; https://www.padmaawards.gov.in/PadmaAwards/AboutAwards

 Q.97) Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s) ?

1. Rajasthan
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) option b is the correct answer.

Option 1 is incorrect. The well-known Pushkar fair (camel‑festival) takes place in Pushkar, Rajasthan. But Pushkar Kumbh Mela in May 2025 was not in Rajasthan.

Option 2 is incorrect. Uttar Pradesh (UP) hosts the Kumbh Mela at Prayagraj (the Maha Kumbh in 2025), but the Pushkar Kumbh event is separate and not in UP.

Option 3 is correct. After 12 years, the Pushkar Kumbh Mela was held in the village of Mana in Uttarakhand in 2025. The 2025 Pushkar Kumbh was inaugurated on 15 May 2025 at Keshav Prayag in Mana village in the Chamoli district, located at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Saraswati Rivers.

 Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/travel/news/uttarakhnad-pushkar-kumbh-mela-returns-to-mana-after-a-hiatus-of-12-years/articleshow/121206129.cms ; https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/chief-minister-dhami-announces-pushkar-kumbh-in-uttarakhand-after-12-years-2725192-2025-05-15

Q.98) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Dolphins and Whales breathe through blowholes.
2. Earthworm breathe through their skin.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

Breathing is a vital life process seen across all organisms, but the organs and methods used vary depending on the habitat and type of organism. While aquatic animals usually have gills, some marine mammals use lungs. Similarly, some terrestrial animals have evolved simpler mechanisms like diffusion through skin

Statement 1 is correct. Dolphins and whales are mammals. Unlike fish, they do not have gills. Instead, they breathe air through lungs just like humans. Their nostrils are located on top of their heads, called blowholes, which allow them to breathe easily when they surface. These blowholes are adapted to open only when the animal is at the surface and to remain shut when underwater, thus preventing water from entering the lungs. This feature is critical for their survival in aquatic environments.

Statement 2 is correct. Earthworms do not have lungs or gills. They respire through their moist skin by a process called cutaneous respiration. Oxygen from the environment diffuses through their skin and directly into the blood vessels. Similarly, carbon dioxide is released out through the skin. For this reason, their skin must always remain moist, which is why they are usually found in damp soil or come out during rains. If their skin dries out, they cannot breathe and may die.

Source: https://uk.whales.org/whales-dolphins/how-do-whales-and-dolphins-breathe/ ;

Class VII NCERT Science (Ch: 10 Respiration in Organisms) Pg: 115

Q.99) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural and psychological dimensions and inter-relation between them.

Reason (R): The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961 on the principle of ‘Unity in Diversity’.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) a

Exp) option a is the correct answer.

National Integration is the process by which people from diverse social, cultural, linguistic and regional backgrounds come together to form a unified national identity. It becomes especially critical for a country like India which is known for its pluralism. Several initiatives and institutions have worked towards this goal, including the establishment of the National Integration Council.

Statement A is correct. The idea of National Integration goes far beyond mere territorial unity. It involves harmony and coordination among political systems, economic development, social cohesion, cultural inclusiveness, and psychological belongingness. It also includes trust and understanding between different communities, religions, castes, regions and languages. A lack of integration in any of these areas can create divisions that threaten the integrity of the nation. Thus, National Integration is a multi-dimensional process.

Statement R is correct. The National Integration Council (NIC) was indeed set up in 1961 under the chairmanship of then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. It was created to address the challenges of communalism, casteism, regionalism and other social divisions. The guiding philosophy of the Council has been ‘Unity in Diversity’, which reflects India’s civilisational ethos of accepting and respecting differences. The council brings together political leaders, community representatives, and social activists to discuss and recommend strategies for national harmony.

Statement R is not the correct explanation of Statement A. The establishment of the NIC in 1961 is not the reason why National Integration includes political, economic, social, cultural, and psychological aspects. Those dimensions of integration were present and understood much before the NIC was established.

Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikant – National Integration; https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-10/NATIONALINTEGRATIONCOUNCIL_26082022_1%5B1%5D.pdf

 Q.100) Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg man and arrange them in correct increasing order.

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Copper
4. Iron

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 4, 3, 1, 2

(b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 3, 4, 1, 2

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Ans) c

Exp) option c is the correct answer.

The human body contains a variety of elements in varying quantities, each serving unique physiological roles. While oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen dominate by mass, trace elements such as copper and iron play critical roles in enzyme activity and oxygen transport. On the other hand, sodium and potassium are essential electrolytes involved in nerve signaling and fluid balance.

Option 1. A typical human body contains about 90 grams of sodium. It is mostly found outside the cells, in blood plasma and interstitial fluid. Sodium is vital for maintaining osmotic pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and transporting glucose and amino acids across membranes. The sodium-potassium pump helps regulate these activities by moving sodium out of and potassium into cells.

Option 2. Potassium is even more abundant than sodium, with about 170 grams present in a 70 kg human body. Unlike sodium, potassium is the major cation inside cells, where it activates enzymes and helps in glucose oxidation to produce ATP. It plays a central role in muscle contraction and nerve transmission.

Option 3. Copper is required in trace amounts, approximately 0.06 grams in a 70 kg adult male. It functions as a cofactor for enzymes involved in iron metabolism, the immune system, and antioxidant defense

Option 4. Iron is more abundant than copper, with about 5 grams present in an average adult male. Most of it is found in hemoglobin, which transports oxygen in the blood. It also exists in myoglobin and various enzymes. Although more abundant than copper, iron remains a minor element compared to sodium and potassium.

Therefore, the final order in increasing Abundance is:

3. Copper
4. Iron
5. Sodium
6. Potassium

Source: 11th NCERT – Chemistry. Ch: 10 – The s-block elements – Biological Importance of Sodium and Potassium (Pg: 306)

Q.101) Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and arrange their formation in correct chronological order.

1. Lakdawala Committee
2. Rangarajan Committee
3. Tendulkar Committee
4. Dandekar and Rath Committee

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a) 4, 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 4, 3, 2

c) 1, 4, 2, 3

d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Chronological Order of Committees on Poverty Estimation:Dandekar and Rath Committee (1971)

• First systematic study on poverty in India.
• Estimated poverty line based on minimum calorie intake (2250 calories per person per day).

1. Lakdawala Committee (1993)
   

• Recommended poverty lines based on calorie consumption norms.
• Used state-specific poverty lines and CPI for agricultural labourers/industrial workers.

1. Tendulkar Committee (2005)
   

• Shifted focus from calorie intake to consumption expenditure including health and education.
• Recommended using Uniform Recall Period (URP) consumption data.

1. Rangarajan Committee (2012)
   

• Recommended higher poverty lines than Tendulkar.
• Included better nutrition, health, and education expenditure estimates.

Hence, the correct chronological sequence is: Dandekar and Rath (1971) → Lakdawala (1993) → Tendulkar (2005) → Rangarajan (2012)

Source: https://prsindia.org/theprsblog/more-privatisation-on-the-cards?page=17&per-page=1

Q.102) Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of

Indian Constitution?

1. Nepali
2. Dogri
3. Bodo
4. Bhojpuri

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution currently includes 22 languages, which are:

Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.

Therefore, Bhojpuri is the only language among the options not included in the Eighth Schedule.

Source: https://rajbhasha.gov.in/en/languages-included-eighth-schedule-indian-constitution

Q.103) With reference to ‘acid and bases’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acidic solutions have pH more than 7.
2. Basic solutions have pH less than 7.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Acidic solutions have pH less than 7 because they contain more hydrogen ions, making them sour and corrosive in nature.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Basic or alkaline solutions have pH greater than 7 because they contain more hydroxide ions, making them bitter and slippery to touch.

Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secscicour/Science_Tech/l-8_acids,_bases_and_salts.pdf

Q.104) Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from carliest to the last.

1. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
2. K.R. Narayanan
3. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
4. R. Venkataraman

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3

(b) 4, 1, 3, 2

(c) 4, 1, 2, 3

(d) 1, 4, 3, 2

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as President from 1977 to 1982.
R. Venkataraman served as President from 1987 to 1992.
K. R. Narayanan served as President from 1997 to 2002.
A. P. J. Abdul Kalam served as President from 2002 to 2007.

Hence, in chronological order (earliest to latest):

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy → R. Venkataraman → K. R. Narayanan → A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Hence, the Correct Answer is: (a) 1, 4, 2, 3

Source:

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/list-of-presidents-of-india-from-1950-to-2024/articleshow/111489977.cms

Q.105) Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places. Arrange them in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Vaishali
2. Rajagriha
3. Kundalvana
4. Pataliputra

Code:

a) 1, 2, 4, 3

b) 2, 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 1, 4, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Chronological Order of the Four Buddhist Councils;

1. First Buddhist Council – Rajagriha (Rajgir)

It was held soon after the death of the Buddha in 483 BCE at Rajagriha, under the patronage of King Ajatashatru of Magadha. The council was presided over by Mahakassapa.

The purpose was to preserve the Buddha’s teachings. Ananda recited the Sutta Pitaka (teachings), and Upali recited the Vinaya Pitaka (monastic rules).

2. Second Buddhist Council – Vaishali

It took place about 100 years after the Buddha’s death (around 383 BCE) at Vaishali, under the patronage of King Kalasoka.

It was presided over by Sabakami. The main issue discussed was the relaxation of certain monastic rules by some monks of Vaishali.

This council resulted in the first schism in the Buddhist community — into Sthaviras (elders) and Mahasanghikas (great assembly).

3. Third Buddhist Council – Pataliputra

It was convened during the reign of Emperor Ashoka around 250 BCE at Pataliputra.

The council was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa.

At this council, the Abhidhamma Pitaka was added, and Buddhist missions were sent to different countries (including Sri Lanka).

4. Fourth Buddhist Council – Kundalvana (Kashmir)

It was held during the reign of Kanishka, the Kushana ruler, in the 1st century CE at Kundalvana near Kashmir.

The council was presided over by Vasumitra, with the scholar Ashvaghosha also participating.

This council marked the final split of Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana schools and led to the compilation of commentaries on the Tripitakas in Sanskrit.

Hence, the Correct Chronological Order is: Rajagriha → Vaishali → Pataliputra → Kundalvana

Therefore, the correct code is (c) 2, 1, 4, 3.

Source: Tamil Nadu Old SCERT, Class XI, Chapter: 4 – Jainism and Buddhism, Page: 43.

Q.106) Match List I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A            B            C            D

(a)          4            2            1            3

(b)          2            4            3            1

(c)          2            4            1            3

(d)          4            2            3            1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

1. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant — Tamil Nadu (2)

• Located in Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu, it is the largest nuclear power station in India.
• Established in collaboration with Russia (Rosatom) under the Indo-Russian agreement of 1988.

1. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station — Gujarat (4)

• Situated near Surat in Gujarat, this is the first fully indigenously designed 700 MW reactor developed by Indian engineers.
• Operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL).

1. Kaiga Generating Station — Karnataka (1)

• Located in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, this plant has four PHWR units.
• It is known for setting records for continuous operation; one unit operated for over 962 days non-stop, the longest in the world for a PHWR.

1. Rawatbhata Atomic Power Station — Rajasthan (3)

• Located near Kota, Rajasthan, this is one of India’s oldest nuclear power facilities, commissioned in the 1970s with Canadian collaboration.
• It houses multiple PHWR units, including Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) Units 1 to 7.

Hence, the Correct Code is:
 A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3

Therefore, the Correct Answer: (c) 2 4 1 3

Source: https://www.aerb.gov.in/english/regulatory-facilities/nuclear-power-plants

Q.107) Who among the following had won the International Booker Prize in 2025 ?

1. Banu Mushtaq
2. Deepa Bhasthi
3. Sanjay Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

The 2025 International Booker Prize was awarded to Heart Lamp, a collection of short stories written by Banu Mushtaq and translated from Kannada into English by Deepa Bhasthi. The award jointly recognizes both the author and the translator for outstanding literary work translated into English and published in the United Kingdom.

Hence, both Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhasthi won the International Booker Prize in 2025.

Source: https://thebookerprizes.com/the-booker-library/prize-years/international/2025

Q.108)  Match List – I with List II and choose the -correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A            B            C            D

(a)          3            4            2            1

(b)          4            3            1            2

(c)          4            3            2            1

(d)          3            4            1            2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

1. Gurumahisani – Odisha (3)

• The Gurumahisani iron ore mine is located in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.
• It is one of the oldest iron ore mines in India, discovered by P. N. Bose in 1904.

1. Bailadila – Chhattisgarh (4)

• The Bailadila iron ore deposits are found in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh.
• The region is known for its high-grade hematite iron ore, which has a high iron content.

1. Noamundi – Jharkhand (1)

• Noamundi is a well-known iron ore mining center in West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand.
• It is one of the main sources of iron ore for Tata Steel, which operates major mines here.

1. Kudremukh – Karnataka (2)

• Kudremukh is located in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka.
• It is famous for its magnetite iron ore deposits, which differ from the hematite ores found elsewhere in India.

Hence, the Correct Code is: A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/gorumahisani-indias-first-iron-ore-mine-township-is-a-picture-of-neglect-despite-100-years-of-mining/article65656906.ece

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/chhattisgarh-to-auction-high-grade-iron-ore-blocks-in-bailadila-range-of-dantewada-district/articleshow/118134889.cms

https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/08202014164430Nuvamundi%20Iron%20Ore%20Mnes-.pdf

https://sansad.in/getFile/annex/218/Au1051.pdf?source=pqars

Q.109) With reference to International Solar Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is the first treaty based Inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member countries.
2. World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One Grid Initiative were initiated under it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is indeed the first treaty-based intergovernmental organization headquartered in India (Gurugram, Haryana).

However, as of 2025, it has over 120 signatory countries and over 90 member countries, not just 38.

Statement 2 is correct: The World Solar Bank and the ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) initiative were both conceptualized under the ISA framework to promote solar energy cooperation and financing globally.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2071486

https://isa.int/one-sun-one-world-one-grid

https://ornatesolar.com/news/world-solar-bank

Q.110) Joint special forces exercise ‘KHANJAR-XII was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following Countries?

1. Russia
2. Turkmenistan
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Mongolia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

In March 2025, India and Kyrgyzstan conducted the Joint Special Forces Exercise “Khanjar-XII” in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan, from 10th to 23rd March 2025.
This was the 12th edition of the Khanjar series of exercises, which began in 2011.

The exercise aimed to enhance mutual cooperation, interoperability, and sharing of tactics between the special forces of the two nations, focusing on counter-terrorism, high-altitude warfare, and hostage rescue operations.

Hence, the Correct Answer is: (c) Only 3 — Kyrgyzstan

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2109604

Q.111) Which of the following Department prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Department of Finance
2. Department of Education
3. Department of Planning

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The Department of Planning in Uttar Pradesh is responsible for preparing the National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report related to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the state level. This report aligns with the national framework developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and tracks progress across various SDG indicators using state-level data.

Source: https://epariyojana.up.gov.in/sdg/Dash_cif/FINAL/State%20Report%20&%20Publication/UP%20Progress%20Report%20based%20on%20NIF/NIF%20progress%20report_2023.pdf  Page: 2.

Q.112) With reference to ‘Isotopes’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes.
2. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of carbon.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same atomic number (i.e., same number of protons) but different mass numbers due to varying numbers of neutrons.

Example: Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Protium (¹H), Deuterium (²H), and Tritium (³H) are isotopes of hydrogen, not carbon. They have one proton each but differ in the number of neutrons (0, 1, and 2 respectively).

Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?iesc1=4-12 Page: 44.

Q.113) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A            B            C            D

(a)          3            1            2            4

(b)          3            1            4            2

(c)          2            3            4            1

(d)          4            2            1            3

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

1. 7th Schedule → Union, State and Concurrent Lists
   The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States.

It contains three lists:
1. Union List – Subjects on which only Parliament can legislate (e.g. defence, foreign affairs, banking).

2. State List – Subjects on which only State Legislatures can make laws (e.g. police, public health, agriculture).
3. Concurrent List – Subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate (e.g. education, forests, marriage).
4. 8th Schedule → Languages
   The 8th Schedule deals with recognized official languages of India.

• When the Constitution came into force in 1950, there were 14 languages
• Over time, more languages were added through constitutional amendments — today, there are 22 languages (including Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Urdu, etc.).

1951. 9th Schedule → Validation of certain Acts/Regulations
      The 9th Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.

• Its purpose was to protect certain land reform and agrarian laws from being challenged in courts on the ground of violating Fundamental Rights.

1985. 10th Schedule → Disqualification on ground of defection
      The 10th Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

• It contains the Anti-Defection Law, which provides for the disqualification of legislators on the grounds of defection from one political party to another.
• The law applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures.

Hence, the Correct Answer is: (b) 3, 1, 4, 2

Source: Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS, Chapter: 9, Appendices, Page: 533-576.

Q.114) Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816?

1. Kathmandu
2. Shimla

3.Ranikhet

4. Nainital

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

The Treaty of Sugauli (1816) was signed between the British East India Company and Nepal after the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–1816).
Under this treaty, Nepal ceded several territories to the British, which included:

• Kumaon and Garhwal regions,
• Terai (southern lowlands), and
• Parts of Sikkim.

As a result of this territorial cession:

• Ranikhet and Nainital, located in the Kumaon region, came under British control.
• Kathmandu remained within Nepal.
• The British also acquired sites for hill stations, such as Shimla and Mussoorie.

Hence, the correct answer is: (c) 2, 3 and 4

Source:  A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 5, Expansion and Consolidation of British Power in India, Page: 127

Q.115) “Swavalambini”, a women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East is launched by which of the following ministries ?

1. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

The Swavalambini women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) in collaboration with NITI Aayog.

Key Details:

• Launched by: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
• Collaborators: NITI Aayog and Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE), Guwahati
• Target Region: North-Eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, and Mizoram
• Objective: To empower women in Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) with entrepreneurial skills, mentorship, and resources

Neither the Ministry of Women and Child Development nor the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is involved in this initiative.

Hence, the correct answer is (d) Only 1.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2100760

Q.116) Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea ?

1. Periyar
2. Pennar
3. Palar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct: Periyar River – It flows entirely within Kerala and drains into the Arabian Sea near Kochi.

Option 2 is incorrect: Pennar River – It originates in the Nandi Hills (Karnataka) and flows through Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Option 3 is incorrect: Palar River – It originates in Karnataka, flows through Tamil Nadu, and also drains into the Bay of Bengal.

Source:https://forumias.com/blog/periyar-river/

https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=pennar

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/palar-witnessing-flows-never-seen-before/article37603803.ece

Q.117) Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.

1. Gamma rays
2. Ultraviolet rays
3. Radio waves
4. X-rays

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 4, 1, 2, 3

(c) 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Electromagnetic radiations are arranged in decreasing order of frequency as follows:

Gamma rays > X-rays > Ultraviolet rays > Radio waves

• Gamma rays (1):
  Have the highest frequency and shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum. It is produced by nuclear reactions and radioactive decay.
• X-rays (4):
  Have slightly lower frequency than gamma rays. It is used in medical imaging and crystallography.
• Ultraviolet rays (2):
  Have lower frequency than X-rays but higher than visible light. It can cause tanning and can be harmful in excess.
• Radio waves (3):
  Have the lowest frequency and longest wavelength. It is used in communication (radio, TV, mobile).

Hence,
 Decreasing order of frequency is:
Gamma rays → X-rays → Ultraviolet rays → Radio waves

Therefore, the Correct code is: (c) 1, 4, 2, 3

 Source: https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/ncert-books/ncert-books-theory/class-12/nbt-phy-12/phy-12-chapter-8-electromagnetic-waves/

Q.118) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years.

Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years.

This statement is true because food security is not only about the total amount of food produced in a country but also about ensuring that every person has physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food at all times.

Reason (R) is true: Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.

This is also true and provides the correct explanation for the assertion. Even when a country produces more than enough food, sections of the population may face starvation or malnutrition if they lack access—either because of poverty, poor distribution systems, or regional disparities.

Hence, the Correct Answer is: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Source:https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iess204.pdf

Q.119) With reference to ‘Vice-President of India’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 64 of the Constitution, the Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He presides over the Rajya Sabha but is not its member.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President is not a member of either House of Parliament. If a person who is a member of either House is elected Vice-President, he/she is deemed to have vacated that seat on the date of election. (Article 66(3))

Source: Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS, Chapter: 15, EXECUTIVE BRANCH, Page: 281.

Q.120)  Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India’s success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals.

Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world population.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: With its vast population and significant developmental challenges in areas like poverty reduction, education, health, gender equality, and climate action, India’s performance directly influences the overall global progress toward achieving the SDGs. The UN has repeatedly emphasized that “India’s success is key to the world’s success in achieving the SDGs.”

Reason (R) is true: India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the world’s population — about 17.8%, with an estimated 1.46 billion people in 2025 (UN data, 2025). This makes India home to the largest share of humanity, meaning any substantial improvement or setback here significantly affects global SDG outcomes.

R explains A:

Because India represents such a large portion of the global population, its progress or lack thereof in meeting SDG targets substantially determines whether the world as a whole can achieve these goals. Hence, R correctly explains A.

Hence, the correct answer is: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Source: https://india.un.org/en/sdgs

https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/india-population/

Q.121)  Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:

A            B            C            D

(a)          4            2            3            1

(b)          2            4            1            3

(c)          2            4            3            1

(d)          4            2            1            3

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

1. Mahendravarman I → Pallava (2)

Dynasty: Pallava

Reign: c. 600–630 CE

Notable Facts:

• A great patron of art, literature, and architecture.
• Constructed early rock-cut temples like Mandagapattu cave temple.
• His reign marked the beginning of Pallava architectural excellence that peaked under Narasimhavarman I.

1. Kadungon → Pandya (4)

Dynasty: Pandya

Reign: 6th Century CE

Notable Facts:

• Regarded as the restorer of the Pandya dynasty after defeating the Kalabhras, who had disrupted Tamil kingdoms.
• Re-established Madurai as the Pandya capital.
• His rule marked the beginning of the Second Pandyan Empire.

1. Amoghavarsha I → Rashtrakuta (1)

Dynasty: Rashtrakuta

Reign: c. 814–878 CE

Notable Facts:

• One of the greatest Rashtrakuta rulers, who ruled from Manyakheta (modern Malkhed, Karnataka).
• He was known for his patronage of culture and literature , and was author of Kavirajamarga, the earliest known Kannada literary work.

1. Rajaraja I → Chola (3)

Dynasty: Chola

Reign: c. 985–1014 CE

Notable Facts:

• Expanded the Chola Empire through conquests in South India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
• He also built the Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur, a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Hence, the correct answer is: (b) 2 4 1 3

Source: Tamil Nadu New Scert, Class XI, Unit- 9- Cultural Development in South India, Page: 121, and Unit:11 – Later Cholas and Pandyas, Page: 155.

Q.122)  The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States ?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The Appiko Movement (meaning “to hug” in Kannada) began in 1983 in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka.

It was inspired by the Chipko Movement of Uttarakhand, but it originated independently in the Western Ghats region.

The movement aimed to stop deforestation, preserve the forest ecosystem, and promote afforestation and sustainable forest use.

Villagers hugged trees to prevent them from being cut down, hence the name Appiko.

Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keec107.pdf  Page: 121.

Q.123)  Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following?

1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
2. Ministry of Rural Development
3. Ministry of Finance

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched in 2015 and is implemented by the Ministry of Finance. It does not fall under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs or the Ministry of Rural Development

Under this scheme, loans up to ₹10 lakh are provided to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises through Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs.

The loans are given under MUDRA (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Ltd.), which is a subsidiary of SIDBI under the Ministry of Finance.

 Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2069170

https://www.myscheme.gov.in/schemes/pmmy

Q.124) Consider the following Election Reforma in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.

1. Voters photo identity card
2. Electronic voting machine
3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail
4. NOTA

Select the correct answer from the code given below

Code:

(a)2,1,3,4

(b) 1,2,4,3

(c) 1,2,3,4

(d) 2, 1, 4,3

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Chronological Order of Election Reforms:

1. Electronic voting machine (EVM) – First used on a limited basis in 1982 in Kerala (by-election), but nationwide introduction in phases began 1998–99, and were officially deployed nationwide in the 2004 general elections.
2. Voter’s Photo Identity Card (EPIC) – Introduced in 1993 under the Election Commission’s initiative to provide identification to voters.
3. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) – Introduced in August 2013 (first used in Noksen Assembly Constituency by election in Nagaland), and gradually expanded to ensure transparency in EVM voting.
4. NOTA (None of the Above) – Introduced in September-October 2013, following a Supreme Court directive, allowing voters to reject all candidates.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 2, 1, 3, 4

 Source: https://www.eci.gov.in/eci-backend/public/uploads/monthly_2022_11/10386732_LegalHistoryofEVMsandVVPATs_pdf.a942a6ed2e36892f92adecb5e88f6d3d  Page: 2

https://www.newsonair.gov.in/evolution-of-voter-cards-in-india-from-epic-to-e-epic/

https://www.thehindu.com/children/why-was-nota-introduced/article68206943.ece

https://hindi.eci.gov.in/files/file/3965-symbol-for-none-of-the-above-nota-option-english-%E0%A4%B9%E0%A4%BF%E0%A4%82%E0%A4%A6%E0%A5%80/?do=download&r=9393&confirm=1&t=1&csrfKey=d0fc5f67de4a38bc32a9a0f2e0f24f0f

Q.125) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat.

Reason (R): High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is falae, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) is true: Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat.

This is a fundamental principle of thermoregulation. When sweat evaporates, it absorbs latent heat from the skin, thereby cooling the body.

Reason (R) is true: High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.

High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation of sweat because the air is already saturated with moisture. This means less heat is removed from the body, making us feel hotter and more uncomfortable.

Link between A and R: High humidity interferes with the evaporation process, which is the mechanism by which body heat is dissipated. So, R directly explains why A becomes less effective under humid conditions.

Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 Source: https://www.weather.gov/media/pah/WeatherEducation/heatsafety.pdf

Q.126)  BHARATPOL’, an online portal for International Police Co-operation has been developed by which of the following?

1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Research and Analysis Wing
3. Intelligence Bureau
4. Enforcement Directorate

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

BHARATPOL Portal was launched by the Union Home Minister of India on 07.01.2025. It is a New portal developed by Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). It aims to provide all Indian law enforcement agencies with a seamless connection to Interpol; will help bring criminals to justice even if they flee India; provides real-time interface and access to Interpol databases.

CBI as National Central Bureau for INTERPOL in India coordinates international police cooperation through INTERPOL.

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2117802

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/home-minister-amit-shah-launches-bharatpol-for-international-police-assistance/article69071630.ece

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2090659

Q.127)  Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Acquisition of Awadh by the British
2. Ilbert Bill Controversy
3. Indigo Revolt
4. Second Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2

(b) 3, 1, 2, 4

(c) 3, 1, 4, 2

(d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer

Option 1: Awadh was annexed by Lord Dalhousie in 1856. Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh in 1856 after deposing Nawab Wajid Ali Shah on grounds of misgovernment.

Option 3: The Indigo Revolt started in Bengal in 1859. It was a revolt by the farmers against British planters who had forced them to grow indigo.

Option 4: In 1878-80, the second Anglo-Afghan was fought. The British fought this war to ensure that Afghanistan remained free from Russian interference. The Treaty of Gandamak was signed as a result of the Second-Anglo Afghan War.

Option 2: The Ilbert Bill controversy occurred during 1883-84. The bill sought to abolish “judicial disqualification based on race distinctions” and to give the Indian members of the covenant civil service the same powers and rights as those enjoyed by their European colleagues. Ripon had to modify the bill because of the stiff opposition from the European community.

Source:

https://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/awadh-and-subsidiary-alliance-wellesley-and

https://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/bransonism-bankim-chatterjee-ilbert-bill

https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20313/1/Unit-11.pdf

https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-07.pdf

https://www.nam.ac.uk/explore/second-afghan-war

Q.128)  As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following districts?

1. Amethi
2. Sultanpur
3. Sant Kabir Nagar

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Under One District One Product (ODOР) scheme, Moonj products are associated with Amethi, Prayagraj and Sultanpur.

Amethi: Moonj is a naturally growing perennial grass, known as Sarpat in the local dialect. Locals here make various types of decorative and household products from Moonj such as foot mats, carry bags, stools, ropes, pen stands, chairs, tables etc. The craftsmen make these products without using any advanced equipment.

Sultanpur: Around 1.5 lakh people are engaged in working with material made of moonj in the district. It is used for making a variety of products including ropes, weaved cots, etc. Rope Weaved cots are ready to use and give a remarkable traditional and ethnic look also. These cots are easily portable, storable and durable.

Source:

https://v2.india.gov.in/explore-india/odop/details/moonj-products

https://odopup.in/en/article/amethi

Q.129)  Which of the following Programmes/Schemes is/are NOT included in meeting the objectives of National Education Policy 2020?

1. ULLAS
2. DIKSHA
3. Bharat Nirman Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer

Option 1 is incorrect. Understanding of Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) programme was launched in 2022 as a key initiative under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The programme has significantly expanded educational opportunities for adult learners across India, with a special focus on rural communities and women.

Option 2 is incorrect. DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is a national platform for school education. It is an initiative of National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT), under the aegis of the Ministry of Education (MoE), GoI. Launched in 2017, DIKSHA has been adopted by almost all the States, Union Territories, central autonomous bodies/boards including CBSE. NEP 2020 aims that appropriate existing e-learning platforms such as SWAYAM, DIKSHA, will be extended to provide teachers with a structured, user-friendly, rich set of assistive tools for monitoring progress of learners. DIKSHA has been highlighted as an integral part of NEP 2020 providing multiple provisions for inculcating and promoting digital learning solutions.

Option 3 is correct. For improving infrastructure and providing basic amenities to rural India, an ambitious Bharat Nirman programme was launched in 2005-06. Under this unique project physical targets were fixed in six core areas of infrastructure development to be implemented by its terminal year i.e. 2009.  The areas are: rural road connectivity, accelerated irrigation benefit programme, rural drinking water supply, rural housing, rural electrification and rural communication facilities.

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2175252

https://www.ndear.gov.in/diksha-infrastructure.html

https://diksha.gov.in/about/

https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=24929

Q.130) Iron dome missile defence system belongs to which of the following countries?

1. France
2. United States of America
3. Israel

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer

Iron Dome is an air defence system of Israel. Iron Dome is a short-range anti-rocket, anti-mortar, and anti-artillery system with an intercept range of 2.5 to 43 miles and was developed by Rafael Advanced Defence Systems of Israel. Israel has at least 10 Iron Dome batteries deployed throughout the country, each designed to defend a 60-square-mile populated area and can be moved as threats change.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/iron-dome-israels-missile-defence-shield/article67421624.ece

https://www.iai.co.il/news-media/iai-action?utm_source=search&utm_medium=search_brand&utm_campaign=iai_in_action_3_2025_search_brand_in&utm_content=22849095814_184626904993_771206610862_c&gad_source=1&gad_campaignid=22849095814&gbraid=0AAAAADM00I0AX1UUh69MDq_aGe3AZ29bi&gclid=Cj0KCQjwo63HBhCKARIsAHOHV_V6jeMCC4AYbV2CzW1cKLd7I9V9jyxHa8dlnKZGHBStOQDzAbJ4WL4aArheEALw_wcB

Q.131) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different.

Reason (R): Length and thickness of vocal cord is different in men and women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Assertion is correct. It is true that the voices of men and women are different. Women have a thin voice as compared to men’s gruff voice and their voice-frequency is almost twice as high as that of men.

Reason is correct. The voices of men, women and children are different due to the variation in vocal cords. In general, male vocal cords are longer and thicker than female vocal cords. The length of the vocal cords of men is 20 mm long. The length of vocal cords of women is about 15mm long.

Source:

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/66536/1/Unit13.pdf

Q.132) With reference to ‘Human Development Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index.
2. The first team that developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Recently, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) released its latest Human Development Report (HDR) titled “A matter of choice: People and possibilities in the age of AI.”

Statement 1 is correct. Human Development Reports (HDRs) have been released since 1990. The first Human Development Report introduced its pioneering Human Development Index.

HDI is composite index that measures average achievement in human development taking into account four indicators: life expectancy at birth (Sustainable Development Goal 3); expected years of schooling (SDG 4.3); mean years of schooling (SDG 4.4); and gross national income (GNI) per capita (2017 PPP$) (SDG 8.5).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The first Human Development Index (HDI) was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq in 1990, with contributions from economist Amartya Sen.

Source:

https://hdr.undp.org/about/human-development

https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-human-development-report-index-hdr-indicies-upsc-10005196/

https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/undp-human-development-index-hdi-2025-top-10-highest-lowest-india-rank-9990114/

Q.133)  Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

1. National Voters Day (India) – 25 January
2. Constitution Day (India) – 27 January
3. Human Rights Day (World) – 29 January

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer

Option 1 is correctly matched. Since 2011, the National Voters’ Day (NVD) has been celebrated on January 25 every year to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (ECI),which was established on this day in the year 1950. The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to encourage, facilitate, and maximize voter enrollment, especially the new voters.

Option 2 is incorrectly matched. Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.

Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Human Rights Day is observed annually around the world on 10 December. It commemorates the anniversary of one of the world’s most groundbreaking global pledges: the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=151791&ModuleId=3

https://www.mygov.in/campaigns/constitution-day/

https://www.un.org/en/observances/human-rights-day

Q.134) Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Food for work programme
2. Community Development Programme
3. Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
4. Drought Prone Area Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 2, 3, 1

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(c) 2, 4, 3, 1

(d) 4, 2, 1, 3

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer

Option 2: The Community Development Programme was inaugurated on

October 2, 1952.

Option 4: The Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) is one of the areas development programmes launched by the Government in 1973-74.

Option 1: In 1977–1978, the Food for Work Programme was launched. In accordance with this initiative, the government helped the less fortunate do chores like building kutcha roads, removing debris, etc. in exchange for food grains. After this scheme, the National Food for Work scheme was renamed in 2001.

Option 3: Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment (TRYSEM) was initiated in 1979 to provide technical skills to the rural youth of families below poverty line. The purpose was to enable them to become self-employed. Later in 1987, the scope of the programme was extended to wage employment for the trained beneficiaries. During the 7th plan, about 11.6 lakh youth were trained under the TRYSEM.

 Source:

https://eparlib.sansad.in/bitstream/123456789/432901/1/47328.pdf

https://www.csrxchange.gov.in/upload/doc/cc0e2feb1ea7117760e460e3fb411c96.pdf

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/59006/1/Unit5.pdf

https://mospi.gov.in/sites/default/files/reports_and_publication/Twenty_Point_Programme/arr_ttp_chapter3.pdf

https://www.indiatoday.in/magazine/indiascope/story/19810531-food-for-work-programme-criticised-by-planning-commission-cag-772930-2013-11-22

Q.135)  Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

1. Chettur Sankaran Nair
2. Ishwari Prasad
3. Muhammad Shafi
4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) Only 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on April 13, 1919. On April 13, 1919, Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighbouring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh. It was then that Brigadier- General Dyer arrived on the scene with his men. The troops surrounded the gathering under orders from General Dyer and blocked the only exit point and opened fire on the unarmed crowd. No warning was issued, no instruction to disperse was given. An unarmed gathering of men, women and children was fired upon as they tried to flee.

Only Option 1 is correct. Chettur Sankaran Nair (11 July 1857 – 24 April 1934) was a lawyer and Judge.

As the sole Indian member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, Nair resigned in

1919 to protest the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, marking a significant moment in

India’s freedom struggle.

Source:

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pm-modi-hails-sankaran-nair-who-dared-british-after-jallianwala-massacre/articleshow/120277046.cms

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2121591

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/remembering-sir-c-shankaran-nair-on-his-168th-birth-anniversary-chennai/article69800984.ece

Q.136) With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a ‘Navratna’ public sector unit under the Ministry of Railways.
2. It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the New Pamban Bridge on April 6th 2025.

Statement 1 is correct. The New Pamban Bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Navratna PSU under the Ministry of Railways.

RVNL is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Railways, Government of India.

Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Central Public Sector Enterprises of the Ministry of Railways, was granted Navratna Status in 2023.

RVNL was incorporated as PSU on 24th January, 2003, with the twin objectives of implementation of projects relating to creation and augmentation of capacities of rail infrastructure on fast track basis and raising of extra budgetary resources for SPV projects.

Statement 2 is correct. New Pamban Bridge is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge. It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge, a 2.07-kilometre-long marvel spanning the Palk Strait in Tamil Nadu. Blending heritage with innovation, the New Pamban Bridge not only preserves the cultural and historical importance of the region but also marks a significant leap forward in design, connectivity, and regional development.

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2118895

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1921776

Q.137) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Consumers can bargain below Maximum Retail Price (MRP).

Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller must charge from the buyer.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer

Assertion is correct. Consumers can bargain for prices below the Maximum Retail Price (MRP). The MRP is the highest price, inclusive of all taxes, at which a product can be sold. Discounts can be offered at such prices.

Reason is incorrect. The maximum retail price is the highest price at which a seller can sell a packaged product to consumers in India.

It is a legal cap, inclusive of all taxes; printed, right on the packaging. It is illegal for retailers to undercut the cap in a competitive market and illegal to charge even an additional Re 1.

Source:

https://theprint.in/india/governance/modi-govt-considers-an-mrp-overhaul-what-it-could-mean-for-buyers-sellers/2710960/

https://www.cnbctv18.com/views/view-the-relevance-of-mrp-in-modern-india-7631721.htm

Q.138) Suez canal connects which of the following?

1. Atlantic Ocean
2. Red Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Indian Ocean

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer

The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.

This canal was constructed in 1869 in Egypt between Port Said in the north and Port

Suez in the south linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. It is a sea-level canal without locks which is about 160 km and 11 to 15 m deep. The canal separates the African continent from Asia, and it provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and the lands lying around the Indian and western Pacific oceans. It is one of the world’s most heavily used shipping lanes.

Source:

NCERT Fundamentals of Human Geography Page 74

Q.139)  With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was launched in June 2022.
2. Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched the ‘Lifestyle for the Environment – LiFE Movement’ on 5th June 2022.

It is an India-led global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment. It aims to nudge individuals and communities to practice a lifestyle that is synchronous with nature and does not harm it.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative was proposed by him at COP26. COP26 was held in Glasgow, United Kingdom.

LiFE was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi—at COP26 in Glasgow on 1 November 2021—as a mass movement for “mindful and deliberate utilization, instead of mindless and destructive consumption”to protect and preserve the environment.

Source:

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1831364

https://www.niti.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-11/Mission_LiFE_Brochure.pdf

Q.140)  With reference to World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as Bretton Wood Twins.
2. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund and World Bank are located at Washington D.C. and New York respectively.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Statement 1 is correct. The Bretton Woods Institutions are the World Bank, and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The IMF and the World Bank were created in July 1944 at an international conference in the United States (in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire) that established a framework for economic cooperation aimed at creating a more stable and prosperous global economy.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank share a common goal of raising living standards in their member countries. Their approaches to achieving this shared goal are complementary: the IMF focuses on macroeconomic and financial stability while the World Bank concentrates on long-term economic development and poverty reduction.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Monetary Fund is headquartered at Washington D.C. in the United States. The World Bank is also headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.

Source:

https://www.imf.org/en/About

https://www.imf.org/external/np/exr/map/index.htm#:~:text=across%20Pennsylvania%20Avenue.-,IMF%20headquarters%20has%20two%20buildings%3A%20HQ1%20visitors’%20entrance%20is%20at,Washington%20Metropolitan%20Area%20Transit%20Authority.

https://documents.worldbank.org/en/publication/documents-reports/documentdetail/471941468185346563#:~:text=Ever%20since%20the%20World%20Bank,site%20of%20the%20World%20Bank.

https://www.worldbank.org/en/archive/history/exhibits/Bretton-Woods-and-the-Birth-of-the-World-Bank

Q.141) With reference to the ‘Joint Sitting of Parliament’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.
2. A Joint Sitting of Parliament may be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Select the correct answer from the code given below!

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 108 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.

It says that:

If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House-

(a) the Bill is rejected by the other House; or

(b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or

(c) more than six months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it,

the President may notify the Houses his intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill.

Statement 2 is incorrect. A Joint Sitting of Parliament cannot be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill or a Money Bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.

Source:

Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition Chapter 22

Q.142) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

Code:

A  B  C  D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 2 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer

List I (A) matches List II (3): Goal 1 of SDG 2030 is to end poverty in all forms.

List I (B) matches List II (4): Goal 3 of SDG 2030 is Good health and Well-being.

List I (C) matches List II (2): Goal 4 of SDG 2030 is Quality Education.

List I (D) matches List II (1): Goal 6 of SDG 2030 is Clean Water and Sanitation

Source: https://sdgs.un.org/goals

Q.143) With reference to ‘Operation Olivia’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of Indian coast Guards to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha.
2. Operation Olivia is carried out during the month of August which is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect: Every year, the Indian Coast Guard’s “Operation Olivia”, initiated in the early 1980s, helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting from November to December.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/operation-olivia-to-the-rescue-of-olive-ridleys/article34799480.ece#google_vignette

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/annual-olive-ridley-nesting-season-begins-along-chennai-coast/article67737935.ece#:~:text=While%20the%20famed%20mass%20nesting,peak%20season%20for%20turtle%20nesting

Q.144) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Biosphere Reserve)                     (State)

1. Nokrek Manipur
2. Manas Assam
3. Agasthyamalai Kerala

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau (average altitude: 600 metres). It is located in the Garo hills which are part of Meghalaya and not Manipur.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Manas Biosphere Reserve is located in Assam.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Agashyamalai Biosphere Reserve is located in Kerala.

Source: https://www.unesco.org/en/mab/nokrek

https://indianculture.gov.in/node/2537419

https://forest.kerala.gov.in/en/biosphere-reserves/

https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/338/

Q.145) With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was established in 1991.
2. Only the developed countries are donors to it.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer

Statement 1 is correct: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in October 1991 and restructured after the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to fund projects in developing countries that protect the global environment and promote environmentally sustainable development. The GEF serves as a financial mechanism for multiple multilateral environmental agreements, including the UNFCCC, thereby supporting the implementation of the Paris Agreement.

Statement 2 is incorrect: GEF funding is provided by participating donor countries and made available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of international environmental conventions and agreements. It is not that only the developed countries can be its donors.

Source: https://www.thegef.org/newsroom/news/gef-how-it-all-began

https://www.thegef.org/who-we-are/funding

Q.146) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a Modern Democratic State.

Reason (R): The core objectives of Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Ans) d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

Assertion is correct. The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.

Reason is correct. The Directive Principles seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country. These principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.

For instance, Article 38 of the Constitution clearly says that “The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.”

Source:

https://www.mea.gov.in/images/pdf1/part4.pdf

https://blog.ipleaders.in/directive-principles-state-policy/

Q.147) Who among the following introduced the concept of entitlements in food security ?

1. M. S. Swaminathan
2. Atul Pranay
3. Samali Srikant
4. Amartya Sen

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Ans) b

Exp) Option b is the correct answer

The concept of entitlements in food security was introduced by Amartya Sen.

Food security means availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times. In the 1970s, food security was understood as the “availability at all times of adequate supply of basic foodstuffs”. Amartya Sen added a new dimension to food security and emphasised the “access” to food through what he called ‘entitlements’ — a combination of what one can produce, exchange in the market alongwith state or other socially provided supplies.

Accordingly, there has been a substantial shift in the understanding of food security. The 1995 World Food Summit declared, “Food security at the individual, household, regional, national and global levels exists when all people, at all times, have physical and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life”.

Source:

https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iess204.pdf

Q.148) With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit Scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji.
2. The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer

Statement 1 is correct: The President conferred the 58th Jnanpith Award for the year 2023 upon Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya and renowned poet-lyricist Gulzar.

Statement 2 is correct: The first Jnanpith Award was given to the Malayalam poet G. Sankara Kurup in 1965 for his collection of poems, Odakkuzhal (The Bamboo Flute).

Source: https://www.jnanpith.net/award.html?id=3&title=jnanpith

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2129148

Q.149) Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Bajirao I
2. Balaji Bajirao
3. Balaji Vishwanath
4. Madhav Rao I

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4

(b) 3, 1, 4, 2

(c) 3, 1, 2, 4

(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Ans) c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer

Personality 3: Balaji Vishwanath was appointed as Peshwa in the year 1713.

Personality 1: Baji Rao I  was the peshwa between 1720 and 1740.

Personality 2: In 1737, Baji Rao defeated the Mughals on the outskirts of Delhi, and brought much of the former Mughal territories south of Delhi under Maratha control. Baji Rao’s son, Balaji Baji Rao (popularly known as Nana Saheb), further increased the territory under Maratha control by invading Punjab in 1758.

Personality 4: After the battle of Panipat in 1761, for the next 10 years Madhav Rao is credited with the revival of the Maratha.

Source: https://panipat.gov.in/third-battle/

https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_History_Eng/315_History_Eng_Lesson15.pdf

Tamil Nadu SCERT Class 11th

Q.150) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(Railway Zone)                              (Headquarter)

1. Northern Railway New Delhi
2. North Eastern Railway Gorakhpur
3. South Eastern Railway Cuttack

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans) a

Exp) Option a is the correct answer

Pair 1 is correct: The headquarters of Northern Railway is Baroda House, New Delhi.

Pair 2 is correct: The headquarters of North Eastern Railway is Gorakhpur

Pair 3 is incorrect: The headquarters of South Eastern Railway is Garden Reach Kolkata.

Source: https://indianrailways.gov.in/railwayboard/view_section.jsp?lang=0&id=0,1,304,366,533,1007,1012

You can check the question wise answer of the Prelims questions, provided below: