Pre-cum-Mains GS Foundation Program for UPSC 2026 | Starting from 5th Dec. 2024 Click Here for more information
Q.1) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Every member of Parliament who is not a Minister, is called a private member. In Lok Sabha, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on every Friday are generally allotted for transaction of “Private Members’ Business”, i.e., Private Members’ Bills and Private Members’ Resolutions. A private member’s bill is introduced by an individual member of the legislative, as opposed to a party. He/ She may belong to the party in power or the Opposition.
The first private member bill was the The Muslim Wakfs Bill, 1952: The bill was for providing better governance and administration of Muslim Wakfs and the supervision of Mutawallis’ management of them in India. The bill was introduced by Syed Mohammed Ahmed Kasmi in the Lok Sabha and passed in 1954.
http://164.100.47.132/LssNew/abstract/private_members.htm
http://www.firstpost.com/topics/private-members-bill-65105.html
Q.2) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryan and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Rigvedic Aryan used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans have domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The weapons of defense were almost same in both the ages. There is no evidence of the coat of mail and helmet in Indus Valley Civilization that was used by the Rigvedic Aryans. The Rigvedic Aryans used the metals – gold, copper or bronze and perhaps iron. There is no trace of Indus people using iron. They used more of silver and their utensils and vessels were made of stone as well as of copper and bronze. Rigvedic Aryans have had domesticated the horse but there is no evidence of the animal Indus Valley Civilization
Q.3) ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels
b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes
c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor is some public sector undertakings
d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development programme
Explanation: DGET Working group on the construction sector was formed by the DGE&T, Ministry of Labor and Employment to evaluate the strategies of workers engaged in construction sector. As an outcome of this initiative, the proposed RPL led skill development initiative for construction sector was proposed for implemenatation.
http://dget.nic.in/upload/files/54106c489f53cRPL.pdf
Q.4) From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assume importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
b) Nallamala Forest
c) Nagarhole National Park
d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Explanation: Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve has got a high diversity of flora and fauna owing to its location which is a confluence of Eastern and Western Ghats
Q.5) One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
a) Privileges
b) Restraints
c) Competition
d) Ideology
Explanation: Privilege is a social theory that special rights or advantages are available only to a particular person or group of people. The term is commonly used in the context of social inequality, particularly in regard to age, disability, ethnic or racial category, gender, gender identity, sexual orientation, religion and/or social class.
Q.6) Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC).
1. TRAFFIC is a beurau under United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP)
2. The mission of Traffic is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: TRAFFIC is a joint programme of World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the World Conservation Union (IUCN) and it works to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Traffic_(conservation_programme)
Q.7) Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
c) Right to work, education and public assistance
d) Securing living wages and human conditions of work to workers.
Explanation: 43A. Participation of workers in management of industries.-The State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organisations engaged in any industry.”.
http://indiacode.nic.in/coiweb/amend/amend42.htm
Q.8) Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens
b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State
d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many
Explanation: This question has to be solved by elimination. Rights are nit privileges of a few citizens as they are equally available to all,. Hence option D is wrong. Rights are not claims of the state against the citizens either. As fundamental rights in India are limitations on the state, rights are not privileges that are rolled out to citizens. Rights inherently belong to citizens. Hence they are claims of the citizens against the state. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
Q.9) Which of the following gives ‘Gloabal Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
a) World Economic Forum
b) UN Human Rights Council
c) UN Women
d) World Health Orgnisation
Explanation: This question has been done in the prelims test series many a times.
Q.10) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
1. It is centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovation for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country complete digital in a decade.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Smart India Hackathon 2017, has been launched to build Digital India and to engage the youth directly with nation building. It was a 36 hrs non-stop digital product development competition during which teams of thousands of technology students will build innovative digital solutions for the problems posted by 29 different central govt. ministries/ departments e.g. Ministry of Railways, External Affairs, Ministry of Defense, ISRO, Ministry of Tourism, Dept. of Atomic Energy, etc.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=159825
Q.11) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee?
1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12 member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It function under the Chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee of the Central Bank in India (Reserve Bank of India), headed by its Governor, which is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to contain inflation within the specified target level i.e. inflation targeting
http://blog.forumias.com/monetary-policy-committee-mpc/
Q.12) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements
1. It is a song and dance performance
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is used to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Explanation: Manipuri Sankirtana is a form of performing art involving ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in the temples and domestic spaces in Manipur State in India. Through the performances which exhibit unparalleled religious devotion and energy, the performers narrate the many stories of Krishna. In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manipuri_Sankirtana
Q.13) Which among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Captain Alexander Read introduced a land revenue system that was called the ryotwari. The system was further developed by Thomas Munro, the Governor of Madras and came to be known as the Munro system.
https://www.nextgurukul.in/wiki/concept/CBSE/VIII/History/Revenue-Systems.htm
Q.14) In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganism specifically designed for bioremediation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Bioremediation is a waste management technique that involves the use of organisms to neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site, thus it’s the same process that occurs in nature. However, not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. For example, heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms. The use of genetic engineering to create organisms specifically designed for bioremediation has great potential
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bioremediation
Q.15) The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
a) the participation of the workers in the management of industries
b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes
c) an intervention by British Court in the event of a trade dispute
d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes
Explanation: The Trades Disputes Act (1929) of the Government of India, which evoked so much protest, prevents lightning strikes by prescribing a month’s notice in public utility service. The present Bill not only demands a notice of strike, but makes every strike which takes place before the conciliatory proceedings are over illegal, but the notice provision, together with the conciliatory proceedings, would make strikes impossible for a period of between three to five months — thus strike action would be paralysed under this Bill.
Q.16) Local self government can be best explained as an exercise in
a) Federalism
b) Democratic decentralisation
c) Administrative delegation
d) Direct democracy
Explanation: The local self-government possesses political autonomy. The political ideal that exists in democratic decentralization is reflected in the local self-government.
Q.17) Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitutes limitation upon
1. Legislative Function
2. Executive Function
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy does not impose any limitations on anybody. It is a guideline that government can use for the welfare of the socially and economically backward classes.
Q.18) The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the new refers to
a) ASEAN
b) BRICS
c) EU
d) G 20
Explanation: The Digital Single Market strategy aims to open up digital opportunities for people and business and enhance Europe’s position as a world leader in the digital economy.
https://ec.europa.eu/digital-single-market/en/policies/shaping-digital-single-market
Q.19) At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
a) Bhavnagar
b) Bheemunipatnam
c) Chandipur
d) Nagapattinam
Explanation: Chandipur (Odia), also known as Chandipur-on-sea (Odia), is a small sea resort in Baleswar District, Odisha, India. The beach is unique in that the water recedes up to 5 kilometers during the ebb tide. A unique phenomenon rarely seen anywhere else, the sea recedes by as much as five kilometres every day on the Chandipur beach in eastern India, not just enthralling the onlooker but also offering an opportunity to literally walk into the sea.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chandipur,_Odisha
http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/chandipur-beach-sea-water-chandipur-odisha/1/178011.html
Q.20) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :
1. A property transaction is no treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government
3. The act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: A property bought by an individual not under his or her name is benami property. It can include property held in the name of spouse or child for which the amount is paid out of known sources of income. A joint property with brother, sister or other relatives for which the amount is paid out of known sources of income also falls under benami property. The transaction involved in the same is called benami transaction.
The PBPT Act prohibits recovery of the property held benami from benamidar by the real owner. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the government without payment of compensation.’ The new law also provides for an appellate mechanism. in the form of an adjudicating authority and appellate tribunal….
Q.21) Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected
2. There could be drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Butterflies and their host plants have a special relationship The host plant provides its butterfly with food, perhaps a place to lay its eggs and assists in other life cycle functions; the butterfly pollinates the host plant. If a flower blooms earlier than its specific butterfly arrives, there’s a chance that when its butterfly finally does arrive, the flower will be past its blooming period. Therefore, neither the butterfly nor the flower will be able to engage in this mutually beneficial behavior. The butterfly doesn’t eat, and the flower doesn’t get pollinated.
Butterflies play a large part in food webs and food chains – at all stages of their lifecycle they can be a food item for other animals. When the flora or fauna on the lower part of a food web or food chain is impacted by climate change, the fauna on the higher end can also be impacted. In a food chain each subsequent level depends on the previous level, therefore, a disruption at the lowest level can cause problems that echo throughout the chain. Nearly two-thirds of all invertebrates can be connected back to the butterfly on the food chain. Thus decline in butterfly population may lead to the fall in some species of wasps, spiders etc.
There is no sufficient data to prove that fall in butterfly population will lead to drastic increase in fungal infection in cultivated plants.
Q.22) It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only an not on continents
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may rise ecological and social concerns
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The biggest disadvantage of producing algae biofuel is that it is still far too expensive to be commercially viable, with the prices of various algae species typically varying between five to 10 dollars per kilogram. As of this time, the industry is still experimenting on a wide variety of methods to grow algae, with the most popular being open-pond systems that accounted for 98% of commercial algae biomass production in 2008. Though these systems are relatively cheap compared to other methods, such as bioreactors, they have some serious flaws, like the possibility of contamination by native algae species, viral infection, evaporation and lower energy density of the oil.
These strategies are functional at the small scale; however, as their use has increased, it is evident that they are not sustainable, owing to the enormous amount of agricultural land that would be required to supplant a significant fraction of petroleum using this strategy. Therefore may lead to environmental and social concerns. Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
https://futureofworking.com/7-advantages-and-disadvantages-of-algae-biofuel/
Q.23) Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women
3. To promote the consumption of millets coarse cereals and unpolished rice
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Explanation: The key objectives of National Nutrition Mission are as under:
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
2. To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
3. To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=103192
Q.24) Consider the following statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: To improve the lot of the factory workers in towns, Lord Ripon passed the first Factory Act in 1881. The Act prohibited the employment of children under the age of seven, limited the number of working hours for children below the age of twelve and required that dangerous machinery should be fenced properly.
The Act also made provision for one hour rest during the working period and four days leave in a month for the workers. Inspectors were appointed to supervise the implementation of these measures. But the act did not fix the wages neither allowed formation of trade unions.
Narayan Meghaji (1848-1897) was a pioneer of the labour movement in India.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Narayan_Meghaji_Lokhande
http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/reforms-brought-by-lord-ripon-discussed/2563
Q.25) In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Carbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide.[1] Carbon sequestration involves long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to mitigate or defer global warming. Carbon capture and storage (CCS) (or carbon capture and sequestration) is the process of capturing waste carbon dioxide (CO2) from large point sources, such as fossil fuel power plants, transporting it to a storage site, and depositing it where it will not enter the atmosphere, normally an underground geological formation. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams, depleted oil and gas reservoirs and subterranean deep saline formation, all these three belong to the above mentioned geological formation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_capture_and_storage
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_sequestration
Q.26) The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments
b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India
c) Impose censorship on national press
d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Explanation: On 16th December 1927, Sir Harcourt Butler (1869-1938) accepted the chairmanship of a three-person committee to examine the financial and economic relationships existing between British India and the Indian States.
http://www.indianetzone.com/35/butler_committee_19271929_british_india.htm
Q.27) The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
a) Developing solar power production in our country
b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country
c) Exporting our food products to other countries
d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country
Explanation: With an objective to establish India as a global leader in solar energy the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (hereinafter referred as “MNRE”) has launched The Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (hereinafter referred as “JNNSM”) in the year 2010 to achieve the set target of grid connected solar power capacity of 20,000 MW by 2022, in three (3) phases (first phase upto 2012-13, second phase from 2013 to 2017 and the third phase from 2017 to 2022).
Q.28) Consider the following statements :
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of United Nations
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Nuclear Security Summit (NSS) is a world summit, aimed at preventing nuclear terrorism around the globe. The first summit was held in Washington, D.C., United States, on April 12–13, 2010.
The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM), established in 2006, is a group of independent nuclear experts from 18 countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Iran, Japan, the Netherlands, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nuclear_Security_Summit
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Panel_on_Fissile_Materials
Q.29) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
a) Resident Indian citizens only
b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004.
Explanation: NPS is applicable to all new employees of Central Government service (except Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies joining Government service on or after 1st January 2004.
NPS is applicable to all the employees of State Governments, State Autonomous Bodies joining services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments.
https://india.gov.in/spotlight/national-pension-system-retirement-plan-all#nps3
Q.30) With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through the Sikkim
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Rangeet or Rangit (Devanagari रंगीत) is a tributary of the Teesta river, which is the largest river in the Indian state of Sikkim. The Teesta river flows into Bay of Bengal after flowing through Bnagladesh and not in between the border of the two country.
Q.31) Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Zika virus is transmitted to people primarily through the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito. These are the same mosquitoes that spread Dengue and Chikungunya viruses. Zika can be passed through sex from a person who has Zika to his or her partners. Zika can be passed through sex, even if the infected person does not have symptoms at the time.
https://www.cdc.gov/zika/transmission/index.html
Q.32) Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tires and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 (63 of 1986) Sec 14 is mandatory for Pneumatic Tyres and Tubes for Automotive Vehicles (Quality Control) Order, 2009. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937 (and amended in 1986).
http://dgft.gov.in/Exim/2000/NOT/itc(hs)/Appen-III.pdf
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agmark
Q.33) What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmer’s access to the nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ Scheme say that it is a pan-India Electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities and it provides the farmer access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Thus, both the options are correct.
http://www.enam.gov.in/NAM/home/about_nam.html#
Q.34) With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’ reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and TRIPS Agreement and development of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Thus both the statements are correct.
Q.35) According to the Wildlife [Protection] Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Under the wildlife Protection Act, SCHEDULE I, II, III and IV (Sections 2, 8,9,11, 40, 41, 48, 51, 61 & 62), no person shall hunt the Indian Wild Ass, Wild Buffalo and Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus). Unless there is an exception.
http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/wildlife1l.pdf
Q.36) Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The fundamental duties enjoined on citizen under Article 51-A should also guide the legislative and executive actions of elected or non-elected institutions and organizations of the citizens including the municipal bodies. The fundamental Duties are not enforceable by mandamus or any other legal remedy. Thus both the statements are incorrect
Q.37) Consider the following pairs:
1. Radhakanta Deb- First President of the British Indian Association.
2. GazuluLakshminarasuChetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association and the first Indian-owned newspaper, The Crescent.
Indian Association was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.
The British Indian Association was established on 31 October 1851. Raja Radhakanta Deb was the first President of the British Indian Assosciation.
Therefore the correct answer is b.
Note: The Madras Mahajana Sabha was established by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu in 1884.
Q.38) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
a) Liberty of thought
b) Economic liberty
c) Liberty of expression
d) Liberty of belief
Explanation: The preamble of the constitution of India enriched the objective of Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. Economic Liberty is not a part of the objective.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Preamble_to_the_Constitution_of_India
Q.39) With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the India Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the Government of India in setting up organizations in partnership with the Indian industry. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on recommendation of the industry to the government.
Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.
Q.40) What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business units.
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers.
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.41) With reference to ‘Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development [APMCHUD], consider the following statements:
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms’ – Policy Response and Governance Structure’.
2. India host all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The first conference theme was “A vision for sustainable urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”. However the theme mentioned in the question is of 6th Conference.
The Conference of APMCHUD is a biennial event. This event is hosted by one of the member countries whose offer is consented to by the members in the previous conference of the APMCHUD.
Therefore, both the statements are incorrect. The correct answer is d.
Q.42) Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
b) the methods for strengthening executing leadership
c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Explanation: Democracy’s superior virtue entities the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women. Other options don’t justify the answer.
Q.43) Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘United Payments Interface [UPI]?
a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades
c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.
Explanation: UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords. Therefore, correct answer is a.
Q.44) The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’ ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth.
Explanation: The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘Single Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are the observations and understanding of the Universe.
An event horizon is a boundary in space-time beyond which events cannot affect an outside observer. A gravitational singularity or space-time singularity is a location in space-time where the gravitational field of a celestial body becomes infinite in a way that does not depend on the coordinate system. The Standard Model of particle physics is the theory describing three of the four known fundamental forces in the universe as well as classifying all known elementary particles. Single Theory fully explains and links together all physical aspects of the universe.
Q.45) With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’ often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The future usage of ‘Genome sequencing’ would plant breeders develop newer varieties that can yield more and are drought and disease tolerant, reduce the time to breed new varieties of plants as plant breeders would now have access to genes with the required traits and decode the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Thus, the answer is valid for all the three options.
Q.46) The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
a) the executive and legislature work independently
b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient
c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature
d) the head of the government cannot be changed without the election.
Explanation: In a parliamentary form of government, the executive branch is dependent upon the direct or indirect support of the legislative branch and often includes members of the legislature. Thus, the main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
Q.47) In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties
c) Rights, not Duties are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen
d) Duties, not Rights are important for the stability of the State.
Explanation: Every right of an individual involves a corresponding duty of others. For example, my right to life implies that others should give protection and security to my life. My right to move about freely implies a corresponding duty resting on others that they should not interfere with my free movement. Thus option b) is the correct answer.
Q.48) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
a) The Preamble
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
d) The Fundamental Duties
Explanation: Preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document, and it indicates the source from which the document derives its authority, meaning, the people. Hence it reflects the whole essence of the constitution
https://books.google.co.in/books/about/The_Preamble.html?id=5AwmAAAAMAAJ&redir_esc=y
Q.49) If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Explanation: The states are Nagaland, Assam, West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Q.50) The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Statement 3 is correct. The correct answer is b
The Pulicat Lake is spread over two states: Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Western Ghats spread over 6 states: Gujrat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
The Indian Himalayas spread over more than states. Refer the map.
Q.51) Which of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatia Kingdom?
a) Kakinada
b) Motupalli
c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
d) Nelluru
Explanation: Motupalli was an important seaport of Kakatiya Kingdom.
Q.52) With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by world Resources Institute (WRI) and world business council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an initiative of the European Union. The GCCA provides technical and financial support to partner countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets, and to implement projects that address climate change on the ground, promoting climate-resilient, low-emission development. Technical and financial cooperation, in turn, informs political dialogue and exchange of experience at regional and global levels.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (a).
Ref: http://www.climatefundsupdate.org/listing/global-climate-change-allianc
Q.53) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sautrantika and sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituts of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Saṃmitīya and Sautrantika were one of the eighteen or twenty early Buddhist schools in India. The Sarvastivada (roughly, “Proclaiming that all exist”) -a reference to one of the distinguishing doctrines of the school, the existence of dharmas in all of “the three times” (past, present, and future).
Thus it implies that the existence of dharma or phenomena as stated in the question, exists in past, present and future i.e. exists forever but is not apparently visible. Hence the correct answer is option b)
Q.54) Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: The following countries have a coastline on the Mediterranean Sea:
Northern shore (from west to east): Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece and Turkey.
Eastern shore (from north to south): Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel.
Southern shore (from west to east): Morocco, Algeria, Tunisia, Libya, Egypt.
Island nations: Malta, Cyprus.
Q.55) With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs 4,00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: With a view to realizing the dream of Development for all, the Government of India has placed investment in infrastructure as one of the key drivers of development of the Indian economy. The corpus of the Fund is proposed to be of the order of Rs.40,000 cr
Ref: http://niifindia.com/home-page.html
Q.56) The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Explanation: The GIF is administered by a Management Unit, housed at the World Bank Group. GIF-supported projects may be implemented by privately-operated entities (as under a PPPs modality), or by public sector entities operating on a commercial basis— provided in either case that they are providing infrastructure as a public service, and that the project has strong potential to achieve financial viability and sustainability and to attract long-term private capital.
http://www.unescap.org/sites/default/files/1b%20-%20Annex%20-%20GIF%20Brochure.pdf
Q.57) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
a)anyone resident in India.
b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
d) any citizen of India.
Explanation: A non citizen cannot be a contesting candidate in the elections. Article 84 (a) of the Constitution of India envisages that a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill up a seat in the Parliament unless he is a citizen of India. Similar provision exists for State Legislative Assemblies in Article 173 (a) of the Constitution. Also for contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies.
http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/Contesting.aspx
Q.58) Considered the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Statement 3 is correct. The correct answer is b
The Pulicat Lake is spread over two states: Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Western Ghats spread over 6 states: Gujrat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The Indian Himalayas spread over more than states. Refer the map.
Q.59) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Explanation: Biochemical oxygen demand or BOD is a chemical procedure for determining the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temperature over a specific time period. it is widely used as an indication of the organic quality of water, thus helps in assessing level of pollution in aquatic ecosystems.
Q.60) With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access-to safe drinking water and bask sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Explanation: The United Nations Human Settlements Programme, UN-HABITAT, is the United Nations agency for human settlements. It is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all.
UN-HABITAT has many partnerships with governments, international and regional organizations, municipalities and various regional and international local authority groups. Others include parliamentarians, non-governmental organisations, community-based organisations, women’s and youth groups, trade unions, urban professionals, researchers and spiritual organisations, all involved in helping the urban poor.
It also works to improve human settlements, reduce poverty in towns and cities, promote access to safe drinking water and sanitation and make towns and cities safer, more sustainable and environmentally friendly.
Refer to: http://mirror.unhabitat.org
Q.61) With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) is a competency-based framework that organizes all qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude. These levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they are obtained through formal, non-formal or informal learning.
Specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF are:
1. Mobility between vocational and general education by alignment of degrees with NSQF
2. Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), allowing transition from non-formal to organised job market
3. Standardised, consistent, nationally acceptable outcomes of training across the country through a national quality assurance framework
4. Global mobility of skilled workforce from India, through international equivalence of NSQF
5. Mapping of progression pathways within sectors and cross-sectorally
6. Approval of NOS/QPs as national standards for skill training.
Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is b.
http://www.skilldevelopment.gov.in/nsqf.html
Q.62) In the context of Indian history, the-principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
b) Introduction of double government i.e.; Central and State governments.
c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Explanation: Dyarchy, a system of double government was introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India. It marked the first introduction of the democratic principle into the executive branch of the British administration of India.
https://www.britannica.com/topic/dyarchy
Q.63) Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.64) Which of the following statements best describes the- term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.
Explanation: The S4A Scheme aims at deep financial restructuring of big debted projects by allowing lender (bank) to acquire equity of the stressed project. In this context, the scheme makes financial restructuring of large projects at the same time helping the lender’s ability to deal with such stressed assets. It is intended to restore the flow of credit to critical sectors including infrastructure.
Q.65) Consider the following statements :
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries;
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and six countries—Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States—on 16 February 2012.
The CCAC focuses on short lived climatic pollutants like black carbon, methane, hydroflucarbons, Tropospheric or ground-level ozone (O3). Statement 1 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is b.
Q.66) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’. sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two areas (or poles, hence a dipole) – a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. The IOD affects the climate of Australia and other countries that surround the Indian Ocean Basin, and is a significant contributor to rainfall variability in this region. is thought that the IOD has a link with ENSO events through an extension of the Walker Circulation to the west and associated Indonesian throughflow (the flow of warm tropical ocean water from the Pacific into the Indian Ocean). Hence, positive IOD events are often associated with El Niño and negative events with La Niña.
Q.67) If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
b) Chambal River
c) Pulicat Lake
d) DeeporBeel
Explanation: The most important surviving populations of Gharials are within four tributaries of the Ganges River: The Girwa, Son, and Chambal Rivers in India and the Rapti-Narayani River in Nepal. The most significant breeding population is within the Chambal River, which spans the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.
Hence option b is correct.
http://www.gharialconservationalliance.org/?page_id=227
Q.68) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 -nor 2
Explanation: The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India on 14 Feb 08. CNS, Indian Navy was designated the Chairman IONS for the period 2008-10. The theme of the IONS-2008 was “Contemporary Trans-national Challenges – International Maritime Connectivities”. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Hence Option b is correct.
Q.69) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
a) Ajanta
b) Badami
c) Bagh
d) Ellora
Explanation: The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated painting at Ajanta.
http://ancientart.tumblr.com/post/73370730053/bodhisattva-padmapani-detail-from-a-wall-painting
Q.70) Consider the following pairs :
Traditions – Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj JaatYatra — Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari — Santhais
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Explanation: Chaliha Sahib festival is celebrated by Sindhis. Hence option 1 is correct.
The Nanda Devi Raj Jaat is a pilgrimage and festival of Uttarakhand in India. People from the entire Garhwal and Kumaon division as well as from other parts of India and the world come and participate in this.
Varkari people undertake an annual pilgrimage (vari) to Pandharpur, gathering there on Ekadashi (the 11th day) of the Hindu lunar calendar month of Ashadha, corresponding to a date falling sometime between late June to July in the Gregorian calendar.
http://www.aboututtarakhand.com/Know-Abouts/Nanda-Devi-Raj-Jaat-Yatra.html
https://www.facebook.com/permalink.php?id=263462473856642&story_fbid=407291749473713
Q.71) Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land e
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.72) Consider the following statements : .
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Under Soil Health Card scheme, the government plans to issue soil cards to farmers which will carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilisers required for the individual farms to help farmers to improve productivity through judicious use of inputs.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=133855
Q.73) Consider the following pairs :
Commonly used/ Unwanted or consumed materials controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
1. Lipstick — Lead
2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food — Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Brominated vegetable oil (BVO) is vegetable oil, derived from corn or soy and bonded with the element bromine. It’s added to beverages as an emulsifier, to prevent the flavorings from separating and floating to the surface.
CERS tested 43 varieties of lipsticks covering 19 brands and three varieties of lip gloss from three brands, which had detectable levels of lead content. The lead content in Maybelline 09 Water shine Liquid Diamond lipgloss recorded the highest lead level among lipglosses with 12ppm.
A major comfort food in India is the so-called “Chinese”. The secret ingredient that gives this special taste is Monosodium Glutamate (MSG), also known as Ajinomoto.
http://articles.mercola.com/sites/articles/archive/2015/04/22/soda-flame-retardant-bvo.aspx
http://www.turmeriq.com/2013/03/17/dangers-of-msg-a-common-indian-chinese-food-ingredient/
Q.74) Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent/displays are possible using OLEDs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the above statements is correct
Explanation: OLED displays are not just thin and efficient – they can also be made flexible (even rollable) and transparent. Hence statement 1 and 3 is correct.
OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates, leading to the possible fabrication of flexible organic light-emitting diodes for other new applications, such as roll-up displays embedded in fabrics or clothing. Hence statement 2 is correct.
https://www.oled-info.com/introduction
Q.75) Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The famous Sun God Temple situated in Arasavalli Village which is at a distance of about 1 K.M. east of Srikakulam Town District head quarters of the North Coastal Andhra Pradesh. It is one of the ancient and all among two sun God temples in our Country..
http://www.arasavallisungod.org/
Q.76) Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Share of agriculture in Indian GDP has decreased after liberalization.
Share of India’s exports in world trade has increased after liberalization.
FDI flows have increased.
India’s foreign exchange reserve has also increased.
Hence 2, 3 and 4 are correct answers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1991_Indian_economic_crisis
Q.77) Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Share of agriculture in Indian GDP has decreased after liberalization.
Share of India’s exports in world trade has increased after liberalization.
FDI flows have increased.
India’s foreign exchange reserve has also increased.
Hence 2, 3 and 4 are correct answers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1991_Indian_economic_crisis
Q.78) What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
a) Production of biolarvicides
b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
c) Reproductive cloning of animals
d) Production of organisms free of diseases
Explanation: Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning. Dolly the Sheep became famous for being the first successful case of the reproductive cloning of a mammal
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Somatic_cell_nuclear_transfer#Reproductive_cloning
Q.79) Consider the following statements:
1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NCPI has launched RuPay, a card Payment scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The core objective of National Payment Corporation of India was to consolidate and integrate the multiple systems with varying service levels into nation-wide uniform and standard business process for all retail payment systems. The other objective was to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion. Hence statement 1 is correct.
NPCI has launched the RuPay. Hence statement 2 is correct.
http://www.npci.org.in/aboutus.aspx
Q.80) The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
d) Security of National Highways
Explanation: “M-STrIPES” (Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection & Ecological Status) is an android-based monitoring software M-STrIPES will be used across all the TRs of the country.
http://admin.indiaenvironmentportal.org.in/files/mstripes-ppt.pdf
Q.81) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Most likely advantage of the GST will be replacement of multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
Other benefits are not very likely they may or may not happen.
Hence answer is a.
Q.82) ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
a) European Union
b) Gulf Cooperation Council
c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Explanation: India has been negotiating Broad based Trade and Investment agreement with European Union.
Q.83) Consider the following statements:
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the World Trade Agreement (WTO) and the instrument of Acceptance for Trade Facilitation Agreement was handed over to WTO Director-General by India on April 22, 2016. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Trade facilitation agreement is a part of Bali ministerial; package of 2013.
TFA didn’t come to force in 2016 but in 2017
Q.84) What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Explanation: The port will make way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a sea-land route. At present, Pakistan does not allow India to transport through its territory to Afghanistan.
Q.85) In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data Centres
3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The CERT Rules also impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action. Hence all the options are correct.
https://cis-india.org/internet-governance/blog/incident-response-requirements-in-indian-law
Q.86) Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
c) Constitutional Right
d) Legal Right
Explanation: Right to vote is a constitutional right provided under article 324.
http://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/?p=3370
Q.87) What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (ELISA)’ project?
a) To detect neutrinos
b) To detect gravitational waves
c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
Explanation: evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) project aims to measure gravitational waves in the frequency range from 0.1mHz to about 100 mHz. Hence option b is correct.
Q.88) What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?
1. To enable the famous foreign campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Vidyanjali – (School Volunteer Programme) is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education & Literacy to enhance community and private sector involvement in Government run elementary schools across the country under the overall aegis of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
This programme has been envisaged to bring together people willing to volunteer their services at schools which really need them. The volunteers will act as mentors, confidantes and communicators with.
http://www.pradhanmantriyojana.co.in/vidyanjali-yojana/
Q.89) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ ?
a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and , government’s education system and local communities.
b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological Power.
d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health- care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
Explanation: The Mission of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is to enable higher educational institutions to work with the people of rural India in identifying development challenges and evolving appropriate solutions for accelerating sustainable growth.
http://unnat.iitd.ac.in/index.php/en/framework/introduction
http://unnat.iitd.ac.in/index.php/en/
Q.90) Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a ‘ five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Explanation: Election commission is a 3 member body. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Commission normally announces the schedule of elections in a major Press Conference a few weeks before the formal process is set in motion.
Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.
http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#schedulingelec
http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#splitsandmergers
Q.91) In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and how it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
d) Both b) and c) stated above are correct in this context.
Explanation: As the tiger is included in the schedule I of the Wildlife protection Act, 1972, tortoise under schedule I of wildlife protection act will enjoy the same level of protection as tiger. Please refer to the above list:-
http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf
Hence option (a) is correct.
Q.92) In India, Judicial Review implies
a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
c) the power of the Judiciary to review- all the legislative enactments before they – are assented to by the President.
d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases
Explanation: Judicial review implies the power of judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Hence answer is a.
Q.93) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
a) 1 – 2 – 3
b) 2 – 1 – 3
c) 3 – 2 – 1
d) 3 – 1 – 2
Explanation: Second round table conference was held in December, 1931
On 8th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement for freedom from British rule in Mumbai (then Bombay).
RIN mutiny took place in 1946,
Hence option C is the right choice
Q.94) Consider the following statements:
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given- above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Both the options are incorrect as neither the tax revenue nor the fiscal deficit has been increasing steadily in the past decade.
Hence neither 1 not 2 is correct. Answer is (d)
Q.95) Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
a) Corbett National Park
b) KunoPalpur Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Sariska National Park
Explanation: Recently lions were translocated from their natural habitat in Gir in Gujarat to Kuno-Palpur wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.
http://indianexpress.com/article/news-archive/web/a-lion-in-my-backyard/
Q.96) Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Proclamation of President’s rule in the state amounts to removal of council of ministers in the state.
Nothing as mentioned in the statements 1 and 3 take place when the president rule is proclaimed in a state.
Q.97) Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Following rights against exploitation in the constitution of India were envisaged:-
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Q.98) Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
a) Sumatra
b) Borneo
c) Java
d) Sri Lanka
Explanation: Sumatra is geographically closest to Great Nicobar.
Q.99) Out of the’ ‘following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :
a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Q.100) Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Explanation: Option d is not a feature of the Indian Federalism.
Source:The UPSC Official Answer Key 2017
| year | GS Paper | CSAT Paper |
| 2015 | Paper I | Paper II |
| 2016 | Paper I | Paper II |
| 2017 | Paper I | PaperII |
| 2018 | PaperI | PaperII |
| 2019 | Paper I | Paper II |
| 2020 | Paper I | Paper II |
| 2021 | Paper I | Paper II |
| 2022 | Paper I | Paper II |
| 2023 | Paper I | Paper II |
Discover more from Free UPSC IAS Preparation For Aspirants
Subscribe to get the latest posts sent to your email.
