UPSC Prelim (2012) GS Paper II (CSAT) Question Paper

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage I

The poor especially in market economics need the strength that collectivities offer for creating more economic, social and political space for themselves, for enhancing their socio-economic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free market individualism. It has been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivities, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable examples of such collectivities to be found in varied contexts, such as in transitions economies. All of them bear witness to the possibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.

Q.1) Agricultural collectivities such as group based farming can provide the rural poor

  1. Empowerment
  2. Increased agricultural productivity.
  3. Safeguard against exploitative markets.
  4. Surplus production of agricultural commodities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.2) What does the author imply by “gender impact”?

a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.

b) Family cooperatives may not include women

c) Women benefitting from group farming.

d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive.

Q.3) Consider the following assumptions:

  1. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectivities.
  2. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming.

With reference to the above passage which of these assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage II

In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of democracy invariably leads to consolidation of ‘liberal values’. In the Indian context, democratization is translated into greater involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as communities or groups. Individuals are getting involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’ individuals but as members of primordial communities drawn on religious or caste identity. Community-identity seems to be the governing force. It is not therefore surprising that the so-called peripheral groups continue to maintain their identities with reference to the social groups {caste, religion or sect} to which they belong while getting involved in the political processes despite the fact that their political goals remain more or less identical.  By helping to articulate the political voice of the marginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a loosening of social strictures’ and empowered the peripherals to be confident of their ability to improve the socio economic conditions in which they are placed. This is a significant political process that had led to a silent revolution through a meaningful transfer of power from the upper caste cities to various subaltern groups within the democratic framework of public governance.

Q.4) According to the passage, what does “deepening of democracy” mean in the Western context?

a) Consolidation of group and class identities.

b) Democratization translated as greater involvement of people.

c) Democratization as greater involvement of ‘atomized’ individuals in the public sphere.

d) None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context.

Q.5) Greater democratization in India has not necessarily led to

a) The dilution of caste and communal identities in the public sphere.

b) Irrelevance of community identity as governing force in Indian politics.

c) Marginalization of elite groups in society.

d) Relative unimportance of hereditary identities over class identities.

Q.6) What is the “silent revolution” that has occurred in the Indian democratic process?

a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies in political processes

b) Loosening of social strictures in voting behavior and patterns.

c) Social change through transfer of power from upper caste elites to subaltern groups.

d) All the statements a), b) and c) given above are correct in this context.

Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow:

Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, History, Statistics, English and Mathematics have to be arranged in a week from Monday to Friday. Only one lecture can be arranged on each day. Economics cannot be scheduled on Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is available only on Tuesday. Mathematics lecture has to be schedules immediately after the day of Economics lecture. English lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of Economics lecture.

Q.7) Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?

a) History

b) Economics

c) Mathematics

d) Statistics

Q.8) Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?

a) Economics

b) History

c) Mathematics

d) No lecture

Q.9) Which lecture is the last one in the week?

a) History

b) English

c) Mathematics

d) Economics

Q.10) Which lecture is located scheduled on Wednesday?

a) Statistics

b) Economics

c) English

d) History

Q.11) Which lecture is scheduled before the Mathematics lecture?

a) Economics

b) History

c) Statistics

d) English

Q.12) Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?

a) 1:3

b) 2:3


d) 5:3

Q.13) Consider the following statements:

  1. All machines consume energy
  2. Electricity provides energy
  3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain
  4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All machines are run by electric energy.

b) There is no form of energy other than electricity

)Most machines are operated on electric energy.

d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.

Q.14) Examine the following statements:

  1. None but the rich ran afford air-travel.
  2. Some of those who travel by air become sick
  3. Some of those who become sick require treatment

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All the rich persons travel by air.

b) Those who travel by air become sick

c) All the rich persons become sick.

d) All those who travel by air are rich

Q.15) In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equally friendly to all, and has to go up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend above whose flat lives the professor’s friend.

From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five professionals live?

a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

c) IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA

d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage I

Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education?’. The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility’, ‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse field for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have enormous use value. Education then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of conversion turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the mind – the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of thought. It is an inner process of moral-intellectual development.

Q.16) What do you understand by the ‘instrumentalist’ view of education?

a) Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes.

b) Education is meant to fulfill human needs

c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect

d) Education is meant to achieve moral development

Q.17) According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because

a) It helps to acquire qualifications for employment.

b) It helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status.

c) It is an inner process of moral and intellectual development

d) All the a), b) and c) given above are correct in this context.

Q.18) Education is a process in which

a) Students are converted into trained professionals.

b) Opportunities for higher income are generated

c) individuals develop self-critical awareness and independence of thought

d) qualifications for upward mobility are acquired

Passage II

Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of the pesticide resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a few individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals. Pests typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction, and so a few individuals in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and resistance spreads very rapidly in a population.

This problem was often ignored in the past, even though the first case of DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) resistance was reported as early as 1946. There is an exponential increase in the numbers of invertebrates that have evolved resistance and in the number pesticides against which resistance has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in every family of arthropod pests (including dipterans such as mosquitoes and house flies, as well as beetles, moths, wasps, fleas, lice and mites) as well as in weeds and plant pathogens. Take the Alabama leaf worm, a moth pest of cotton, as an example. It has developed resistance in one or more regions of the world to aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and toxaphene.

If chemical pesticides brought nothing but problems, – if their use was intrinsically and acutely unsustainable – then they would already have fallen out of widespread use. This has not happened. Instead, their rate of production has increased rapidly. The ratio of cost to benefit for the individual agricultural producer has remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA, insecticides have been estimated to benefit the agricultural products to the tune of around $5 for every $1 spent.

Moreover, in many poorer countries, the prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an epidemic disease, are so frightening that the social and health costs of using pesticides have to be ignored. In general the use of pesticides is justified by objective measures such as ‘lives saved’, ‘economic efficiency of food production’ and ‘total food produced’. In these very fundamental senses, their use may be described as sustainable. In practice, sustainability depends on continually developing new pesticides that keep at least one step ahead of the pests – pesticides that are less persistent, biodegradable and more accurately targeted at the pests.

Q.19) “The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply?

a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticide resistance.

b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon.

c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides

d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given above is correct.

Q.20) With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

  1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world.
  2. Chemical pesticides should not have any role in sustainable agriculture
  3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.21) Though the problems associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their widespread use has not waned. Why?

a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at all.

b) New pesticides are not invented at all.

c) Pesticides are biodegradable.

d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given above is correct.

Q.22) How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population?

  1. It is possible that in a pest population the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic makeup.
  2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides.
  3. Evolution of pesticide resistance is equally distributed in pest population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.23) Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing countries?

  1. Developed countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but it is imperative for poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides.
  2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticide addresses the problem of epidemic diseases of crops and eases the food problem.
  3. The social and health costs of pesticide use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) What does the passage imply?

a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted.

b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem.

c) There is no scope for the improvement of pesticides and making their use sustainable

d) Both the statements a) and b) above are correct.

Passage III

Today’s developing economies use much less energy per capita than developed countries such as the United State did at similar incomes, showing the potential for lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development strategy that increases resilience, reduces the threat of further global warming, and improves development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation measures can advance development, and prosperity can raise incomes and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better – built houses and with access to bank loans and social security is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its consequences. Advancing robust, resilient development policies that promote adaptation is needed today because changes is the climate, already begun, will increase even in the short term.

The spread of economic prosperity has always been intertwined with adaptation to changing ecological conditions. But as growth has altered the environment and as environmental change has accelerated, sustaining growth and adaptability demands greater capacity to understand our environment, generate new adaptive technologies and practices, and diffuse them widely. As economic historians have explained, much of humankind’s creative potential has directed at adapting to the changing world. But adaptation cannot cope with all the impacts related to climate change, especially as larger changes unfold in the long term.

Countries cannot grow out of harm’s way fast enough to match the changing climate. And some growth strategies, whether driven by the government or the market, can also add to vulnerability – particularly if they over exploit natural resources. Under the Soviet development plan, irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near disappearance of the Aral Sea, threatening the livelihoods of fishermen, herders and farmers. And clearing mangroves- the natural coastal buffers against storm surges – to make way for intensive farming or housing development, increases the physical vulnerability of coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or in Louisiana.

Q.25) Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability?

  1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests
  2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind’s creative potential.
  3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people.
  4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.26) What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context?

  1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.
  2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agricultural sector.
  3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming
  4. Less demand for goods and services.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) None of the above implies low-carbon growth

Q.27) Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the sustainable economic growth?

  1. Spreading of economic prosperity more.
  2. Popularizing/spreading of adaptive technologies widely
  3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technologies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b)2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.28) Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?

  1. Rainfed crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas
  2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) Consider the following assumptions:

  1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of man.
  2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash.
  3. Spread of the economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment

With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of this passage?

a)Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of climate change.

b) Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies

c) Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing economies.

d) Some countries resort to over exploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development.

Directions for the following 11 questions:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these passages should be based on these passages only.


Invasions of exotic species into new geographical areas sometimes occur naturally without human agency. However, human actions have increased this trickle to a flood. Human caused introductions may occur either accidently or as a consequence of human transport, or intentionally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities. Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and native communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake, Boiga irregularis into Guam, an island in the pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction.

One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen it have evolved there. If the species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome. The extent to which this homogenisation can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virtue of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introductions have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogenous.

It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to recolonize after the last glaciations).Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arises where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.

Q.31) With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Introduction of exotic species into new geographical areas always leads to reduced biodiversity.

b) Exotic species introduced by man into new areas have always greatly altered the native ecosystems.

c)Man is the only reason to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into more homogenous ones.

d)None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) is correct in this context.

Q.32) Why does man introduce exotic species into new geographical areas?

  1. To bread exotic species with local varieties.
  2. To increase agricultural productivity.
  3. for beautification and landscaping

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2and3only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.33) How is homogenization prevented under natural conditions?

a) Evolution of groups of species specific to local habitats.

b)Presence of oceans and mountain ranges

c)Strong adaptation of groups of specific to local physical and climatic conditions

d)All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

Q.34) How have the human beings influenced the biodiversity?

  1. By smuggling live organism
  2. By building highways
  3. By making ecosystems sensitive so that new species are not allowed
  4. By ensuring that new species do not have major impact on local species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 2 and 4

Q.35) What can be the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem?

  1. Erosion of endemic species.
  2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2


Most champions of democracy have been rather reticent in suggesting that democracy would itself promote development and enhancement of social welfare – they have tended to see them as good but distinctly separate and largely independent goals. The detractors of democracy, on the other hand, seemed to have been quite willing to express their diagnosis of what they see as serious tensions between democracy and development. The theorists of the practical spirit – “Make up your mind: do you want democracy, or instead, do you want development?”- often came ,at least to start with , from East Asian countries, and their voice grew in influence as several of these countries were immensely successful – through the 1970s and 1980s and even later – in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy.

To deal with these issues we have to pay particular attention to both the content of what can be called development and to the interpretation of democracy (in particular to the respective roles of voting and of public reasoning). The assessment of development cannot be divorced from the lives that people can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy. Development can scarcely be seen merely in terms of enhancement of inanimate objects of convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in personal incomes), or industrialisation – important as they may be as means to the real ends. Their value must depend on what they do to the lives and freedom of the people involved, which must be central to the idea of development.

If development is understood in a broader way, with a focus on human lives, then it becomes immediately clear that the relation between development and democracy has to be seen partly in terms of their constitutive connection, rather than only through their external links. Even though the question has often been asked whether political freedom is “conductive to development”, we must not miss the crucial that political liberties and democratic rights are among the “constitutive components” of development does not have to be established indirectly through their contribution to the growth of GNP.

Q.36) According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy?

a) Democracy and development are distinct and separate goals

b) Economic growth can be promoted successfully without pursuing a democratic system of governance

c) Non-democratic regimes deliver economic growth faster and far more successfully than democratic ones.

d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

Q.37) According to the passage, what should be the ultimate assessment/aim/view of development?

a) Rise in the per capita income and industrial growth rates.

b) Improvement in the Human Development Index and GNP.

c) Rise in the savings and consumption trends.

d) Extent of real freedom that citizens enjoy.

Q.38) What does a “constitutive” connection between democracy and development imply?

a) The relation between them has to be seen through external links.

b) Political and civil rights only can lead to economic development

c) Political liberties and democratic rights are essential elements of development.

d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.


The need for Competition Law becomes more evident when foreign direct investment (FDI) is liberalised. The impact of FDI is not always pro-competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a foreign corporation acquiring a domestic enterprise or establishing a joint venture with one. By making such an acquisition the foreign investor may substantially lessen competition and gain a dominant position in the relevant market, thus charging higher prices. Another scenario is where the affiliates of two separate multinational companies (MNCs) have been established in competition with one another in a particular developing economy, following the liberisation of FDI. Subsequently, the parent companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no longer remaining independent, competition in the host country may be artificially inflated. Most of these adverse consequences of mergers and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an effective competition law is in place. Also, an economy that has implemented an effective competition law is in a better position to attract FDI than one that has not. This is not just because most MNCs are expected to be accustomed to the operation of such a law in their home countries and know how to deal with such concerns but also that MNCs expect competition authorities to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.

Q.39) With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

  1. It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct investment should be pro-competitive.
  2. The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.40) According to the passage, how does a foreign investor dominate the relevant domestic market?

  1. Multinational companies get accustomed to domestic laws.
  2. Foreign companies establish joint ventures with domestic companies.
  3. Affiliates in a particular market/sector lose their independence as their parent companies overseas merge.
  4. Foreign companies lower the cost of their products as compared to that of products of domestic companies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.41) What is the inference from this passage?

a) Foreign investors and multinational companies always dominate domestic market.

b) It is not in the best interest of domestic economy to allow mergers company.

c) With competition law, it is easy to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.

d) For countries with open economy Foreign Direct investment is essential for growth.

Q.42) Examine the following statements:

1) I watch TV only if I am bored

2) I am never bored when I have my brother’s company.

3) Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along.

Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?

a) If I am bored I watch TV

b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company.

c) If I am not with my brother, than i’ll watch TV.

d) If I am not bored I do not watch TV.

Q.43) Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one out of A, P, and R are open at any one time. If B is closed so is Q. Only one of A & B is open during storms. P is closed during floods. In the context, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open.

b) During storms at least one road is open.

c) During floods only three roads are open

d) During calamities all roads are closed

Q.44) Examine the following statements:

  1. None but students are the members of the club.
  2. Some members of the club are married.
  3. All married persons are invited for dance.

Which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All students are invited for dance

b) All married students are invited for dance

c) All members of the club are married person

d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn

Q.45) Four political parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance of a candidate of the most of the parties. For aspiring candidates A, B, C and D approached the parties for their ticket.

A was acceptable to W but not Z

B was acceptable to Y but not X

C was acceptable to W and Y

D was acceptable to W and X

When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and Z and candidate A was acceptable to X but not Y: Who got the ticket?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

Q.46) Consider the following statements:

  1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.
  2. Some of them have radial tyres
  3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres are parked here.
  4. All cars are not X-brand.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) Only white cars are parked here.

b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.

c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.

d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.

Q.47)Consider the following statements:

The Third World War, if it ever starts will end very quickly with possible end of civilization. It is only the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger it.

Based on the above statement which one of the following inferences is correct?

a) Nuclear power will be used in Third World War.

b) There will be no civilization left after the third world war.

c) The growth of nuclear power will destroy civilization in the long run.

d) The third world war will not take place.

Q.48) Figures given below are changing with certain rules as we observe them from left to right:


According to this rule which of the following would be the next figure if the changes were made in the same rule?


Q.49) Consider the following information regarding the performance of class of 1000 students in four different tests:


If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is her performance the best comparatively?

a) Test I

b) Test II

c) Test III

d) Test IV

Q.50) Six squares are coloured, front and back, red(R), blue(B), yellow (Y), green (G), white (W), orange (O) and are hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they were folded to form a cube what would be the face opposite to white face?


a) R

b) G

c) B

d) O



In the above figure, circle P represents hardworking people, circle Q represents intelligent people, Circle R represents truthful people and circle S represents honest people. Which region represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful but not hardworking?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 8

d) 11

Q.52) Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below:


What is letter opposite to A?

a) H

b) P

c) B

d) M



Which one of the figures shown below occupies the blank space(?) in the matrix given below?


Q.54) Consider the following statements:

  1. All artists are whimsical.
  2. Some artists are drug addicts.
  3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.

From the above three statements it may be concluded that:

a) Artists are frustrated

b) Some drug addicts are whimsical

c) All frustrated people are drug addicts.

d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated

Q.55) Examine the following statements:

  1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older than B
  2. Either C & D are of same age or D is older than C
  3. B is older than C

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) A is older than B

b) B and D are of the same age

c) Dis older than C

d) A is older than C

Q.56) Examine the following statements:

  1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the member of the birdwatcher’s club.
  2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras.
  3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher’s club.

b) All members of the birdwatcher’s club have a pair of binoculars.

c) All those who take part in photo-contests are members of the birdwatcher’s club.

d) No conclusion can be drawn.

Q.57) During the summer vacation Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.

Based on the above information four conclusions as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?

a) Ankit’s parents want him to play guitar.

b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.

c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every summer.

d) Ankit likes to sing and dance

Q.58) Three persons A, B & C wear shirts of Black, Blue and Orange colours (not necessarily in the order). No person wore shirt and pant of the same colour. Further, it is given that,

  1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
  2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
  3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
  4. A did not wear the pants of green colour
  5. B wore pants of orange colour.

What were the colours of the pants and shirts worn by C respectively?

a) Orange and black

b) Green and blue

c) Yellow and blue

d) Yellow and black

Q.59) Ten new TV shows started in January- 5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.

Based on the above information, for conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which of these logically follows from the information given above?

a) Only one news magazine show is still going on.

b) Only one of the drama show is still going on.

c) At least one discontinued show was a drama.

d) Viewers prefer sitcoms over drama.

Q.60) Read the passage given below and the two statements that follow (given on the basis of the passage):

Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and other two are businessman. Two speak Gaujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are of the same profession, nor do they speak same language. The Tamil speaking doctor is Christian.

  1. The Christian-Businessman speaks Gujarati.
  2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim.

Which of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.61) Consider the following statement:

Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many things through television”.

Which of the following is the valid inference from the above given statement?

a) All expensive things are regarded as luxury.

b) All essential things for learning are not luxury.

c) Television is essential for learning.

d) Television is not a luxury item.

Q.62) Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48km/hr. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 10 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is his office?

a) 30km

b) 40km

c) 45km

d) 48km

Q.63) Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,

a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita

b) Sita is prettier than Rita

c) Rita is not as pretty as Gita

d) Gita is prettier than Rita

Q.64) Given that,

  1. A is the brother of B
  2. C is the father of A.
  3. D is brother of E.
  4. E is the daughter of B

Then, the uncle of D is?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) E

Q.65) Examine the following statements:

  1. Rama scored more than Rani
  2. Rani scored less than Ratna
  3. Ratna scored more than Rama
  4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Ratna.

Who scored the highest?

a) Rama

b) Padma

c) Rani

d) Ratna

Directions for the following eight items:

The following eight items (questions 66 to 73) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of the English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each item and answer the items that follow.


For fourteen and half months I lived in my little cell or room in Dehradun jail, and I began to feel as if I was almost a part of it. I was familiar with every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floors and on the ceiling with the moth eaten rafters. In the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of grass and odd bits of stone as old friends. I was not alone in my cell, for several colonies of wasp and hornets lived there, and many lizards found the home behind the rafters, emerging in the evening in the search of prey.

Q.66) Which of the following explains best the sentence in the passage “I was almost a part of it”?

a) I was not alone in the cell

b) I was familiar with every bit of the cell

c) I greeted little tufts of grass like old friends.

d) I felt quite at home in the cell

Q.67) The passage attempts to describe:

a) The general conditions of the country’s jail

b) The prisoner’s capacity to notice the minute details of his surroundings

c) The prisoner’s conscious efforts to overcome the loneliness

d) The prisoner’s ability to live happily with other creatures

Q.68) The author of the passage seems to suggest that

a) It is possible to adjust one-self to uncongenial surroundings.

b) The conditions in Indian prisons are not bad

c) It is not difficult to spend one’s time in prison

d) There is a need to improve the conditions in our jails.


We started pitching the highest camp that has been ever made. Everything took five times as long as it would have taken in the place where there was enough air to breathe; but at last we got tent up, and when we crawled in, it was not too bad. There was only a light wind and inside it was not too cold for us to take off our gloves. At night most climbers take off their boots; but I prefer to keep them on. Hilary, on the other hand took his off and lain them next to his sleeping bag.
Q.69) What does the expression “pitching the highest camp” imply?

a) They reached the summit of the highest mountain in the world.

b) Those who climbed that far earlier did not pitch any camp.

c) So far nobody climbed that high.

d) They were too many climbers and needed to pitch a big camp

Q.70) They took a long time to finish the work because:

a) They were very tired.

b) There was not enough air to breathe

c) It was very cold

d) It was very dark

Q.71) When they crawled into the tent

a) They took off their gloves because it was not very cold

b) They could not take off their gloves because it was very cold.

c) They took of their gloves though it was very cold.

d) They did not take off their gloves though it was not very cold.


A local man, staying on the top of the floor of an old wooden house, was awakened at midnight by fire. Losing his way in the smoke-filled passage, he missed the stairway and went into another room. He picked a bundle to protect his face from fire and immediately fell through the floor below where he managed to escape through a clear doorway. The “bundle” proved to be the baby of the Mayor’s wife. The “hero” was congratulated.

Q.72) The man went to another room because

a) He did not know where the stairway was

b) The passage was full of smoke

c) He was extremely nervous

d) He stumbled on bundle

Q.73) The man was called hero because

a) Expressed his willingness to risk his life to save others

b) Managed to escape from fire

c) Showed great courage in fighting the fire.

d) Saved a life

Directions for the following 7(seven) items:

Given below are the seven items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response that you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.

Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these seven items.

Q.74) You have differences of the opinion regarding the final report prepared by your subordinate that is to be submitted urgently. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would

a) Convince the subordinate that he is wrong

b) Tell him to reconsider the results

c) Revise the report on your own

d) Tell him not to justify the mistake

Q.75) You are competing with your batch-mate for the prestigious award to be decided based on an oral presentation. You have been asked by the committee to finish on time. Your friend however, is allowed more than the stipulated time period.

a) Lodge a complaint to chairperson against the discrimination.

b) Not listen to any justification from the committee

c) Ask for withdrawal of your name

d) Protest and leave the place

Q.76) You are handling a time bound project. During the project review meeting, you find that project is likely to get delayed due to lack of cooperation of the team members. You would,

a) Warn the team members for their non-cooperation

b) Look into the reasons for non-cooperation

c) Ask for the replacement of the team members

d) Ask for the extension of time citing reasons

Q.77) You are a chairperson of a state sports committee. You have received a complaint and later it was found that an athlete in junior age category who has won a medal has crossed the age criteria by 5 days. You would…

a) Ask the screening committee for a clarification

b) Ask the athlete to return the medal

c) Ask the athlete to get an affidavit from the court declaring his/her age.

d) Ask the members of the committee for their views

Q.78) You are handling a priority project and have been meeting all the deadlines and planning your leave during the project. Your immediate boss does not grant leave citing the urgency of the project. You would…

a) Proceed on leave without waiting for the sanction

b) Pretend to be sick and take leave

c) Approach higher authority to reconsider the leave application.

d) Tell the boss that it is not justified.

Q.79) You are involved in setting up a water supply project in remote area. Full recovery of cost is impossible in any case. The income levels in the area are low and 25% of the population is below poverty line (BPL). When a decision has to be taken on pricing you would….

a) Recommended that the supply of water be free of charge in all respects

b) Recommended that the users pay a onetime fixed sum for installation of taps and the usage of water be free

c) Recommended that a fixed monthly charges be levied on the non-BPL families and for BPL families water should be free

d) Recommended that the users pay a charge based on the consumption of water with differentiated charges for Non-BPL and BPL families.

Q.80) As a citizen you have some work with a government department. The official calls you again and again; and without directly asking you, sends out feelers for a bribe. You want to get your work done. You would…

a) Give a bribe

b) Behave as if you have not understood the feelers and persist with your application

c) Go to the higher officer for help verbally complaining about feelers.

d) Send in a formal complaint

year GS Paper CSAT Paper
2015Paper I Paper II 
2016Paper I Paper II
2017Paper I  PaperII 
2018PaperI PaperII  
2019Paper I    Paper II 
2020Paper I  Paper II  
2021Paper I Paper II
2022Paper I Paper II
2023Paper I Paper II

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